BASIC A1 401-2020 (BAT Bravo)

1. For modifed aircraft which require for flight test in the compliance to regulation DGCA will
issue
A. Standard certificate of airworthiness.
B. Special certincate of airworthiness for showing compliance.
C. Special certificate of airworthiness on restricted category,

2. Installation of parts not approved for the propeller when not limited in the Propeller
Specification and required Approval by Authority is considered as :
A. Major Alterations
B. Major Repair
C. Preventive Maintenance

3. Repairs involving the substitution of material is considered as :

A. Major Alterations
B. Major Repair
C. Preventive Maintenance

4. The holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer license may not exercis the approval return
to service privileges of his license on specific aircraft type unless within the 24 months:
A. He conduct recurrent human factor training.
B. At least 6 months serve as engineer under his privileges of the license or rating
C. At least 6 months serve as instructor for aircraft type training

5. What license category can have additional privileges to signed aircraft log entry?
A. Category A with particular aircraft rating.
B. Category C with particular aircraft rating.
C. Category A & C without particular aircraft rating.

6. What license category can have additional privileges to perform the annual and 100-hour
inspection required by CASR part 91 and approve for return it to service?
A. Category A with particular aircraft rating.
B. Category C with particular aircraft rating.
C. Category A & C without particular aircraft rating.

7. Who is the person mandatorily supervising or conducting inspection aircraft in a progressive

inspection?
A. Quality Manager
B. Certificated airframe repair station
C. Mechanic

8. CASR Part 121 prescribes the certification and operating requirements of

 A. Approved Maintenance Organizations.
B. Air Carriers.
C. Aviation Training Organizations.

9. Authorization for person to perform RII at air operator given by...

A. Manufacture
B. DGCA
C. Air operator

10. The AMO satellite must submit an AMO manual for approval by the DGCA ...
A. AMO manual in a standard format
B. Each revision of its AMO manual
C. Only first revision of its AMO manual

11. Circular patch is held together by seven equally spaced rivets. What is their angular
spacing?
A. 51.50○
B. 52○
C. 51.43○

12. A cylinder has a diameter of 20 cm and a length of 20 cm, what is lts volume?
A. 1240 cm3
B. 6200 cm3
C. 400 cm3

3 1
13. 4 -2 ¼+ =
8 5
A. 2 ¼
13
B. 2
40
3
C. 3
10

14. Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that
would be present if the air were saturated at prevailing temperature and pressure?
A. Absolute humidity.
B. Relative humidity.
C. Dewpoint.

15. The speed of sound in the atmosphere

A. varies according to the frequency of the sound.
B. changes with a change in temperature.
C. changes with a change in pressure.
16. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become
saturated is called...
A. Dewpoint.
B. Absolute humidity.
C. Relative humidity.

17. If both the volume and the absolute temperature of a confined gas are doubled, the
pressure will
A. not change.
B. be halved.
C. become four times as great.

18. Which of the following is Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia?
A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
C. Objects at rest tend to remain at rest and objects in motion tend to remain in motion at
the same speed and in the same direction.

19. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the

A. Functional location of components within a system.
B. Physical location of components within a system.
C. Size and shape of components within a system.

20. The drawings often used in illustrated parts manuals are

A. Exploded view drawings.
B. Block drawings.
C. Detail drawings.

21. With the increase of wing span the strength of the wing must
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. remain the same

22. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increase, the centre of pressure will
A. move toward the trailing edge.
B. remain stationary because of no change in the incidence angle
C. move toward the leading edge.

23. When a body is moving through air or another fluid, a definite resistance is produced to
resist its motion. In aeronautical terms this resistance called:
A. aerodynamicresistance
B. fluid resistance
C. drag

24. What is form drag?

 A. Aerodynamic drag produced by skin friction.
B. Aerodynamic drag produced by skin friction and profil of the airfoil.
C. Parasite drag caused by the form of the object passing through the air.

