BASIC LICENSE A1 – AIRFRAME

CASR
1. A person may authorized to perform maintenance and
preventive maintenance, except?
A. A holder AMO certificate.
B. A holder of AOC.
C. A Manufacture.
D. AMEL Holder.
C
2. Standard maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration
for aircraft, engine and component and part thereof
prescribed, under CASR?
A. CASR part 43.
B. CASR part 45.
C. CASR part 121.
D. CASR part 145.
A
3. Aviation product according to the CASR Part 21 there are
devided into?
A. Two classes.
B. Three classes.
C. Class I ; Class II and Class III products.
D. Class I and Class II.
B
4. According to the CASR 145 AMO may perform maintenance base
on?
A. Operation Spesification issued by DGCA.
B. Company Manual approved by DGCA.
C. CASR Part 43.
D. Manufacturer specification.
C
5. An aircraft is airworthy if conform to?
A. Type design and safe for flighty.
B. Maintenance standard and safe for operation.
C. Maintenance specification and safe for operation.
D. Maintenance manual chapter. 5 (aircraft component
limitation).
C
6. According to CASR part 65.25 change address must be
reported to the DGCA within
A. 30 days.
B. 30 days after any change to a permanent address.
C. 5 bussiness days.
D. One week.
B
7. According to the CASR part 45.11 aircrfat identification

A1 - AIRFRAME
 plate must be secured in location
A. Near an entrance door.
B. APU section.
C. Nose area of the fuselage.
D. Tail section.
A

8. The height of the identification marks on the wing of the

big aircraft are:
A. 25 centimeters.
B. At least 50 centimeters.
C. 20 inches.
D. At least 50 inches.
B
9. Refer to the CASR Part 21 the aviation product class II
consist of
A. Wing; Fuselage; Landing gear and control surface.
B. Aircraft; Fuselage; and Landing gear.
C. Landing Gear; wing and Engine.
D. Wing; Engine and Landing Gear.
A
10. According to CASR part 23 every product must comply with
standard airworthiness so what does it mean by airworthy
A. The article ready for flight.
B. The aircraft Fit and Safe for flight.
C. The article ready for return to service.
D. The aircraft comply with company maintenance program.
B
11. Maximum life for a certain part is 1,100 hours. Recently,
15 of these parts were removed from different aircraft with
an average life of 835.3 hours. What percent of the maximum
part life has been achieved?
A. 75.0 percent.
B. 75.9 percent.
C. 76.0 percent.
D. 76.9 percent.
B
12. If the fluid pressure is 800 psi in a ½ inch line
supplying an actuating cylinder area of 10 square inches,
the force exerted on the piston will be
A. 800 pounds.
B. 2,000 pounds.
C. 4,000 pounds.
D. 8,000 pounds.
D
13. An aircraft with two engines has maximum take -off
acceleration 5 m/sec². Find the final velocity of aircraf t
with 1000 meter take-off run (the initial velocity is zero

A1 - AIRFRAME
 since take-off from rest)
A. 100 m/sec.
B. 150 m/sec.
C. 200 m/sec.
D. 300 m/sec.
A
14. When the electricity is going to “create”?
A. When the electron of the atom flies out and connects to
another atom.
B. When electron flies oout from the valance ring to
attract other atom within the other valance ring.
C. A ans B correct.
D. A and B in correct.
C
15. In a series circuit, the total circuit resistance (RT ) is
equal to
A. The sum of the Individual resistance.
B. The Multiplication of the Individual Resistance.
C. The resistor voltage drops
D. The resistor Current flow.
A
16. The magnitude of current flow is primarily dependent on
A. An individual electron moves.
B. Amount of energy.
C. The velocity of the existing mobile protons
D. The velocity of the existing mobile electrons.
D

17. Hydraulic Press indicating system use:

A. Direct indication system.
B. DC synchro system.
C. AC Synchro system .
D. Use wheatstone Bridge system.
C
18. Another name of Artificial Horizone is:
A. Attitude Director Indicator.
B. Flight Director Indicator.
C. Horozontal Situation Indicator.
D. Standby Horrizone.
A
19. Convert Decimal to Octal number (64)10?
A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 106
A

