COM and NAV AIDS questions
1-About definitions.
2- Mobile radio navigation service between:
a- Specific fixed points.
b- Aeronautical stations and aircraft stations.
c- None of the above.
3- Stations on the international telecommunications service shall extend their service hours for:
a- 10 hours a day.
b- From sunrise to sunset.
c- As required.
4- Broadcasting telecommunications service shall:
a- Notify its intention before closing down.
b- Notify its Operational hours.
c- Notify its intention before closing down and its reopening time if other than normal time.
5- Acceptance of a message shall rest with:
a- The station where the message is filed for transmission.
b- Who filed for transmission.
c- The sender station.
6- The ATS message shall be transmitted when it is:
a- Ready.
b- There is a possibility.
c- Deemed accepted.
7-The telecommunication log shall be:
a- Verified in each station.
b- Maintained in each station.
c- Rechecked now and then.
8-Any superfluous mark or notation in the record of communication shall:
a- Be made in the log.
b- Not be made in the log.
c- None of the above.
9-Telecommunication logs shall be retained for a period of:
a- At least 30 days.
b- At least 40 days.
c- At least 50 days.
10-Telecommunication logs regarding investigation shall be retained for a period until:
a- 6 months.
b- One year.
c- They will be no longer required.
11-Universal coordinated time means:
a- UCT.
b- UTC.
c- UKT.
12-A date time shall consist of:
a- Four figures.
b- Six figures.
c- Eight figures.
13-Regarding ATS messages (( 8 messages )).
Distress messages SS
Urgency messages DD
Flight safety messages FF
Meteorological messages GG
Flight regularity messages GG
AIS messages GG
Aeronautical administrative KK
Service messages (as appropriate)
14-Radio electromagnetic energy speed is:
a- Sound speed.
b- Light speed.
c- None of the above.
14-Light speed is:
a- 300 000 000 m/s.
b- 300 000 km/s.
c- All of the above.
15-The number of cycles produced per second is called:
a- Waves.
b- Frequency.
c- Wave length.
16-The complete wave is:
a- Cycle.
b- Wave length.
c- Frequency.
17-Speed of wave per second equal:
a- Frequency * cycle.
b- Frequency per minute
c- Frequency * wavelength.
18 - Cycle per second is a:
a- hertz.
b- KHZ.
c- MHZ.
19- Wave length is:
a- peak to peak.
b- peak to trough.
c-none of the above.
20- What is the meaning of the following?
VLF= – LF= – MF= – HF= –
VHF= – UHF= – SHF= – EHF= .
21- LF - MF and HF band can be:
a- reflected from ionized layers.
b- called sky waves.
c- both of the above.
22- VHF , UHF and SHF:
a- transmission is limited to line of sight.
b- interferes with radio energy.
c- range varies according to level and distance from the station.
d- All of the above.
23- The skip distance is:
a- the distance between point of TX and RX.
b- the distance between point of refraction and RX point.
c- All of the above.
24- Skip distance depends on many factories:
a- frequency and Ionosphere conditions.
b- angle of radiation.
c- all of the above.
25- You may decrease a skip zone by:
a- decreasing the frequency.
b- increasing the frequency.
c-using deferent frequency.
COM and NAV AIDS questions
1-About definitions.
2- Mobile radio navigation service between:
a- Specific fixed points.
b- Aeronautical stations and aircraft stations.
c- None of the above.
3- Stations on the international telecommunications service shall extend their service hours for:
a- 10 hours a day.
b- From sunrise to sunset.
c- As required.
4- Broadcasting telecommunications service shall:
a- Notify its intention before closing down.
b- Notify its Operational hours.
c- Notify its intention before closing down and its reopening time if other than normal time.
5- Acceptance of a message shall rest with:
a- The station where the message is filed for transmission.
b- Who filed for transmission.
c- The sender station.
6- The ATS message shall be transmitted when it is:
a- Ready.
b- There is a possibility.
26- A transmitter is an electronic device to:
a- produce radio waves.
b- receive radio waves.
c- none of the above.
27- A receiver is a device to:
a- produce signals.
b- receive signals.
c- all of the above.
28- The ATS messages format consist of:
a- heading and address.
b- origin and ending.
c- all of the above.