25. Which statement best describes the relationship of the forces acting on an aircraft is
climbing at a constant airspeed and at constant power?
A. Thrust is equal to drag and lift is equal to weight
B. Thrust is less than drag and lit is equal to weight
C. Thrust is equal to drag and lift is greater than weight

26. Hammers are classified by

A. weight and type of head.
B. weight and length of shaft.
C. shape of head and length of shaft.

27. What kind of tool should we used for marking lines on the surface of the metal?
A. Ruler.
B. Scriber.
C. Callipers.

28. according to the number of teeth of the blade, what kind of suitable blade is used to sawing
steel pipe?
A. Coarse blade (18T).
B. Medium Blade (24T).
C. Fine Blade (32T).

29. A tolerance is.....

A. a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions.
B. required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain of fit.
C. permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment

30. what torque wrench scale reading we needed when the specified torque loading ...
in and the length of the wrench and spanner are 10 and 5 inches
A. 300 lb in.
B. 150 lb in.
C. 200 lb in.

31. Cautions and warnings apply to cleaning procedures are divided into three categories:
A. Personal protection; Components protections; and fire protection
B. Personal protection; Aircraft protection; and Fire protection
C. Personal protection; Components protection, and. Wire protection.

32. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is

A. improper heat treatment
B. dissimilar metal contact.
 C. improper application of primer

33. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a

A. stiff, nonmetallic brush.
B. silicon carbide brush.
C. carborundum abrawsive.

34. Which of the following is an acceptable first step procedure to help prevent scratchingwhen
cleaning a transparent plastic surface?
A. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft cloth.
B. Flush the surface with clean water.
C. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft cloth moistened with de mineralize
distilled water.

35. If the empty weight CG of an airplane lies within the empty weight CG limits,...
A. It is necessary to calculate CG extremes.
B. It is not necessary to calculate CG extremes.
C. Minimum fuel should be used in both forward and rearward CG checks.

36. An aircraft’s LEMAC and TEMAC are defined in terms of distance

A. From the datum
B. From the ...
C. Ahead of ...

37. Which test below may be used by the technician to identify a type of steel
A. Spark test
B. Chemical test
C. Magnetic test

38. If two pieces of metal are welded edge to edge in the same plane with no overlap, the joint
is reffered to as a
A. Edge joint
B. Butt joint
C. Tee joint

39. The distance through the center of the weld from the weld root to the weld face is called the
A. Toe
B. Prism
C. Throat

40. The selection of the size of the welding tip is determined by

A. The type and size of torch used in the welding process
B. The material hardness at beginning of the welding process
C. The amount of heat and the size of flame for the kind and thickness of material welded
41. What absorbs the taxi shocks in an oleo shock strut?
A. The transfer oil from one compartment to another through a metered orifice
B. The compressed air/ nitrogen.
C. The force from the mechanically bungee spring,

42. When removing a wheel from an aircraft to change the tire, when should the tire deflated?
A. Before the aircraft is on the jack.
B. Before the axle nut is loosened,
C. After the axle nut is loosened.

43. What type of inspection should be used to inspect the bead seat area of a wheel for cracks?
A. Visual inspection.
B. Magnetic particle inspection.
C. Edy current inspection.

44. What causes an aircraft tire to wear more on the shoulders than in the center of the tread?
A. Operating the tire in an underinflated condition.
B. Operating the tire in an overinflated condition.
C. Operating the tire on the wet surfaces.

45. Porous metal filter on hydraullic fiter can be designed to filter

A. 1µm in size.
B. 3µm in size.
C. 5µm in size.

46. Where are line disconnect fittings normally located in an aircraft hydraulic system?
A. In the lines that connect the engine driven pump to the aircraft hydraullic system
B. Mounted on the bottom of the head assemblyand is sealed with an O ring.
C. In the pumpcase drain return lines before the reservoir.

47. When an O ring should install to sealing in hydraulic actuator, it should be sealing on
A. one -way seal.
B. two-way seal.
C. three way seal.