A1 - AIRFRAME
A/C MATERIAL
20. The amount of cold-working a metal can withstand is
directly related to which of the following properties?
A. Density and elasticity.
B. Toughness and fusibility.
C. Malleability and ductility.
D. Contraction, expansion, and conductivity.
C
21. What is the type and composition of SAE 5135 steel?
A. Nickel steel, 5 percent nickel and 13.5 percent carbon.
B. Chromium steel, 1 percent chromium and 0.35 percent
carbon.
C. Chromium steel, 13 percent carbon and 0.5 percent
chromium.
D. Nickel steel, 5 percent steel, 1 percent nickel, and
0.35 percent carbon.
B
22. An aluminum alloy containing manganese as the major
alloying element is identified by what number?
A. 1035
B. 2014
C. 3003
D. 7010
C
23. In the aluminum alloy designation A355-T51, what does the
prefix A indicate?
A. The heat treatment.
B. The type of casting.
C. The composition of the casting.
D. Was original alloy composition variation slightly.
D
24. What is the principal element added to copper form brass?
A. Tin.
B. Lead.
C. Zinc.
D. Aluminum.
C
25. Which of the following penetrator are used with the
Rockwell hardness tester?
A. Flanged head and truncated cone.
B. Spiral point and steel ball.
C. Diamond cone and steel ball.
D. Diamond tip and spiral rod.
C
26. In various aircraft structural components, which of the
following materials is replacing and supplementing
metallic materials?
A. Rubber material.

A1 - AIRFRAME
 B. Plastic material.
C. Sandwich material.
D. Composite material.
D
27. Relative to the heat-treatment characteristics of 2017 and
2024 aluminum alloy rivets, which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
A. The rivets are supplied in the T4 temper and must be
heat treated prior to use.
B. If not refrigerated, these rivets must be driven within
20 minutes after quenching.
C. These rivets may be reheated as many times as required
provided the proper solution heat-treatment temperature
is not exceeded.
D. If refrigerated at 32°F or lower immediately after
quenching, these rivets may be stored under
refrigeration indefinitely and require no further heat
treatment prior to use.
A

A/C HARDWARE
28. Rivets used primarily for joining magnesium alloy
structures have what alloy designation?
A. 1100.
B. 2017-T4.
C. 2117-T4.
D. 5056.
D
29. When space one side is too restricted properly use a
bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use?
A. Flat.
B. Solid.
C. Blind.
D. Hi-shear.
C
30. What distance will the stud of a Camloc fastener have to
be turned to release it but not far enough to permit re-
engagement?
A. One-half turn clockwise.
B. One-fourth turns clockwise.
C. One-half turn counterclockwise.
D. One-fourth turns counterclockwise.
D
31. A flat-head pin used in a tie rod terminal should be
secured with what device?
A. A cotter pin.
B. A sheet spring nut.
C. A self-locking nut.
D. A piece of safety wire.

A1 - AIRFRAME
A
32. An Allen wrench is required to tighten or loosen which of
the following types of bolts?
A. Countersunk-head
B. Hex head
C. Clevis.
D. Eye.
A
33. Which of the following types of nuts are used to ensure a
permanent and vibration proof connection?
A. Wing nuts.
B. Shear nuts.
C. Plain nuts.
D. Sheet spring nuts.
D
34. You should use ball socket and seat washers in which of
the following situations?
A. With studs.
B. Under taper pin nuts.
C. With sheet spring nuts.
D. When bolts are installed at an angle to the surface.
D
35. Aircraft cables have the center core twisted in one
direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for
what reason?
A. To make the cable rigid.
B. To make the cable stiffer.
C. To minimize stretch or set.
D. To allow the strands to expand when cut.
C
36. A turnbuckle barrel with internal left-hand threads can be
identified by what means?
A. By the length of the barrel.
B. By the letter L stamped on it.
C. By a groove or a knurl around it.
D. By its plain end with no identifying marks.
C

37. The purpose of quick-disconnect couplings is to provide a

means of quickly disconnecting a line without having to
contend with which of the following problems?
A. System pressure surges.
B. Loss of hydraulic fluid only.
C. Entrance of air into the system only.
D. Loss of hydraulic fluid or entrance of air into the
system.
D
38. The hydraulic seals used between nonmoving fittings
and bosses are known by which of the following terms?

