TS SI 2018

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 Quant and Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1
8x3 +343z3 −8y3
If 2x—5y = 7z − 3y then, for xyz ≠ 0, xyz =

A 80

B 82

C 84

D 86

Answer: C

Question 2

A person travels from A to B at 75 kmph in a Car and in the return journey the speed is reduced by 15
kmph. If the total time taken is four-and-half hours then the distance (in kms) between A and B is:

A 100

B 120

C 140

D 150

Answer: D

Question 3

Three persons A, B, C start a company and contribute a total of ₹ 10,70,000 towards its running. A
contributes ₹ 50,000 more than B, and B contributes ₹ 60,000 more than C. If the company earns profit of
₹ 2,72,850, then the share of A is : (in rupees)

A 1,04,550

B 96,800

C 91,800

D 76,500

Answer: A

Question 4

The volume of a sphere equals its surface area only when its radius (in units) equals :

A 1

B 2

C 4

D 3

Answer: D

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Question 5

If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 7 then the largest angle is :

A 90∘

B 105∘

C 120∘

D 150∘
Answer: B

Question 6

The number of positive divisors of 1995 is:

A 8

B 16

C 32

D 64

Answer: B

Question 7

While walking a distance of 24 km, a man noticed that after walking for 1 hour and 40 minutes, the
5
distance walked by him was 7 of the remaining distance. His speed of walking is :

A 4 km/hr

B 5 km/hr

C 6 km/hr

D 8 km/hr

Answer: C

Question 8

A certain sum is given on compoundinterest atsome rate..The sum amounts to ₹ 7,350 and ₹ 8,575 at the
end of 2 years and 3 years respectively. The sum given on compound interest is:

A ₹5,000

B ₹5,400

C ₹6,000

D ₹6,400

Answer: B

Question 9

The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 5, when divided by 6, 9 and 15 is :

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A 450

B 455

C 560

D 378

Answer: B

Question 10

Taps A and B fill an empty tank individually in 8 hours and 6 hours respectively, while tap C empties the
full tank in 12 hours. Duetoa problem tap C could not be closed. If the taps A and B are opened
alternately for one hour each starting with A, the time taken (in hours)to fill the tank is :

A 6

B 8

C 16

D 24

Answer: C

Question 11

January 1, 2018 was Monday. Then January 1, 2019 falls on the day :

A Tuesday

B Wednesday

C Thursday

D Saturday

Answer: A

Question 12

A tent is in the shape of a cone surmountedon the top of a cylinder. Height of the cone is half that of the
cylinder and the base radius of the cylinder is 3 m. If the canvas requiredfor the tent is 198 m2 , then the
total height of the tent(in meters)is :

A 5

B 6

C 8

D 12

Answer: D

Question 13
1 1 1
Three persons P, Q, R start a company with their contributions being in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 . After 3 months,
P withdraws half of his contribution, and after another 9 months ; a profit of ₹3,16,000 is devided among
them. The share of P is:(in rupees)

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A 1,20,000

B 1,00,000

C 96,000

D 90,000

Answer: B

Question 14

The remainder when (6767 + 67) is divided by 68 is:

A 1

B 65

C 66

D 67

Answer: C

Question 15

A train starts with some number of passengers. At the first station, one third of the passengers get down
from the train and 280 passengers get into the train. At the second station, half of the passengers get
down and 12 passengers get in. Now,the number of passengers in the train is 248. The number of
passengers in the train at the beginning is :

A 192

B 288

C 324

D 376

Answer: B

Question 16

If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which ∠ABC = 47∘ and ∠BCD = 97∘ then ∠ADC − ∠BAD =

A 40∘

B 50∘

C 60∘

D 70∘
Answer: B

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Question 17
4 2 7 3 5
If a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 , and a 5 , are the decreasing order of the elements in the set { 5 , 3 , 8 , 4 , 6 }, then the
correct matching of the values in List-I to those given in List-II is:

List-I List-II
(i) 1
(a) a1 − a4
1
(b) 2a 2 − a 5 (ii) 3

1
(c) 5a 3 − 4a 1 (iii) 8

1
(iv) 2

A (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv)

B (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)

D (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii)

Answer: B

Question 18

A and B undertake to do a workfor ₹ 6,000. A alone and alone can do that workin 6 and 8 days
respectively. With thehelp of C,they have finished the work in3 days. The shareof B’s is:

A ₹2,400

B ₹2,250

C ₹2,000

D ₹1,500

Answer: B

Question 19

The ages of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 5. Eight years later, the ratio of their ages will be 22 : 43. Their
present ages are (in years) :

A 14, 35

B 16, 40

C 18, 45

D 20, 50

Answer: A

Question 20

If P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a quadrilateral ABCD
then the quadrilateral PORS is a:

A Square

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B Rhombus

C Rectangle

D Parallelogram

Answer: D

Question 21

How many times, the speed of the minutes hand is more than that of the hours hand in a clock ?

A 30

B 24

C 12

D 8

Answer: C

Question 22

An arithmetic progression has 5 as its first term and the last term is 60. If the sum of the terms is 195,
then the common difference is :

A 11

B 9

C 7

D 12

Answer: A

Question 23

A piece of work can be completed by A, B and C individually in 12, 8 and 6 hours respectively. All the
three worked for two hours at which point of time C left the work. The time (in minutes) taken by the
other two to complete the work is :

A 12

B 24

C 62

D 72

Answer: D

Question 24
3
A person sold 4 th of his articles at a profit of 25% and the rest of his articles at a profit of 17%. The
overall
percentage of his profit is:

A 24%

B 23%

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C 22%

D 21%

Answer: B

Question 25

In the figure given below, ABCD is a rectangle and CDE is a semicircle. If the length of the rectangle
exceeds its breadth by 7 units and its area is 98 sq.units, then the area (in square units) of the
semicircular region CDE is :

A 7

B 49

C 57

D 77

Answer: D

Question 26

In a class of 30 students, 10 members of Physics main have average of 72 marks, 5 members of

Chemistry main have average of 66 marks and 15 members of Mathematics main have average of 80
marks. The average marks of the class is :

A 69

B 70

C 74

D 75

Answer: D

Question 27

A car completes a journey in seven hours. It covered half of the distance at 40 kmph and the remaining
half at 60 kmph speed. Then, the distance(in km) covered is :

A 280

B 300

C 336

D 420

Answer: C

Question 28

The profit earned by selling an article for ₹1000 is double the loss incurred when the same article is sold
for ₹850. At what price should the article be sold to make 30% profit?