29- ATM responded to the pressure of globalization and competition by:
a- increasing the importance of aeronautical information.
b- increasing the use of technology.
c- none of the above.
30- AIS supports flight operators by:
a- AIP and NOTAM.
b- PIB .
c- all of the above.
31- The future of AIS needs to consider:
a- timeliness , accuracy and quality.
b- computerized dispatch system and auto ATM.
c- information and customization.
d- all of the above.
32- The role of AIM is:
a- providing accredited , timely information.
b- providing quality and assured information.
c- All of the above.
33- ATS messages via AFTN shall contain:
a- priority indicator.
b- address.
c- both of the above.
d- none of the above.
34- What do these designators relevant to:
a- ZQZ. IFR Flight
b- ZFZ. VFR Flight
c- ZTZ. A/D Control Tower
d- ZPZ. Reporting Office
35- SITA means:
a- social information technology administration.
b- air transport communications and information technology.
c- none of the above.
36- Many air service providers started joining SITA as members in:
a- 1998.
b- 1989.
c- 1889.
37- SITA provides communication service in more than:
a- 200 countries and 32000 customers.
b- 200 countries and 3200 customers.
c- 2000 countries and 32000 customers.
38- SITA,s aircraft communication service carryout:
a- 100 million messages/day and 4,6 million FPL /year.
b- 10 million messages/day and 4,8 million FPL /year.
c- 200 million messages/day and 4,6 million FPL /year.
39-Types of radios are:
a- simplex operations.
b- multiplex operations.
c- all of the above.
40- In the multiplex system the TX and RX frequencies are:
a- the same.
b- deferent.
c- separate.
41: The radio microphone performs:
a- two important functions.
b- three important functions.
c- four important functions.
42- When the microphone is depressed:
a- the voice decoded as electrical waves.
b- the voice encoded as electrical waves.
c- all of the above.
43- Aviation radio communications include VHF rang between:
a- 118,00 KHZ and 135,975 MHZ.
b- 118,00 MHZ and 135,975 MHZ.
c- 118,00 KHZ and 135,975 KHZ.
44- Aviation radio communications could be:
a- 360 radio channels.
b- 720 radio channels.
c- both are correct.
45- Radio telephony requires:
a- standard procedures and phraseology.
b- English language texts.
c- both of the above.
46- Some of transmission techniques are:
a- familiarity with operation technique.
b- listen out before transmission.
c- speak clearly and distinctive.
d- avoid using hesitation sounds.
e- all of the above.
47- Rate of speaking when transmitting is:
a- 100 words /min.
b- sometimes even less.
c- both are correct.
48- A period of time should elapse to make the second call:
a- 5 seconds.
b- 7 seconds.
c- 10 seconds.
49- ICAO adapted alphabet and numbers to:
a- expedite communication.
b- avoid any miss understand.
c- all of the above.
50- When transmission of time:
a- normally only minutes transmitted.
b- hours should be included to avoid confusion.
c- both are correct.
51- radio test procedure includes:
a- identification of the station being calling.
b- aircraft call sign and the word ( radio check ).
c- all of the above.
52- Readability check scale is:
a- unreadable and readable now and then.
b- readable with difficulty and readable.
c- perfectly readable.
d- all of the above.
53- When using light signals in RCF situations:
a- steady green in flight means cleared to land.
b- ,, ,, on ground means cleared for take-off.
c- flashing red in flight means airport un safe do not land.
d- flashing white on ground means return to start point.
e- steady red on ground means stop.
f- all of the above.
Q54- Concerning radio phraseology page 32.
Q55- Call sign of flight consists of:
a- 5 up to 7 figures.
b- 4 up to 6 figures. c- 4 up to 7 figures.
Q56- Flight call sign is made up of:
a- Company name and flight number.
b- Aircraft registration mark.
c- All of the above.
Q57- Concerning abbreviations page 34.
Q58- In case of emergency the aircraft :
a- may land without authorization.
b- requires authorization to land.
c- None of the above.
Q59- An aircraft in an emergency has priority than:
a- hospital aircraft .
b- passenger aircraft carrying sick person.
c- All of the above.
Q60- An aircraft that encountered an emergency shall be handled according to:
a- ICAO emergency procedures.
b- local emergency procedures.
c- None of the above.