A1 - AIRFRAME
 A. Gaskets.
B. O-rings.
C. Packings.
D. Backup rings.
A
39. Devices that are attached to the ends of wires and cables
to make them easier to connect or disconnect are known by
which of the following terms?
A. Splices.
B. Terminals.
C. Connectors.
D. Bonding straps.
C

AIRCRAFT TOOLS
40. The types of micrometers commonly used are designed so
that the longest movement possible between the spindle and
the anvil is what distance?
A. 1 inch.
B. 2 inches.
C. 3 inches.
D. 4 Inches.
A
41. On a standard micrometer, one complete revolution of the
micrometer screw will move the spindle what distance?
A. .015 inch.
B. .025 inch.
C. .125 inch.
D. .225 inch.
B
42. On a metric micrometer, one
revolution of the spindle advances or withdraws the screw
what distance?
A. 0.1 mm.
B. 0.5 mm.
C. 1.0 mm.
D. 1.5 mm.
B
43. A 6-inch micrometer will measure work between which of the
following sizes?
A. From 1 to 6 inches.
B. From 4 to 6 inches.
C. Between 1 and 6 inches.
D. Between 5 and 6 inches.
D
44. Drill gages have a series of holes. The holes are marked
in which of the following ways?
A. Letters.

A1 - AIRFRAME
 B. Fractions.
C. Numbers.
D. All of the above.
D
45. Which of the following types of files should you use to
file internal angles and to clean out square corners?
A. A round file.
B. A three-square file.
C. A curved-tooth file.
D. A mill file.
B
46. What are the two basic types of flaring tools?
A. Hard and soft.
B. Single and double.
C. Long and short.
D. Soft and brittle.
B
47. Dies are used for which of the following purposes?
A. For cutting internal threads.
B. For removing paint from metal parts.
C. For sealing containers.
D. For cutting external threads.
D

AERODYNAMICS
48. The angle of an airfoil that produces lift which is
manufactured is called?
A. Angle of attack.
B. Angle of incidence.
C. Angle of stall.
D. Downwash Angle.
B
49. In moving through the air the aircraft experiences a
resistive drag force. The force is made up of several
distinct components?
A. Friction Drag.
B. Pressure Drag.
C. A, and B are correct.
D. The Thrust.
C
50. “Differential rigging” of an aileron system mean:
A. Rigging the lateral control in a way which offsets the
effect of engine torque.
B. Adjustment the aileron control to give more down
movement than up movement.
C. Adjustment the aileron control to give more down as well
as up movement.
D. Adjustment of a quadrant to give each aileron more up

A1 - AIRFRAME
 motion than down motion.
D

51. If an object tendency to return to equilibrium is called:

A. Positive Static Stability.
B. Negative Static Stability.
C. Neutral Static Stability.
D. Directional stability.
A
52. To roll an aircraft clockwise, you must cause which of the
following changes in flight control positions?
A. Raise the left aileron and lower the right one.
B. Lower the left aileron and raise the right one.
C. Raise the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the left.
D. Lower the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the right.
B
53. When the control stick of an aircraft equipped with a
flaperon system is moved to the left, the left and right
flaperons will be in which of the following positions ?
A. Left down, right up.
B. Left up, right flush.
C. Left down, right flush.
D. Left flush, right down.
D
54. Most modern airlines wings consist of a torsion box made
up from
A. The front spar and rear spar.
B. Longeron and stringer.
C. Bulkhead and frame.
D. Skin and bar.
A

LANDING GEAR
55. The shimmy damper on a nose landing gear assembly prevents
the nose wheel from shimmying during takeoff and landing
by what means?
A. By actuating a low-ratio gear train.
B. By forcing a rotary bar to move against a friction
plate.
C. By accentuating sudden torque loads applied to the nose
heel.
D. By metering hydraulic fluid through a small orifice
between two cylinders or chambers.
D