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A 1100

B 1150

C 1170

D 1270

Answer: C

Question 29

If the side of a square increases by 21% then its area gets increased by:

A 42%

B 44%

C 46%

D 46.41%

Answer: D

Question 30

The distance between two stations A and B is 300 km. A Person leaves the station A to reach B. He starts
at 10 AM by car by driving with a speed of 45 kmph for the first two hours and remaining distance is
covered by driving fast and reaches destination by 3.30 PM, The speed (in kmph) with which he travelled
from 12.00 Noon to 3.30 PM is:

A 60

B 65

C 70

D 75

Answer: A

Question 31

A lent ₹5,000 to B for 2 years and ₹3,000 to C for 4 years on simple interest at the same rate of interest
and received ₹ 2,200 in all from both of them as interest. The rate of interest per annum is :

A 10%

B 8%

C 7%

D 6%

Answer: A

Question 32

Person A completes a work W1 in 6 hours while person B completes another work W2 in 6 hours. If W1 is
only equal to two-thirds of W2 then the number of hours required for A and B together to complete both
W1 and W2 is:

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A 6

B 7

C 5

D 8

Answer: A

Question 33

Five persons A, B, C, D andE start a joint venture. Their investments are as follows:
B and C invest equally; D invests half of C and double the investment of A; E invests twice thatof B. If E
receives ₹ 24,00,000 as his share in the year-end profit, then the total profit (in rupees):

A 95,00,000

B 54,00,000

C 57,00,000

D 76,00,000

Answer: C

Question 34

A right angled isosceles triangle has hypotenuse of 12 cms. Its area(in sq. cms) is:

A 12

B 24

C 36

D 72

Answer: C

Question 35

If A gets 50% more salary than B. then B gets how much percentage less salary then A ?

A 25

1
B 33 3

C 50

2
D 66 3
Answer: B

Question 36

By selling two items each for ₹ 990, g Merchant gets a protit of 10% on one and a loss of 10% on the
other. The result to the merchant in this transaction is :

A Loss of 1%

B Profit of 1%

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C No loss and no gain

D 2% loss

Answer: A

Question 37

A Village which is recorded having population growth of 5% annually has population 18,522 at the end of
the year 2013. The population of the village at the beginning of 2011 was :

A 14,000

B 15,400

C 15,800

D 16,000

Answer: D

Question 38

Three cubes whose sides are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 were melted and a single cube, whose diagonal is 24 3
cm was made. Then, the sides of the original cubes are; (in cms)

A 12, 16, 20

B 9, 12, 15

C 13.5, 18.0, 22.5

D 15, 20, 25

Answer: A

Question 39

AB is a line parallel to the line PQ. If C and D are points on PQ such that the area of△ABC is ‘a’ square
units, then the area (in sq. units) of △ABD is:

A a

a
B 2

a
C 3

a
D 4

Answer: A

Question 40

AB = 13 m is the diameter of a circle. A man moves from A ina straight line and meets the circumference
of the circle at C. If AC = 5 m, then CB =

A 8m

B 10 m

C 12 m

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D 11 m

Answer: C

Question 41

₹78,400 was divided among three persons A, B, C in the ratios A : B = 5 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 11. Then, the
share of C is (in rupees):

A 31,200

B 34,000

C 35,200

D 36,200

Answer: C

Question 42
35 35
If x−1 + x+1 = 12 then the value of x is:

A 6

B 7

C 8

D 5

Answer: A

Question 43

If each side of a square is decreased by 25% then the ratio ofthe area of the resulting squareto the area
of the given square is :

A 16 : 25

B 4:9

C 9 : 16

D 25 : 36

Answer: C

Question 44
2 1
Lets be 16 3 % of 24, t be 33 3 % of 9 and u be 20% of 25. If s, t and u are the sides of a triangle, the angle
opposite to the side of length u is:

A 30∘

B 45∘

C 60∘

D 90∘
Answer: D

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Question 45

Length of a rectangle is five more than twice its breadth. If its area is 273 sq.cm., then the area (in
sq.cms) of the circle, whose radius is equal to the breadth of the rectangle, is :

A 346.5

B 123.25

C 140

D 210

Answer: A

Question 46

The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older than
captain. If the average age of remaining 9 members is one year less than the average age of the whole
team, then average age of the whole team is :

A 22 years

B 23 years

C 25 years

D 24 years

Answer: B

Question 47

A person A starts a business with an investmentof ₹ 1,00,000. After two months B joins with him with an
investment of ₹ 1,20,000. After eight months C joins them with some investment. f the profit at the end
of the year is shared equally, then the investment(in rupees) made by C is:

A 5,00,000

B 4,00,000

C 4,50,000

D 3,00,000

Answer: D

Question 48

The number of digits in the smallest positive integer which is composed entirely of fives that is divisible
by 99 is:

A 9

B 12

C 15

D 18

Answer: D

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Question 49

A room is 5.2 meters in length and 2.0 meters in width. The least number of square tiles required to
exactly cover its area Is:

A 96

B 85

C 75

D 65

Answer: D

Question 50

If x = 0.3 then x2 =

A 0.33

B 0.9

C 0.01

D 0.1
Answer: D

Question 51

A and B can doa piece of work independently in 12 days and 16 days respectively. They worked together
for 4 days and B left the work. How many more days A worked to finish the work ?

A 3

B 4

C 5

D 6

Answer: C

Question 52

Suitable term in the following sequence is :

ACE, GIK, MOQ, ...........

