AMT GC 001 Mathematics

1. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

2 27 13
2. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

2,3,5,7 4,6,8,9 11,13,17

3. There is a 20 Helicopter, 40 Engine and 60 propeller then what is the ratio of Helicopter To propeller
to Engine?
3:2:1 1:3:2 2:1:3
4. Solve this Simountaneous equation 2x+4y=5 for x?
2/7 7/2 10/2
5. Which one is improper fraction?
1/7 7/2 2/7
6. What is this number {-3,-2,-1 ,0 ,1 ,2 ,3}
Rational Number Positive integer Counting Number
7. What is the Cuboid of
30 m² 300 m² 0.0003 m²
8. What is the angle of two triangle 2:3:5?
Acute angle Right angle Obtus angle
9. Simplify this (a- b) (a+ b)?
a²- b² a² -2ab -b² b ²+2ab -b²
10. Write the fraction form of 125%?
5/4 4/5 10/2
11. Which one is a linear equation?
X +5y= 4 X² -2x +4= 7 X(x +1)= 2
12. What is the LCM of 9,15,40
2880 200 400
13. A triangle whose all angles and sides are equal?
Isosceles Equilateral Scalen
14. What is this number {0, 1, 2, 3……}?
Prime Number Rational Number Whole Number
AMT GC 002 Physics
1. A First class lever is to be used to lift 500-lb weight the distance from the weight to the fulcrum is 12
inches and from the fulcrum to the applied effort 60 inch how much force is required to the lift weight?
What is the mechanical advantage
100lb & 2 200lb & 5 100lb & 5
2. Which one of the following is not true?
A single fixed pulley in a first class lever with equal arms
Advantage of a single fixed pulley is to change the direction of the force
The mechanical advantage of a single pulley is 2
3. A Boeing 747 weighing 450,000 pounds needs to be raised 4 feet in the air so maintenance can be done
on the landing gears. How much potential energy does the airplane possess because of this raised
position
450,000 –lb 1.800,000 ft- lb 1.800 ft lb
4. A device used to measure the relative density of the liquids is
Hydrometer Densitometer Thermometer
5. To measure the resistance of the flow (of Liquids) is
Density Viscosity Specific Gravity
6. 20ft² of the gas argon is compressed to 15²ft the gas starts out a temperature of 60F and pressure of
1,000 Psig after being compressed its is temperature 90 degree F what would its new pressure be in
PSIG (60 degree Fahrenheit = 520 degree Rankine = 90 Degrees Fahrenheit = 550 Rankine
1,431 1.416.3 2.847.3
7. The smallest unit of substance that exhibits the physical and chemical properties of a substance is
Atom Molecule Electron
8. The process by which a solid changes directly into a gas is called
Sublimation Evaporation Freezing
9. One of the following is deprived physical quantity
Mass Length Weight
10. Which one of the following is a vector quantity
Speed Distance Velocity
11. An aircraft suspended from it CG would have
A nose down tendency
A tail down tendency
No tendency to rotate in either a nose-down or nose-up attitude
12. When the sheet metal of an airplane is assembled using a rivet, the rivet experiences
Compression stress Shear stress Tensile stress
M 6 part 1 Material
1) Which property of metal is useful in sheet metal that is curved sheet?

A) Malleability B) Ductility C) Conductivity

2) In the SAE/AISI four digit numerical index system, which digit indicates the principal alloying
element?

A) The first B) The second C) The third

3) Which one has free carbon (graphite)?

A) Low carbon steel B) High carbon steel C) cast steel

4) Alloy steel is composed of

A) Iron + carbon B) Iron + carbon + other metal C) Iron + other metal

5) The major alloy element in 2024 alloy is

A) Iron B) Carbon C) Copper

6) Which aircraft metal has the highest strength ratio?

A) Aluminum B) Steel C) Magnesium

7) Which statement is not true? In the heat treatment of aluminum alloy?

A. solution heat treatment is alloyed by precipitation heat treatment

B. precipitation heat treatment is alloyed by solution heat treatment

8. which type of rivet head style is not applicable for aircraft use

A. universal head B. counter sank head C. brazier head

9. which is the easiest method to identify the type of material of rivet

A. by the marking on the head B. by marking a filling test C. by immersing in an acidic

solution

10. which of the following is not a cause for corrosion

A. salt, water and chemical B. dissimilar metal contact C. oil and grease

11. which of the following metal is highly corrosive if unprotected?

