Class - XI

Chemistry Question Bank2023-24

 INDEX

S. No. Topic

1 Some Basic concept of chemistry

2 Structure of Atom

3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

5 Thermodynamics

6 Equilibrium

7 Redox Reaction

8 Organic Chemistry–Some Basic Principles and Techniques

9 Hydrocarbons
 SYLLABUS

Unit I Ch-1 Some Basic concept of

chemistry
Half Yearly Ch-1 Some Basic concept of
Examination chemistry Ch-2 Atomic Structure
Ch-3 Classification Of Elements And Periodicity In Properties
Ch-4 Chemical Bonding

Unit II Ch- 5
Thermodynamic
Ch-7. Redox
reaction

Annual Complete Syllabus

Examination
ASSIGNMENT NO. 1

UNIT - I

SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF

CHEMISTRYONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Calculate the no. of iron atoms in a piece of iron weighing 2.8 gm (At. mass –Fe=56)
2. How many molecules of H2O are there in 10 gm of H2O.
3. How many moles of CaCO3 are present in 10 gm of substance (Ca=40, C=12, O=16)
4. What will be the mass of one 12c atom in gm?
5. How many atoms and molecule of sulphur are present in 64 gm of sulphur (S8)
6. Calculate the no. of atoms of each element present in 4.9 gm of H2SO4.
7. Gold is heavier than aluminium. If we put a 100 g biscuit of gold in water taken in a
measuring cylinder or we put a 100 g aluminium bar in the measuring cylinder, will the
rise in the level of water be same or different in the two cases? Give reason.
8. Calculate the total no. of electrons present in one mole of methane.
9. Calculate the no. of moles in
(i) 392 gm of H2SO4 (ii) 44.8 litres of CO2 at S.T.P.
23
(iii) 6.002× 10 molecule of oxygen (iv) 9.0 gm of aluminium
(v) 7.9 mg (vi) 65 µgm of carbon
10. Calculate the total no. of electron present in 1.4 gm of nitrogen gas.
11. KClO3 on heating decomposes to give KCl and O2. What is the volume of O2 at N.T.P
liberated by one mole of KClO3?
12. How many moles of methane are required to produce 22 gm CO2 (g) after
combustion?
13. What is the concentration of sugar (C12H22O11) in mol L–1 if its 20 g is dissolved in
enough water to make a final volume up to 2L?
14. How are 0.50 mol Na2CO3 and 0.50 M Na2CO3 different?
15. What is AZT? To which uses is it being put?
16. Calculate the molarity of the water if its density is 1000 kg/m3.
17. 1 L of a gas at S.T.P weighs 1.97 g. what is the vapour density of the gas?
18. Two bulbs B1 and B2 of equal capacity contain 10 g oxygen (O2) and ozone (O3)
respectively. Which bulb will have a greater number of O-atom and which will have a
greater number of molecules?
19. Iron and oxygen combine to form three oxides, FeO, Fe2O3 and Fe3O4. Which law does
it prove?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 2.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

20. Calculate the mass of (i) an atom of silver (ii) a molecule of carbon- dioxide (Ag=108)
21. How many molecules are present in 7 gm of H2SO4? Find out the mass of same no. of
a molecule of nitrogen.
22. What mass of SO2 contains the same no. of the molecule as are in 2 gm of NH3?
23. Define (i) Molarity (ii) molality (iii) mole fraction (iv) Empirical formula (v)
Molecular formula (vi) Limiting reagent (vii) mass percent
24. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene (C6H6) in a solution which is 30% by mass in
CCl4.
25. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the
reaction,CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
What mass of CaCO3 is required to react completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl?
26. If the density of methanol is 0.793 kg L–1, what is its volume needed for making 2.5 L
of its 0.25M solution?
27. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in moles per litre in a sample which has a
density, 1.41 g mL–1 and the mass percent of nitric acid in it being 69%.
28. (i) Calculate the molarity of NaOH in the solution prepared by dissolving its 4 g in
enough water to form 250 mL of the solution.
(ii) A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a substance to 18 g of water. Calculate
the
Mass percent of the solute.
29. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g mL–1. Calculate the molality of the
solution.
30. (i) Calculate the amount of water (g) produced by the combustion of 16 gm of
methane.
(ii) How many moles of methane are required to produce 22 g CO2 (g) after
combustion?
31. A compound contains 4.07 % hydrogen, 24.27 % carbon and 71.65 % chlorine. Its
molar mass is 98.96 g. What is its empirical and molecular formula?
32. A hydrocarbon containing 85.7% carbon, if 42mg of the compound contains 3.01 X
1020 molecules. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
33. (i) What would be the volume occupied by 32 gm of methane gas at S.T.P?
(ii) Calculate the weight of HCl gas, which has a volume of 11.2 litres at S.T.P.
34. Calculate the no. of aluminium ions in 0.056 gm of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) .

35. Calculate the total no. and the total mass of protons in 34 mg of NH3 at S.T.P. (mass
of
 proton = 1.6727× 10-27kg)
36. Calculate the total no. and mass of neutrons in 7 mg of 14C (mass of Neutron = 1.675×
10-27 kg)
37. Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating MnO2 with aq. HCl according to the
reaction.
4 HCl + MnO2 MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
How many gm of HCL react with 5 g manganese dioxide (MnO2). (Mn=55,
O=16, Cl=35.5)
38. Calculate the weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide (Fe3O4) by the
action of 18 gm of steam on it.
39. What mass of copper oxide (CuO) will be obtained by heating 12.35 gm of CuCO3
(Cu =63.5)?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 3.

THREE MARK QUESTION

40. Calculate the no. of atoms in each of the following: (i) 52gm of He
(ii) 52 moles of He iii) 52 amu of He.
41. A welding fuel gas contains carbon and hydrogen only. Burning a small sample of it
in oxygen gives 3.38 g carbon dioxide, 0.690 g of water and no other products. A
volume of 10.0 L(measured at STP) of this welding gas is found to weigh 11.6 g.
Calculate
(i) empirical formula, (ii) molar mass of the gas, and (iii) molecular formula.
42. Calculate molality, molarity and mole fraction of KI if the density of 20%
(mass/mass)
aqueous solution KI is 1.202gm/ml (At Mass of K=39, I=127)
43. 3.0gmof H2 react with 29gm O2 to give H2O (i) What is the limiting reagent (ii)
Calculate the amount of one of the reactant which remains unreacted (iii) Calculate
the maximum amount of water that can be formed.
44. H2SO4Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density
of 1.84g/cm3. What volume of the concentrated acid is required to make 5.0 litre of
0.500 M H2SO4 solution?
45. Commercially available concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 38% HCl by mass.
(a) What is the molarity of this solution? The density is 1.19g/cm-3.
(b) What volume of concentrated hydrochloric acid is required to make 1.00L of
0.10 M HCl?
46. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to
the following chemical equation: N2 (g) + H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
(i) Calculate the mass of ammonia produced if 2.00 × 103 g dinitrogen reacts with
1.00 ×103 g of dihydrogen.
(ii) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?
47. A bottle of sulphuric acid (d=1.787g/mL) is labelled 86% by mass. What is the
molarity of the solution? What volume of acid is required to make1L of 0.2 M
48. 0.6 gm of compound occupies 224ml at NTP. it contains 6.67% H, 40%C and the rest
of oxygen. Calculate (i) molecular mass of the compound. (ii) Empirical formula
(iii) Molecular formula.
49. Calculate the molarity of a solution of ethanol in water in which the mole fraction of
ethanol is 0.040 (assume the density of water to be one).
50. 50.0 kg of N2 (g) and 10.0 kg of H2 (g) are mixed to produce NH3 (g). Calculate the
amount of NH3 (g) formed. Identify the limiting reagent in the production of NH3 in
this situation.
51. Calculate the no. of molecule present :
(i) in 34.20 gm of cane sugar (C12H22O11)
(ii) in one litre of Water assuming that the density of water is 1gm/cm3.
(iii) in one drop of water having mass 0.05 gm.
52. Calculate the mass of - (i) 0.1 mole KNO3 (ii) 1× 1023 molecule of methane
(iii) 112 ml of hydrogen at S.T.P. (K=39, N=14, O=16)
53. Calculate the volume at S.T.P. occupied by (i) 14 gm of nitrogen (ii) 1.5 moles of
carbon dioxide (iii) 1021 molecule of oxygen.
54. Calculate the no. of moles in the following masses
(a) 7.85 gm of Fe (b) 4.68 mg of Si
(c) 7.9 gm of Ca (d) 1.46 metric tonnes of Al
3 6
(1 metric tonne =10 kg =10 gm, Ca=40, Fe=56, Al=27,
Si=14).
(iii) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?
47. A bottle of sulphuric acid (d=1.787g/mL) is labelled 86% by mass. What is the
molarity of the solution? What volume of acid is required to make1L of 0.2 M
48. 0.6 gm of compound occupies 224ml at NTP. it contains 6.67% H, 40%C and the rest
of oxygen. Calculate (i) molecular mass of the compound. (ii) Empirical formula
(iii) Molecular formula.
49. Calculate the molarity of a solution of ethanol in water in which the mole fraction of
ethanol is 0.040 (assume the density of water to be one).
50. 50.0 kg of N2 (g) and 10.0 kg of H2 (g) are mixed to produce NH3 (g). Calculate the
amount of NH3 (g) formed. Identify the limiting reagent in the production of NH3 in
this situation.
51. Calculate the no. of molecule present :
(iv) in 34.20 gm of cane sugar (C12H22O11)
(v) in one litre of Water assuming that the density of water is 1gm/cm3.
(vi) in one drop of water having mass 0.05 gm.
52. Calculate the mass of - (i) 0.1 mole KNO3 (ii) 1× 1023 molecule of methane
(iii) 112 ml of hydrogen at S.T.P. (K=39, N=14, O=16)
53. Calculate the volume at S.T.P. occupied by (i) 14 gm of nitrogen (ii) 1.5 moles of
carbon dioxide (iii) 1021 molecule of oxygen.
54. Calculate the no. of moles in the following masses
(a) 7.85 gm of Fe (b) 4.68 mg of Si
(c) 7.9 gm of Ca (d) 1.46 metric tonnes of Al
3 6
(1 metric tonne =10 kg =10 gm, Ca=40, Fe=56, Al=27,
Si=14).
55. (i) Calculate the no. of the electrons which will together weigh one gram.
(ii) Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.
55. (iii) Calculate the no. of the electrons which will together weigh one gram.
(iv)Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.
56. A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 200° F. What will this reading be on Celsius
scale? (i) 40° C (ii) 94° C (iii) 93.3° C (iv) 30° C

57. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL? (i)
4mol L–1 (ii) 20 mol L–1 (iii) 0.2 mol L–1 (iv) 2 mol L–1

58. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of the
solution obtained? (i) 1.5 M (ii) 1.66 M (iii) 0.017 M (iv) 1.59 M
23
59. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 10 atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of
H2SO4 present in the 100 mL of 0.02M H2SO4 solution is .
20 23
(i) 12.044 × 10 molecules (ii) 6.022 × 10 molecules
(iii) 1 × 1023 molecules (iv) 12.044 × 1023 molecules
60. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively.
What will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(i) C9H18O9 (ii) CH2O (iii) C6H12O6 (iv) C2H4O2
61. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g ml–1, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant figures is .
(i) 4.7g (ii) 4680 × 10–3g (iii) 4.680g (iv) 46.80g

Assertion and Reason Type

Note: In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each question.
62. Assertion (A): The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various
atoms present in a compound.
(i)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
63. Assertion (A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one twelfth of the mass of one carbon-
12 atom. Reason (R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon and has
been chosen as standard.
(i)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are fals
ASSIGNMENT NO. 4

UNIT – 2
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
ONE MARK
QUESTIONS

1. How many electrons in an atom has the following quantum no. if n=4 & ms =-1/2?
2. How many unpaired electrons are present in Fe+3 (Fe=26)?
3. Write the electronic configuration of Cu +2 (At. No.-29). Find out the unpaired
electrons.
4. Mention the experiments which support particle nature and wave nature of electrons?
5. State the physical significance ψ2.
6. Write the electronic configuration of Ag +2 and also find out an unpaired electron.
(At. No. - 47).
7. Using s, p, d, f notations, describe the orbital with the following quantum numbers
(a) n = 2, l = 1, (b) n = 4, l = 0, (c) n = 5,l = 3, (d) n = 3, l = 2
8. Do you agree with the following statement “Dual nature of electron leads to the
quantization of angular momentum of the electron in atomic orbital?”
9. The electronic configuration of valence shell of Cu is 3 d104s1 and not 3d94s2. How is
this configuration explained?
10. Nickel atom can lose two electrons to form Ni2+ ion. The atomic number of nickel is 28.
From which orbital will nickel lose two electrons?
11. Explain – (i) Photoelectric Effect (ii) Heisenberg uncertainty Principle (iii) Aufbau
principle (iv) Pauli Exclusion Principle (v) Hunds principle
12. What is the total number of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number
n = 3?
13. The wavelength of a certain line in Balmer series is observed to be 4341 A0 to what
value of ‘n’ does this correspond.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 5

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

16. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron in an atom

within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its
velocity?
17. Calculate the wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer Series
of Atomic Hydrogen. (RH = 109678 cm-1)
18. Calculate the energy of one mole of photons of radiation whose frequency is 5 ×1014
Hz.
19. Calculate the wavenumber for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer series
of Atomic Hydrogen.
20. Calculate the wavelength of the first and limiting line in Balmer series (RH = 109678
cm-1)
21. i) How many unpaired electrons are present in Fe+2 (Fe=26)
ii) Out of 3d and 4s orbital which is filled first & why?
22. The kinetic energy of a subatomic particle is 5.65 x 10-25 J. Calculate the frequency of
the particle wave.
23. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength242nm is just sufficient to ionize the sodium
atom. Calculate the ionization enthalpy of sodium in KJmol-1?
24. Calculate the first excitation energy of an electron in the hydrogen atom.
25. Define an atomic orbital. What does angular momentum Quantum number tell
orbital?
26. Calculate the energy of one mole of photons of radiation whose frequency is 5 x1014
Hz.
27. A 100-watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the
number of photons emitted per second by the bulb.
28. The threshold frequency ν0 for a metal is 7.0 ×1014 s–1. Calculate the kinetic energy of
an electron emitted when radiation of frequency ν =1.0 ×1015 s–1 hits the metal
29. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron in an atom within
a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its
velocity?
30. (i) What is the lowest value of n that allows g orbitals to exist?
(ii) An electron is in one of the 3d orbitals. Give the possible values of n, l and ml for
this electron.
31. Calculate the energy required for the process
He+(g) He2+(g) +
e–
The ionization energy for the H atom in the ground state is 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1
14. Calculate the energy associated with the first orbit of He+.What is the radius of
this orbit?

15. Answer the following–

(i) What is the total no. of orbitals associated with the Principal Quantum no. 3?
(ii) What is the difference between a quantum and a Photon?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 6.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

33. (i) Find (a) the total number and (b) the total mass of protons in 34 mg of NH3 at
STP. Will the answer change if the temperature and pressure are changed?
(ii) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with a speed equal to
1% less of the speed of light.
34. The work function of calcium atom is 1.9 eV. Calculate (a) the threshold wavelength and
(b) the threshold frequency of the radiation If the calcium element is irradiated With a
wavelength 500 mm, calculate the kinetic energy and the velocity of the ejected
Photoelectron.
35. (i) Neon gas is generally used on the signboards. If it emits strongly at 616nm,
Calculate (a) the frequency of emission. (b) distance travelled by this radiation in 30Sec.
(c) the energy of quantum.
(ii) What Quantum number does not follow from the solution of Schrodinger wave
Equation?
36. What transition in the Hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as the
Balmer transition, n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum?

37. i) What is the significance of (i) 2?

ii) Name the experiment used to verify the wave nature of the electron.
iii) What is the limitation of de-Broglie concept?
38. i) Distinguish between photon and quantum.
ii) Name the properties that indicate the particle nature of the electron.
iii) Is the Heisenberg uncertainty principal applicable to the stationary electron? Give
reasons.
iv) What Quantum number does not follow from the solution of Schrodinger wave
equation?
39. i) Of the d-orbital which one does not have four lobes?
ii) Out of the five d-orbitals, which one has a doughnut-shaped electron Cloud in the
centre?
iii) Give the physical significance and utility of all the Quantum numbers.
40. i) What shell would be the first to have a g-subshell? How many orbitals will be possible
in a g-subshell?
ii) Draw the electronic configuration of Cu+2, Cr +3.
iii) Write a neutral molecule, which is isoelectronic with ClO-.
41. When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of sodium,
electrons are emitted with a kinetic energy of 1.68 ×105 J mol–1. What is the minimum
energy needed to remove an electron from sodium? What is the maximum wavelength
that will cause a photoelectron to be emitted?
42. What is the energy in joules, required to shift the electron of the hydrogen atom from the
first Bohr orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit and what is the wavelength of the light emitted
when the electron returns to the ground state? The ground state electron
energy is – 2.18 ×10-11 ergs.
43. The electron energy in a hydrogen atom is given by En = (–2.18×10–18)/n2 J. Calculate the
energy required to remove an electron completely from the n = 2 orbit. What is the longest
wavelength of light in cm that can be used to cause this transition?
44. (i) The mass of an electron is 9.1×10–31 kg. If its K.E. is 3.0 ×10–25 J, calculate
its wavelength.
(ii) Which of the following are isoelectronic species i.e., those having the same number
of electrons? Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+, S2–, Ar.
45. When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of sodium,
electrons are emitted with a kinetic energy of 1.68 ×105 J mol–1. What is the minimum
energy needed to remove an electron from sodium? What is the maximum wavelength
that will cause a photoelectron to be emitted?
46. The electron energy in a hydrogen atom is given by En = (–2.18 ×10–18)/n2 J. Calculate
the energy required to remove an electron completely from the n = 2 orbit. What is the
longest wavelength of light in cm that can be used to cause this transition?
47. What is the energy in joules, required to shift the electron of the hydrogen atom from
the first Bohr orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit and what is the wavelength of the light
emitted when the electron returns to the ground state? The ground state electron
energy is –2.18×10–11 ergs.
48. In astronomical observations, signals observed from the distant stars are 2.16 (i) The
energy associated with the first orbit in the hydrogen atom is –2.18 ×10–18 J atom–1.
What is the energy associated with the fifth orbit?
(ii) Calculate the radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit for the hydrogen atom.
49. The Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to the transition from n1 = 2 to
n2 = 3, 4, .......... This series lies in the visible region. Calculate the wave number of the
line associated with the transition in Balmer series when the electron moves to n = 4
orbit. (RH = 109677 cm-1)
50. (i) Of the d-orbital which one does not have four lobes or out of the five d-orbitals, which
one has doughnut-shaped electron Cloud in the centre.
(ii) How many orientations are possible for f-orbital?
iii) How many electrons are there in valance in valance quantum of a Copper atom?
51. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α-particle
scattering experiment?
(i) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(ii) The radius of the atom is about 10–10m while that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
(iii) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
(iv) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.
52. Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode rays?
 (i) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
(ii) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic field.
(iii) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray tube.
(iv) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode
ray tube.
53. Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?
(i) It is a negatively charged particle.
(ii) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
(iii) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
(iv) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
54. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.
(i) they have same atomic number but different mass number.
(ii) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
(iii) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
(iv) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.

55. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons? (i) Pauli’s exclusion principle. (ii) Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle.
(iii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (iv) Aufbau principle.

56. Designation for an orbital with n = 4 and l = 3 is

(a) 4s (b) 4p (c) 4d (d) 4f
57. Maximum number of unpaired electrons in chromium is (Given: Atomic number of Cr =
24) (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
58. Which of the following is not possible ? (a) 2p (b) 3d (c) 3f (d) 4p
ASSIGNMENT NO. 7.

UNIT – 3
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Write the general electronic configuration of transition metal & inner transition metal?
2. Define Diagonal relationship?
3. What is the basic difference in approach between Mendeleev’s periodic law and the
Modern periodic law?
4. Explain why cations are smaller and anions are larger in radii than their parent’s atom?
5. Would you expect the second electron gain enthalpy of O is positive, more negative or less
negative than first? Justify your answer?
6. Explain the electron gain enthalpy of noble gases is positive?
7. Lanthanoids and Actinoids are placed in separate rows at the bottom of the periodic table.
Explain the reason for this arrangement.
8. The elements Z= 117 and 120 have not yet been discovered. In which family group would
you place these elements and also give the electronic configuration in each case?
9. Give IUPAC name and symbol of the element with atomic no. 123, 134, 150, 117 & 120.
10. The first ionization enthalpy of Al is less than Ga of group 13. Explain.
11. Explain with reasons:
(i) Mg+2 ion is smaller than the O-2 ion, though both are isoelectronic.
(ii) Alkali metal does not form dipositive ions.
(iii) The size of Cl- ion is larger than cl atom while the size of Na+ is smaller than Na.
(iv) The second electron gain enthalpy of halogens are zero.
(v) Out of Na+ and Ne which has higher ionization enthalpy.
13. The radius of the Na+ cation is less than that of Na atom. Give reason.
14. Give our examples of species which are isoelectronic with Ca2+.
15. Justify the given statement with suitable examples— “the Properties of the elements are a
period function of their atomic numbers”.
16. How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a
period?
17. Elements have been classified as s, p, d and f block elements on the basis of the type of
orbital which receives the last electron. Are there any exceptions to this generalization?
18. Normally no two elements have the same value of electron gain enthalpy. But there are two
inert gases which have the same value of electron gain enthalpy. Name them.
19. Arrange the following ions in order of decreasing ionic radii: Li2+, He+, Be3+.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 8

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

20. Write the electronic configuration of Cr+3 and Cu. Explain the position in the periodic table.
(At. No. of Cr=24, Cu=29)
21. How would you explain the fact that the first ionization enthalpy of sodium is lower than
that of magnesium but its second ionization enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium?
22. Which of the following pairs of elements would have a more negative electron gain
enthalpy (i) O & F (ii) F or Cl
23. Which of the following pairs of elements would have a more ionization enthalpy
(i) Be or B (ii) O or N
24. (i) Write the isotope of Rb+.
(ii) In terms of period and group, where would you locate element with Z=114
25. Which element has the highest ionisation enthalpy and why?
26. What do you understand by the exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction? Give one
example of each type.
27. Explain the following:
(i) Electronegativity of elements increases on moving from left to right in the periodic
table.
(ii) Ionisation enthalpy decrease in a group from top to bottom?
28. How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a
period?
29. Write down the outermost electronic configuration of alkali metals. How will you justify
their placement in group 1 of the periodic table?

30. Write the drawbacks in Mendeleev’s periodic table that led to its modification.

31. In what manner is the long form of periodic table better than Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Table. Explain with examples.
32. Discuss and compare the trend in ionisation enthalpy of the elements of group1 with those
of group 17 elements.
33. Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative and why?
34. Which of the elements Na, Mg, Si and P would have the greatest difference between the
first and the second ionization enthalpies? Briefly explain your answer.
35. Explain why chlorine can be converted into chloride ion more easily as compared to
fluoride ion from fluorine?
36. Which has a larger radius?
i) Mg or Ca ii) S or Cl.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS

37. The first (ΔiH1) and the (ΔiH2) ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) and the (ΔegH)
electron gain enthalpy (in kJ mol-1) of a few elements are given below:
Element (ΔiH1) (ΔiH2)
(ΔegH)
I 520 7300 -60
II 419 3051 -48
III 1681 3374 -328
IV 1008 1846 -295
V 2372 5251 +48
VI 738 1451 -40
Which of the above elements is likely to be:
(a) The least reactive metal.
(b) The most reactive metal.
(c) The most reactive non-metal.
(d) The least reactive non- metal.
(e) The metal which can form stable binary halide of the formula MX2(X =
halogen). (f)The metal which can form predominately stable covalent halide of the
formula MX.
38. Define ionisation enthalpy. Discuss the factors affecting ionisation enthalpy of the
elements and its trends in the periodic table.
39. Among the elements B, Al, C and Si,
(i) Which element has the highest first ionisation enthalpy?
(ii) Which element has the most metallic character?
Justify your answer in each case.
40. The ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen molecules because of
(a) greater attraction of electrons by the nucleus
(b) extra stability of the half filled p-orbitals
(c) smaller size of nitrogen
(d) more penetrating effect

41. According to modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are the
periodic functions of their ?
(a) Density (b) Atomic Number (c) Mass Number (d) Atomic Mass
43. Highest electropositive element in the periodic table is
(a) Cs (b) Rb (c) K (d) Na
44. The correct order of the size of C, N, P, S follows the order
(a) N < C < P < S (b) C < N < S < P
(c) C < N < P < S (d) N < C < S < P
45. Downward in a group, electropositive character of elements
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these
46. Element which has more negative electron gain enthalpy is
(a) F (b) O (c) Cl (d) S
ASSIGNMENT NO. 9.

UNIT – 4
CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
-2 -
1. Explain the structure of CO3 andNO3 ion in terms of resonance.
2. Explain the Resonating structure of CO2 and SO3 molecule.
3. What is the total number of sigma and pi bonds in the following molecules?
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4
4. Which hybrid orbitals are used by carbon atoms in the following molecules?
CH3CH3 (b) CH3CH=CH2 (c) CH3-CH2-OH (d) CH3-CHO (e) CH3COOH
5. Use molecular orbital theory to explain why the Be2 molecule does not exist.
6. Write the significance of a plus and a minus sign shown in representing the orbitals.
+
7. What is meant by the term bond order? Calculate the bond order of N2, O2, O2 and O2?
Write the Lewis structure of the nitrite ion, NO 2-, H2SO4 , HNO3 , O +
8. 3 , NO
2 , NH
4
9. Find out the formal charge on each atom in O3.
10. Although both CO2 and H2O are triatomic molecules, the shape of H2O molecule is bent
while that of CO2 is linear. Explain this on the basis of dipole moment.
11. Write the significance/application of dipole moment.
12. Apart from tetrahedral geometry, another possible geometry for CH4 is square planar with
the four H atoms at the corners of the square and the C atom at its centre. Explain
why CH4 is not square planar.
13. Explain why BeH2 molecule has a zero dipole moment although the Be-H bonds are polar.
14. Which out of NH3 and NF3 has a higher dipole moment and why?
15. What orbitals can overlap to form a sigma-bond and which orbitals can do so to form a
pi-bond?
16. Define : i) bond order ii) hybridization iii) intramolecular H-bonding
iv) intermolecular H-bonding
17. Though Cl has nearly same electronegativity as N, yet there is no H-bonding in HCl. Why?
18. Which d-orbital is involved in sp3d hybridization and why?
19. In both water and dimethyl ether (CH3 —Ο— CH3), the oxygen atom is a central atom and
has the same hybridisation, yet they have different bond angles. Which one has a greater
bond angle? Give reason.
20. 2-
All the C—O bonds in carbonate ion (CO3 ) are equal in length. Explain.
21. Why cane sugar (sucrose) melts on heating but common salt (sodium chloride) does not melt
so easily?
22. Generally, solids sink in water but ice floats on water. Explain why?
23. Out of MgO and CaO, which one is harder and why?
24. Is CaF2 is linear or bent or neither of the two? Justify.
25. Explain why dipole moment of hydrogen halides decreases from HF to HI?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 10.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

26. Draw diagrams showing the formation of a double bond and a triple bond between
carbon atoms in C2H4 and C2H2 molecules.
27. Distinguish between a sigma and a pi bond.
28. Describe the hybridisation in case of PCl5. Why are the axial bonds longer as compared to
equatorial bonds?
29. Define electronegativity. How does it differ from electron gain enthalpy?
30. Describe the change in hybridisation (if any) of the Al atom in the following reaction.
−
AlCl3 + Cl− → AlCl4
31. Define hydrogen bond. Is it weaker or stronger than the van der Waals forces?
32. Explain why PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal whereas IF5 is square pyramidal.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

33. Describe hybridisation in the case of PCl5 and SF6. The axial bonds are longer as compared
to equatorial bonds in PCl5 whereas in SF6 both axial bonds and equatorial bonds have the
same bond length. Explain.
34. Use the molecular orbital energy level diagram to show that N2 would be expected to
have a triple bond, F2, a single bond and Ne2, no bond.
35. Represent diagrammatically the bond moments and the resultant dipole moment in CO2,
NF3 and CHCl3.
36. Structures of molecules of two compounds are given below :
(a) Which of the two compounds will have intermolecular hydrogen bonding and which
compound is expected to show intramolecular hydrogen bonding?
(b) The melting point of a compound depends on, among other things, the extent of
hydrogen bonding. On this basis, explain which of the above two compounds will show
the higher melting point.
(c) The solubility of compounds in water depends on power to form hydrogen bonds with
water. Which of the above compounds will form a hydrogen bond with water easily and
be more soluble in it?

37. Compare the relative stability of the following species and indicate their magnetic
+ − −2
properties O2 ,O2 ,O2 (superoxide), O2 (peroxide)
38. What is meant by hybridisation of atomic orbitals? Describe the shapes of sp, sp2, sp3
hybrid orbitals?
39. Draw molecular orbital diagram for O2, N2, F2
40. Give reasons for the following :
(i) Covalent bonds are directional bonds while ionic bonds are non-directional.
(ii) A water molecule has bent structure whereas carbon dioxide molecule is linear.
(iii) Ethyne molecule is linear.
41. Isostructural species are those which have the same shape and hybridisation. Among the
given species identify the isostructural pairs. (i) [NF3 and BF3] (ii)

(iii) (iv)

42. Polarity in a molecule and hence the dipole moment depends primarily on electronegativity
of the constituent atoms and shape of a molecule. Which of the following has the highest
dipole moment? (i) CO2 (ii) HI (iii) H2O (iv) SO2

43. In ion the formal charge on the oxygen atom of P–O

bond is (i) +1 (ii) –1 (iii) –
0.75 (iv) +0.75
44. In ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(i) 2, 2 (ii) 3, 1 (iii) 1, 3 (iv) 4, 0
45. Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) H3O+
46. Number of π bonds and σ bonds in the following structure is–

(i) 6, 19 (ii) 4, 20 (iii) 5, 19 (iv) 5, 20

47. In which of the following molecule/ion all the bonds are not equal?
(i) XeF4 (ii) (iii) C2H4 (iv) SiF4
48. Match the species in Column I with the type of hybrid orbitals in Column II
Column I Column II
(i) SF4 (a) sp3d2
(ii) IF5 (b) d2sp3
(iii) (c) sp3 d

(iv) (d)sp3
(e) sp
49. Match the species in Column I with the geometry/shape in Column II.
Column I Column II
+
(i) H3O (a) Linear
(ii) (b) Angular

(iii) (c) Tetrahedral

(iv) (d) Trigonal bipyramidal

(e) Pyramidal
50. Match the species in Column I with the bond order in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i)N0 (O) 1.5
(ii)CO (6) 2.0

(iii) (c) 2.5

(iv) O2 (d) 3.0
51. Match the shape of molecules in Column I with the type of hybridisation in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Tetrahedral (a)sp2
(ii) Trigonal (b) sp
(iii) Linear (c)sp3
ASSIGNMENT NO. 11.
UNIT - 6
THERMODYNAMICS
ONE MARK
QUESTIONS

1. Heat (q) and work done (w) individually are not stated functions. Explain why?
2. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 10. Calculate the value of ΔG˚ if T=300K.
3. State first law of thermodynamics and the zeroth law of thermodynamics.
4. Which quantity out of Δr G and Δr G˚ will be zero at equilibrium.
5. Although heat is a path function but heats absorbed by the system under certain
specific conditions is independent of path. What are those conditions? Explain.
6. Predict the change in internal energy for an isolated system at constant volume.
7. Define- (i) Gibbs free energy (ii) Entropy (iii) Enthalpy (iv) Lattice energy
8. Which reaction is a source of energy in our body?
9. If we mix H2 and O2, they do not combine to form H2O. Is the reaction spontaneous
or non-spontaneous? Give reason.
10. The standard molar entropy of H2O (l) is 70 J/K mol. Will the standard molar entropy
of H2O(s) be more, or less than 70 J/K mol?
11. Under what condition, the heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction is equal to its free
energy change?
12. Why does entropy of a solid increase in fusion?
13. One mole of acetone requires less heat to vaporise than 1 mole of water. Which of
the two liquids has a higher enthalpy of vaporisation?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 12.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

14. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 400.What will be the value of ∆G?
R=8.314JK mol1-, T=300K?
15. Derive ΔG = -TΔS and also explain the spontaneity of the reaction.
16. Derive Cp –Cv = R.
17. Find out the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298 K:
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) NH2CONH2(aq)+H2O(l)
Standard Gibbs energy change, ΔG0r at the given temperature is – 13.6 kj mol-1
18. Define spontaneous & non-spontaneous changes. Give two examples in each case.
19. (a) Out of diamond and graphite which has a greater entropy.
(b) the entropy of steam is more than that of water at its boiling point .explain.
20. (a) Although the dissolution of NaCl (s) in water is endothermic it dissolves. Explain.
(b) An exothermic reaction may not be always thermodynamically spontaneous. Justify
21. Differentiate the following thermodynamic terms-
(a) Extensive properties and intensive properties
(b) Isobaric process and isothermal process
22. Prove that change in enthalpy is heat at Constant Pressure.
23. Prove that change in enthalpy is heat at constant Volume.
24. One kg of graphite is burnt in a closed vessel. The same amount of the same sample is
burnt in an open vessel. Will the heat evolve in the two cases be same? If not, in
which case it would be greater?
25. The enthalpy of formation of gaseous iodine is 62.5 kJ/mol at 25oC. What will be the
enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 25oC?
26. If the combustion of 1 g of graphite produces 20.7 KJ of heat. What will be the molar
enthalpy change? Give significance to sign also.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

27. (a) Predict in which of the following, entropy increases/decreases with reasons
(i) H2(g) 2H(g)
(ii) A liquid crystallizes into a solid
N2(g) +O2(g) 2NO (g) is an endothermic reaction yet it is spontaneous.
Explain the reason
28. Calculate the enthalpy change for the process
CCl4(g) C(g) +
4Cl(g)
and calculate bond enthalpy of C-Cl in CCl4(g)
ΔH0vap(CCl4 ) = 30.5 KJmol-1
ΔH0f (CCl -1
4 ) = -135 KJmol
ΔH0a (C) = 715.0 KJmol-1
ΔH0a (Cl2 ) = 242.0 KJmol
-1

29. Explain enthalpy and derive ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

30. (a) The standard Gibbs energies (ΔfGo) of formation of SO2(g) and SO3(g) are -300.0 and
-371.1 kJ mol-1 at 300k respectively.
2SO2 (g) + O2(g) 2SO2 (g)
Calculate ΔrG and equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 300K.
(b) Explain why entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is less than that of its
imperfect crystals.
31. What is the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 400K?
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
ΔH = 77.2 Kjmol and ΔS=122 Jk-1 at 400K.
-1

32. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of anhydrous aluminium chloride (Al2Cl6)

from the following data-
(i) 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq Al2Cl6(aq) + 3H2(g) ∆H= -1004.0KJ
(ii) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) ∆H= -183.9KJ
(iii) HCl(g) + (aq) HCl(aq) ∆H=- 73.2KJ
(iv) Al2Cl6(s) + (aq) Al2Cl6(aq) ∆H= 643.0KJ
33. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10.What will be the value of ∆G?
R=8.314JK mol1-, T=300K?
34. (i) Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm Expands isothermally into a
vacuum until its volume is 10 litre. How much work is done in the expansion?
(ii) Consider the expansion, but this time against a constant external pressure of 1atm.
(iii) Consider the same expansion, to a final volume of 10 litres conducted reversibly.
35. (a) Can decrease in enthalpy (-ΔH) be the sole criteria for the spontaneity of all
reaction?
(b) How can a non-spontaneous reaction be made spontaneous?
(c) State the thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous process to occur.
36. (a) For the reaction, 2Cl(g) Cl2(g) What will be the sign of ΔH & Δ U.
(b) Predict the enthalpy change, free energy change and entropy when ammonium
chloride is dissolved in water and the solution becomes colder.
37. For a reaction 2A(g) + B(g) - 2D(g)
Δ U =-10.5KJ and ΔS = -44.1JK .Calculate Δ G˚ for the reaction and predict whether
0 0 -1

the reaction may occur spontaneous or not.

 38. Define the term lattice enthalpy. Use the following data to calculate ∆latticeH0 for NaBr
∆subH0 for Na metal=108.4KJmol-1
∆iH for Na metal= 496 KJmol-1
∆egH for Bromine= -325KJmol-1
Bond dissociation enthalpy of bromine = 192 KJmol-1
∆fH0 for NaBr(s) = -360.1Kjmol-1
39. Derive the relationship between ΔH and ΔU for an ideal gas. Explain each term
involved in the equation.
40. Extensive properties depend on the quantity of matter but intensive properties do not.
Explain whether the following properties are extensive or intensive: Mass, internal
energy, pressure, heat capacity, molar heat capacity, density, mole fraction,
specific heat, temperature and molarity.
41. The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is the enthalpy when one mole of an ionic
compound present in its gaseous state, dissociates into its ions. It is impossible to
determine it directly by experiment. Suggest and explain an indirect method to
measure lattice enthalpy of NaCl(s).
42. Explain why entropy of pure a pure crystalline substance is zero at 0 K? State the law
on which it is based. Give the application of this law.