A NPR

B MRS

C SUY

D SUW

Answer: C

Question 53

In a code language ARISE is written as CUMXK. Then the code of WORLD in that language is :

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A YQPJF

B YRVQJ

C YSPIF

D YRPJF

Answer: D

Question 54
1
The rate of income tax is reduced to 12 2 % from 16%. If a person has taxable income of ₹ 2,40,000 then
the tax benefit (in rupees) is :

A 4,800

B 6,400

C 7,200

D 8,400

Answer: D

Question 55

A circle of 3 cms radius lies inside and touches all the four sides of a square. The area (in sq. cms) of the
square is :

A 9π

B 9

C 18

D 36

Answer: D

Question 56

By selling two articles each at ₹ 480, a merchant gets 20% profit on one and loses 20% on the other. In
the total transaction the merchant gets :

A 4% loss

B no loss no gain

C 5% loss

D 5% gain

Answer: A

Question 57

Six people namely A, B, C, D, E and F want to sit around a hexagonal table in the following manner.
A and B want to sit next to each other. E and F want to sit opposite to B and A respectively. The number
of different ways in which they can sit such that above conditions are satisfied is:

A 1

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B 2

C 3

D 4

Answer: D

Question 58

A person starts walking from a point A towards South for 100 meters and turns left to walk 40 meters
East. Then, he again turned left to walk 60 meters towards North and turned left to walk 70 meters
towards West to reach the point B. Then, the distance between the points A and B is (in meters):

A 90

B 70

C 60

D 50

Answer: D

Question 59

If TRIANGLE is coded as USJBOHMF then the word coded as TRVBSF is:

A CIRCLE

B SQUARE

C RADIUS

D ROBOT

Answer: B

Question 60

The area (in square cms) of an equilateral triangle of side 4 cms is:

A 3

B 4 3

C 3 3

D 3
Answer: B

Question 61

If 8% of a property is ₹ 1.76 lakhs, then 25% of that property (in lakhs of rupees) is :

A 11

B 9

C 7.5

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D 5.5

Answer: D

Instructions

In the following questions pick the odd thing out.

Question 62

A 0.000001

B 0.0001

C 0.00001

D 0.01

Answer: C

Question 63

A POND

B LAKE

C BRIDGE

D TANK

Answer: C

Question 64

A OQ

B KL

C HI

D FG

Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 65

The next term in the following:

3 X 5, 5 U 7, 7 R 11, 11 O 13, ..............

A 13 L 17

B 13 M 17

C 13 N 17

D 13 K 17

Answer: A

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Question 66

Fill in the gap below with suitable number.

2 3 11
5 , 10 , ......., 22

1
A 50

6
B 37

8
C 65

9
D 82

Answer: A

Question 67

The suitable term in the sequence given below is :

DFI, EGJ, FHK, .........., HJM

A HIM

B HIN

C GIL

D GIM

Answer: C

Question 68

If two cubes each of side 12 cms are joined face to face to form a cuboid then the surface area(in sq.
cms) of the cuboid is :

A 1080

B 1440

C 1460

D 1600

Answer: B

Question 69

The rational number with recurring decimal representation 0.124 is:

4
A 33

41
B 330

43
C 330

47
D 990

Answer: B

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Question 70

The total number of squares in the following figure is :

A 25

B 26

C 50

D 55

Answer: D

Question 71

If GALAXY is coded as DXIXUV then the code word for STAR is:

A PQXN

B PQXM

C PQOX

D PQXO

Answer: D

Question 72

Fill in the following gap with suitable letter.

A, D, I, P, ....

A X

B Y

C U

D Z

Answer: B

Question 73

For real numbers a and b, if a ∗ b = a 2 + b2 − 3ab then {1 ∗ (−1)} ∗ { 2 ∗ 2} =

A 23

B 35

C 53

D 59

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 Answer: D

Instructions

In the following questions observe that each question(Q) is followed by two statements S1 and S2. You have to decide
whether these statements answer the question unambiguously. Mark your answer as:

Question 74

(Q) : Is A a friend of C ?
(S1) : A is a friend of B.
(S2) : B is a friend of C

A if (S1) alone answers (Q)

B if (S2) alone answers (Q)

C if (S1) and (S2) together answer the question (Q), but neither of these alone can answer

D if (S1) and (S2) are not sufficient to answer the question (Q)

Answer: D

Question 75

(Q): Which number is alloted to theletter ’S’?

(S1): The 26 letters in the English alphabet are numbered 1 to 26 in the order they occur.
(S2): The vowels A, E, I, O, U are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively.

A if (S1) alone answers (Q)

B if (S2) alone answers (Q)

C if (S1) and (S2) together answer the question (Q), but neither of these alone can answer

D if (S1) and (S2) are not sufficient to answer the question (Q)

Answer: A

Question 76

(Q): What is the area of the circle ?

(S1): The circle touches the four sides of a square of side 5 units.
(S2): The circle lies inside a square of side 5 units.

A if (S1) alone answers (Q)

B if (S2) alone answers (Q)

C if (S1) and (S2) together answer the question (Q), but neither of these alone can answer

D if (S1) and (S2) are not sufficient to answer the question (Q)

Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 77

Suitable words that fill the gaps below are:

School :____: Students : : Hospital : ______: Patients

A Teacher, Medicines

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B Class room, Medicines

C Teacher, Doctor

D Class room, Doctor

Answer: C

Question 78

Which of the following diagrams suits well to represent days, weeks and years ?

Answer: D

Question 79

Fill in the gap below with suitable word.

Fruit : Reap : : Flower : .............

A Grow

B Fragrance

C Bloom

D Fall

Answer: C

Question 80

Find the value of x.