A. aluminum B. magnesium C. nickel

12. a composite is made up of layer of fibers and raising then it is

A. sandwiches structures B. monolithic structures C. honeycomb structures

13. which of the PR1440 sealant type is applied with brush

A. type A B. type B C. mixture of type A and type B

14. which stress is not experienced by adhesive joints

A. peel B. tension C. compression

15. in dissimilar metal corrosion, which metallic agent corrode

A. anode B. cathode C. both

16. corrosion attack along the grain boundary resulting from lack of uniformity is

A. dissimilar metal corrosion B. intergranular corrosion C. filiform corrosion

17. distance b/n the two consecutive crests of a thread of crew is known as

A. pitch B. lead C. root

18. if a bolt tightens when it rotated in counter clockwise direction, then it is

A. right hand thread B. left hand thread C. self-tapping screw

19. class of fit for aircraft bolts is

A. class 1 B. class 2 C. class 3

20. the unthreaded portion of a bolt is referred to as

A. total length B. grip length C. head

21. which safety method is preferred to lock a drilled shank bolt?

A. cotter pin B. safety wire

22. which type is not preffered in areas where the temperature is above 2500c

A. all metal type B. rubber inserted nut C. wing nut

23.which of the ff is non-metallic material?

A. steel B. nickel C. composite

24.in the SAE 4340 alloy what 3 stand for

A. major alloying element B. % of major alloying element C. % of carton in the alloy

25. what must be the minimum carbon for hardening a steel

A. 0.3% B. 0.4% C. 0.5%

26. stainless steel is an alloy of

A. iron and carbon B. iron and copper C. chromium and nickel

27. which of the ff is a pure aluminum?

A. 1100 B. 2024 C. 5056

28. the process of covering an aluminum surface with pure aluminum is

A. anodizing B. cladding C. sulfurizing

29. duration of a metal to kept in furnace at a specified temperature is

A. soaking time B. cooling time C. heating time

30. which type of stress is imposed on a rivet?

A. compressive B. tensile C. shear

31. the two head styles of a rivet for aircraft uses

A. round and brazier B. countersunk and universal C. universal and square

32. what is the angle of a ‘ V’ thread?

A. 29 deg B. 45 deg C. 60 deg

33. a type of corrosion that develops from left over wash primers is

A. fretting corrosion B. filiform corrosion C. intergranuar corrosion

M 7 part 1 Occupational health and safety

1) Occupational health and safety of work place with factor those affect

A) Safety of electrical equipment

B) Employee health and tool

C) Safety of equipment and tools

2) State of minimum acceptable risk

A) Health B) safety C) hazard

3) Sign prescribed by specific behavior

A) Prohibition B) warning C) mandatory

4) Which of the following sign round shape with black pictogram on white background and red diagonal line
A) Prohibition B) mandatory C) warning

6) If a marking on fire extinguisher has star shape to which class of fire suitable

A) class B B) class C C) class D

7) the most common confined area hazard in an aircraft during maintenance activity is:

A, cargo compartment

B, fuel tank compartment

C, main electronic compartment

9, which type of hazard in maintenance work that body positions and working conditions put strain on your
body

A, work organization hazard

B, ergonomics hazard

C, physical hazard

10) Which types of fires extinguisher effective for class A/B/C type

A) H2O B) CO2 C) Halon

11) Which type of fire extinguisher used in class D fire

A) Water B) dry powder C) CO2

12) Marking on fire extinguisher indicates

A) Type of fire extinguisher

B) means of expelling

C) Suitable of class of fire

13) Water extinguisher are the best type to use class A fire but should never be used on which class fire A)
Class B B) class C C) class C & D

14) Among four recognized class of hazard that will not result injury to people or serious damage to
equipment

A) Negligible B) marginal C) warning

15) Work place injury, illness, death impose cost up on

A) Employees B) community C) both

16) Hazard is a potential cause to injury damage and loss of material

A) True B) false

17) The most common injury in the hospitality of industry

A) FALL B) being fall by object C) both

18) AWG system number used designated electrical wire size the number assigned size is related

A) Cross sectional
B) combined resist and current carrying capacity

C) Current carry capacity

19) Which cable connector is better in aircraft?

A) Crimped B) soldered C) both

20) Aluminum is more conductivity than copper

A) True B) false

21) Which types of cable can be affected by EMF INTERFERENCE?

A) Shielded cable B) twisted cable C) coaxial cable

22) Most conductive material used in aircraft

A) Copper B) tin C) aluminum

23) Which types of fire extinguisher is used in maintenance area of aircraft

A) Class A/B/C B) class B/D C) all

24) In which way routing of coaxial cable differ from the routing of electrical cable

A) coaxial cable routes parallel with the rips and stringles

B) coaxial cable routes directly C) coaxial cable routes right angle with the rips and strangles

M 7 part 2 Engineering Drawing

M 7 part 3 manual & Documentation

1. The mandatory document provided by regulatory body is

A. Service bulletin

B. Airworthiness directives

C. Advisory circulars

2. In which document are aircraft operational limits ( such as speed limisetc,) found?

A. Supplemental type certificateB. Type certificate data sheet C. Airworthiness directives

3. What is devised to standardize the technical data and maintenance activities on large aircraft?

A. ISO numbering

B. FAA numbering

C. ATA numbering system

4. What is published to notify A/C owners of unsafe condition and prescribe conditions under which product
may continue to be operated and are regulation & must be complied ?