43. Give reason:

a) Neither q nor w is a state function, but q+w is a state function.
b) The dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is endothermic still it dissolves in
water.
c) A real crystal has more entropy than an ideal crystal.
44. 18.0 g of water completely vaporises at 100oC and 1 bar pressure and the enthalpy
change in the process is 40.79 kJ/mol. What will be the enthalpy change for vaporising
two moles of water under the same condition? What is the standard enthalpy of
vaporisation for water?
45. An ideal gas allowed to expand against a constant pressure of 2 bar from 10 L to 50 L
in one step. Calculate the amount of work done by the gas. If the same expansion were
carried out reversibly, will the work is done be higher or lower than the earlier
case? (Given that 1 L bar = 100 J).
46. We know that the relationship between Kc and Kp is

What would be the value of for the reaction (i)1

(ii) 0.5 (iii) 1.5 (iv)2

47. PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are at equilibrium at 500 K in a closed container and their
concentrations are and respectively. The value of
Kc for the reaction will be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

48. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on the basis of which of the following concepts?
(i) Arrhenius concept
(ii) Bronsted Lowry concept
(iii) Lewis concept
(iv) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept.
49. On increasing the pressure, in which direction will the gas phase reaction proceed to re-
establish equilibrium, is predicted by applying the Le Chatelier’s principle. Consider the
reaction.

Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the equilibrium is
established, is increased without changing the temperature?
(i) K will remain same
(ii) K will decrease
(iii) K will increase
(iv) K will increase initially and decrease when pressure is very high
50. For the reaction:

Equilibrium constant
Some reactions are written below in Column I and their equilibrium constants in terms of K c are
written in Column II. Match the following reactions with the corresponding equilibrium
constant.
Column I (Reaction) Column II
(Equilibrium)

(i) (a) 2Kc

(ii) (b)

(iii)
(C) J_K

(d)
ASSIGNMENT NO. 13.
UNIT-7 EQUILIBRIUM

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is meant by the conjugate acid-base pair? Find the conjugate acid/base for the
species: HNO2 ,CN- , HClO4 ,F- , OH- , CO2-3 and S2-
2. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
+
H2O, BF3, H+, NH4 .
3. Write the conjugate acid for the Bronsted bases: NH 2-, NH3, and HCOO-
4. The concentration of hydrogen ion in a sample of soft drink is 3.8 x 10-3M. What is its pH?
5. The pH of a sample of vinegar is 3.76. Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ion in it.
6. Assuming complete dissociation, calculate the pH of the following solution :
(a) 0.003M HCl (b) 0.005M NaOH (c) 0.002M HBr (d) 0.002M KOH
7. Predict the acidic, basic or neutral nature of the solution of the following salts:
NaCl, KBr, NaCN, NH4NO3, NaNO2, KF
8. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc for each of the following reactions:
(i) 2NOCl (g) 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g)
(ii) 2Cu(NO3)2 (s) 2CuO (s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
(iii) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l) CH3COOH (aq) + C2H5OH (aq)
3+ –
(iv) Fe (aq) + 3OH (aq) Fe(OH)3 (s)
(v) I2 (s) + 5F2 2 IF5
9. Define-
(i) Law of mass action
(ii) Homogeneous Equilibrium with an example
(iii) Heterogeneous Equilibrium with an example
(iv) Ostwald dilution law
(v) Common ion effect
(vi) Application of Common ion effect
(vii) Buffer solution
(viii) Application of Buffer solution
(ix) Application of solubility product
(x) solubility product
(xi) Dissociation constant of an Acid & Base
10. When steam is passed over heated iron fillings in an open tube, iron is completely
converted into its oxide but when the tube is closed, some iron remains unreacted. Why?
11. Why gas fizzes out when soda water bottle is opened?
12. The reaction between acetic acid and ethyl alcohol attains a state of equilibrium in an
open vessel but decomposition of CaCO3 does not. Why?
13. Why does ice melts slowly at higher altitudes?
14. Why does solution of sugar in water not conduct electricity whereas that of common salt
in water does?
15. Neutral solutions have pH = 7 at 298 K. A sample of pure water is found to have pH<7.
Does it mean that it is acidic? Explain.
16. The pH of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has to be maintained between 7 to 8. What
indicator should be used to monitor and control the pH?
17. What are the pH and pOH values of a neutral solution at a temperature at which Kw = 10-
13?
18. Why is common salt added to precipitate out soap from the solution during its
manufacture?
19. A solution gives yellow colour with methyl orange, methyl red and phenol red. What is
the pH of the solution?
20. BF3 does not have proton but still act as an acid and reacts with NH3. Why is it so? What
type of bond is formed between the two?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 14.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

21. The ionic product of water at 310K is 2.7 x 10-14. What is pH of neutral water at this
temperature?
22. The value of ΔG0 for the phosphorylation of glucose in glycolysis is 13.8 kJ/mol. Find the
value of Kc at 298 K.
23. pH of 0.08 mol dm–3 HOCl solution is 2.85. Calculate its ionisation constant.
24. Calculate the pH of a solution formedby mixing equal volumes of two solutions A and B of a
strong acid having pH = 6 and pH = 4 respectively.
25. pH of a solution of a strong acid is 5.0. What will be the pH of the solution obtained
after diluting the given solution a 100 times?
26. A magician took yellow coloured solution in one test tube and added a colourless
solution into it and announced the fun of getting the red colour. Then he added red
coloured solution into it and announced the fun of colour becoming lighter. What
chemicals must he have used and explained how all this might have happened?
27. Write the reversible reaction taking place between ferric ions and thiocyanate ions and
write the colour of each reactant and product.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

28. Dihydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per
following endothermic reaction:-
CH4 (g) + H2O (g) ⇆ CO (g) 3H2 (g)
Write an expression for Kp for the above reaction. How will the value of Kp and
composition of the equilibrium mixture be affected by (i) increasing the pressure (ii)
increasing the temperature (iii) Using a catalyst?
29. Calculate the pH of the following solution:
(a) 2g of TIOH dissolved in water to give 2 litres of the solution
(b) 0.3g of Ca(OH)2 dissolved in water to give 500mL of the solution
(c) 0.3g 0f NaOH dissolved in water to give 200mL of the solution
30. If 0.561g KOH is dissolved in water to give 200mL of the solution at 298K, calculate the
concentration of potassium, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. What is its pH?
31. What is the minimum volume of water required to dissolve 1g of Calcium sulphate at
298K? For calcium sulphate, Ksp = 9.1 x 10-6
32. 3.00 mol of PCl5 kept in 1L closed reaction vessel was allowed to attain equilibrium
at 380K. Calculate composition of the mixture at equilibrium. Kc= 1.80
33. Calculate the solubility of A2X3 in pure water, assuming that neither kind of ion reacts
with water. The solubility product of A2X3, Ksp = 1.1 x 10–23.
34. The value of Kc for the reaction 3O2 (g) 2O3 (g) is 2.0 x 10–50 at 25°C. If
the the equilibrium concentration of O2 in the air at 25°C is 1.6 x 10–2, what is the
concentration of
O3?
35. Determine the solubilities of silver chromate, barium chromate, ferric hydroxide, lead
chloride and mercurous iodide at 298K from their solubility products constants given
below. Determine also the molarities of individual ions.
Ksp of Ag2CrO4 =1.1 x 10-12
Ksp of Fe(OH)3 = 1.0 x10-38
Ksp of BaCrO4 =1.2 x 10-10
Ksp of PbCl2 =1.6 x 10-5
Ksp of Hg2Cl2 =4.5 x 10-29
36. The solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4 and AgBr are 1.1 x 10–12 and 5.0 x 10–13
respectively. Calculate the ratio of the molarities of their saturated solutions.
37. How can you predict the following stages of a reaction by comparing the value of K c and
Qc?
i) Net reaction proceeds in the forward direction.
ii) Net reaction proceeds in the backward direction.
iii) No net reaction occurs.
38. Match standard free energy of the reaction with the corresponding equilibrium constant
(i) (a) K>1

(ii) (b) K=1

(iii) (c) K = 0
(d) K<1
39. Match the following species with the corresponding conjugate acid.
Species Conjugate acid
(i) NH3 (a)

(ii) (b)

(iii) (c)
(iv) HSO4 (d)H2SO4
(e) H2CO3
ASSIGNMENT NO. 15. UNIT-8 REDOX
REACTION

ONE MARK
QUESTIONS

1. Justify that the reaction: 2 Na(s) + H2(g ) 2NaH (s) is a redox change.
2. While sulphur dioxide and hydrogen peroxide can act as oxidising as well as reducing
agents in their reactions, ozone and nitric acid act only as oxidants. Why?
3. Nitric acid is an oxidizing agent and reacts with PbO but it does not react with PbO2.
Explain why?
4. What is the function of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?
5. Define –
(i) Oxidation number.
(ii) E.M.F. of the cell.
(iii) Daniel cell or Electrochemical cell
(iv) Electrochemical series and its application
(v) Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)
6. Justify that the following reactions are redox reactions:
(a) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g)
(b) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
(c) 4BCl3(g) + 3LiAlH4 (s) → 2B2H6(g) + 3LiCl(s) + 3
AlCl3 (s) (d) 2K(s) + F2(g) → 2K+F- (s)
(e) 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
7. The compound AgF2 is an unstable compound. However, if formed, the compound acts
as a very strong oxidizing agent. Why?
8. Identify the substance oxidised, reduced, oxidising agent and reducing agent for each of
the following reactions:
(a) 2AgBr (s) + C6H6O2(aq) → 2Ag(s) + 2HBr (aq) + C6H4O2(aq)
(b) HCHO(l) + 2[Ag (NH3)2] + (aq) + 3OH - (aq) → 2Ag(s) + HCOO - (aq) +
4NH3(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(c) HCHO (l) + 2Cu2+(aq) + 5 OH - (aq) → Cu2O(s) + HCOO - (aq) +
3H2O(l) (d) N2H4(l) + 2H2O2(l) → N2(g) + 4H2O(l)
(e) Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)

9. Chlorine is used to purify drinking water. Excess of chlorine is harmful. The excess of
chlorine is removed by treating with sulphur dioxide. Present a balanced equation for this
redox change taking place in water.
10. The reaction: Cl2(g) + 2OH- (aq) ClO-(aq) + Cl-(aq) + H 2O(l) represents the
process of bleaching. Identify and name the species that bleaches the substances due
to its oxidation action.
11. Why does fluorine not show disproportionation reaction?

12. At what concentration of Zn2+ (aq) will its electrode potential become equal to its
standard electrode potential?
13. Arrange the following metals in which they displace each other from the solution of
their salts: Al, Cu, Fe, Mg, Ag and Zn
14. A solution of silver nitrate was stirred with an iron rod. Will it cause any change in the
concentration of silver and nitrate ions?
15. Why does the electrochemical cell stop working after some time?

16. What would happen if no salt bridge were used in the electrochemical cell?
(e.g., Zn-Cu cell)
ASSIGNMENT NO. 16.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

17. Justify that the reaction: 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) is a redox reaction.
Identify the species oxidised/reduced, which acts as an oxidant and which acts as a
reductant.
18. Which method can be used to find out the strength of reductant/oxidant in a solution?
Explain with an example.
19. Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
a) The reaction of liquid hydrazine (N2H2) with chlorate ion (ClO3-) in basic medium
produces nitric oxide gas and chloride ion in a gaseous state. (Balance by oxidation
number method).
b) Permanganate ion (MnO4-) reacts with sulphur dioxide gas in acidic medium to
produce Mn2+ and hydrogen sulphate ion. (Balance by ion electron method)
20. Distinguish between oxidation no. and valency.
21. Refer to the periodic table given in your book and now answer the following
questions:
(a) Select the possible non-metals that can show disproportionation reaction.
(b) Select three metals that can show disproportionation reaction.
22. Write the short note on disproportionation reaction with an example.
23. What is the oxidation number of the bold elements in each of the following and how
do you rationalise your results?
(a) KI3 (b) H2S4O6 (c) Fe3O4 (d) CH3CH2OH (e) CH3COOH
- –
24. Permanganate (VII) ion, MnO4 in basic solution oxidises iodide ion, I to produce
molecular iodine (I2) and manganese (IV) oxide (MnO2). Write a balanced
ionic equation to represent this redox reaction.
25. Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of potassium dichromate(VI),
K2Cr2O7 with sodium sulphite, Na2SO3, in an acid solution to give chromium(III)
ion and the
sulphate ion.
26. Justify giving reactions that among halogens, fluorine is the best oxidant and among
hydrohalic compounds, hydroiodic acid is the best reductant.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS

27. Balance the following equations in basic medium by ion-electron method and
oxidation number methods and identify the oxidising agent and the reducing agent.
–
(a) P4(s) + OH–(aq) PH3(g) + H2PO2 (aq)
(b) N2H4(l) + ClO3 –(aq) NO(g) + Cl–(g)
– +
(c) Cl2O7 (g) + H2O2(aq) ClO2 (aq) + O2(g) + H
28. Balance the following redox reactions by ion – electron method :
– –
(a) MnO4 (aq) + I (aq) MnO2 (s) + I2(s) (in basic medium)
(b) MnO4– (aq) + SO2 (g) Mn2+ (aq) + HSO4 – (aq) (in acidic solution)
(c) H2O2 (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) Fe3+ (aq) + H2O (l) (in acidic solution)
29. Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
30. values of some redox couples are given below. On the basis of these values choose the
correct option.
values:

(i) Cu will reduce

(ii) Cu will reduce Ag
(iii) Cu will reduce
(iv) Cu will reduce Br2
31. In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states.
(i) NH2OH (ii) NH4NO3
(iii) N2H4 (iv) N3H
32. The largest oxidation number exhibited by an element depends on its outer electronic
configuration. With which of the following outer electronic configurations the element will
exhibit largest oxidation number?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
33. Identify disproportionation reaction (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
34. Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?
(i) Cl (ii) Br (iii) F (iv) I
35. Match Column I with Column II for the oxidation states of the central atoms.
Column I Column II

(i) (a)+3

(ii) (b)+ 4

(iii) (c)+5

(iv) (d) +6
(e) +7
36. Match the items in Column I with relevant items in Column II.
Column I Column
II
(i) Ions having positive charge (i) +7
(ii)The sum of oxidation number of all atoms in a neutral molecule (ii)-1
(iii)Oxidation number of hydrogen ion (H+) (iii) +1
(iv)Oxidation number of fluorine in NaF (d)0
(v) Ions having negative charge (e)
Cation
(f) Anion
37. Assertion(A): The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to form water and oxygen is an
example of disproportionation reaction.
Reason (R): The oxygen of peroxide is in -1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero
oxidation state in O2 and -2 oxidation state in H2O.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 17.

UNIT-12
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY- SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is the hybridisation of each carbon in H2C=C= CH2?

2. Name a suitable technique of separation of the components from a mixture of calcium
sulphate and camphor.
3. Indicate the σ and π bonds in the following molecules :
C6H6 , C6H12, CH2Cl2, CH2=C=CH2, CH3NO2, HCONHCH3
4. Write the state of hybridization of carbon in H2C=O & also write the shape.
5. For testing halogens in an organic compound with an AgNO3 solution, sodium extract
(Lassaigne’s test) is acidified with dilute HNO3. What will happen if a student
acidifies the extract with dilute H2SO4 in place of dilute HNO3?
6. Write I.U.P.A.C. Name of the following- (i) [(CH3)2CH]3C-OH (ii) HCOOCH3
(iii) CH3-CH(Br)-CH=CH-COOH (iv) (CH3)2CH-CH2-COOCH3 (v) (CH3)3 C – OH
7. What are hybridisation states of each carbon atom in the following compounds?
CH2=C=O, CH3CH=CH2, ( CH3)2CO, CH2=CHCN, C6H6
8. Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for
testing nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.
9. Why is it necessary to use acetic acid and not sulphuric acid for acidification of sodium
extract for testing sulphur by lead acetate test?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 18.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

10. Draw the resonance structure of nitro benzene, benzoic acid & show the electron shift
using curved arrow notation. Why is nitro benzene m-directing?
11. (i) Explain the hyperconjugation with suitable example.
(ii) What are Electrophiles and Nucleophiles? Give examples.
12. (i) Why is nitric acid added to sodium extract before adding an AgNO3 solution for
testing halogens?
(ii) Explain the reason for the fusion of organic compound with metallic sodium.
13. (i) Write bond line formula for 2,3-Dimethylbutanal.
(ii)Indicate Ω and ∏ bond in HCONHCH3?
14. On complete combustion, 0.246 g of an organic compound gave 0.198g of carbon
dioxide and 0.1014g of water. Determine the percentage composition of carbon and
hydrogen in the compound.
15. In sulphur estimation, 0.157 g of an organic compound gave 0.4813 g of barium
sulphate. What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?
16. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.15 g of an organic compound gave 0.12 g
of AgBr. Find out the percentage of bromine in the compound.
17. What are electrophiles and nucleophiles? Explain with examples.
18. An organic compound contains 69% carbon and 4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being
oxygen. Calculate the masses of carbon dioxide and water produced when 0.20 g of
this substance is subjected to complete combustion.
19. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in C6H6, Toluene, naphthalene, aniline,
anisole?

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

20. (a) Write the short note with example.