A 200

B 210

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 225
C

D 230

Answer: C

Question 81

The value of x is:

A 136

B 138

C 340

D 140

Answer: B

Question 82

If the following square is rotated through an angle 90∘ about O in the anticlockwise direction and then
reflected through a line parallel to AB, then the resulting square appears as follows:

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C

Answer: A

Question 83

The ordered pair (x, y) =

A (2, 3)

B (4, 3)

C (2, 4)

D (4, 2)

Answer: D

Question 84

Consider the following triangular prism ABCD. If three faces ADB, ABC, ACD are labelled as 3B, 1V, 2I
respectively, then suitable label for the fourth face BCD is :

A 4G

B 4Y

C 4O

D 4I

Answer: A

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Instructions

In a code each vowel of English Alphabet is coded to the next vowel cyclically and each consonant is coded to the next
third consonant cyclically. That is, A → E, E → I, ........U → AandB → F , G → K, S → W , ......, X → B, Y →
C, Z → D. The reverse process is used for decoding. Using this code and decode processes, answer questions
Question 85

The code word for BLOCK is:

A FPIGN

B FPONG

C FPEGN

D FPUGN

Answer: D

Question 86

The code word for ARMY is:

A VQCE

B QCEV

C EVQC

D VECQ

Answer: C

Question 87

The code word for HIPLO is:

A KOREA

B DELHI

C PATNA

D KOCHI

Answer: B

Question 88

The code word for JNTUH is:

A MRXAL

B MRXEL

C PIXEL

D TAXES

Answer: A

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Question 89

The code word for VIH is:

A ROD

B RED

C SET

D SUN

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 90

If the following equilateral triangle is reflected about the angular bisector of C and then rotated through
an angle 120∘ about its centroid in the anticlockwise direction, then the resulting triangle will appear as
follows:

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D

Answer: A

Question 91

A meaningful arrangement of the following is :

(a) rational numbers (b) integers
(c) real numbers (d) natural numbers

A (a), (c), (b), (d)

B (d), (b), (a), (c)

C (d), (b), (c), (a)

D (a), (b), (c), (d)

Answer: B

Question 92
1 1
If Rn(n ∈ N) is a rectangle of length In = n , breadth bn = n+1 , then the sum of areas of R1 , R2 , ........R100 is:

99
A 100

101
B 100

100
C 101

100
D 99

Answer: C

Question 93

If the following square is reflected horizontally and then vertically, the resulting figure is :

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C

Answer: B

Question 94

If the following squares of sides each 2 cm are used to forma rectangular parallelopiped with base
ABCDEF then its volume (in cm3 ) is

A 8

B 16

C 32

D 64

Answer: B

Instructions

The following table gives heat index h = h(T, H) in terms of temperature T ∘ F and humidity H%. Observe the table and
answer the questions

Question 95

When the temperature is 98∘ F , the average rate of change in humidity is :

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A 1.4

B 1.50

C 1.075

D 1.75

Answer: C

Question 96

When humidity is 80% , the average rate of change in temperature is :

A 4.1

B 4.2

C 4.3

D 4.4

Answer: B

Instructions

Using following Information and answer these questions.

A survey conducted on 100 students with regard to their sports activity revealed the following Information:
Every student who participated in the survey plays atleast one of the three games Football(F), Cricket(C) and
Volleyball(V); 20 play only F; 30 play only C; 25 play only V while 5 play all the three. Moreover, 8 play both F and V
but not C. The number of students who play both F and C only is same as the number of students who play both C and
V only.

Question 97

The number of students who play atleast two of the three games is :

A 22

B 23

C 24

D 25

Answer: D

Question 98

The number of students who play C is:

A 45

B 46

C 47

D 48

Answer: C

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Question 99

In all how many students play V ?

A 42

B 44

C 46

D 40

Answer: B

Question 100

The number of students who play F and C but not V is:

A 3

B 4

C 5

D 6

Answer: C

General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 101

Match the following:

A (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

D (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: C

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Question 102

Match the following:

A (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: A

Question 103

Aqua regia also known as royal water or king’s water which can dissolve noble metals gold and platinum
is a mixture of :

(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric acid

(c) Hydro bromic acid(d) Sulphuric acid

A (a), (b) and (d)

B (a) and (b)

C (a), (c) and (d)

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

Question 104

Household refrigerators work on the principle :

A Peltier effect

B Seebeck effect

C Joule Thomson effect

D Photo electric effect

Answer: C

Question 105

Heparin is an anticoagulant found in blood and it prevents blood clotting within blood vessels and it is
preduced mainly from:

A Kidney

B Pancreas

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C Liver

D Spleen

Answer: C

Question 106

Identify the correct statement:

A The resistance of a metallic conductor depends on the potential difference across the conductor.

B The resistance of a metallic conductor depends upon the direction of the current in the conductor.

C The resistance of a metallic conductor depends on the length of the conductor.

D The resistance of a metallic conductor is independent of the temperature of the conductor.

Answer: C

Question 107

Match the following:

the correct match is:

A (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: A

Question 108

Identify the correct statements :

A Late blight of Potato disease was the causative factor for the ‘Great Irish Famine’ of 19th century.

B Brown spot disease of rice was responsible for Bengal famine of 1940's.

C The inserted foreign gene in Bt cotton offer resistance to bacterial diseases.

D Crown gall is a viral disease.

Answer: A

Question 109

Which is correct in the following ?

In an electric circuit -

A Ammeter in parallel and Voltmeter in series are Connected.

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B Ammeter in series and Voltmeter in parallel are connected.

C Ammeter and Voltmeter both are connected in series when the voltage is small.

D Ammeter and Voltmeter both are connected in parallel when the voltage is very large.

Answer: B

Question 110

Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) CFCs are responsible for depletion of Ozone layer.
(b) Water vapour, methane, CO2 , CFCs, nitrous oxide are green house gases.
(c) The BOD value of pure water is 100 ppm.

A (a), (b)

B (a), (c)

C (a), (b), (c)

D (b), (c)

Answer: A

Question 111

Which one of the following combinations are appropriate ?

(a) Barley, rice, oats, jowar
(b) Flax seeds, almonds, cashewnuts, walnuts
(c) Flax seeds, oats, corn, ragi
(d) Oats, corn, ragi, jowar

A (a) and (b)

B (b), (c) and (d)

C (a), (b) and (d)

D (c) and (d)

Answer: C

Question 112

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

B (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

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 Answer: C

Question 113

Which of the following are energy giving molecules ?

A Carbohydrate, Protein and Lipid

B Carbohydrate, Lipid and Vitamin

C Carbohydrate, Protein and Vitamin

D Protein, Lipid and Vitamin

Answer: A

Question 114

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: B

Question 115

Read the following statements :

(a) The biochemical events in the ‘Dark Reaction’ of Photosynthesis occurs in the absence of light.
(b) The loss of water from plants in vapour form is referred to as ‘transpiration’.
(c) Consumption of transgenic ‘Golden Rice’ prevents development of blindness.