Q61- Distress phase means:
a- an aircraft is in an emergency.
b- an aircraft is in an emergency and requires immediate assist.
c- All of the above.
Q62- Urgency phase means:
a- an aircraft is in an emergency.
b- an aircraft is in an emergency and does not require immediate assist.
c- All of the above.
Q63- In a distress message the pilot says:
a- MAY DAY preferably three times.
b- PAN PAN preferably three times.
c- one of the above.
Q64- In an urgency message the pilot says:
a- MAY DAY preferably three times.
b- PAN PAN preferably three times.
c- one of the above.
Q65- Pilots making distress or urgency calls should attempt to:
a- speak quickly before it becomes RCF.
b- speak slowly and clearly to avoid any repetition.
c- All of the above.
Q66- Distress and urgency calls :
a- should be made on the frequency in use.
b- should be made on the frequency in use unless better assistance on other FREQ.
c- All of the above.
Q67- The international emergency frequency is:
a- 125,1 MHZ.
b- 121,5 MHZ.
c- 121,5 KHZ.
Q68- Distress message contains:
a- aircraft identification and nature of the distress.
b- position and level of the aircraft.
c- All of the above.
Q69- In a distress case the tower response MAY DAY should be:
a- 2 times.
b- 3 times.
c- None of the above.
Q70-In case of distress the air controller:
a- may impose silence.
b- shall impose silence.
c- can not impose silence.
Q71- Transmission of a message cancelling the distress condition:
a- shall be.
b- should be.
c- may be.
Q72- RCF means:
a- rescue control frequency.
b- radio communication failure.
c- rectification control facility.
Q73- The message preceded by transmitting ( transmitting blind ) shall be made:
a- once.
b- twice.
c- three times.
Q74- If aeronautical station is unable to contact aircraft it shall:
a- request other aeronautical station to contact the aircraft.
b- request other aircraft on the route to contact the aircraft.
c- transmit message on the frequency that the aircraft believed on.
Q75- Emergency radar codes are:
a- unlawful interference code is A7500.
b- RCF code is A7600.
c- emergency code is A7700.
d- All of the above.
Q76- ELT means:
a- elapsed time.
b- estimated landing time.
c- emergency locator transmitter.
Q77- The ELT audio tone operates on:
a- 121,5 MHZ (UHF) and 406 KHZ (UHF).
b- 121,5 MHZ (VHF) and 406 KHZ (UHF).
c- 121,5 MHZ (VHF) and 406 MHZ (UHF).
Q78- ELT operates continuously for at least:
a- 24 hours.
b- 48 hours.
c- 72 hours.
Q79- ELT must be maintained according to:
a- ICAO instructions.
b- manufacture instructions.
c- CAA instructions.
Q80- ELT test can be done in the aircraft only:
a- the first 7 minutes after the hour.
b- the first 5 minutes after the hour.
c- the first 3 minutes after the hour.
Q81- ELT testing is not allowed:
a- in flight.
b- on ground.
c- during airborne.
Q83- VOR means:
a- VOLMET and radio communication.
b- very high frequency Omni-directional range.
c- None of the above.
Q84- VOR may be installed in combination with:
a- TACAN.
b- DME.
c-All of the above.
d- None of the above.
Q85- VOR radials give:
a- aircraft position relative to VOR.
b- the heading relative to the aircraft.
c- None of the above.
Q86- Zero radial in the VOR points to:
a- aircraft path measured to the nearest VOR.
b- magnetic north.
c- All of the above.
Q87- VOR,s classified according to:
a- terrain of the VOR ground installation.
b- usable cylindrical.
c- intended operational use.
Q88- The classes of the VOR are:
a- main VOR , low VOR , high VOR.
b- terminal VOR , low VOR , high VOR.
c- VOR & DME , VORTAC , D.VOR.
Q89- Terminal VOR normally used for:
a- APP navigational aids at aerodromes.
b- en-route structure.
c- All of the above.
Q90- T.VOR operation is limited to:
a- 25 NM and below 10000ft MSL.
b- 30 NM and below 12000ft MSL.
c- 25 NM and below 12000ft MSL.