(i) Free radical (ii) Heterolytic fission (iii) carbocation (iv) carboanion
(b) Explain the functional isomerism with example.
21. (i) Explain the position isomerism with an example.
(ii) Write the name and structure of the non-benzenoid aromatic compound.
(iii) Draw the structures of the following IUPAC names:-(a) 4- Nitroaniline
(b) 2- chloro-1,1,1 trifluoro ethane (c) cyclohex -2 – en – 1-ol
22. A sample of 0.50 gm of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl
method
The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5M H2SO4. The residual acid
required
60 ml of a 0.5M solution of NaOH for neutralization on. Find the percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound.
23. During an estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl's
method, NH3 evolved from 0.5 gm of the compound in the Kjeldahl estimation of N2,
neutralized 10ml of 1MH2SO4. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
24. 0.35 gm of an organic compound was kjeldahlised. The ammonia evolved by distilling
the kjeldahlised extract with 100ml of M/10 H2SO4. The residual acid required 154 ml
of
M/10 NaOH for complete neutralization. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the
organic compound.
25. In Dumas’ method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.3g of an organic compound gave
50mL of nitrogen collected at a 300K temperature and 715mm pressure Calculate the
percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound. (Aqueous tension at 300K=15
mm)
26. Give condensed and bond line structural formulas and identify the functional group(s)
present, if any, for : (a) 2,2,4-Trimethylpentane
(b) 2-Hydroxy-1,2,3-propanetricarboxylic acid
(c) Hexanedial
27. Give a brief description of the principles of the following techniques taking an
example in each case. (a) Crystallisation (b) Distillation
(c) Chromatography
28. Draw the structure and which of the following represents the correct IUPAC name for
the compounds concerned?
(a) 2,2-Dimethylpentane or 2-Dimethylpentane
(b) 2,4,7-Trimethyloctane or 2,5,7-Trimethyloctane
(c) 2-Chloro-4-methylpentane or 4-Chloro-2-methylpentane
(d) But-3-yn-1-ol or But-4-ol-1-yne.
29. Give condensed and bond line structural formulas and identify the functional group(s)
present, if any, for :
(a) 2,2,4-Trimethylpentane
(b) 2-Hydroxy-1,2,3-propane tricarboxylic acid
(c) Hexanediol
30. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds :
(i) (CH3)3 C CH2C(CH3)3
(ii) (CH3)2 C(C2H5)2
(iii) tetra – tert-butylmethane
31. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?
(i) 3-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(ii) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
(iii) 5-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(iv) 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane

32. The IUPAC name for is .

(i) 1-hydroxypentane-1,4-dione (ii) 1,4-dioxopentanol
(iii) 1-carboxybutan-3-one (iv) 4-oxopentanoic acid

33. The IUPAC name for

(i) 1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
(iii) 2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene
(iv) m-Nitro-p-chlorotoluene

34. Electronegativity of carbon atoms depends upon their state of hybridization. In which of the following
compounds, the carbon marked with asterisk is most electronegative?
(i) CH3 – CH2– *CH2 –CH3 (ii) CH3 – *CH = CH – CH3
(iii) CH3 – CH1 – C≡*CH (iv) CH3 – CH2 – CH =*CH2
35. In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?
(i) Alcohols (ii) Aldehydes
(iii) Alkyl halides (iv) Cyanides
36. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds
called essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are
miscible with water vapour in vapour phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these
oils from the flowers is:
(i) Distillation (ii) Crystallization
(iii) Distillation under reduced pressure (iv) Steam distillation
ASSIGNMENT NO. 19.
UNIT-13
HYDROCARBON
ONE MARK
QUESTIONS

1. Write down the following name reactions:

(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Friedal’s craft reaction
(c) Kolbe’s Electrolytic reaction
(d) Aromatization
(e) Makovnikov Reaction
(f) Anti- Makovnikov reaction
(g) Dehydration of alcohol
(h) Decarboxylation
(i) Dehydrohalogenation reaction or α,β-Elimination reaction
(j) Dehalogenation reaction
2. (a)Write the reaction of ozonolysis of the following compound -
(i) Pent-2-ene (ii) 3,4-dimethylbutane
3. Draw the resonance structure of phenol show the electron shift using curved arrow
notation?
4. How will you convert the following:
(i) ethane to butane
(ii) methane to ethane
(iii) propanoic acid to ethyne
(iv) ethyne to acetaldehyde
(v) ethyne to ethane
(vi) ethene to ethyne
(vii) ethene to butane
(viii) propene to 2,3-dimethylbutane
(ix) propene to hexane
(x) n-hexane to Benzene
(xi) propene to acetone
(xii) benzene to m-dinitrobenzene
(xiii) benzene to p-nitrotoluene

5. The sodium salt of which acid will be needed for the preparation of propane? Write
the chemical equation for the reaction.
6. Which of the following compounds will show cis-trans isomerism?
(i) (CH3)2C = CH – C2H5 (ii) CH2 = CBr2
(iii) C6H5CH = CH – CH3 (iv) CH3CH = CCl CH3
ASSIGNMENT NO. 20.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

7. An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and petan-3-one. Write the

reaction, structure and IUPAC name of A.
8. An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of propanal, petan-3-one. Write the
reaction, structure and IUPAC name of A.
9. Draw cis and trans isomers of the following compounds. Also write their IUPAC names
: (i) CHCl = CHCl
(ii) C2H5CCH3 = CCH3C2H5
10. Write structural formulas of the following compounds :
(i) 3, 4, 4, 5–Tetramethylheptane
(ii) 2,5-Dimethyhexane
11. In the presence of peroxide addition of HBr to propene takes place according to anti-
Markovnikov’s rule but peroxide effect is not seen in the case of HCl and HI. Explain.
12. Why is Wurtz reaction not preferred for the preparation of alkanes containing an odd
number of carbon atoms. Illustrate your answer by taking one example.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Explain the followings for an example.

(a) Wurtz reaction is not preferred for preparing unsymmetrical alkanes.
(b) Why boiling point of cis while melting point of trans alkenes is higher?
(c) Why instead of AlCl3, FeCl3 can also be used in Friedal Craft reaction.
14. 896 mL vapour of a hydrocarbon ‘A’ having carbon 87.80% and hydrogen 12.19%
weighs 3.28g at STP. Hydrogenation of ‘A’ gives 2-methylpentane. Also ‘A’ on
hydration in the presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 gives a ketone ‘B’ having molecular
formula C6H12O. The ketone ‘B’ gives a positive iodoform test. Find the structure of ‘A’
and give the reactions involved.
15. An unsaturated hydrocarbon ‘A’ adds two molecules of H2 and on reductive ozonolysis
gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal and propanone. Give the structure of ‘A’, write its IUPAC
name and explain the reactions involved.
16. An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene ‘B’, which
reacts with Br2 to give a compound ‘C’, which on dehydrobromination gives an alkyne
‘D’. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia one mole of ‘D’ gives one
mole of the sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete hydrogenation
of ‘D’ yields a straight chain alkane. Identify A, B, C and D. Give the
reactions involved.
 17. (i) Explain Huckle rule.
(ii) Why is benzene extraordinarily stable though it contains three double bonds
(iii) Explain the Aromaticity.
18. The correct IUPAC name of the following alkane is

(i) 3,6-Diethyl-2-methyloctane (ii) 5-Isopropyl-3-ethyloctane

(iii) 3-Ethyl-5-isopropyloctane (iv) 3-Isopropyl-6-ethyloctane
19. The addition of HBr to 1-butene gives a mixture of products A,B and C

The mixture consists of

(i) A and B as major and C as minor products
(ii) B as major, A and C as minor products
(iii) B as minor, A and C as major products
(iv) A and B as minor and C as major products

20. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

21. Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their decreasing reactivity with propene.
(i) HCl > HBr > HI (ii) HBr > HI > HCl
(iii) HI > HBr > HCl (iv) HCl > HI > HBr
22. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability.

(i) A > B > C (ii) B > A > C

(iii) C > B > A (iv) C > A > B
23. Arrange the following alkyl halides in decreasing order of the rate of –elimination
reaction with alcoholic KOH.

(B)CH3-CH2-Br (C) CH3-CH2-CH2-Br

(i) A > B > C (ii) C > B > A
(iii) B > C > A (iv) A > C > B

24. Which of the following reactions of methane is incomplete combustion?

25. Assertion (A): The compound cyclooctane has the following structural formula:

It is cyclic and has conjugated 8π-electron system but it is not an aromatic compound.
Reason (R): (4n + 2) π electrons rule does not hold good and ring is not planar.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) Both A and R are not correct.
(iv) A is not correct but Incorrect.
26. Assertion (A): Toluene on Friedal Crafts methylation gives o- and p- xylene.
Reason (R): CH3-group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density at o-and p-
position.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) Both A and R are not correct.
(iv) A is not correct but R is correct.

27. Assertion (A): Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated
sulphuric acid.
Reason(R): The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid
produces the electrophile, .
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
 (iii) Both A and R are not correct
(iv) A is not correct but R is correct.
28. Match the following reactants in Column I with the corresponding reaction products
in Column II.

Column I Column II.

(i) Benzene + Cl2 (a) Benzoic acid

(ii) Benzene + CH3Cl (b) Methyl phenyl ketone

(iii) Benzene + CH3COCl (c) Toluene

(iv) Toluene (d) Chlorobenzene

(e) Benzene hexachloride
29. Match the reagent from Column I which on reaction with CH3-CH=CH2 gives some
Product given in Column II as per the codes given below:
Column I Column II
(i) O3/Zn + H2O (a) Acetic acid and CO2
+
(ii) KMnO4/H (b) Propan-l-ol
-
(iii)KMnO4/OH (c) Propan-2-ol
(d) Acetaldehyde and
(iv) H2O/H+
formaldehyde
(v) B2H6/NaOH and H2O2 (e) Propane-1,2-diol
 UNIT-14
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What are the sources of dissolved oxygen in water?

2. List gases which are responsible for the greenhouse effect.
3. What is the importance of measuring BOD of a water body?
4. How can domestic waste be used as manure?
5. A large number of fish are suddenly found floating dead on a lake. There is no
evidence of toxic dumping but you find an abundance of phytoplankton. Suggest a
reason for the fish kill.
6. What do you mean by Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

7. What is smog? How is classical smog different from photochemical smog?

8. Write down the reactions involved in the formation of photochemical smog.
9. Why does water cover with excessive algal growth become polluted?
10. What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable pollutants?
11. During an educational trip, a student of botany saw a beautiful lake in a village. She
collected many plants from that area. She noticed that villagers were washing clothes
around the lake and at some places waste material from houses was destroying its beauty.
After few years, she visited the same lake again. She was surprised to find that the lake
was covered with algae, the stinking smell was coming out and its water had
become unusable. Can you explain the reason for this condition of the lake?
12. Greenhouse effect leads to global warming. Which substances are responsible for
greenhouse effect?
13. Ozone is a toxic gas and is a strong oxidising agent even then its presence in the
stratosphere is very important. Explain what would happen if ozone from this region is
completely removed?
14. What are pesticides and herbicides? Explain giving examples.
15. Dissolved oxygen in water is very important for aquatic life. What processes are
responsible for the reduction of dissolved oxygen in water?
16. Carbon monoxide gas is more dangerous than carbon dioxide gas. Why?
17. Acid rain is known to contain some acids. Name these acids and where from they
come in the rain?
18. What are the harmful effects of photochemical smog and how can they be controlled?
19. What do you mean by green chemistry? How will it help decrease environmental
pollution?
 20. On the basis of chemical reactions involved, explain how do chlorofluorocarbons cause
thinning of the ozone layer in the stratosphere?
21 What could be the harmful effects of improper management of industrial and
domestic solid waste in a city?
22. Statues and monuments in India are affected by acid rain. How?
23. What would have happened if the greenhouse gases were totally missing in the
earth’s atmosphere? Discuss.
24. Which of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?
(i) CO (ii) O3
(iii) CH4 (iv) H2O vapour
25. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is not
amongst the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
(i) NO2 (ii) O3
(iii) SO2 (iv) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
26. Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog?
(i) Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on emissions of automobiles
and factories.
(ii) Produced in cold and humid climate.
(iii) It contains compounds of reducing nature.
(iv) It contains smoke, fog and Sulphur dioxide.
27. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water.
BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be .
(i) rich in dissolved oxygen. (ii) poor in dissolved oxygen.
(iii) highly polluted. (iv) not suitable for aquatic life.
28. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(i) Ozone is not responsible for greenhouse effect.
(ii) Ozone can oxidize Sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to Sulphur trioxide.
(iii) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere.
(iv) Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen.
 Sample Paper -1
Time :3 hours M.M. – 70
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions Number 1 to 20 carry 1 marks each.
3. Questions Number 21 to 27 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
4. Questions Number 28 to 34 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
5. Questions Number35, 36,37 long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
SECTION-A

1. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6 ) in blood is 0.9 g L–1, what will be the
molarity of glucose in blood?
(i) 5 M (ii) 50 M (iii) 0.005 M (iv) 0.5 M

2. Consider the reactions

(A) H2O2 + 2HI I2 + 2H2O (B) HOCl + H2O2 H3O + + Cl– + O2
Which of the following statements is correct about H2O2 with reference to these
reactions? Hydrogen perioxide is .
(i) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B) (ii) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)
(iii) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent in (B) (iv) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)

3. Assertion (A): The ionisation of hydrogen sulphide in water is low in the presence of
hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R) : Hydrogen sulphide is a weak acid.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A. 16-04-2018 95 Equilibrium
(iii) A is true but R is false (iv) Both A and R are false.
(iv) Both A and R are false

4. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be .

(i) 2 (ii) 4 (iii) 9 (iv) 3

5. Ionisation enthalpy (∆i H1 kJ mol–1) for the elements of Group 13 follows the order.
(i) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (ii) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(iii) B < Al > Ga < In > Tl (iv) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl

6. Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?

(i) Cl (ii) Br (iii) F (iv) I .
7. Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?
(i) CuO + H2 Cu + H2O (ii) Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO2
(iii) 2K + F2 2KF (iv) BaCl2 + H2 SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl
8. Gases possess characteristic critical temperature which depends upon the magnitude of
intermolecular forces between the particles. Following are the critical temperatures of
some gases. Gases H2 He O2 N2 Critical temperature in Kelvin 33.2 5.3 154.3 126 From
the above data what would be the order of liquefaction of these gases? Start writing the
order from the gas liquefying first
(i) H2 , He, O2 , N2 (ii) He, O2 , H2 , N2 (iii) N2 , O2 , He, H2 (iv) O2 , N2 , H2 , He
 9. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is not
amongst the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
(i) NO2 (ii) O3 (iii) SO2 (iv) Unsaturated hydrocarbon

10. Dead burnt plaster is (i) CaSO4 (ii) CaSO4 . 1 2 H2O (iii) CaSO4 .H2O (iv) CaSO4 .2H2O
11. Why BBr3 is a stronger Lewis acid compared to BF3 though fluorine is more ectronegative than
bromine?
12. Explains why halides of beryllium fumes in the moist air but those of barium do not?
13. Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for testing nitrogen,
sulphur and halogens.
14. Which Quantum no. determine energy of electron and orientation of orbital.
15. Why is nitric acid added to sodium extract before adding an AgNO3 solution for testing halogens?
16. Why does H+ ion always get associated with other atoms or molecules?
(i) Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals.
(ii) Its reactivity is similar to halogens.
(iii) It resembles both alkali metals and halogens.
(iv) Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as
compared to other atoms or ions. Due to smal size it cannot exist fre
Comprehension given below is followed by some questions. Each question has one correct
option. Choose the correct option. In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order
of increasing atomic numbers which is related to the electronic configuration. Depending upon
the type of orbitals receiving the last electron, the elements in the periodic table have been
divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern periodic table consists of 7 periods and
18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy shell. In accordance with the
Aufbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements
respectively. The seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long,
the two series of f-block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of
the main body of the periodic table.

17. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to

(i) s-block (ii) p-block (iii) d-block (iv) f-block

18.The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost
electronic configuration.
(i) 7s 2 7p6 (ii) 5f 14 6d10 7s 2 7p0 (iii) 4f 14 5d 10 6s 2 6p 6 (iv) 4f 14 5d10 6s 2 6p 4

19. Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated
in the present set up of the long form of the periodic table?
(i) 107 (ii) 118 (iii) 126 (iv) 102

20.The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all .

(i)noble gases (ii) halogens (iii) heavy metals (iv) light metals 1

SECTION-B
21.A Calculate the molarity of a solution of ethanol in water in which the mole fraction of
ethanol is 0.040 (assume the density of water to be one).
OR
A compound contains 4.07 % hydrogen, 24.27 % carbon and 71.65 % chlorine. Its molar
mass is 98.96 g. What are its empirical and molecular formulas ?
22. (a) Although both CO2 and H2O are triatomic molecules, the shape of H2O molecule is
bent while that of CO2 is linear. Explain this on the basis of dipole moment.
(a) Which out of NH3 and NF3 has a higher dipole moment and why?

23. Explain enthalpy and .Derive ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

24. In sulphur estimation, 0.157 g of an organic compound gave 0.4813 g of barium sulphate.
What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound?

25. Why is the Wurtz reaction not prefferedfor preparation of alkanes containing odd number of
carbon atom. Illustrate your answer by taking one example ?

26. Balance the redox reaction in Basic medium by oxidation number method. .
P 4 + OH- PH3 + H2PO2 -

27. What is the energy in joules, required to shift the electron of the hydrogen atom from the
first Bohr orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit and what is the wavelength of the light emitted when
the electron returns to the ground state? The ground state electron energy is –2.18×10–11
ergs.

SECTION-C
28. What is meant by hybridisation of atomic orbitals? Describe the shapes of sp, sp2, sp3 hybrid
29. (a) Draw the structure of Becl2 (vapour) Becl2 (solid ) ?
(b) In what ways lithium shows similarities to magnesium in its chemical behaviour
orbitals?
(c) When an alkali metal dissolves in liquid ammonia the solution can aquire different
colours. Explain the reasons for this type of colour change.

30. (i) A mixture of dil. NaOH and aluminium pieces are used to open drain.
(ii) Explain why Li & Be show covalent character.
(iii) Draw shapes according to VSEPR theory of XeF4

31. Complete the following reaction –

(i) B2H6 (g) + H2O(l)
(ii) B2H6 (g) + NH3
(iii) BF3 + NaH
OR
(i) What is silicons How it can be prepared.Write the uses of silicons.
(ii) Why carbon has more tendency of catenation than silicon?
(iii) PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4.

32. For a reaction 2A(g) + B(g) - 2D(g)

Δ U =-10.5KJ and ΔS = -44.1JK .Calculate Δ G˚ for the reaction and predict whether
0 0 -1

the reaction may occur spontaneous or not.

OR
Calculate the enthalpy change for the process
 CCl4(g) C(g) + 4Cl(g)
and calculate bond enthalpy of C-Cl in CCl4(g)
ΔH0vap(CCl 4) = 30.5 KJmol-1
ΔH0f (CCl4 ) = -135 KJmol-1
ΔH0a (C) = 715.0 KJmol-1
ΔH0a (Cl2) = 242.0 KJmol-1
33.(i) using the equation of state PV = nRT show that at a given temp.; density of a gas is
proportional to gas pressure ‘P’.
(ii) Explain dalton’s law of partial pressure. Prove that partial pressure of a gas is
equal to the product of its mole fraction and total pressure in a gaseous mixture.

34. (i) An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and petan-3-one. Write
reaction , structure and IUPAC name of A.
(ii) Write bond line formula for 2,3-dimethylButanal
SECTION-D
35. (a) Write I.U.P.A.C. Name of the following-
(i) (CH3)2 C(C2H5)2 (ii) (CH3)2CH-CH2-COOH (iii) (CH3)2CH-CH2-COOCH3
(b) (i) Write bond line formula for 2,3-dimethylButanol ?
(ii) Indicate Ω and ∏ bond in Benzene ?