A (a) is correct but (b) and (c) are wrong

B (a) and (c) are correct but (b) is wrong

C (b) and (c) are correct but (a) is wrong

D All (a), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: C

Question 116

Examine the following statements about ‘Indian Science Congress’:

(a) The 104th session of the Indian Science Congress was held at Manipur University.
(b) The themeof the Indian Science Congress, 2018 was ‘Reaching the Unreached ThroughScience and
Technology’.
(c) Indian Science Congress, 2018 was held during March 16-20, 2018.

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A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (a) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

Question 117

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)

B (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

C (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v)

Answer: A

Question 118

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: D

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Question 119

Examine the following statements about Para-Athletics games:

(a) Deepa Malik won a gold medal in the F 53/ 54 category Javelin event at the World Para -Athletics
Grand Pix held in Dubai in 2018.
(b) With this win, Deepa Malik becamethe world numberone rankerin the F - 53 Javelin category.
(c) 2018 Asian Para-Games are scheduled to be held in India in October 2018.
Choose the correct answer:

A (b) and (c) only

B (a) and (c) only

C (a) only

D (b) only

Answer: C

Question 120

The Supreme Court on June 5, 2018 allowed the Indian Government to implement the reservation in
promotion policy of SC/ST employees in accordance with the law. What is not considered in the
judgement of the Supreme Court from the following :
(a) The policy must be in accordance with law.
(b) The judgement says that the state should make out a case based on quantifiable data.
(c) The reservation should not be looked into based on the data like backwardness and overall efficiency.
(d) Comply with Article 16 of Constitution of India.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b), (c) only

B (b), (c), (d) only

C (c) only

D (b), (d) only

Answer: C

Question 121

India‘s rank in the ‘Global Environment Performance Index’, 2018 was 177 among 180 nations. Identify
correct statements in this regard :
(a) It was released by ‘Down to Earth’ Magazine.
(b) It was compiled by‘State of India’s Environment 2018.
(c) ‘State of India’s Environment covers diverse subjects fromair pollution to environmental crimes.
(d) The top five countries of index in terms of green rankings are Switzerland, France, Denmark, Malta
and Sweden.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b), (c), (d)

B (a), (b), (c) only

C (b), (c), (d) only

D (a), (d) only

Answer: A

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Question 122

Examinethe following statements related to national integration:

(a) Preamble begins with ‘We the people of India’.
(b) Directive principles of Indian Constitution direct the states to take steps towards bringing equality,
justice, liberty to all.
Choose the correct answer:

A Both (a) and (b) are correct

B Both (a) and (b) are incorrect

C Only (a) is correct

D Only (b) is correct

Answer: C

Question 123

Examine the following statements :

(a) Governor's rule has been imposed in Jammu and Kashmir in the third week of June 2018.
(b) B.V.R. Subrahmanyam was appointed as the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) The Director General of Police of Jammu and Kashmir is S.P. Vaid.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (a) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: C

Question 124

Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct as per the ‘Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Bill -
2014’ ?
(a) Polavaram Irrigation Project to be a National Project.
(b) Hyderabad to be the commoncapital for Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states for a period of ten
years.
(c) Governor to be common governor for both the states.
(d) Common High Court for both the states for a period of one year.

A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (c) and (d) only

D (d) only

Answer: D

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Question 125

In June 2018, the Union Cabinet 4PProved the final extension of tenure of the Commission constituted to
examinethe issue of Sub-categorization Within OBCs in the central list. Identify from the following what
is not correctin this regard:
(a) The Commission is headed byG, Rohini.
(b) The date was extendedupto 31st July, 2018.
(c) The Commission was constituted under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution.
(d) The Commission was supposedtogive its reportoriginally by 20th May,2018.
Choose the correct answer :

A (a), (b), (c), (d)

B (a), (b), (c) only

C (a), (b) only

D (d) only

Answer: D

Question 126

Which of the following statements are correct about GST ?

(a) GST is to be collectedat point of Sale.
(b) GST abolishes all direct taxes levied in India.
(c) Implementation of GST was started on 1st July, 2017.
Choosethe correct answer

A (a) and (b) only

B (a) and (c) only

C (b) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

Question 127

Based on the Indian Air Force(IAF) order in December 2016, the Supreme Court upheld the order on
banning the beard to Air Force personnel. Identify the correct statements from the following:
(a) Article 33 of Indian Constitution gives the authority to Government of India to restrict Fundamental
Rights in respect of IAF.
(b) These restrictions are nothing to do with religious sentiments.
(c) One IAF personnel appealed to the Supreme Court on the matter.
(d) Supreme Court upheld the order of IAF banning the beard to IAF personnel.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b), (c), (d)

B (b), (c), (d) only

C (a), (b) only

D (c), (d) only

Answer: A

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Question 128

Examine the following statements about 2018 Wimbledon (women’s singles) tennis tournament:
(a) 2018 women’s singles Wimbledontennis tournament was won by Angelique Kerber.
(b) She defeated 36 years old Serena Williams by 6-4, 6-3.
(c) The 2018 winner, Kerber, a30 year old German, was 11th seeded at the start of the tournament.
(d) This is her first Wimbledon title and third Grand Slam including Australian open and US open in 2016.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (a) and (d) only

C (a), (c) and (d) only

D (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: C

Question 129

Examine the following pairs:

Choose the correct pairs/ answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (b), (C) and (d) only

C (a), (c) and (d) only

D (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: C

Question 130

In the Swachh Survekshan 2018 rankings announced by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
Government of India; in the category of over one lakh population, Greater Hyderabad, Warangal and
Karimnagar secured the following rankings :

A 22, 49 and 76, respectively

B 27, 31 and 73, respectively

C 38, 47 and 85, respectively

D 27, 38 and 77, respectively

Answer: B

Question 131

Which instrument was produced by blending Indian Veena and Iranian Tambura?

A Guitar

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B Violin

C Sitar

D Mandolin

Answer: C

Question 132

Assertion (A): The British East India Company was established in England to have trade relations with
India.
Reason (R): The balance of trade with England Was always favourable to India.
Choose the correct answer:

A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C (A) is true but (R) is false.

D (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: C

Question 133

Who among the famous industrialists served as Treasurer of Indian National Congress for many years ?