STR

A1 - AIRFRAME
56. What the main lengthwise members in a wing truss type ?
A. The spars.
B. Leading edge.
C. Wing tip.
D. Stringer.
A
57. The blue ice a result of the:
A. Leakage on toilet drains valve, and low temperature at
high altitude.
B. Leakage on water drains valve, and low temperature at
high altitude.
C. Malfunction of the drain mast heater.
D. Out side air temperature below freezing point.
A

ANTI ICE
58. When the pneumatic deicer boots installed on an aircraft,
the boots should be operated:
A. Continuously.
B. Prior to take off.
C. When ice accumulation is suspected or confirmed.
D. During cruising flight.
C
59. The pressurization system on the large aircraft usually
provides:
A. Air outflow valve only.
B. Air outflow valve, pressure relief valve, and negative
pressure relief valve.
C. Air outflow valve, and pressure relief valve.
D. Air outflow valve, and negative pressure relief valve.
B
60. Hydraulic system device which remain open to allow normal
fluid in the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases
above established rate is generally called:
A. Shuttle valve.
B. Hydraulic fuse.
C. Flow regulator.
D. Metering check valve.
B
61. If an air-oil type shock strut bottoms upon initial
landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the
most probable cause is?
A. Low fluid.
B. Low air charge.
C. A restricted metering pin orifice.
D. Reverse metering pin.
A
62. After repairing or recovering the rudder?

A1 - AIRFRAME
 A. The surface should be rebalanced to its span wise.
B. The surface should be rebalanced to its normal flight
direction.
C. The surface should be rebalanced according to
manufacture’s specifications.
D. The surface not necessary rebalanced because of vertical
position.
C
63. What is the purpose of the Converter in the electrical
windshield system?
A. Use to change the rotary motion to the reciprocating
motion to the wiper arm.
B. Use to change reciprocating motion to the rotary motion
to the wiper arm.
C. Use to reduce speed of wiper arm.
D. Use to increase speed of wiper arm.
A
64. When the vacuum blower on the vacuum toilet system
working?
A. Aircraft on the ground.
B. Aircraft on the ground and in flight with altitude below
16,000 feet.
C. Aircraft on the ground and in flight with altitude above
16,000 feet.
D. Aircraft in flight.
B

65. Which the correct statement following with the flap syste m
A. Flap partially down position during take off, and full
down position during landing.
B. Flap partially down position during landing, and full
down position during take off.
C. Either take off or landing flap full down position.
D. Either take off or landing flap partially down position.
A
66. The term bleeding brakes, is the process of
A. Withdrawing air only from the system.
B. Withdrawing fluid from the system, for removing air that
enters to the system.
C. Withdrawing air from the reservoir pressurization .
D. Withdrawing fluid fro the system, because of
overfilling.
B
67. The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to
A. Create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia.
B. Permit the aircraft operation at high altitudes.
C. Efficient (reduced fuel consumption).
D. All mentions above.

A1 - AIRFRAME
D
68. What the purpose of engine air intake design
A. To maximize engine operation and meet engine
performance.
B. To reduce aircraft drag during operation.
C. To keep rigid in intake area.
D. To prevent aircraft stall.
A
69. The common type of fuel spray nozzle installed in the
gas turbine engine were
A. Duplex and Simplex.
B. Variable nozzle and constant flow type.
C. Low flow and high flow fuel nozzle.
D. Variable flow and constant flow.
A
70. What kind of device is diode?
A. Bipolar.
B. Unipolar.
C. Non linear.
D. Linear.
C
71. When use electrical transmission of angular position data ?
A. Fiber optic.
B. Amplidyne.
C. Synchro.
D. Transformator.
C
72. Clasic “T” configuration are?
A. Air speed indicator, Altimeter, HSI.
B. Air speed indicator, Altimeter, Artificial Horizon,
Directional gyro indicator.
C. HSI, ADI, RMI, Altimeter.
D. ASI, ADI, HSI, Altimeter.
B
73. The meaning of amplidyne is
A. Amplify high power DC motor.
B. Amplify low power DC motor.
C. Amplify high power AC motor.
D. Amplify low power AC motor.
B
74. What is the purpose using two way check valve on the fire
extinguishing system?
A. It is possible to use engine firex bottle 2 for engine
number 1.
B. It is possible to use engine firex bottle 1 for engine
number 2.
C. It is posible any engine use any engie firex bottle
D. As mentions on above answer.
D