Q91- L VOR may be used at:
a- 30 NM and 16000ft.
b- 40 NM and 18000ft.
c- 40 NM and 20000
Q92- H VOR is protected to:
a- 40 NM below 18000ft.
b- 130 NM above 18000ft.
c- All of the above.
Q93- VOR,S frequencies are:
a- 108 - 118 MHZ and 60 KHZ spacing.
b-108 - 118 MHZ and 50 KHZ spacing.
c-110 - 118 MHZ and 60 KHZ spacing.
Q94- OBS means:
a- Omni bearing space.
b- Omni bearing selector.
c- None of the above.
Q95- The To / from indicator shows that the course is:
a- To or from the airport.
b- To or from the runway.
c- To or from the station.
Q96- The off or red NAV flag shows that:
a- the aircraft is out of the station range.
b-the aircraft is directly over or abeam the station.
c- All of the above.
d- None of the above.
Q97- CDI means:
a- climb and descent indicator.
b- course direction indicator.
c- None of the above.
Q98- When the CDI is fully deflected to one side of VOR indicator so:
a- the aircraft is on the selected course.
b-the aircraft is 10 degrees or more away from the selected course.
c- the aircraft is on the reciprocal course.
Q99- DME operates on the:
a- VHF band.
b- UHF band.
c- SHF band.
Q100- DME operates on frequencies between:
a- 960 MHZ and 1213 MHZ.
b- 962 KHZ and 1213 KHZ.
c-962 MHZ and 1213 MHZ.
Q102-NMI means and equal:
a- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately 7000ft.
b- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately 6000ft.
c- nautical miles indicator and equal approximately
Q103- DME should stop decreasing at about 2 NM when directly over a station located at:
a- International aerodrome.
b- sea level.
c- the desert.
Q104- ADF means:
a- advanced direction finder.
b- automatic direction finder.
c- apron direction finder.
Q105- ADF receives signals between:
a- 190 KHZ to 1790 KHZ.
b- on LF and MF frequencies.
c- All of the above.
Q106- ILS enables pilots to conduct instrument approach to landing if:
a- the weather is VMC.
b- they are unable to see the runway.
c- the runway length is less than 3000m.
Q107- Instrument approach procedure includes:
a- radio frequencies used by the ILS.
b- the minimum visibility required.
c- All of the above.
Q108- The ILS consists of:
a- localizer and glide slope.
b- VOR and DME.
c- ADF and NDB.
Q109- The ILS glide slope ensures the aircraft to:
a- be on the glide path of 3 degrees above the horizontal.
b- be above obstructions.
c- reach the runway at the proper touchdown point.
d- All of the above.
e- None of the above.
Q110- Pilots using ILS back course shall:
a- follow glide slope indicator.
b- disregard glide slope indicator.
c- follow both glide slope and localizer indicators.
Q111- Hearing the tone of the marker beacon means that the aircraft is:
a- at a distance from the runway.
b- on a height on the glide path.
c- on a distance and height where it should be.
Q112- The decision altitude/height position where is the pilot must:
a- have visual reference to the runway.
b- decide to continue for landing or to go around.
c- execute a missed approach procedure.
e- All of the above.
Q113- ILS categories are:
a- one category.
b- two categories.
c- three categories.
Q114- VOLMET means:
a- French word means volume and METAR.
b- French word means flight and weather report.
c- None of the above.
Q115- VOLMET is:
a- worldwide network of radio stations.
b- station for North Atlantic traffic.
c-None of the above.
Q116- The VOLMET stations help pilots to:
a- avoid storms and turbulence on their routes.
b- determine which procedure to use for approach and landing.
c- All of the above.
Q117- VOLMET network operationally:
a- made the world one region.
b- divided the world into specific regions.
c- divided the world according to the countries number.
Q118- The VOLMET transmission schedules determined in intervals of:
a- 3 minutes.
b- 5 minutes.
c- 2 minutes.
Q119- ATIS means:
a- Automatic tactical information service.
b- Automatic telecommunication service.
c- Automatic terminal information service.
Q120- ATIS could be provide via:
a- DATA link.
b- voice broadcast.
c- Both of the above.
Q121- ATIS :
a- may be provided on the VOR frequency.
b- may be made for ARR and DEP traffic.
c- should be at control tower or at APP control unit.
d- All of the above.