A G.D. Birla

B Jamanlal Bajaj

C J.R.D. Tata

D W. Hirachand

Answer: B

Question 134

Arrange the following Chinese Buddhist travelers to India in their chronological order:

A Hieun Tsang

B Wang Hieuen Tse

C Itsing

D Fahien

Answer: C

Question 135

Give the chronological sequence of the following dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate :
(a) Tughlugs
(b) Slaves
(c) Khiljis
(d) Lodis
(e) Sayyeds

A (c), (a), (b), (e), (d)

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B (e), (b), (d), (a), (c)

C (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

D (b), (c), (a), (e), (d)

Answer: D

Question 136

The army that Subhas Chandra Bose established during the independence movement was :

A Revolutionary Peoples Army

B Young India Army

C Progressive Peoples Army

D Indian National Army

Answer: D

Question 137

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer:

A (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

D (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: A

Question 138

Which of the kings in Indian history and the works authored by them is correctly matched ?

A Krishnadeva Raya - Samarangana Sutradhara

B Mahendra Verma - Mattavilasa Prahasana

C Bhojadeva - Manasollasa

D Someswara - Amuktamalyada

Answer: B

Question 139

Which one of the following codes was not prescribed by Ashoka in his rock edicts?

A Obedience to parents, teachers and elders.

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B Abstention from killing of living beings.

C Accumulation of wealth.

D Attachment to morality.

Answer: C

Question 140

“Honest, but a Bolshevik and for that reason very dangerous”- who said this about Gandhi ?

A Lord Willington

B Lord Irwin

C General Smuts

D Berkinhead

Answer: A

Question 141

Match the following dynasties with the names of the prominent kings belonging to those dynasties:

Choose the correct answer:

A (a)-(i), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (e)-(iv)

B (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (e)-(i)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (e)-(ii)

D (a)-(i), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (e)-(iii)

Answer: B

Question 142

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer:

A (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

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D (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: A

Question 143

Identify the incorrect statement about Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 :

A It was against the British Indigo planters.

B It was against the money lenders,

C It was in support of occupancy rights for farmers.

D It was against the increase of land revenue by 22% by the Bombay Government.

Answer: A

Question 144

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer:

A (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

D (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: C

Question 145

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer:

A (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (e)-(v)

B (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii) (e)-(ii)

C (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (e)-(iv)

D (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (e)-(iii)

Answer: C

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Question 146

Examine the following pairs and find out the correct answer :
(a) Babul - Thorn forests
(b) Neem - Evergreenforests
(c) Pine - Tropical forests
(d) Teak - Deciduousforests
Choose the correct answer/ pairs :

A (a) and (b) only

B (a) and (c) only

C (b) and (c) only

D (a) and (d) only

Answer: D

Question 147

The states with the highest percentage of urban population in India, as per 2011 Census in descending
order :

A Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat

B Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Punjab

C Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat

D Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab

Answer: A

Question 148

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: D

Question 149

The lake Vembanad is located in.

A Malabar coast

B Coramandal coast

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C Konkan coast

D Utkal coast

Answer: A

Question 150

Assertion(A): Delta formation is not seen along the western coastal plains of India.
Reason (R): Indian western coastal plains are more broader than the eastern coastal plains.
Choose the correct answer :

A Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C (A) is true and (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: C

Question 151

The states which occupy first and second places in sugarcane production in India:

A Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

B Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra

C Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh

D Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh

Answer: B

Question 152

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

C (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: D

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Question 153

Read the following statements :

(a) North India receives rainfall from westerly disturbances during winter season.
(b) North-East monsoons gives rainfall to Tamilnadu.
(c) India mostlyreceivesrainfall from North-East monsoons.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (a) and (c) only

D {a), (b) and (c)

Answer: A

Question 154

Zawar mine in Udayapur is famous for :

A Gold

B Mica

C Coal

D Zinc

Answer: D

Question 155

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

B (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

D (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: C

Question 156

Assertion (A): Black soils are formed due to weathering of basaltic rock.
Reason(R): Black soils have high moisture retentive capacity.
Choose the correct answer:

A Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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C (A) is true and (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: B

Question 157

Assertion (A): Pune, which is located near Mumbai receives less rainfall as compared to Mumbai.
Reason (R): Pune is located in the leeward side of western ghats and Mumbai on the windward side of
western ghat.
Choose the correct answer:

A Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C (A) is true and (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: A

Question 158

Read the following statements :

(a) River Narmada flows in a rift valley.
(b) Vindhya mountains are located to the south of river Narmada.
(c) River Narmada is a west flowing river.
Which of the statements are correct ?

A (a) and (b) only

B (a) and (c) only

C (b) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

Question 159

The states having highest literacy rate according to 2011 Census were:

A Tamil Nadu and Punjab

B Kerala and Punjab

C Kerala and Goa

D Keralaand Mizoram

Answer: D

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Question 160

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: D

Question 161

Examine the following statements about the following articles of the Indian Constitution :
(a) Article 245 of the Indian Constitution states that the powers of both parliament and state legislature
are subject to the provisions of the Constitution
(b) If an accused person is directed to give his voice sample during the course of investigation of an
offence, there is no Violation of his right under Article 20(1).

A Both (a) and (b) are correct

B Both (a) and (b) are incorrect

C Only (a) correct

D Only (b) correct

Answer: C

Question 162

Match the following:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)

Answer: A

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Question 163

Examine the following statements about Prof. N.N wig who explain on 12th July 2018:
(a) Prof. Narendra Wig was amongst the foremost Psychiatrists of India.
(b) In 1991, the Royal College of Psychiatrists, London honoured him with the highest awardof the
Honorary Fellowship of the College.
(c) Heis the second Psychiatrist from India to be honoured with that award.
(d) He wasthe chairman ofthe World Health Organisation (WHO) Advisory Panel on Mental Health.
(e) He was born in the West Punjab district of Gurjanwala.
Choosethe correct answer:

A (a), (b), (c) and (e) only

B (a), (d) and (e) only

C (a), (b) and (e) only

D (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: C

Question 164

As per ‘Socio Economic Outlook- 2018’ and 2011 Census,the following districts have lower sex ratios in
Telangana. Arrange them in the descending orderas per sex ratio:
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Wanaparthy
(c) Jogulamba Gadwal
(d) Rangareddy
(e) Medchal
(f) Sangareddy