A1 - AIRFRAME
75. The most common cause of false warning in continuous loop
type fire detection system is:
A. Dented, kinked sensors.
B. Contamination by moisture.
C. Contamination by aircraft fluid.
D. Contamination by engine oil.
A
76. What prevents structural corrosion beneath the aircraft
toilet?
A. Performed regular inspection checks for corrosion and
cleanliness.
B. Mop up all spilt liquids immediately.
C. Applied the corrosion inhibitor frequently.
D. All above are correct.
D
77. What the purpose of gasket or sealant between the antenna
mast and fuselage skin?
A. To prevent abrassion between antenna mast and fuselage
skin.
B. To prevent leakage of the pressurization air.
C. To prevent the entry of moisture.
D. To prevent vibration.
C
78. When using a test voltmeter it should be connected
A. In series with the unit being tested.
B. In parallel with the unit being tested.
C. In series with circuit.
D. In parallel with circuit.
B
79. Grounding is the electrical connection of conductive
object to the primary structure of the airframe in order
to?
A. Provide current return patch, and protect personnel from
shock hazard.
B. Prevent development of radio frequency potential.
C. Protect the personnel from shock hazards.
D. All of the above.
D
80. An anti skid system is normally activated or armed by
A. Arming switch in the cockpit.
B. Hydraulically.
C. Electrically from the down lock micro-switch.
D. Electrically.
A
81. Which the good judgment when using the hand tools ?
A. Using the uncorrect tools for the task.
B. Care and maintenance of all tools is very important.
C. Measuring tools not need calibration.
D. Inefficient tools can not lead to injury of the user.
B

A1 - AIRFRAME
82. Many type of head rivets,what type of head rivet for skin
coverings to give maximum strength?
A. Snap head.
B. Mashroom head.
C. Flat head.
D. Pan head.
B
83. During ground servicing many vehicles need to be
manoeuvered close to the airframe. What the damage area
that is push in from its normal contour with no change in
crosssectional area of material?
A. Dent.
B. Crack.
C. Nick.
D. Puncture.
A
84. The aspect ratio is
A. The square of span divide mean chord.
B. The span divides wing area.
C. The span divides the square of wing area.
D. The square of span divides wing area.
D
85. The motion of an aircraft about the vertical axis is
called?
A. Rolling.
B. Pitching.
C. Yawing.
D. Descending.
C
86. When banking an aircraft, the spoiler?
A. Speed up the aircraft.
B. Function with flaps.
C. Function with slat.
D. Function with ailerons.
D
87. The slots created by the fowler flaps are useful to?
A. Enlarge the wing area.
B. Allow airflow to drive the turbulent away.
C. Increases aircraft speed.
D. Increase the speed with reduces the downwash.
B

88. During strut compression, fluid passes through an orifice

into what chamber of an air-oil type shock strut?
A. Aft.
B. Forward.

A1 - AIRFRAME
 C. Lower.
D. Upper.
D
89. What part of an air-oil shock strut controls the rate of
flow of the fluid between the piston and cylinder?
A. The torque arm.
B. The metering pin.
C. The orifice plate.
D. The snubber orifice.
B
90. When the landing gear is fully retracted in a typical
aircraft landing gear system, the up lock mechanism is
actuated by what means?
A. Electrically.
B. Hydraulically.
C. Mechanically.
D. Pneumatically.
C
91. An up lock switch is installed on each main landing gear
door latch to provide (a) what indication and (b) in what
location?
A. (a) Main-gear-down (b) wheel well.
B. (a) Main-gear-up (b) wheel well.
C. (a) Main-gear-down (b) cockpit.
D. (a) Main-gear-up (b) cockpit.
B
92. A significant number of unsafe or hung landing gear
discrepancies are caused by which of the following
maintenance related problems?
A. Improper rigging only.
B. Improper adjustment of linkages only.
C. Improper rigging or improper adjustment of linkages
only.
D. Improper rigging, improper adjustment of linkages, or
factory defective parts.
D
93. What factor(s) generally
determine(s) the method you should use for bleeding brake
systems?
A. The amount of air in the system.
B. The type and design of the brake system to be bled.
C. The means by which the brake is mounted on the strut.
D. The type of main hydraulic system used in the aircraft.
A
94. In what direction is the Permaswage deburring tool
rotated?
A. Clockwise.
B. Counterclockwise.
C. Toward its open side.
D. Toward its closed side.