OR
(i) Explain the hyperconjugation with suitable example.
(ii) What are Electrophiles and Nuclophiles.Give examples.
(iii) What is the difference between distillation under reduced pressure and steam
distillation
36. (a) Calculate the pH of the resultant mixtures: a) 10 mL of 0.2M Ca(OH) 2 + 25
mL of 0.1M HCl.
(b) The solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 × 10–12 . Calculate the molarity
of their saturated solutions.
OR
(i) Which of the following are lewis acids & why ? H2O, BF3, H+, NH+4 .
(ii) At 473K, equilibrium constant Kc for the decomposition of PCl5 Is 8.3 x10-3.
If decomposition is depicted as-
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2
(a) Write an expression for Kc for the reaction.
(b) Explain What is the value of Kc for the reverse reaction at the same
Temperature.
(c) What would be the effect on Kc if (i)more PCl5 is added
(ii) pressure is increased

37. (i) Write Name reaction - (a) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(b) Kolbes Electrolytic reaction .
(ii) How will you convert the following : (a) propene to 2,3-dimethylbutane⌬
(b) ethene to ethyne
(c) Benzene to acetophenone
OR
(a) An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene ‘B’,which
reacts with Br2 to give a compound ‘C’, which on dehydrobromination gives an
alkyne ‘D’. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia one mole of ‘D’ gives
one mole of the sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete
hydrogenation of ‘D’ yields a straight chain alkane. Identify A,B, C and D. Write
reaction involved.
(b) How will you convert the following : (a) n-hexane to Benzene
(b) benzene to p-nitrotoluene
PHYSICS ASSIGNMENT
CLASS 11(2023-24)

1
 UNITS AND MEASUREMENT

1.Dimensions: The dimensions of a physical quantity are the powers to which the base quantities are
raised to represent that quantity and expressed by putting square brackets []. The Dimensional formula
tells the fundamental factors on which unit depend. The dimensional equation have 3 important
applications:

(i) To check the correctness of a physical equation.

(ii) To derive the relation between different physical quantities.

(iii) To change from one system of units to another.

Principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that dimensions of fundamental quantities on both sided
of a physical relation must be same.

2: Give that the displacement of a particle is given by x = A² sin² kt, where t denotes the time. The unit of k
is

(a) radian (b) metre (c) hertz (d) second

3.: T he dimensional formula for angular momentum is same as that for:

(a) torque (b) Plank’s constant (c) gravitational constant (d) impulse

4: Checking the correctness of physical equations using the methods of dimensions is based on

(a) Equality of frame of reference (b) The type of system of units

(c) The method of measurement (d) Principle of homogeneity of dimensions.

5: Dimensions cannot be used to

(a) To check dimensional correctness of a formula. (b) Convert units

(c) Find value of constant of proportionality in an equation. (d) Deduce a relation among physical
quantities.

6: Two physical quantities whose dimensions are not same, cannot be:

(a) Multiplied with each other (b) Divided

(c) Added or subtracted in same expression (d) added

Ques C: The Van-der Waals equation is ( P + a/V2 ) (V-b)= RT Where P is pressure, V is molar volume

and T is the temperature of the given sample of gas. R is called molar gas constant, a and b are called
Vander walls constants

7 The dimensional formula for b is same as that for

(A) P (B) V (C) PV2 (D) RT

8 The dimensional formula for a is same as that for

2
(A) V2 (B) P (C) PV2 (D) RT

9.Which of the following does not possess the same dimensional formula as that for RT?

(A) PV (B) Pb (C) a/V2 (D) ab/V2 .

10.The dimensional formula for ab/RT is

(A) ML5T -2 (B) M0L 3T0 (C) ML-1T -2 (D) M0L6 T 0 .

11The dimensional formula of RT is same as that of

(A) Energy (B) Force (C) Specific heat (D) Latent heat

Significant figures in the measured value of a physical quantity tell the number of digits in which we have
confidence .Larger the number of significant figures obtained in a measurement , greater is the accuracy
of measurement and vice – versa . In addition or subtraction, the number of decimal places in the result
should equal the smallest number of decimal places in any term in the operation . In multiplication and
division, the number of significant figures in the product or in the quotient is the same as the smallest
number of significant figures in any of the factors. With the help of above comprehension, choose the
most appropriate alternative for each of the following questions:

11. The area enclosed by a circle of diameter 1.06 m with correct number of significant figures is

(a) 0.88m2 (c) 1.88m2 (b)0.883m2 (d) 0.882026m2

12. The circumference of the circle of diameter 1.06 m with correct number of significant figures is (a)
3.33m (c) 3.3m (b)3.33142m (d) 3m

3
 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

1. Define average velocity and average acceleration. And their formulas

2 A body thrown vertically upwards. Draw its i) velocity time graph ii) acceleration time graph

3.Define instantaneous acceleration and its formula

4.What are positive and negative acceleration in a straight line motion?

5. Can a body have zero velocity and still be accelerating ? if yes give an example.

6.Give position time graph for one object moving with negative velocity, moving with positive velocity
and at rest

7.From a velocity time graph, Explain how do you calculate the average acceleration of a moving body

8. Draw the v-t graph for motions with constant acceleration. a) Motion in positive direction with
positive acceleration b) Motion in negative direction with negative acceleration c) Motion of an. 9.
Draw the following graphs for an object under free fall i) Variation of acceleration with respect to time
ii) variation of velocity with respect to time iii) variation of distance with respect to time 10. A body
starts from point P and moves to Q. If the body returns to the same point(P), find i) displacement
ii)distance iii) velocity iv) average speed Ans i)zero ii)twice iii)zero iv) v m/s

11. A man runs across the roof top of a tall building and jumps horizontally with the hope of landing
on the roof top of the next building which is of lower height than the first. If his speed is 9m/s,the
horizontal distance between the two buildings is 10m and the height difference is 9m, will he be able
to land on the next building take g = 10m/s2 Ans x` =12.06x, So he can able to land on next building `

12. On a 60 km straight road,a bus travels the first 30km with uniform speed of 30km/hr.How fast
must the bus travel the next 30km so as to have average speed of 40km/hr for the entire trip Ans :
60km/hr

13. The acceleration of a particle is given by a = 3t2 + 2t +2,where time t is in second.If the particle
starts with a velocity v = 2m/s at t = 0, then find the velocity at the end of 2s. Ans : 18m/s

14. A body covers 200cm in the first 2 seconds and 220cm in next 2 seconds.What will be its velocity
at the end of 7 seconds ? Also find the displacement in 7 seconds. Ans 33.75m.

15. The velocity time graph of an object moving along a straight line is as shown Calculate the
distance covered by object between i) t = 0 to t = 5 sec. ii) t = 0 to t = 10 sec.

4
 Ans i) 80m ii) 130m

CASE STUDY
The average velocity tells us how fast an object has been moving over a given time interval but does not
tell us how fast it moves at different instants of time during that interval. For this, we define
instantaneous velocity or simply velocity v at an instant t. The velocity at an instant is defined as the limit
of the average velocity as the time interval dt becomes infinitesimally small.
In other words v =Limit Δt 0 Δs/Δt, v = ds/dt
The variation in velocity with time for an object moving in a straight line can be represented by a velocity-
time graph. In this graph, time is represented along the x-axis and the velocity is represented along the y-
axis. The area enclosed by velocity-time graph and the time axis will be equal to the magnitude of the
displacement and slope of velocity time graph represents acceleration of object.
Answer the following questions based on paragraph given.
i) The area under velocity time graph gives
a) Displacement over given time interval c) Acceleration
b) Velocity d) None of these
ii) Slope of velocity time graph gives
a) Acceleration c) Velocity b) Distance d) Displacement. `

5
iii) A body is thrown up.What will be velocity and acceleration at the top
a) v=0 ,a= -g b)v= 0 ,a=g c) v = maximum, g= 0 d) v=0, g=0
iv) Draw velocity time graph for an object, starting from rest. Acceleration is constant and positive.
v) Is it possible to have negative value in speed and displacement?

6
 MOTION IN A PLANE

1.Under what condition ,the resultant of two vectors will be equal to either of them.

2. Is circular motion possible at constant speed or at constant velocity ? Explain

3.Why the magnitude of the rectangular component of a vector can`t be greater than the magnitude of
vector itself. (Hint Ax = A cos θ )

4.A body is thrown with a velocity v from a tower of height H .After how much time and what distance
from the base of the tower will the body strike the ground ? Ans t = √2H/T , x = v√2H/T 5. Obtain relation
between angular velocity and linear velocity.

5. Prove that maximum horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by the projectile. 6.
Define uniform circular motion .Derive expression for centripetal acceleration

7. If both the speed of a body and radius of its circular path are doubled, what will happen to centripetal
acceleration.

8. If the time of flight of a projectile projected with velocity u at an angle θ is (2u sin θ) / g , write the
condition for maximum range and find its expression

9. If . what is the angle between two vectors

10. Determine a unit vector which is perpendicular to both = 2̂i + ̂j + ̂k and = ̂i - ĵ + 2̂k

11.A stone falls from a building that is descending at a uniform rate of 12m/s.The displacement of the
stone from the point of release after 10 sec is

12.Find the direction for an umbrella when rain falls vertically with a speed 20m/sand the wind blows
from east to west with a speed of 15m/s.

13. A cyclist starts from centre O of a circular park of radius 1km and moves along a path OPRQO as
shown.If he maintains constant speedof 10m/s ,what is his acceleration at point R in magnitude and
direction ?

14.Two bodies are thrown with the same initial velocity at angle θ and (90 - θ)to the horizontal.Determine
the ratio of maximum heights reached by the bodies.

15. The sum of two forces acting at a point is 16N and their resultant force is 8N and its direction is
perpendicular to a smaller force .Calculate the two forces.

7
16.. An aeroplane travelling at a speed of 500km/hr tilts at an angle of 300 as it makes a turn.What is the
radius of the curve?

CASE STUDY.

When an object follows a circular path at a constant speed, the motion of the object is called uniform
circular motion. The word “uniform” refers to the speed, which is uniform (constant) throughout the
motion. Suppose an object is moving with uniform speed v in a circle of radius R Since the velocity of the
object is changing continuously in direction, the object undergoes acceleration. Let us find the magnitude
and the direction of this acceleration. Thus, the acceleration of an object moving with speed v in a circle
of radius R has a magnitude V2/R and is always directed towards the centre. This is why this acceleration
is called centripetal acceleration (a term proposed by Newton).
i) SI unit of angular velocity is
a) rev/sec b) m/s c) m/s2 d) None of these
ii) A centripetal acceleration is not a constant vector. True or false?
a) True b) False
iii)Name the physical quantity which remains same in an uniform circular motion
iv) Centripetal acceleration can be mathematically expressed as
a) ac = b) ac = ω/R2 c) ac= R2/ω d) ac = ω2R
v) If both speed of a body and radius of the circular path are doubled, what will be the change in
centripetal force ?

8
 LAWS OF MOTION
1. Forces of 5√2N and 6√2N are acting on a body of mass 1000kg at an angle 60degrees to each other.
Find the acceleration and distance covered of the mass after 10s.
[Ans: 0.01349m/s2; 0.6745m]
2. A body of mass m moves along X-axis such that its position coordinate at any instant t is x=at4-bt3+ct;
where a,b,c are constants. What is the force acting on the particle at any time t.
3. A bullet of mass 100g moving with 20m/s strikes a wooden plank and penetrates upto 20cm. calculate
the resistance (reaction force) offered by the wooden plank. [Ans: 100N]
4. A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of bowler without changing its initial speed of12m/s.
If the mass of the ball is 0.15kg, determine the impulse imparted to the ball (assuming linear motion).
[Ans: -3.6Ns]
5. A ball moving with a momentum p strikes against a wall at an angle of 45degrees and is reflected at the
same angle. Calculate the change in momentum. [Ans: -2p cos45]
6. The velocity of a 2 kg object initially moving at (–2i+3j–5k) m/s changes to (i+3j+4k) m/s after
3 s. Calculate the magnitude of force acting on the body. [Ans:: 2√10N ]
7. A force of 49N is just sufficient to pull a block of wood weighing 10kg on a rough horizontal surface.
Calculate the coefficient of friction and angle of friction. [Ans: 0.5; 26degrees]

8. A block slides down an incline of 30degree with an acceleration equal to g/4. Find the coefficient of
kinetic friction. [Ans: 1/(2√3)]
9. Find the maximum speed at which a car can take turn round a curve of 30m radius on a level road, if
the coefficient of friction between tyres and road is 0.4. [Ans: 11m/s]
10. For traffic moving at 60kmph, what should be the correct angle of banking of the road if the radius of
the curve is 0.1km. [Ans: 15.5 degrees]
11. 6. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a force of F = 6t2i + 4t j is applied on the object. Calculate the
velocity of object at t = 3s. [Ans: 18i+6j]
12. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity.
The impulse experienced by the body is……. [Ans: 2MV]
13. One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other end is connected to a
small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed v, what will be the net
force on the particle (directed towards centre;T represents the tension in the string).

[Ans: T]
9
14. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift
starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2 . If g = 10 m s–2, calculate the tension in the
supporting cable. [Ans: 11000N]
15. A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform
acceleration of 5 m/s2 . What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)

[Ans: 1200N]
16. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is (i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2 (ii) lowered
with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2. Find the ratio of the tensions. [Ans: 3:1]

17. A man standing on a weighing machine in a lift records his weight in the machine as under:
(i) w1 when the lift acceleration upwards at 5 m/s2
(ii) w2 when the lift acceleration downwards at 5 m/s2
(iii) w3 when the lift moves up at 5 m/s
(iv) w4 when the lift moves down at 5 m/s
Write the correct relation between their relative values [Ans: w1>( w3= w4)> w2]

1. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.

Reason : Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or of uniform motion.
2. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.

Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.

3. Assertion : Impulse of force and momentum are same physical quantities.

Reason : Both quantities have same unit.

4. Assertion: A cricketer moves his hands forward to catch a ball so as to catch it easily without

hurting.
Reason: He tries to decrease the distance travelled by the ball so that it hurts less.
5. Assertion: Same force applied for the same time causes the same change in momentum for

different bodies
Reason: The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting bodies remains conserved.
6. Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

Reason : Whenever there is change in momentum of one body, the same change occurs in the
momentum of the second body of the same system but in the opposite direction.
7. Assertion : A block placed on a table is at rest, because action force cancels the reaction force on

the block.
Assertion : The net force on the block is zero.
8. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to stop a moving car or bus at high speed.

Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due to wetting of the surface.
9. Assertion: Friction is a necessary evil

Reason: Though friction dissipates power, but without friction we cannot walk.
10. Assertion: There is a stage when frictional force is not needed at all to provide the necessary
10
centripetal force on a banked road.
Reason: On a banked road, due to its inclination the vehicle tends to remain inwards without any
chances of skidding.
11. Assertion : Linear momentum of a body changes even when it is moving uniformly in a circle.

Reason : In uniform circular motion, velocity remains constant.

12. Assertion : No external force is required to keep a body in uniform motion.

Reason :If the net external force is zero , a body at rest continues to remain at rest and the body in
motion continues to move with a uniform velocity.
13. Assertion: It is difficult to move a cycle along the road with brakes on.

Reason: Sliding friction is greater than rolling friction.

14. Assertion: The apparent weight of a body in an elevator moving with some downward

acceleration is less than the actual weight of the body.

Reason: The part of the weight of the body is spent in producing downward acceleration, when body
is in elevator.
15. Assertion: A horse has to pull the cart harder during first few steps of his motion.

Reason: The first few steps are always difficult

CASE STUDY

The maximum permissible velocity with which a vehicle can go round a level curved road without skidding
depends on μ, the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road. The value of μ decreases when
road is smooth or
tyres of the vehicle are worn out or the road is wet and so on. Thus force of friction is not a reliable source
for providing the required centripetal force to the vehicle. A safer course of action would be to do the
‘banking’ of such roads.
1. The phenomenon of raising …………..of the curved road above the inner edge is called banking of roads
(a) Inner edge (b)Centre (c)Outer edge (d)None of these

2. Normal reaction R of the banked road acts

(a) Along the surface of contact (b)Opposite to the weight w

(c) Perpendicular to the surface of contact (d)Any arbitrary direction
3. Centripetal force in case of a car moving on a banked circular road is provided by the following
components of various forces

(a) R sinθ, f cosθ (b)R cosθ, f sinθ (c)R, f (d)R, weight

4. The speed at which a banked road can be rounded even when there is no friction

(a). (rg/ tan θ)1/2 - (b) (rg tan θ)1/2 (c)Zero (d)Infinity
5. A circular race track of radius 300m is banked at an angle of 15degrees. If the co-efficient of friction
between wheels and the road is 0.2, what is the optimum speed of the race car to avoid wear and tear on
its tyres
(a) . 10√(30 tan15) m/s (b)10√(30 /tan15) m/s (c) 300m/s (d)15m/s
11
 WORK ,ENERGY AND POWER

1) Calculate the work done by a car against gravity in moving along a straight horizontal road. The mass of
the car is 400 kg and the distance moved is 2m.

2) Calculate the power of a crane in watts, which lifts a mass of 100 kg to a height of 10 m in 20 seconds.

3) A 10 kg ball and 20 kg ball approach each other with velocities 20 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. What
are their velocities after collision if the collision is perfectly elastic?

4) An object of mass 0.4kg moving with a velocity of 4m/s collides with another object of mass 0.6kg
moving in the same direction with a velocity of 2m/s. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what is the loss
of K.E. due to impact?

5) A trolley of mass 200 kg moves with a uniform speed of 36 km/h on a frictionless track. A child of mass
20 kg runs on the trolley from one end to the other (10 m away) with a speed of 4 m/s relative to the
trolley in a direction opposite to its motion, and jumps out of the trolley. What is the final speed of the
trolley? How much has the trolley moved from the time the child begins to run?

6) A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If
the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is
consumed by the pump?

7) The bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal position. If the length of the pendulum is 1.5 m,
what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point, given that it dissipated 5% of its
initial energy against air resistance?

12
8) A body moving along the Z – axis of a co – ordinate system is subjected to a constant force F given by F
= -i + 2j + 3k N. where i,j,k are unit vectors along the x, y and z – axis of the system respectively. What is
the work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 4m along the Z – axis?