A (a), (e), (d), (b), (c) and (f)

B (e), (a), (d), (f), (b) and (c)

C (d), (a), (e), (b), (f) and (c)

D (c), (f), (b), (e), (a) and (d)

Answer: C

Question 165

Examine the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties:

(a) Article 51 deals with the Fundamental Duties.
(b) Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution through 42nd Amendment Act 1976.
(c) Fundamental Duties cannot be enforceed by ‘writs’
(d) Fundamental Duties cannot be Promoted by Constitutional methods.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (a) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

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Question 166

Regarding the state bills reserved for President's consideration, examine the following statements :
(a) President may declare his assent to the bill.
(b) President may return the bill to the state legislature for its consideration.
(c) State legislature shall reconsider it accordingly within a period of six months.
(d) If the legislature again passed it with or without amendment, President shall approve it.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (a), (b) and (d) only

C (b), (c) and (d) only

D (a) and (c) only

Answer: A

Question 167

Parliament enacts laws. In this regard, examine the following statements :

(a) All bills including finance introduced in either house of the Parliament' can be
(b) All members of the parliament have the right to introduce hills in their respective houses.
(c) A bill may be introduced either by a ministe or by private member.
(d) If a bill has been published in the official gazette before its introduction, no motion for leave to
introduce the bill is necessary.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (b), (c) and (d) only

C (a), (b) and (d) only

D (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: B

Question 168

Examine the following statements :

(a) The Indian Government approves corpus of % 5,000 crore for setting up of ‘Micro Irrigation Fund
(MIF) with NABARD under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
(b) The ’Micro Irrigation Fund’ would substitute ‘Per Drop More Crop’ (PDMC) component of PMKSY.
Choose the correct answer: ;

A Both (a) and (b) are correct.

B Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.

C Only (a) is correct.

D Only (b) is correct.

Answer: C

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Question 169

Which of the following responsibilities are under the preview of the Finance Commission ?
(a) Sharing of net proceedsoftaxes between the centre and states.
(b) Recommending the principles for governing the grant-in-aid to the states by the centre.
(c) Recommendation on the matters referréd to it by the President for the interest of sound finance.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a) only

B (b) only

C (b) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: D

Question 170

Examine the following statements about the NITI Aayog of India:

(a) It was established to provide a critical directional and strategical inputs to the development process
of Indian economy.
(b) It helps to evolve, promote and Strengthen cooperative federalism.
(c) It formulates five year Plans for India.
(d) It will create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support through collaborations.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (a), (b) and (d) only

C (b), (c) and (d) only

D (a) and (c) only

Answer: B

Question 171

Examine the following statements about the ‘Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2015’ :
(a) The Act came into effect from October 2, 2015,
(b) Special courts areto be established for speedy trial of the cases related to offenses against members
of the SCs and STs.
(c) Preventing tribal people from using religious, health and educational institutes is also made
punishable by law.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c)

B (a) and (b) only

C (b) and (c) only

D (a) and (c) only

Answer: C

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Question 172

Examine the following statements :

(a) Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) would be levied by the central government and collected by
the state governments on inter-state supply of goods and services.
(b) GST council was created as per the Article 279A of the amended Constitution of India.
(c) Telangana was the first state that passed the GST Bill in India.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a) and (b) only

B (b) and (c) only

C (a) and (c) only

D (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: B

Question 173

Examine the following statements about constitutional interpretation of environment by Supreme Court
of India :
(a) The principle of ‘absolute liability’ was laid down in Oleum Leakagecase.
(b) Theconceptof sustainable development was introducedin Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra,
Dehradun VsState of Uttar Pradeshcase.
(c) ‘Polluter pays principle’ was adopted in Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action Vs Union of India case.
(d) Exhibition of slides free of cost on environment in Cinema theatre was ordered in ’M.C. Mehta Vs
Union of India’ 1991 case.
Choose the correct answer:

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (b) and (a) only

C (a) and (c) only

D (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: D

Question 174

Examine the following Statements about the European Bank for Reconstruction and Dev elopment
(EBRD):
(a) The bank was set up in 1991 after the fall of the Berlin Wall
(b) The bank’s headquarter jx locatedin Berlin.
(c) India became the 69th shareholder Of the bank.
(d) The bank aims at Promoting public infrastructural initiatives in emerging Europe.
Choose the correct answer :

A (a), (b) and (c) only

B (a), (b) and (d) only

C (b) and (d) only

D (a) and (c) only

Answer: D

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Question 175

Match the following states with their respective Maternal Mortality Rates (MMR) during 2014-16:

Choose the correct answer/pairs

A (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: B

Question 176

On which of the following dates did Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru laid the foundation stone for the
construction of the great Nagarjuna Sagar Project ?

A 1 August 1955

B 11 December 1955

C 1 October 1956

D 1 November 1956

Answer: B

Question 177

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

A Dr. BR. Ambedkar favoured smaller states:

B Masuma Begum was the first Vice-Chairman of the Telangana Regional Committee’.

C Telangana Mahasabha was formed in 1957.

D K.R. Amos was the founder President of the Telangana Non-gazetted Officer's union’.

Answer: C

Question 178

Dr. Burgula Rama Krishna Rao wrote a lengthy letter making his stand on separate Telanganato the
Congress President. Who amongthe following was then the President of Congress?

A D.K. Baruvah

B H.N. Bahuguna

C J.B. Kripalani

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D U.N. Debhar

Answer: D

Question 179

After Dr. Marri Chenna Reddy was arrested under the Preventive Detention Act in July 1969 who among
the following women, led the
T.P.S. agitation :

A Durga Bhaktavatsalam

B Sadalakshmi

C Roda Mistry

D Sangam Lakshmi Bai

Answer: B

Question 180

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: B

Question 181

The 1969 agitation for separate Statehood began on the issue of employment at :

A Kothagudem Thermal Power Plant

B Singareni Coal Mines

C Nizam’s Sugar Factory

D Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation

Answer: A

Question 182

Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) ‘Telangana Praja Front’ was formed by Gaddar.
(b) ‘Telangana Dhoom Dham’ was held at Kamareddy for the first time.
(c) Communist party of India Organised “Telangana Poru Yatra’ from Jodeghat to Hyderabad.
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party organised ‘Poru Telangana’ from Hyderabad to Bhadrachalam.