A1 - AIRFRAME
A

95. All hydraulic tubing should be supported from rigid

structures by which of the following methods?
A. Sleeves.
B. Support clamps.
C. Nylon strap ties.
D. Flexible grommets.
B
96. In an open-center hydraulic system, what type of valve
prevents pressure from building up until a demand is
placed on the system?
A. A check valve.
B. A bypass valve.
C. A selector valve.
D. A pressure relief valve.
D
97. What is the purpose of a reservoir pressure and vacuum-
relief valve?
A. To vent the reservoir to the cabin.
B. To maintain 15 psi in the reservoir.
C. To allow fluid to flow between the main system
reservoirs.
D. To maintain a differential pressure range between the
reservoir and the cabin.
D
98. An air-relief valve is usually incorporated in the air
portion of a hydraulic power system to relieve excessive
air pressure that may enter the system from what
malfunctioning component?
A. A check valve.
B. An air pressure regulator.
C. A filler valve.
D. A chemical air dryer.
B
99. During an inspection you find metal
slivers on the gearbox magnetic drain plug of a Vickers
electric motor-driven pump. What action should you take?
A. Replace the gearbox.
B. Replace the magnetic plug.
C. Drain and service the pump.
D. Remove the pump for overhaul.
C
100. The ram-air turbine assembly of an emergency power system
is extended into the slipstream (a) by what means and (b)
during what condition?
A. (a) Automatically (b) when a hydraulic failure occurs.
B. (a) Automatically (b) when an engine failure occurs.
C. (a) Manually (b) when released from the cockpit.
D. (a) Electronically (b) when released-from the cockpit.

A1 - AIRFRAME
C
101. In an aircraft pneumatic system, the moisture separator is
always in which of the following locations?
A. Downstream of the compressor.
B. Downstream of the reservoir.
C. Upstream of the compressor.
D. Upstream of the reservoir.
A
102. What type of flight control system
is moved manually through a series of push-
pull rods, cables, bell cranks, sectors, and idlers?
A. Mechanical (un-boosted).
B. Mechanical (boosted).
C. Power-assisted.
D. Power-boosted.
A
103. Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled only by input
signals from the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
when it is functioning in what mode?
A. Series Mode.
B. Parallel Mode.
C. Manual Mode.
D. Independent Mode.
B
104. An aircraft lateral control system incorporates a load-
feel bungee in the aileron system for which of the
following purposes?
A. To provide artificial feel only.
B. To provide a centering device only.
C. To provide artificial feel and a centering device only.
D. To provide artificial feel, a centering device, and
effortless control stick movement.
C
105. The combination aileron and spoiler/deflector system is
used to enhance what in-flight capability of the aircraft?
A. Increased pitch control in rapid descents.
B. Increased climb rate about the lateral axis.
C. Increased yaw control during high-speed turns.
D. Increased roll rate about the longitudinal axis.
D
106. If you find a cable that is kinked, what action should you
take?
A. The kink should be noted in the aircraft logbook and the
cable removed during the next periodic inspection.
B. The cable should be thoroughly cleaned and the kink
removed.
C. The kink should be straightened and the cable
lubricated.
D. The cable should be replaced immediately.
D