CASE STUDY

Potential Energy of Spring

There are many types of spring. Important among these are helical and spiral springs.
Usually, we assume that the springs are massless. Therefore, work done is stored in the spring in the form
of elastic potential energy of the spring. Thus, potential energy of a spring is the energy associated with
the state of compression or expansion of an elastic spring.
(i) The ratio of spring constants of two springs is 2: 3. What is the ratio of their potential energy, if they
are stretched by the same force?
(a) 2: 3 (b) 3: 2 (c) 4: 9 (d) 9: 4
(ii) The potential energy of a body is increases in which of the following cases?
(a) If work is done by conservative force
(b) If work is done against conservative force
(c) If work is done by non-conservative force
(d) If work is done against non- conservative force
(iii) The potential energy, i.e., U (x) can be assumed zero when
(a) x =0 (b) gravitational force is constant
(c) infinite distance from the gravitational source (d) All of the above
(iv) The potential energy of a spring when stretched through a distance x is 10 J. What is the amount of
work done on the same spring to stretch it through an additional distance x?
(a) 10 J (b) 20 J (c) 30 J (d) 40 J
(v) The potential energy of a spring increases by 15 J when stretched by 3 cm. If it is stretched by 4 cm, the
increase in potential energy is
(a) 27 J (b) 30 J (c) 33 J (d) 36 J

13
 SYSTEMS OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION

1. The speed of a whirl wind in a tornado is alarmingly high. Why ?

2. Why it is easier to open a tap with two fingers than with one finger ?
3. Why does a girl lean towards right while carrying a bag in her left hand ?
4. Should the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the body?
5. What will be the duration of the day, if earth suddenly shrinks to 1/64 of its original volume, mass
remaining the same? (1.5 hour)
6. How will you distinguish between a hardboiled egg and a raw egg by spinning it on a table top?
7. (a) What is the moment of inertia of a rod of mass M, length l about an axis perpendicular to it
through one end? Given the moment of inertia about the centre of mass is 1/12 MI2 (b) The
moment of inertia of a solid sphere about a tangent is 5/3 MR2, Where M is mass and R is radius
of the sphere. Find the M.I. of the sphere about its diameter. (C) What is the moment of inertia
of a ring about a tangent to the circle of the ring? ( 1/3ml2, 2/3mr2, 3/2mr2 )
8. Using expressions for power and kinetic energy of rotational motion derive the relation. τ = Iα ,
where letters have their usual meanings.
9. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of hole is at
R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of gravity of the resulting flat body.
( R/6)
10. A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5g are put
14
 one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at
45.0 cm. What is the mass of the meter stick? (66gm)
11. Write the SI unit of torque and angular momentum. Derive the relation between angular
momentum and torque.
12. The centre of mass of three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg lies at the point (3 m,3 m, 3
m). Where should a fourth particle of mass 4 kg be positioned so that the centre of
mass of the four particle system lies at the point (1 m, 1 m, 1 m) ? (-2 m, -2 m, -2 m)]
13. Form a uniform circular disc of radius R, a circular disc of radius R/6 and havingcentre
at a distance R/2 from the centre of the disc is removed. Determine the
centre of mass of remaining portion of the disc. ( -R/70) page 17
14. Four point masses of 5 g each are placed at the four corners of a square of side 10 cm.Find the
moment of inertia of the system (i) about an axis coinciding with one of the sides and (ii)
about and axis passing through the point of intersection of the diagonalsand perpendicular to
the plane of the square. [Ans. 1000 g cm2 (ii) 1000 g cm2]

15
 15. 11.Calculate the moment of inertia of uniform circular disc of mass 500 g. radius 10 cm.
about (i) diameter of the disc (ii) the axis tangent to the disc and parallel to its diameterand
(iii) the axis through the centre of the disc and perpendicular to its plane.
[Ans. (i) 12500 g cm2 (ii)62500 g cm2 (iii) 25000 g cm2]

16. Two masses of 3 kg and 5 kg are placed at 30 cm and 70 cm marks respectively on a light
wooden metre scale, as shown in fig. What will the moment of inertia of the system about
an axis through (i) 0 cm mark and (ii) 100 cm mark, and perpendicular to the metre scale?
[Ans. (i) 2.72 kg m2 (ii) 1.92 kg m2]

17. The moment of inertia of a flywheel is 4 kg m2. What angular acceleration will be
producedin it by applying a torque of 10 Nm on it? [Ans. 2.5 rad
-2
s ]

18. If a constant torque of 500 Nm turns a wheel of moment of inertia 100 kg m2 about an
axis through its centre, find the gain in angular velocity in 2s. [Ans. 10 rad s-1]

19. An ice skater spins with arms outstretched at 1.9 rps. Her moment of inertia at the instant
is 1.33 kg m2. She pulls in her arms to increase her rate of spin. If this moment ofinertia is
0.48 kg m2 after she pulls in her arms What is her new rate of rotation? [Ans.
5.26 rps]
20. If the earth suddenly contracts by one-fourth of its present radius, by much would the
day be shortened? [Ans. 10.5 h]

1. Assertion : The centre of mass of a body may lie where there is no mass.
Reason : Centre of mass of body is a point, where the whole mass of the body is supposed to be
concentrated.
2. Assertion : The earth is slowing down and as a result the moon is coming nearer to it.
Reason : The angular momentum of the earth moon system is conserved
3. Assertion : When you lean behind over the hind legs of the chair, the chair falls back after a
certain angle.
Reason : Centre of mass lying outside the system makes the system unstable.
4. Assertion : The centre of mass of system of n particles is the weighted average of the position
vector of the n particles making up the system.
Reason : The position of the centre of mass of a system in independent of coordinate system.
5. Assertion: Centre of mass of a ring lies at its geometric centre though there is no mass.
Reason: Centre of mass is independent of mass.
6. Assertion : The centre of mass of an isolated system has a constant velocity.
Reason : If centre of mass of an isolated system is already at rest, it remains at rest.
7. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of body depend upon shape and size of the body.
Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at the centre of the body

16
8. Assertion : If no external force acts on a system of particles, then the centre of mass will not move
in any direction.
Reason : If net external force is zero, then the linear momentum of the system remains constant
9. Assertion : A particle is moving on a straight line with a uniform velocity, its angular momentum is
always zero.
Reason : The momentum is not zero when particle moves with a uniform velocity.
10. Assertion : The centre of mass of a two particle system lies on the line joining the two particle,
being closer to the heavier particle.
Reason : Product of mass of particle and its distance from centre of m

GRAVITATION
1.The gravitational force between two blocks is F what would happen if a mass of both the blocks as
well as distance between them is doubled?
2.Which is greater the attraction of the earth for 1 kg of aluminium or aluminium or attraction of 1kg
of aluminium for the earth?
3.Distance between two bodies is increased to three times its original value. What is the effect on
the gravitational force between them?

17
4.The gravitational force between two bodies in 1 N if the distance between them is doubled, What
will be the force between them? 5.The time period of the satellite of the earth is 5 hr. If the
separation between earth and satellite is increased to
4 times the previous value, then what will be the
new time period of satellite.
6.If radius of earth is 6400km, what will be the weight of 1 quintal body if taken to the height of
1600 km above the sea level?
7.The distance of the planet Jupiter from the sun is 5.2 times that of the earth. Find the period of the
Jupiter’s revolution around the sun?
8.Two planets of radii r1, and r2 are made from the same material. Calculate the ratio of the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planets. 9.If earth has a mass 9 times and radius 4
times than that of a planet "P". Calculate the escape velocity at the planet "P" if its value on earth is
11.2 kms -1. 10.At what height from the surface of the earth will the value of "g" be reduced by 36%
of its value at the surface of earth.
11.Which planet of the solar system has the greatest gravitational field strength? What is the
gravitational field strength of a planet where the weight of a 60 kg astronaut is 300 N.

8. MECHANICHAL PRORTIES OF SOLIDS

1. Write dimensional formula of Young’s modulus.

2. What is the value of bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid?

3. What is the value of compressibility for an incompressible liquid ?

18
4. What is elastic fatigue?

5. What do you mean by ‘permanent set’ in a body?

6. Stress and pressure are both force per unit area. Then in what respect does stress differ from
pressure?

7. The ratio stress/strain remains constant for small deformation. What will be the effect on this
ratio when the deformation made is very large?

8. What does the slope of stress versus strain graph give?

9. What is a perfectly plastic body? Give an example.

10. The stress-strain graphs for materials A and B are shown in figure. The graphs are drawn to the
same scale. (a) Which is more brittle? (b) Which of the two is the stronger material?

11. Define modulus of elasticity. Name its three components.

12. A cable is replaced by another cable of the same length and material but twice the diameter.
How will this affect the elongation under a given load?

13. What is the percentage increase in the length of a wire of diameter 2.5 mm stretched by a force
of 100 kgf? Young’s modulus of elasticity of the wire is 12.5 × 1011 dyne cm–2.

14. (a) Is it possible to double the length of a metallic wire by applying a force over it? (b) Is elastic
limit a property of the material of the wire?

15. A wire stretches by a certain amount under a load. If the load and radius are both increased to
four times, find the stretch caused in the wire.

16. State Hooke’s law. Calculate the fractional compression, DV/V, of water at the bottom of the
ocean having depth 3000 m. The bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 N m–2. (Take g = 10 m s–2)

17. Define the term strain. Why it has no units and dimensions? What are different types of strain?

18. Define the term stress. Give its units and dimensions. Describe the different types of stress.

19. On the basis of stress-strain curves, distinguish between ductile and brittle materials.

20. Stress strain curve for two wires of material A and B are as shown in figure. Stress Strain wire B
wire A (a) Which material in more ductile? (b) Which of the two is stronger material? (c) Which
material is more brittle?

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS

1. Why does velocity increase when water flowing in a broad pipe enters a narrow pipe?

2. What is reciprocal of viscosity known as?

19
3. It is painful to walk barefooted on the ground covered with edged pebbles. Why?

4. Why two ships moving in parallel directions close to each other get attracted?

5. When air is blown between two balls suspended close to each other they are attracted towards
each other. Why?

6. Does it matter if one uses gauge instead of absolute pressures in applying Bernoulli’s equation?
Explain.

7. What is the net weight of a body when it falls with terminal velocity through a viscous medium?

8. Two soap bubbles have radii in the ratio 2 : 3. Find the ratio of the work done in blowing these
bubbles.

9. The diameter of ball A is half of that of ball B. What will be the ratio of their terminal velocities in
water if all the factors remain same?

10. What is the effect of temperature on surface

11. Explain why, when we try to close a water tap with our fingers, fast jets of water gush through
the openings between our fingers?

12. On what principle working of hydraulic brakes are based? State that principle.

13. Explain, why a fluid flowing out of a small hole in a vessel results in a backward thrust on the
vessel?

14. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice the excess pressure inside a second soap
bubble. What is the ratio between the volume of the first and the second bubble? 16. Why the
passengers are advised to remove the ink from their pens while going up in an aeroplane?

15. Why two streamlines cannot intersect each other?

16. In streamline flow, water entering a pipe having diameter of 2 cm and the speed of water is
1.0m/s. Eventually, the pipe tapers to a diameter of 1 cm. Calculate the speed of water where
diameter of pipe is 1 cm. 20. What is the importance of Reynold’s number?

17. An air bubble of diameter 2 mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750 kg m–3 at the
rate of 0.35 cm s–1. Calculate the coefficient of viscosity of the solution. The density of air is
negligible.

18. A vessel filled with water is kept on a weighing pan and the scale adjusted to zero. A block of
mass M and density ρ is suspended by a Mechanical Properties of Fluids 29 massless spring of spring
constant k. This block is submerged inside the water in the vessel. What is the reading of the scale?
19. The sap in trees, which consists mainly of water in summer, rises in a system of capillaries of
radius r = 2.5 × 10–5 m. The surface tension of sap is T = 7.28 × 10–2 N m–1 and the angle of contact
is 0°. Does surface tension alone account for the supply of water to the top of all trees?

20. The drop of liquid of density r is floating with 1/ 4 th inside the liquid A of density r1 and
remaining in the liquid B of density r2. Then, find the relation between the densities of liquid A and
B.

1. Why machine parts are jammed in the winter?

20
 2. Why should the lubricant oil be of high viscosity ?

3. Explain why parachute is invariably used, while jumping from an airplane ?

4. Which fall faster – big rain drops or small rain drops?

5. Why dust generally settles down in a closed room

6. How does the viscosity of gases depend on temperature?

7. What is REYNOLD’s number?

8. Define coefficient of viscosity of a liquid.

9. Mention two applications of Stokes’ law.

10. . Two balls A and B have radii in the ratio 1:2. What will be the ratio of their terminal
velocities in a liquid? ( 1:4)

11. What should be the average velocity of water in a tube of radius 0.005m so that theflow is
just turbulent? The viscosity of water is 0.001 pa s. ( .3 m/s)

12. The flow rate of water from a tap of diameter 1.25 cm is 0.48 L/min. The coefficient of
viscosity of water is 10 -3 pa s. After some time the flow rate is increased to 3 L/min.
Characteristics the flow for both the flow rates. ( 815, 5096)

13. Eight rain drops of radius 1mm each falling down with terminal velocity of 5 cm/s coalesce to
form a bigger drop. Find terminal velocity o f the bigger drop? (
20cm/s)
14A metal plate of area .1m is connected to a .01 Kg mass via a stringthat
passes over an ideal pulley as shown A liquid with a film
thickness of .3mm is placed between the plate and the table. When released theplate
moves to the right with a constant speed of .085m/s.
Find the coefficient of viscosity of the liqui
Suppose that an incompressible fluid is flowing through the pipe of varying cross-sectional area, in a steady flow.
Its velocity must change as a consequence of equation of continuity. A force is required to produce this
acceleration, which is caused by the fluid surrounding it, the pressure must be different in different regions.
Bernoulli’s equation is a general expression that relates the pressure difference between two points in a pipe to
both velocity changes (kinetic energy change) and elevation (height) changes (potential energy change).
The statement of Bernoulli’s relation is: As we move along a streamline the sum of the pressure (P), the kinetic
energy per unit volume and the potential energy per unit volume (ρgh) remains a constant. Note that in applying
the energy conservation principle, there is an assumption that no energy is lost due to friction. In practice, it has a
large number of useful applications and can help explain a wide variety of phenomena for low viscosity
incompressible fluids.
1 Bernoulli’s equation for steady, non-viscous, incompressible flow expresses the
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of mass
(d) conservation of energy

21
2 Applications of Bernoulli’s theorem can be seen in
(a) dynamic lift of aeroplane
(b) dynamic lift due to spining cricket ball
(c) Paint spray gun.
(d) in all (a),(b), and (c)
3 Bernoulli’s equation holds good
(a)for non-steady
(b)in that situation, velocity and pressure are constantly fluctuating in time
(c) in that situation velocity and pressure are not constantly fluctuating in time
(d)In all the cases of (a),(b), and (c)
4 Bernoulli’s equation ideally applies to fluids with
(a) with zero viscosity
(b) with high viscosity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. A rail track made of steel having length 10 m is clamped on a railway line at its two ends. On a
summer day due to rise in temperature by 20°C, it is deformed as shown in figure. Find x
(displacement of the centre) if coefficient of linear expansion of steel is, αsteel = 1.2 × 10–5 °C–1

2. Define the terms heat capacity and water equivalent. Give their CGS and SI units.

22
3. A calorimeter contains 10 kg of water and some ice. Variation of temperature with time, when the
calorimeter is heated over a slow burner is as shown in graph. Ignoring heat absorbed by
calorimeter, find the amount of ice present.

4. A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27°C is held taut with little tension between two rigid supports. If the
wire is cooled to a temperature of –39°C, what is the tension developed in the wire, if its diameter is
2.0 mm? Coefficient of linear expansion of brass = 2.0 × 10–5 K–1; Young’s modulus of brass = 0.91 ×
1011 Pa.

5. Find the ratio of heat required to raise the temperatures of two copper spheres of radii r1 and r2
(r1 = 2.5r2) through 1 K.

6. (a) Calorimeters are made of metals not glass. Why ? (b) What is calorimetry ? (c) Which has the
highest specific heat capacity : hydrogen or water?

7. Explain briefly the anomalous expansion of water. How the fishes can survive in the extreme
winter when lakes ponds are frozen?

8. (a) On what factors does the amount of heat flowing through a body [conductivity] depend?
Obtain the expression for the heat conducted. (b) Define coefficient of thermal conductivity. Write
its SI unit. (c) Define thermal conductivity.

9. During summers in India, one of the common practice to keep cool is to make ice balls of crushed
ice, dip it in flavoured sugar syrup and sip it. For this a stick is inserted into crushed ice and is
squeezed in the palm to make it into the ball. Equivalently in winter, in those areas where it snows,
people make snow balls and throw around. Explain the formation of ball out of crushed ice or snow
in the light of P–T diagram of water.

10. What is the effect of pressure on melting point of a substance? What is the regelation. Give its
one practical application.

1. Assertion : Land heats up faster than sea

Reason : Specific heat of land is greater than water
2. Assertion : A wire placed on an ice slab with two blocks at the end pass through ice slab

Reason : Melting point increases with pressure

3. Assertion : Co efficient of volume expansion of liquids dependent on temperature

Reason : Co efficient of volume expansion of liquids independent on temperature

4. Assertion : Food gets cooked well in a pressure cooker

Reason : Boiling point of water increases with pressure

5. Assertion : A brass disc is just fitted in a hole in a steel plate. The system must be cooled to loosen

the disc from the hole.

23
Reason : The coefficient of linear expansion for brass is greater than the coefficient of linear
expansion for steel.

THERMODYNAMICS

1. Two bodies at different temperatures T1 and T2, if brought in thermal contact do not necessarily
settle to the mean temperature (T1 + T2)/2. Explain.

2. Give difference between heat and work.

3. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If system performs work at a rate
of 75 joules per second. At what rate is the internal energy increasing?

4. For one mole of gas, work done at constant pressure is W. What is the heat supplied at constant
volume for the same rise in temperature of the gas ?

24
5. What is an isothermal process ? What are the essential conditions for an isothermal process to
take place ?

6. A cylinder with a movable piston contains 3 moles of hydrogen at standard temperature and
pressure. The walls of the cylinder are made of a heat insulator, and the piston is insulated by having
a pile of sand on it. By what factor does the pressure of the gas increase if the gas is compressed to
half its original volume?

7. A system goes from P to Q by two different paths in the P-V diagram as shown in figure. Heat
given to the system in path 1 is 1000 J. The work done by the system along path 1 is more than path
2 by 100 J. What is the heat exchanged by the system in path 2?

8. Why is it impossible for a ship to use the internal energy of sea water to operate its engine ?

9. The specific heat of hydrogen gas of constant pressure is CP = 3.4 × 103 cal/ kg °C and at constant
volume is CV = 2.4 × 103 cal/kg °C. If one kilogram hydrogen gas is heated from 10°C to 20°C at
constant pressure. What will be the external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant
pressure?

10. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. The cylinder
A contains a gas at standard temperature and pressure, while the cylinder B is completely
evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stopcock is suddenly opened. Answer the
following : (a) What is the final pressure of the gas in A and B? (b) What is the change in internal
energy of the gas? (c) What is the change in temperature of the gas?

11. Thermosflask contains coffee. It is vigorously shaken. Consider the coffee as the system. (a) Has
any heat been added to it? (b) Has any work been done on it? (c) Has its internal energy changed?
(d) Does its temperature rise?

12. An air bubble of volume 1.0 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep at a temperature of
12°C. To what volume does it grow when it reaches the surface which is at a temperature of 35°C ?

13. When heat energy of 1500 J is supplied to a gas at constant pressure, 2.1 × 105 N m–2, there was
an increase in its volume equal to 2.5 × 10–3 m3. What is the increase in its internal energy ?

Assertion : In the case of refrigerator, some external work is done on it.

Reason : The working substance extract heat from cold reservoir
1. Assertion : In a cyclic process, there is no change in internal energy

Reason : Internal energy is a state variable and the entire heat converted into work
2. Assertion : Irreversibility arises due to the dissipative forces

Reason : Spontaneous processes are reversible

25
3. Assertion : A quasi-static process deals with process in equilibrium

Reason : It is not a good approximation for non-equilibrium process

4. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is converted into

internal energy.
Reason : According to the first law of thermodynamics ΔQ = ΔU
5. Assertion : Zeroth law defines the temperature

Reason : Temperature is a state variable

6. Assertion : Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes cool

Reason : The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion.