48. What are two basic differences between a hydraulic and pneumatic system?
A. The fuid in Hydraulic system is compressible and has a return system.
B. The fluid in a pneumatic system is compressible and has a return system.
C. The fuid in a pneumatic system is compressible and has no return system.

49. What type of pump used in a low-pressure pneumatic system?

A. A Gear type pump.
B. A Gerotor pump.
C. A Vane-type pump.
50. What is the state of the refrigerant as it leaves the condensor on a cooling system?
A. it is a high-pressure liquid.
B. it is a high-pressure gas.
C. it is a low-pressure liquid.

51. What is the state of the refrigrant as it leaves the evaporator?

A. it is a low-pressure liquid.
B. it is a high-pressure vapor.
C. it is a low-pressure vapor.

52. What is the function of the air-cycle machine in an air-cycle cooling system?
A. To increase the pressure and temperature from the expansion turbine.
B. To give up some of cold air in the secondary heat exchanger.
C. To generate the cold air when it leaves the expansion turbine.
 The centrifugal compressor increases the pressure and temperature of the bleed
air. This high temperature air gives up some of its heat in the secondary heat
exchanger, and a great deal more as it drives the expansion turbine. It leaves the
expansion turbine as cold air.

53. What is meant by the isobaric mode of cabin pressurization?

A. It is the mode that keeps the cabin altitude constant as the aircraft changes is light
altitude.
B. It is the mode that holds the pressure inside the cabin constant amount above the
outside air temperature.
C. It is the mode that holds the pressure inside the cabin constant amount below the
outside air temperature.

54. What keeps the cabin of a pressurized aircraft from being pressurized when the aircraft is on
the ground?
A. The cabin of the aircraft it self.
B. A squat switch on the landing gear.
C. The amount of doors on the aircraft.

55. What is used as the sensor in the fuel tank for an electronic -type fuel quantity indicating
system?
A. Variable resistor with an arm.
B. Fuel system strainers.
C. Tubular capasitors.
56. After welding an aluminium fuel tank what pressure should the tank be tested with?
A. 2.5 psi.
B. 3.5 psi
C. 4,5 psi.

57. Why are fuel tank divided into compartments or have baffle installed in them?
A. keep the fuel from surging back and forth as the aircraft changes its attitude in flight.
 B. To make an easy way for mechanic to check the fuel level in a tank fromn the bottom of
the tank.
C. To separate the flow of the fuel.

58. Where are fuel system strainers located?

A. They all located in the line between the outlet of the fuel tank and the inlet to the fuel
metering device.
B. All of the strainers are located in the outlet to the tank.
C. One strainer located in the outlet to the tank, and other are located in the line between
the outlet of the fuel tank and the inlet to the fuel metering device.

59. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?
A. To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.
B. To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots.
C. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vacuum system.

60. Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated wind
A. Imbedded in the glass.
B. Attached to the glass.
C. Around the glass.

61. Two possible sources of heat for the operation wing thermal anti icing System are
A. frist stage of the sircycle turbine and turbine compressor
B. compressor bleed air and aircraft electrical system
C. combustion heat and exhaust gases

62. What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield
system?
A. Thermal overheat, switchess
B. Thermistors
C. Electronic amplifiers

63. Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the
A. temperature sensing elements
B. autotransformes
C. conductive coating

64. Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the system is not in
operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading operation, to hold the boots tightly
against the leading edges in flight?
A. Vacuum relief valve.
B. Ejector.
C. Distributor valve.

65. How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?

 A. By preventing the formation of ice.
B. By breaking up ice formations.
C. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up.

66. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

A. alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.
B. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airfow.
C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relives the load on the air pump.

67. The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is

A. Water.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Dry powder chemical.

68. Smoke in the cargo and / or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by
which instrument?
A. Chemical reactor.
B. Photoelectric cell.
C. Sniffer.

69. Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector
A. Measure a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.
B. Senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber.
C. Uses radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke.

70. Why does the fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between
separate circuits?
A. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction.
B. This installation is equal to two system a main system and a reserve system.
C. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.