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A (b), (a), (c), (d)

B (b), (a), (d), (c)

C (a), (b), (c), (d)

D (c), (d), (b), (a)

Answer: A

Question 183

Match the following:

The correct match is:

A (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

B (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

C (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: A

Question 184

K. Achuta Reddy was elected as first Chairman for the Telangana Regional Council by defeating :

A B.V. Gurumurthy

B Mir Mohammad Ali Khan

C Ravi Narayan Reddy

D Baddam Ella Reddy

Answer: C

Question 185

Which one of the following Commissions was appointed in 2002 by the State Government to study on the
implementation of G.O. No. 610?

A Jaya Bharatha Reddy Commission

B J.M. Girglani Commission

C K.R. Amos Commission

D Purushottama Rao Commission

Answer: B

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Question 186

Who among the Telangana leaders was the first to suggest Vishalandhra ?

A Gulam Rasool Khan

B J.V. Narasinga Rao

C Devulapalle Ramanuja Rao

D K.V. Ranga Reddy

Answer: C

Question 187

The two political parties which did not suppor tthe agitation for separate statehood in Telangana were :

A BJP and S.P.

B CPI(M) and BJP

C CPI(M) and MIM

D CPI(M) and BSP

Answer: C

Question 188

The Linguistic Provinces Commission set up by the Government of India in June 1948 was headed by:

A S.K. Patil

B S.K. Dhar

C Pataskar

D P.N. Haksar

Answer: B

Question 189

Assertion (A): In 2001 local body elections, the T.R.S. made an impressive show by getting 18 percent of
votes in the Telangana region.
Reason (R): Because of the growing official neglect towards Telangana region in United Andhra Pradesh
State K. Chandrashekar Rao Left ‘Telugu Desam Party’ and formed Telangana Rastra Samithi’.
The correct answer is :

A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

C (A) is true but (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: B

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Question 190

The poll survey conducted in 2011 by the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS) was
headed by:

A Rajdeep Sardesai

B Yogendra Yadav

C Pranay Roy

D Arnab Goswami

Answer: B

Question 191

Identify the wrong pair:

A Palle Kanneru Pedutundi - Gorati Venkanna

B Jaya Jaya he Telangana - Andesri

C Urumandira - Chada Anjaiah

D Amma Telanganama - Gaddar

Answer: C

Question 192

According to Gentlemen's Agreement two out of the following portfolios were to be assigned to ministers
from Telangana. They were:

A Home, Finance, Revenue, Education, Commerce and Industries

B Home, Revenue, Industry, Education and Planning

C Home, Finance, Revenue, Planning and Development and Commerce and Industry

D Finance, Electricity, Industry, Education and Rural Development

Answer: C

Question 193

Which one of the following statements is not related to the all party meeting organised by Kasu
Brahmananda Reddy, the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ?

A All party meeting washeldat AnandaNilayam on 18th and 19th January 1969.

B To implement all party meetingdecisions the G.O.No. 39 was issued by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.

C I.J. Naidu and R. Vittal Rao were appointed to implementthe decisions of all party meeting.

D
The State Government appointed Kumar Lalith Comunittee to estimate surplus reserves of Telangana on 23rd
January 1969.

Answer: B

Question 194

The political domination of Andhraruling class over Telangana resulted in :

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A Both the regions enjoyed the fruits of development

B Establishment of separate Economic development zones

C Increased agricultural income

D Made the people of Telangana as passive recipients

Answer: D

Question 195

The Telangana Intellectual Forum played an important role in the separate statehood Movement. Which
one of the following was its Important activity ?

A It conducted a Peasants March to the District Headquarters

B It proposed “Chalo Assembly”

C It published a ‘Statement of Agenda’ for the people of Telangana

D It organised a struggle against Electricity Board

Answer: C

Question 196

Identify the wrong pair:

A Telangana Martyrs day - 17 May, 1969

B Telangana Protest day - 2 June, 1969

C Telangana Betrayal day - 20 April, 1969

D Telangana Women’s day - 17 June, 1969

Answer: C

Question 197

Assertion (A): The fruits of new market economy unleashed from the 1990s were enjoyed mostly by the
Andhra ruling class,
Reason(R): The pitfalls of development were borne by the people of Telangana.
The correct answer is :

A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C (A) is true but (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: B

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Question 198

Arrange the following important Agitations in chronological order under the leadership of students of
Osmania and Kakatiya Universities.
(a) ‘Telangana Vidyarthi Garjana’
(b) ‘Chalo Assembly’
(c) ‘Telangana Vidyarthi Mahagarjana’
(d) ‘Vidyarthula Polikeka’ by Kakatiya University Students

A (a), (b), (c), (d)

B (b), (a), (d), (c)

C (c), (b), (a), (d)

D (c), (d), (b), (a)

Answer: D

Question 199

Which one of the following statements made in A.P. Legislative Assembly in June 1961 is not correct?

“If the Government takes immediate steps to provide basic necessities to the people of Telangana, then there is
A
every possibility of emotional integration of both the regions at the earliest - P.V. Narsihma Rao.

“The Securities and Revenue surplus of Telanganahas been spent on Andhraregion. If only that amountand
B
anotherfour to five crores were spent on Telangana, it would have developed well’ - P. Sundarayya.

“It is five years since Vishalandhra was formed. But there has been no emotional integration. The policies of N.
C
Sanjeeva Reddy were responsible for it” - Ravi Narayan Reddy.

“No one wanted to rob Telangana money. Wearejust thinking as to how to solve the problem”. - Chief Minister N.
D
Sanjeev Reddy.

Answer: D

Question 200

Identify the leader who did not appose the disintegration of Hyderabad state and represented the same
to the states Re-organisation Committee.

A Pundit Narendraji

B Pundit Vinayak Rao

C GopalRao Ekbote

D Kotturu Seetayyagupta

Answer: D

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