OCSILLATIONS

1. A simple harmonic motion is described by a = –16x where a is acceleration and x is displacement

in meter. What is the time-period ?

2 Glass window panes are sometimes broken by a explosion several miles away. Explain why?

3. On what factors does the energy of a simple harmonically vibrating particle depends?

4. What will be the time period of a second pendulum inside an artificial satellite?

26
5. Three springs of constants k1, k2 and k3 are connected end to end and are used to hang a mass M
from the roof. Determine the elastic potential energy stored in the array.

6.The maximum velocity of a body undergoing simple harmonic motion is 0.04 m s–1 and its
acceleration at 0.02 m from the mean position is 0.06 m s–2. Determine its amplitude and time
period. 19. The formula for time period

7. A block weighing 40 N is suspended from a spring that has a force constant of 200 Nm–1. The
system is undamped and is subjected to a harmonic driving force of frequency 10 Hz, resulting a
forced-motion amplitude of 2 cm. What is the maximum value of driving force ?

8. A 2 kg particle undergoes SHM according to x = 1.5 sin π π 4 6 t + , when x is in metre

and t in second. What is the total mechanical energy of the particle ?

9. Show that the acceleration of a particle in SHM is proportional to its displacement from the mean
position.

10. Three springs of spring factor k, 2k, k, respectively are connected in parallel to a mass m. If the
mass = 0.08 kg and k = 2 N/m, then find the new time period?

11. Define S.H.M. What are its characteristics? At what distance from the mean position in S.H.M of
amplitude r, the energy is half kinetic and half potential ?

12. Find the displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator at which its P.E. is half of the maximum
energy of the oscillator.

13. A 10 kg collar is attached to a spring (spring constant 600 N/m), it slides without friction over a
horizontal rod. The collar is displaced from its equilibrium position by 20 cm and released. What is
the speed of the oscillation?

14. A particle is moving in a straight line with SHM of amplitude r. At a distance s from the mean
position of motion, the particle receives a blow in the direction of motion which instantaneously
doubles the velocity. Find the new amplitude.

15. If the ratio of the mechanical energy of a mass m whose oscillations are damped to that of its
free oscillations is e–3t/m, then determine the ratio of the amplitudes of the damped oscillations to
that of free oscillations.

16. Draw (a) displacement time graph of a particle executing SHM with phase angle f equal to zero
(b) velocity-time graph and (c) acceleration-time graph of the particle.

WAVES

1. Draw the graph between frequency and square root of density of a wire (keeping length, radius
and tension constant

2. What is the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in air? Justify your answer.

27
3. Two astronauts on the surface of the moon cannot talk to each other why?

4. A plane progressive wave is given by y = 2cos6.284(330t – x). What is the period of the wave?

5. The velocity of sound, under STP conditions, equal 400 m/s. What will be the velocity when the (i)
pressure is changed to 2 atmospheric pressure without any change in temperature? (ii) temperature
is increased to 819 °C

6.Discuss the effect of following factors on the speed of sound : (a) Pressure (b) Density (c) Humidity
(d) Temperature

7. A mechanical wave travels along a string is described by y(x, t) = 0.005 sin(3.0t – 80x) in which
numerical constants are in SI units. Calculate (a) Amplitude of displacement (b) Amplitude of velocity
(c) Wavelength (d) Amplitude of acceleration (e) The time period (f) Frequency of oscillation.

8.The reference to a wave motion define the terms (i) amplitude (ii) wavelength (iii) time period (iv)
frequency

9. (i) What kind of thermodynamical process occur in air, when a sound wave propagates through it?
(ii) The velocity of sound in a tube containing air at 27°C and pressure of 76 cm of Hg is 330 m s–1.
What will be its velocity, when pressure is increased to 152 cm of mercury and temperature is kept
constant?

10. Why and how Laplace corrected Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in gases ?

11.A transverse harmonic wave on a string is described by y(x, t) = 3.0 sin (36 t + 0.018 x + p/4)
where x and y are in cm and t in s. The positive direction of x is from left to right. (a) Is this a
travelling wave or a stationary wave? If it is travelling, what are the speed and direction of its
propagation? (b) What are its amplitude and frequency? (c) What is the initial phase at the origin?
(d) What is the least distance between two successive crests in the wav

28
 CHAPTER-1
SETS

Q1. For all sets A and B, A – (A∩B) is equal to_____________

Q2. If B’ ⊂ A’, show that A ⊂ B.

Q3. The set (A ∩ 𝐵′)’ U (B ∩ 𝐶) is equal to _____________

Q4. Find the power set of A = {2,4,5}.

𝑥+5 4𝑥−40
Q5. Let T = {x : −5= }. Is T an empty set?
𝑥−7 13−𝑥

Q6. Let U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7}, A = {2,4,6}, B = {3,5} and C = {1,2,4,7}, verify that:

(i) (AUB)UC = AU(BUC)

(ii) (A – B )UB = AUB
(iii) A – B = A∩ 𝐵′
(iv) (A – B )U(B - A)= (AUB) - (A∩ 𝐵)
(v) (AUB)’ = A’∩ 𝐵′

Q7. Given that N = {1,2,3,…,100}, then write the subset B of N, whose elements are represented by

x + 2, where x belongs to N.
Q8. What is the number of non-empty subsets of A = {1, 2, 3, 4}?

Q9. What is the number of proper subsets of set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}?

Q10. If A = {2, 3, 4, 8, 10}, B = {3, 4, 5, 10, 12}, C= {4, 5, 6, 12, 14}, then determine the set (A∩ 𝐵) U (A∩ 𝐶).

Q11. If n(A) = 3, n (B)=6 and A ⊆ 𝐵. Find the number of elements in AUB and in A∩ B.
Q12. If set A = {x : x = 1/y , where y ∈ 𝑁}, then which of the following belong to A : 0,1,2,2/3

Q13. Write the proper subsets of {-1,2,3}.

Q14. Write in set builder form:

(i) A = {2,6,9,12,….}
(ii) B = {0}
(iii) C={}
(iv) D = {1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, 1/64}
 CHAPTER – 2
RELATIONS AND FUNCTIONS

Q1. Let A be the set of 10 natural numbers and let R be the relation on A defined by

(x,y) ∈ 𝑅 such that X + 2Y = 10 i.e. R = {(X,Y) : x∈ 𝐴, 𝑦 ∈ 𝑨, 𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 = 𝟏𝟎 }

Q2. Let A be the set of first 5 natural nos. and let R be relation on A defined as follows.

(x,y) ∈ R ⟺ x ≤ y.
Find R and its domain and range.
𝑥 2 +3𝑥+5
Q3. Find domain of f(x) =
𝑥 2 +5𝑥+4

Q4. Let f(x) = x2

g(x) = 2x+1 , then find (f+g)(x), (f-g)(x), (fg)(x), (f/g)(x)

Q5. Find the domain and range of

(i) √25 − 𝑥 2
(ii) √𝑥 − 5
(iii) √9 + 𝑥 2
(iv) - IxI
𝐼𝑥−5𝐼
(v)
5−𝑥

Q6. Given set A such that n(A) = 3. If three elements of the set AXA are (-3,1),(0,-3) and (1,0), write set A find the
other elements of the set.

Q7. If A = {x: x ∈ 𝑊, 𝑥 < 2}, B = {x : x ∈ 𝑁, 1 < 𝑥 < 5}, C = {3,5} find (i) AX(B⋂C) (ii) AX(BUC).
Q8. Draw the graph of the function f(x) = 1/x; x ≠0, x ∈ 𝑅.

Q9. If A = {a,b,c}; B = {d}, C = {e},

Verify that A X (BUC) = (AXB) U (A X C).

𝑥−1
Q10. If f(x) = , 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡
𝑥+1
1 1 1
(i) f( ) = - f(x) (ii) f( - )=-
𝑥 𝑥 𝑓(𝑥)
 CHAPTER – 3
TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS

Q1. Prove that:

𝑐𝑜𝑠36°−𝑠𝑖𝑛36°
(i) Tan9° =
𝑐𝑜𝑠36° +𝑠𝑖𝑛36°
𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛6𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛4𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛13𝐴
(ii) = tan9A
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠6𝐴 +𝑠𝑖𝑛4𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠13𝐴
(iii) 𝑡𝑎𝑛70° = 𝑡𝑎𝑛20° + 2𝑡𝑎𝑛50°
(iv) Cos20°𝑐𝑜𝑠40°𝑐𝑜𝑠60°𝑐𝑜𝑠80° = 1/16
(v) Sin10°𝑠𝑖𝑛50°𝑠𝑖𝑛60°𝑠𝑖𝑛70° = √3/16
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠2∅ + 𝑠𝑖𝑛∅
(vi) = tan ∅
𝑠𝑖𝑛2∅ +𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
(vii) 1 − sin 2𝑥 = (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)2
1+ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝜋 𝑥
(viii) √ = tan ( + )
1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 4 2
𝜋 𝜋
(ix) sin(𝑥 − ) + cos(x - ) = √3 sinx
6 3
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
Q2. If sinx = -1/2 and x lies in 4th quadrant find sin , cos , 𝑡𝑎𝑛 .
2 2 2

Q3. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are solutions of the equation : atan𝜃 + 𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 = 𝑐, 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡
2𝑎𝑐
tan(𝛼 + 𝛽) =
𝑎 2 − 𝑐2

𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃 𝑛−1
Q4. If tan (𝛼 + 𝜃) = n tan (𝛼 − 𝜃), show that =
𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝛼 𝑛+1

Q5. If cosA = 4/5, cosB = 12/13, where A and B lie in 4 th quadrant, prove that

(i) cos (A+B) = 33/65 (ii) sin(A - B) = (-16/65)

Q6.A wheel makes 180 revolutions in one minute. Through how many radius does it turn in one second?
Q7. Find the angle between the minute hand of a clock and the hour hand when the time is 7:20.

Q8. Find the radian measure corresponding to the following :

(i) 70°50′ (ii) -22°30’

Q9. Find the degree measure of (i) -2 radian (ii) 6 radian.

Q10. If sin𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 = 𝑛, prove that n(m + 1)(m - 1) = 2m

Q11. Evaluate:

(i) Tan 330° (ii) sin225° (iii)cos120°

𝑘+1
Q12. If tanA = k tanB, show that sin(A + B) = ( )sin(A - B).
𝑘−1
 CHAPTER – 4
COMPLEX NUMBERS AND QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

Q1. Express the following in the form of (a + ib) :

3−𝑖
(i)
5+6𝑖
5+ √2𝑖
(ii)
1 − √2𝑖
(iii) (3i - 7) + ( 7 – 4i) – (6 + 3i ) + i23
(iv) (4 – 3i)3

Q2. Solve for x and y, (3 + i)x + (1 – 2i)y + 7i = 0

(1+𝑖)𝑥 − 2𝑖 (2−3𝑖)𝑦+𝑖
Q3. Find the values x and y, if + =𝑖
3+𝑖 3−𝑖

Q4. Find the multiplicative inverse 0f the following:

(i) 2 – 3i
(ii) –i
1
(iii)
3−4𝑖

Q5. Find the relation between x and y of a complex variable z = x + iy satisfying the condition
𝑧−3
| |=2
𝑧+3

Q6. Evaluate : (1 + i)6 + (1 - i)3 = -8i -2 -2i = -2 -10i

Q7. Evaluate : (i) i257

(ii) i107 + i112 + i117 + i122

1
(iii)(I + i)4 X (1 + )4
𝑖

Q8. Show that

(i) 1 + i14 + i18 + i22 is a real number.
(ii) 6i54 + 5i37 – 2i11 + 6i68 = 7i

Q9. If 1 + 4√3 𝑖 = (𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏)2, Show that a2 – b2 = 1 and ab = 2√3.

Q10. Show that for any real 𝜃, (cos 𝜃 + 𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)(cos 𝜃 − 𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 ) = 1

 CHAPTER – 5
LINEAR INEQUALITIES

Q1. SOLVE : -3 ≤ 4 − 7𝑥 < 18

4−3𝑥
Q2. Solve : -12 ≤ <2
−5

Q3. Solve : 2x – 7 > 5 – x

4−7𝑥
Q4. Solve : -3 ≤ ≤ 18
2

Q5. Solve graphically:

(a) 3x – 4y + 12 ≥ 0
2x – y + 2 ≥ 0
2x + 3y – 12 ≥ 0
X ≤ 4 ,𝑦 ≥ 2
X,y ≥ 0
(b) –x + 2y ≤ 8
2x – y ≥ −4
(c) 3x – 4y + 12 ≥ 0
2x + 3y – 12 ≥ 0
(d) X + y ≤ 4
6x + 2y ≥ 8
X + 5y ≥ 4
X ≥ 3, 𝑦 ≤ 3; 𝑥, 𝑦 ≥ 0
Q6. Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers, both of which are smaller than 18, such that their sum is more
than 20.
Q7. Nisha needs a minimum of 360 marks in four tests in a course to obtain an A grade. On her first three tests, she
scored 88, 96, 79 marks. What should her score be in the fourth test so that she can make an A grade?
Q8. In drilling world’s deepest hole, it was found that the temperature T in degree Celsius, x km below the surface of
Earth, was given by T = 30 + 25 (x - 3), 3 < x < 15, At what depth will the temperature be between 200℃ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 300℃ ?
Q9. A solution of 9% acid is to be diluted by adding 3% acid solution to it. The resulting mixture is to be more than
5% but less than 7% acid. If there is 460 litres of the 9% solution, how many litres of 3% solution will have to be
added?
Q10. The longest side of a triangle is twice the shortest side and the third side is 2 cm longer than the shortest side. If
the perimeter of the triangle is more than 166 cm then find the minimum length of the shortest side.
 CHAPTER- 10
CONIC SECTION

Q1. Show that the equation of the circle passing through the origin and cutting intercepts a and b on the co-ordinate
axes is x2 + y2 – ax – by = 0.

Q2. Prove that the radii of the circles x2 + y2 =1 , x2 + y2 -2x – 6y = 6 and x2 + y2 – 4x – 12y = 9 are in A.P.

Q3. If the equations of the two diameters of a circle are x + y = 6 and x + 2y = 4 and radius of the circle is 10, then
find the equation of the circle.

Q4. Find the equation of the parabola with vertex at origin and having axis along x-axis and passing through (1,-4).

Q5. Find the focus, directrix, length of the latus rectum and distance of the focus from the directrix of the parabola
2x2 + 9y = 0.

Q6. Obtain the equation of the ellipse whose latus rectum is 5 and whose eccentricity is 2/3, the axes of the ellipse
being the axes of coordinates.

Q7. Find the equation of the ellipse with axes along the x-axis , which passes through the points P(4,3) and Q(6,2).

Q8. Find the eccentricity of the ellipse of which the major axis is double the minoe axis.

Q9. The foci of a hyperbola are the points (±5,0). Find the equation of the curve if e = 5/4.

Q10. Find the eqution of hyperbola, the distance between foci is 32 and e = 2√2.
 CHAPTER - 11
THREE DIMENSIONAL

Q1. Show that the points A(1,-1,3), B(2,-4,5) and C(5,-13,11) are collinear.

Q2. Find the third vertex of triangle whose centroid is origin and two vertices are (2,4,6) and

(0,-2,-5).

Q3. If the origin is the centroid of a triangle ABC having vertices A(a,1,3), B(-2,b,-5) and C(4,7,c), find the values of
a,b,c.

Q4. Show that the three points A(2,3,4), B(-1,2,-3) and C(-4,1,-10) are collinear and find the ratio in which C divides
AB.

Q5. Find the ratio in which the plane 2x + 3y + 5z = 1 divides the line segment joining the points

(1,0,-3) and (1,-5,7).

Q6. The mid-point of the sides of a triangle are (1,5,-1),(0,4,-2) and (2,3,4). Find its vertices.

Q7. Prove that the points (0,-1,-7),(2,1,-9) and (6,5,-13) are collinear. Find the ratio in which the first point divides
the join of the other two.

Q8. Find the distance from the origin to (6,6,7).

Q9. One word Type

(i) x –axis is the intersection of two planes_________________

(ii) The point (-2,-3,-4) lies in the ______________________octant
(iii) What is the length of foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P(3,4,5) on y-axis_______________
(iv) The distance of point P(3,4,5) from the yz-plane is _____________
(v) Distance of the point (3,4,-5) from the origin is _____________________

Q10. Three consecutive vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(6,-2,4), B(2,4,-8), and C(-2,2,4). Find the co-ordinates
of the fourth vertex.
 CHAPTER – 12
LIMITS AND DERIVATIVES

Q1. Evaluate :
√2− √1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
(i) lim
𝑥→0 (sin 𝑥)2
(1+𝑥)6 −1
(ii) lim
𝑥→0 (1+𝑥)2 −1
√1+𝑥 3 − √1− 𝑥 3
(iii) lim
𝑥→0 𝑥2
𝑆𝑖𝑛2𝑥 + 3𝑥
(iv) lim
𝑥→0 2𝑥 +𝑡𝑎𝑛3𝑥
𝑥 3 + 27
(v) lim
𝑥→−3 𝑥 5 +243
√1−𝑐𝑜𝑠6𝑥
(vi) lim𝜋 𝜋
𝑥→ √2 ( 3 −𝑥)
3
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝑥 + sin 5𝑥
(vii) lim
𝑥→0 𝑥
𝑥2 − 4
(viii) lim
𝑥→2 √3𝑥−2 − √𝑥+2

Q2. Differentiate each of the following functions w.r.t. x

(i)(3x + 5)(1 + tanx)

(ii) sin(cos(𝑥 2))

(iii) sec(tan(√𝑥))

(iv) log (x + √𝑎2 + 𝑥 2 )

𝑑𝑦 1
Q3. If y = √𝑥 + 1 + √𝑥 − 1 , 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 √𝑥 2 − 1 = y
𝑑𝑥 2

𝑑𝑦
Q4. If y = √𝑎2 – 𝑥 2, 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑦 + 𝑥 = 0.
𝑑𝑥
𝑥 𝑑𝑦
Q5. If y = , prove that x = (1 − 𝑦)𝑦.
𝑥+2 𝑑𝑥

Q6. Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x using first principle of derivatives:

(i) cosx2
(ii) √𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
(iii) sin√𝑥
(iv) xcosx
3𝑥−4
(v)
𝑥−2
(vi) sec(3𝑥 + 4)

Q7.Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x

(i) Log (sin5x)

1+𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥
(ii) 1−𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥

(iii) 𝑒 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
(iv) log(𝑐𝑜𝑠x 2 )
𝑑𝑦
Q8. If y = secx + tanx, show that cosx =𝑦
𝑑𝑥

√𝑎 + √𝑥
Q9. Find f’(x) , if f(x) = .
√𝑎 − √𝑥

2−3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑑𝑦 𝜋
Q10. If y = ( ) find 𝑎𝑡 𝑥 =
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑑𝑥 4
 CHAPTER – 13
STATISTICS

Q1. Find the mean of the scores given by: 15, 21, 35, 28, 42, 55, 21.