71. A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charger by

A. Attaching a remote pressure gauge.
B. Weighing the container and its container and its content.
C. A hydrostatic test.

72. What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?

A. Brown.
B. Yellow.
C. Red and Green.

73. The most common cause of false fire warning in continuous loop fire-detection system is
A. Improper routing or clamping of loops.
B. Moisture.
C. Dents,kinks or crushed sensor sections.
74. A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because
A. it generates a small current when heated.
B. Heat decreases its electrical resistance.
C. it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning syste

75. The commutator of a generator ?

A. changes direct current produced in the armature into alternating current as it is taken
from the armature.
B. changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is taken
from the armature.
C. reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct
current.

76. An amnmeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the?
A. Amperage available for use.
B. Total ameres being used in the airplane.
C. Rate of current used to charge the battery.

77. Which of the following is not one the purpose of interpoles in a generator ?
A. Reduce field strength.
B. Overcome armature reaction.
C. Reduced arcing at the brushes.

78. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens ?

A. Place armature in a growler and connect a 1 10V test light on adjacent segment; light
should light.
B. Check adjacent segment on commutator with an ohmmeter on the high resistance scale.
C. Use a 12/24 V test light between the armature core segment and the shaft.

79. When handling a high capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it ?

A. Has a full charge before removing it from the circuit.
B. Has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit.
C. Is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.

80. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel cadmium battery?
A. A hight internal resistance condition.
B. Excessive current charging of the battery. (draw from the battery)
C. Constant current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity

81. How can it be determine if a transformer winding has come of its turn shorted togerther?
A. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.
B. The output volatage will be high.
C. The transformer will get hot in normal operation.
82. An aircraft magnetic compass is swing to update the compass correction
A. An annual inspection is accomplished on the aircraft.
B. The compass is serviced.
C. Equipment is added that could effect compass deviation.
83. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauges is
A. A Bourdon tube.
B. An airtight diaphragm.
C. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to which arms, levelrs, and gear attached.

84. What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass called?
A. Reeder line.
B. Lubber line.
C. Reference line.

85. When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensators are adjusted to correct for
A. Magnetic influence deviation.
B. Compass card oscillations.
C. Magnetic variations.

86. What will be the result if the instrument static presure line become disconnected inside a
pressurized cabin during cruising flight
A. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
B. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read high.
C. The Altimeter will read low and the read airspeed indicator will read high.

87. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to

A. Retard precession of the float.
B. Reduce deviation errors.
C. Dampen the oscillation of the float.

88. Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in
indication of the
A. Airspeed indicator after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a
prescribe equivalent airspeed to be indicated.
B. Altimeter after pressure has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed
equivalent altitude to be indicated.
C. Altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed
equivalent altituded to be indicated.

89. A devices which make it possible to obtain more than one voltage from a single power
source is
A. Voltmeter.
B. Voltage Divider.
C. Megger.
90. To keep the positive and negative plates from touching each other and shorting out the lead
acid batteries.
A. Cell cover.
B. Porous Separator.
C. Cell Container.

91. When a fuly charge a lead acid battery, dilute sulfuric acid configuration is
A. 25 % sulfuric acid and 75% water.
B. 75% sulfuric acid and 25% water.
C. 25 % sulfuric acid or 75% water.

92. Following value of a conductor resistance becomes to decrease

A. Lessening length or lessening wide of area of conductor.
B. Adding length or adding wide of area of conductor.
C. Lessening length or adding wide of area of conductor.

93. Following correct statement in a parallel circuit

A. Total Value of resistance will be more less than the value of smallest resistor in
combination
B. Total Value of resistance will be more less if a resistor thrown.
C. Each a resistor passed by the same current although its value of .... each other.
 One important point to remember about resistors in parallel, is that the total
circuit resistance ( R T ) of any two resistors connected together in parallel will
always be LESS than the value of the smallest resistor in that combination.

94. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the
nucleus?
A. None
B. Weak.
C. Strong.

95. How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have?

A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 4.