A1 - AIRFRAME
107. To ensure that the end fitting of a push-pull rod is NOT
extended too far out of the rod; you should?
A. Retighten the check nut.
B. Measure the end fitting length.
C. Count the number of end fitting turns.
D. Look for the stem through the drilled hole in the rod.
A
108. While rigging the elevator control system, you have the
aft sector rig pin in place and find that the elevators
are 5 degrees too low. What action should you take to
correct the problem?
A. Loosen the turnbuckles on the cables.
B. Tighten the turnbuckles on the cables.
C. Shorten the push-pull rod from the aft sector.
D. Lengthen the push-pull rod from the forward sector.
C
109. What is the main purpose of stringers in the semi-
monocoque design?
A. To add length to the frame.
B. To carry concentrated loads.
C. For attachment of the wings.
D. For shape and attachment of the skin.
D
110. The three general types of manually operated
flight control mechanisms do NOT include which of the
following types?
A. Cable operated.
B. Torque tube operated.
C. Bell crank operated.
D. Push-pull tube operated.
C
111. What component maintains an even pressure in the hydraulic
system and acts as an emergency source for operating
certain actuating units?
A. Power pump.
B. Accumulator.
C. Pressure gauge.
D. Selector valve.
B
112. What component is often referred to as an unloading valve?
A. Pressure regulator.
B. Check valve.
C. Selector valve.
D. Actuating unit.
A
113. Which of the following rules is/are basic to aircraft
hydraulic servicing?
A. Never use fluid from a container that has been left
open.
B. Use only approved servicing units.

A1 - AIRFRAME
 C. Always maintain a high state of cleanliness.
D. As stated “A and C” above are correct.
B
114. The shuttle valve is used for what purpose?
A. To transfer pneumatic pressure.
B. To transfer hydraulic pressure.
C. To direct fluid back to accumulator.
D. To separate normal systems from emergency pneumatic
systems.
D
115. What marking or bolt dimension indicates the material of
which standard bolts are made, and if it is a close-
tolerance bolts?
A. Bolt diameter.
B. Bolt length.
C. Head marking.
D. Grip length marking.
C

116. What safety wiring method should be used in places that

are hard to reach?
A. The single-wire method.
B. The double-wire method.
C. The clip-locking method.
D. The wire-wrapping method.
A
117. What is the purpose of rectifiers?
A. Converts AC to DC.
B. Converts DC to AC.
C. Converts mechanical to electrical energy.
D. Converts electrical to mechanical energy.
A
118. What engine component is the exhaust gases temperature
measured from?
A. Compressor.
B. Tail pipe.
C. Engine inlet.
D. Turbine.
B
119. You are performing a process that consists of inducing a
magnetic field into a part and applying magnetic particles
in a liquid suspension or dry powder. What type of NDI
inspection are you conducting?
A. Ultrasonic.
B. Radiographic.
C. Eddy current.

A1 - AIRFRAME
 D. Magnetic particle.
D
120. The developer used in a dye penetrant NDI inspection
serves what purpose?
A. It neutralizes the dye.
B. It speeds the drying of the penetrant.
C. It helps draw any trapped penetrant from the
discontinuities.
D. It aids the penetrant in filling any discontinuities
that are below the surface of the material.
C
121. The oxygen pressure is much than the acetylene pressure in
what type of oxyacetylene welding torch
A. The jet type.
B. The injector type.
C. The high-pressure type.
D. The equal-pressure type.
B
122. Aluminum alloys should be heated by the use of which of
the following methods?
A. An air furnace.
B. A molten salt bath only.
C. An electric furnace only.
D. A molten salt bath or an electric furnace.
D

123. After welding a ferrous metal, you should use the

normalizing process of heat treatment for what reason?
A. To reduce its carbon content.
B. To induce internal stresses.
C. To remove all strains.
D. To make it harder.
D
124. Blind rivets are so named for what reason?
A. Limited space does not allow for a bucking bar.
B. They are self-heading.
C. They are lighter than solid shank rivets.
D. They retain the stem in position by friction
A
125. What type of cable has two or more insulated conductors in
the same jacket?
A. RF cable.
B. Shielded cable.
C. Twisted cable.
D. Multi-conductor cable.
D

A1 - AIRFRAME
A1 - AIRFRAME