Q2. Find the mean deviation about the mean of daily wages(in Rs. ) of 10 workers

13, 16, 15, 15, 18, 15, 14, 18, 16, 10.

Q3. Calculate the mean and standard deviation for the following data:

Size of the item : 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Frequency :3 6 9 13 8 5 4

Q4. Find the S.D. of the following data:

Class interval : 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65 65-75

Frequency : 21 20 16 25 18

Q5. The mean of 200 items is 48 and their standard deviation is 3. Find the sum and sum of squares of all items.

Q6. Find the S.D. of the first n natural numbers.

Q7. Determine the mean deviation about the median of the following data:

Class frequency : 0-6 6-12 12-18 18-24 24-30

Frequency :4 5 3 6 2

Q8. The weights of coffee in 70 jars is shown in the following table:

Weight (in grams): 200-201 201-202 202-203 203-204 204-205 205-206

Frequency : 13 27 18 10 1 1

Determine variance and standard deviation of the above distribution.

Q9. Find the mean and standard deviation of the first n terms of an A.P. whose first term is a and common difference
is d.

Q10. If the mean deviation about median of the numbers a,2a,3a,……,50a is 50, prove that IaI = 4.
 Chapter -14
Probability

Q1. Find the probability of getting a total of more than 10 in a single throw of 2 dice.

Q2. In a group of 10 outstanding students in a school, there are 6 boys and 4 girls, 3 students are to be selected out
of these at random for a debate competition. Find the probability that one is boy and 2 are girls.
Q3. The letters of the word “SOCIETY” are placed at random in a row. What is the probability that three vowels come
together?

Q4. In a Lottery of 50 tickets numbered 1 to 50, two tickets are drawn simultaneously. Find the probability when (i)
both the tickets drawn have primes (ii) none of the tickets drawn have prime numbers.

Q5. The probabilities that a student will receive A,B ,C or D grade are 0.40; 0.35; 0.15 and 0.10 respectively. Find the
probability that a student will receive:

(i)not an A grade (ii) B or C grade (iii) atmost C grade

Q6. A and B are two exhaustive events of an experiment. If P(𝐴̅) = 0.65, P(AUB) = 0.65 and P(B) = p , find p.

Q7. A class consists of 10 boys and 8 girls. Three students are selected at random. What is the probability that the
selected group has (i) all boys (ii) all girls (iii) 1 boy and 2 girls (iv)atleast one girl (v) at most one girl.
Q8. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards, each of these 52 cards are being equally likely to be drawn. Find the
probability of :

(I ) a card drawn is red and king (ii) the card drawn is either red or king.

Q9. If the letters of the word ALGORITHM are arranged at random in a row what is the probability the letters GOR
must remain together as a unit?
Q10.Six new employees, two of whom are married to each other, are to be assigned six desks that are lined up in a
row. If the assignment of employees to desks is made randomly, what is the probability that the married couple will
have non-adjacent desks?
Q11. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a king or a heart or a red card.

Q12. A team of medical students doing their internship have to assist during surgeries at a city hospital. The
probabilities of surgeries rated as very complex, complex, routine, simple or very simple are respectively, 0.15, 0.20,
0.31, 0.26, 0.08. Find the probabilities that a particular surgery will be rated (i)complex or very complex
(ii)neither very complex nor very simple

(iii)routine or complex (iv) routine or simple

Q13. In a non-leap year, the probability of having 53 Tuesdays or 53 Wednesdays is __________.

Q14. In a large metropolitan area, the probabilities are 0.87, 0.36, 0.30 that a family (randomly chosen for a simple
survey) owns a colour television set, a black and white television set, or both kinds of sets. What is the probability
that a family owns either anyone or both kinds of sets?

Q15. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, P(A) = 0.35 and P(B) = 0.45, find (a) P(A’) (b) P(B’) (c)P(AUB) (d)
P(A⋂B) (e) P(A⋂B’) (f) P(A’⋂B’)
 CLASS-XI MATHMETICS (CHAPTER-7)
Permutations and Combinations
 Find n, if:
n! n! n!
Q1.  930, n  2. Q2.  20. , n  5.
(n  2)! (n  5)! (n  3)!

(2n)! n!
Q3. : 20.  52 : 5. Q4. (n  2)!  60. (n  1)!
5!(2n  3)! 4!(n  2)!

(n  1)!
Q5. (n  2)!  2550. n ! Q6. 6
(n  1)!

1 1 n
Q7.   . Q8. Find the L.C.M. of 6!,8!,11!.
9! 10! 11!
n!
 Evaluate when
(n  r )!

Q9. n  6; r  2 Q10. n  10, r  3 Q11. r  2 Q12. r  3.

n!
 Evaluate when,
r !(n  r )!

Q13. n  6, r  2 Q14. n  11, r  9 Q15. r  2 Q16. r  4.

 Prove that:
Q17. n  n  2. n  n 2 Q18. n  r  n 1  r  r.n 1  r 1 Q19. n  r  n. n 1 r 1

 Find n, if:
2 n 1
Q20. n  4  20. n  2 Q21.  n : 2 n 1 n 1  22 : 7 Q22. 2n
3  100.n  2
n 1
Q23. 3 : n 13  5 :12 Q24. 16.n 3  13.n1 3 Q25. n  4 : n  5  1: 2

Q26. n 5  20. n 3 Q27. n  4 : n13  9 :1. Q28. 30 n  6  n 2  7

Q29. n 5 : n1 4  6 :1.

 Find r, if:
Q30. 10
 r  2. 9  r Q31. 56
 r  6 : 54  r  6  30800 :1 Q32. 4.6  r  6  r 1

Q34. 5  r  2. 6  r 1 Q34. 20
 r 13. 20  r 1.

Q35. How many number are there between 100 and 1000 in which all the digits are distinct?
Q36. A flag is in the form of three blocks each to be coloured differently. If there are eight different colours of choose
from, how many such flags are possible?
Q37. How many different 4 digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 4 and 6 if each digit is used only once in a
number? Forther how many of these numbers end in a 3 or 6?

Q38. ThThere are four routes between Delhi and Mumbai. In how many ways can a person go from Delhi to Mumbai and
return, if for returning (i) any route is taken, (ii) the same route is taken, (iii) the same route is not taken ?

Q39. How many odd numbers less than 10,000 can be formed using the digits 0, 2, 3, 5 allowing repletion of digits?

Q40. How many 4 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 no digit being repeated?

ANSWERS
1. 31 2. 8 3. 7 4. 3 5. 49
6. 2 7. 121 8. 11! 9. 30 10. 720
n( n  1)
11. n(n  1) 12. n(n  1) (n  2) 13. 15 14. 55 15.
2!
n(n  1)(n  2)(n  3)
16. 20. 7 21. 10 22. 13 23. 8
4!
24. 15 25. 6 26. 8 27. 9 28. 8,19
29. 6 30. 5 31. 41 32. 2 33. 3
34. 8 35. 648 36. 336 37. 24;12
38. (i) 16, (ii) 4, (iii) 12 39. 128 40. 300
 CLASS-XI MATHMETICS (CHAPTER-8)
BINOMIAL THEOREM
Q1.Which is larger, 1.01
1000000
or 10,000?

n
Q2. Prove that 
r 0
n
Cr 3r  4r

Q3. Find a, if the 17th and 18th terms in the expansion of  2  a 

50
are equal.

15
 1
Q4. Find the coefficient of x 17 in the expansion of  x 4  
 x3 

Q5. If the coefficients of 5th, 6th , 7th terms in the expansion of 1  x  are in A.P., find n.
n

   
6 6
Q6.Evaluate, 2 1  2 1 .

1.3.5........ 2n  1 n n
Q7.Prove that in the middle term in the expansion of 1  x  is
2n
2 .x .
n!

Q8. Prove that the coefficient of one middle term in the expansion of 1  x  is equal to the sum of the coefficients of
2n

two middle terms in the expansion of 1  x 

2 n 1
.

18
 2 2
Q9. Find whether the expansion of  x   will contain a term containing x10 .
 x

  x  
4 4
Q10. Evaluate: x 2  1  x 2 2
1  x2 using binomial theorem.

9
p x
Q11. Find the middle term (s) in the expansion of    .
 x p
3
Q12. Find numerically the greatest term in the expansion of  2  3 x  , where x 
9
.
2

Q13. If the coefficients of x r 1 , x r , x r 1 in the expansion of 1  x  are in A.P. Prove that,

n

n2   4r  1 n  4r 2  2  0

Q14. The second, third and fourth terms in the binomial expansion  x  a  are 240, 720, 1080 respectively. Find x, a, n.
n

12
 1
Q15. Find the 10TH term in the binomial expansion of  2 x 
2
 .
 x
n
Q16. Prove that 
r 0
n
cr 3r  4n
 7
 3 x3 
Q17.Find the 4 term from the end in the expansion of  2   .
TH

x 6
20
2 2 3 
Q18. Find the middle term in the expansion of  x   .
3 2x 
10
 1 
Q19. Find the term independent of x in the expansion of  3 x 2  3  .
 2x 

 for which the coefficients of the middle terms in the expansions of 1   x  and 1   x  are
4 6
Q20.Find the value of
equal, find .
Q21. Find n, if the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of
n
4 1 
 2  4  is 6:1.
 3
11
 2 3
Q22. Find the coefficient of x in the binomial expansion of  2 x   , when x  o.
10

 x

Q23. Find the coefficient of a 4 in the product 1  2a  (2  a)5 using binomial theorem.
4

8
p 
Q24. If p is a real number and if the middle term in the expansion of   2  is 1120,find p.
2 


Q125. Find the coefficient  x  in the expansion of 1  x  x 2  x3 
4 11
.

m
 3
Q26. The sum of the coefficients of first three terms in the expansion of  x  2  , x  0, m being a natural number, is
 x 
559. Find the term of the expansion containing x 3 .

Q27. The 3rd , 4th and 5th terms in the expansion of  x  a  are respectively 84, 280 and 560, find the values of x, a and n.
n
 CLASS-XI MATHMETICS (CHAPTER-9)
GEOMETRIC PROGRESSIONS
Q1. Find:

1 1 1 2
(i) The ninth term of the G.P. 1, 4, 16, 64, … (ii) The 10 th term of the G.P.  , ,  , ,...
4 2 3 9
1
(iii) The 8th term of the G.P. 0.3, 0.06, 0.012, … (iv) The 12 th term of the G.P. 3 3
, ax, a 5 x 5 ,...
a x
1 1 1 1
(v) nth term of the G.P. 3, , ,... (vi) The 10th term of the G.P. 2, , ,...
3 3 3 2 2 2
512
Q2. Which term of the progression 18, - 12, 8 … is ?
729
1 1 1 1 1
Q3. Find the 4th term from the end of the G.P. , , , ,..., .
2 6 18 54 4374
Q4. The fourth term of a G.P. is 27 and the 7th term is 729, find the G.P.
Q5. The seventh term of a G.P. is 8 times the fourth term and 5th term is 48. Find the G.P.

Q6. If the G.P.‘s 5, 10, 20, … and 1280, 640, 320, … have their nth terms equal, find the value of n.

Q7. If the sum of three numbers in G.P. is 38 and their product is 1728, find them.
Q8. If the continued product of three numbers in G.P. is 216 and the sum of their products in pairs is 156, find the
numbers.

Q9. Find three numbers in G.P. whose sum is 52 and the sum of whose products in pairs is 624.

Q10. Find three numbers in G.P. whose sum is 13 and the sum of whose squares is 91.
Q11. Find four numbers in G.P. whose sum is 85 and product is 4096.

Q12. Find the sum of the following series:

 i  5  55  555  ... to n terms

 ii  0.7  0.77  0.777  ... to n terms
 iii  5  55  555  5555  ... to n terms.
Q13. If a is the A.M. of b and c and the two geometric means are G1 and G2, them prove that G1  G2  2 abc.
3 3
 CLASS-XI MATHMETICS (CHAPTER-10)
Assignment – The straight line
Q1. Determine x such that 2 is the slope of the line through (2, 5) and (x, 3).

Q2. What is the value of y so that the line through (3, y) and (2, 7) is parallel to the line through (-1, 4) and (0, 6) ?

 1
Q3. If the angle between two lines is and slope of one of the line , find the slope of other line ?
4 2
Q4. A ray of light passing through the point (1, 2) reflects on the x-axis at point A and the reflected ray passes through the
point (5, 3). Find the co-ordinates of A.

Q5. Find the equation of a line that has y-intercept 4 and is perpendicular to the line joining (2,-3) and (4, 2).

Q6. Find the equation of a line passing through (2, -3) and inclined at an angle of 135o with positive direction of x-axis.

Q7. Find the equation of a line which divided the join of (1, 0) and (3, 0) in the ratio 2: 1 and perpendicular to it.
Q8. The vertices of triangle are A(10, 0), B(-4, 9) and C(-2, -1). Find the equation of its altitudes. Also, find its orthocenter.
Q9.The mid points of the sides of a triangle are (2, 1), (-5, 7) and (-5, -5). Find the equation of the sides of the triangle.

Q10. Show that the perpendicular drawn from the point (4, 1) on the line segment joining (6, 5) and (2, -1) divides it
internally in the ratio 8 : 5.

Q11. A line passing through the point A(3, 0) makes 30o angles with the positive direction of x-axis. If this line is rotated
through an angle of 15o in clockwise direction, find its equation in new position.

Q12. In what ratio, the line joining (-1, 1) and (5, 7) is divided by the line x + y =4?

Q13. A line such that its segment between the lines 5x – y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y - 4 = 0 is bisected at the point (1, 5). Obtain
its equation.

Q14. Find the equation of a straight line which passes through the point (4, -2) and whose intercept on y-axis is twice that
on x-axis.
Q15. Find the equation of line through (2, 3) so that the segment of the line intercepted between the axes is bisected at
this point.

Q16. A straight line cuts intercepts from the axes of coordinate the sum of whose reciprocals is a constant. Show that if
always passes through a fixed point.

Q17. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (3, 4) and the sum of its intercepts on the axes is 14.

Q18. Show that the locus of the mid-point if the segment intercepted between the axes of the variable line
1 1 4
x cos   y sin   p is 2
 2  2 , where p is a constant.
x y p

x x 1 1 1
Q19. The line   1 moves in such a way that 2  2  2 ,where c is a constant . Find the locus of the foot of the
a b a b c
perpendicular from the origin on the given line.

Q20. Find the equation of the straight line on which the length of the perpendicular from the origin is 4 units and the line
makes an angle 120o with positive direction of x-axis .
Q21. Find the equation of the straight line upon which the length of the perpendicular from the origin is 5 and the slope of
3
this perpendicular is .
4

Q22. A line forms a triangle of area 54 3 square units with the coordinate axes. Find the equation of the line if the
perpendicular drawn from the origin to the line makes an angle of 60 o with the X- axis .

Q23.A straight line is drawn through the point P(2, 3) and is inclined at an angle of 30o with the x-axis. Find the coordinate
of two points on it at a distance 4 from P on either side of P.

Q24. The slope of the straight line thought A(3, 2) is 3 . Find the coordinate of the points on the line that are 5 units
4
away from A.

Q25. Find the equation of the line through the point A(2, 3) and making an angle of 45o with the x-axis. Also, determine
the length of intercept on it between A and the line x + y +1 = 0.x
Q26. Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (1, -2) on the line y = 2x + 1.

Q27. Find the image of the points (-8, 12) with respect to the line mirror 4x + 7y +13 = 0.

Q28. A person standing at a junction(crossing) of two straight paths represented by the equation 2x – 3y – 4 = 0 and
3x - 4y – 5 = 0, wants to reach the path whose equation is 6x – 7y + 8 = 0 in the least time. Find the equation of the path
that he should follow.

Q29. The equations of the two sides of the triangle are 3x – 2y + 6 = 0 and 4x + 5y -20 = 0 and the orthocentre is (1, 1) .
Find the equation of third side .

Q30. If the lines y = 3x + 1 and 2y = x + 3 are equally inclined to the line y = m x + 4. Find the value of m.
Q31. Find the equation of the straight line which cuts off intercept on X- axis which is twice that on Y- axis and is at a unit
distance from the origin
Q32. The equation of base of the equilateral triangle is x + y – 2 = 0 and other opposite vertex has coordinates (2, -1). Find
the area of the triangle.

Q33. Find the equation of two straight lines through (7, 9) and making an angle of 60 o with the line x  3 y  2 3  0.

Q34. Show that the equations of the straight lines passing through the point (3, -2) and inclined at 60 o at the line
3x  y  1 are y  2  0 and y  3x  2  3 3  0 .

Q35. A vertex of an equilateral triangle is (2, 3) and the opposite side is x  y  2. Find the equation of other sides .

Q36. If one diagonal of a square is along the line 8x – 15y = 0 and one of its vertex is at (1, 2), then find the equations of
the sides of the square passing through this vertex.

Q37. Find the equation of the straight line which passes through the point (2, -3) and the point of intersection of the lines
x + y + 4 = 0 and 3x – y – 8 = 0.
Q38. Obtain the equation of the line passes through the intersection of lines 4x – 3y – 1 = 0 and 2x – 5y + 3 = 0 and equally
inclined to the axes.

Q39. Find the coordinates of the point on x + y + 3 = 0, whose distance from x + 2y + 2 = 0 is 5.

3
Q40. Find the equations of the lines passing through the point (1, 0) and at a distance from the origin.
2
ANSWERS: 1. X = 2 2. Y = 9 3. m = 3 or m 
1
3
 
4. 13 ,0 5. 2x + 5y -20 = 0 6. X + y + 1 = 0 7. 3x = 7
5
8. 14x – 5y + 23 = 0 ,  1, 9 5  9. 6x – 7y +79 = 0 11.  2  3  x  y  3 2  3   0 12. 1 : 2 13. 107x -3y - 92 = 0 14.
2x + y = 6 15. 3x + 2y = 12 17. 4x + 3y = 24 19. x 2  y 2  c 2 20. 3x  y  8 21. 4x + 3y + 25 = 0

   
22. x  3 y  18 23. 2  2 3,5 and 2  2 3,1 24.  7,5 and  1, 1 25.
132
5  12 3
26. X = -1 , y = -1

1 1
27. (-16, -2) 28. 7x + 6y + 19 = 0 29. 26x – 122y – 1675 = 0 30. m  2, 31. x  2 y  5  0 32. sq. units
2 2 3
  
33. x  7  0 and x  3 y  7  9 3 35. 2  3 x  y  1  2 3 and 2  3 x  y  1  2 3 
36. 23x – 7y – 9 = 0 and 7x + 23y -53 = 0 37. 2x – y – 7 = 0 38. x + y – 2 = 0 and x = y 39. (1, -4) and (-9, 6)
40. 3x  y  3  0 and 3x  y  3  0