Service bulletin

Airworthiness directives

Advisory circulars

5. What code is established by law to provide for the safe and orderly conduct of flight operations to prescribe
airmen privileges and limitations?

A. Code of federal regulation

B. Code of aviation regulation

C. Code of aerospace regulation

6. Document issued by FAA approving a product(aircraft,engine,or propeller)modification is

A. TSDS

B. Supplemental type certificate

C. Aircraft registration number

7. The first element in ATA chapter indicates

A. SectionB. Major chapter

C. Sub section

8. Who is responsible to assign the first element

A. The operator B. Manufacturer C. ATA

9. The second element in ATA chapter indicates

A. Section B. Major chapte C. Sub section

10. Who is responsible to assign the fourth digit of the second element

A. The operator B. manufacturer C. ATA

11. Which one of the following is true

A. Double zeros represent information relevant to single subsystem/subject

B. Double zeros represent information relevant to whole subsystem /subject

C. Double zeros represent information relevant to some subsystem /subject

12. Which maintenance document will help you in finding the exact hardware part number?

A. AMM B. IPC C. SRM

13. Which diagram gives you a graphic representation of an assembly or a system?A. Schematic diagram
B. Block diagram

C. Sketch

14. Periodic inspections that have to be done after a certain amount of time or usage is termed as

A. preventive B. Routine check

15. The mandatory document provided by regulatory body is

A. Service bulletin

B.Airworthiness dirctives

C. Advisory circulars

16. In which document are aircraft operational limits ( such as speed limisetc,) found?

A.Supplemental type certificate

B.Type certificate data sheet

C. Airworthiness directives

17. What is devised to standardize the technical data and maintenance activities on large aircraft?

A. ISO numbering

B. FAA numbering

C. ATA numbering system

18. What is published to notify A/C owners of unsafe condition and prescribe conditions under which product
may continue to be operated and are regulation & must be complied ?

A. Service bulletin

B. Airworthiness directives

C. Advisory circulars

19. What code is established by law to provide for the safe and orderly conduct of flight operations to
prescribe airmen privileges and limitations?

A. Code of federal regulation

B. Code of aviation regulation

C. Code of aerospace regulation

20. Document issued by FAA approving a product(aircraft,engine,or propeller)modification is

A. TSDS

B. Supplemental type certificateC. Aircraft registration number

21. The first element in ATA chapter indicates

A. Section B. Major chapter C. Sub section

22. Who is responsible to assign the first element A. The operator B. Manufacturer C. ATA

23. The second element in ATA chapter indicates

A. Section B. Major chapter C. Sub section

24. Who is responsible to assign the fourth digit of the second element

A. The operator B. manufacturer C. ATA

M 8 AERODYNAMICS
1. The property of air that it “wets” or trends to adhere to any surface over which it flows can
expressed as

A. Humidity B. Viscosity C. Density

2. Which of the following is NOT true about standard atmosphere? (ISA)

A. It gives meaningful a/c performance specification

B. Used as reference for pressure altitude definition

C. Temporary and pressure values are assumed to be 15C and 760 inches of mercury

3. Which of the following is NOT Correct?

A. Compared to warm air, cold air is less dense for a given volume

B. The atmospheric layer closest to earth where all weather changes take place is called the stratosphere.

C. Composition of permanent gases 78% N2 21% O2 and about less than <1% argon

4. Bernoulli’s principle state that the total energy of a particle in motion is constant at all points on its
path is__________

A. Steady flow B. Turbulent flow C. All air flow types

5. Which of the following is NOT true about flow air?

A. Laminar flow is with minimum of turbulence

B. Laminar air flow is an air flow in which the air passes over the surface in smooth layers

C. A laminar flow is a flow characterized by turbulence

6. AOA (Angle of attack) is:-

A. The angle between the mean camber line and the relative wind

B. The angle between the air foil and the relative wind

C. The angle between the horizontal planes passing through the longitudinal axis and the

cord of the air foil?

7. The phenomena that air is forced down by aerodynamic action below & behind the wing (airfoil) of
an airplane is

A. Angle of incidence B. Downwash C. Up wash

8. Which of the following is INCORRECT about stagnation point?

A. Is located close to the leading edge of a wing

B. Its position moves with angle of attack

C. A point at which flow is splitting up & velocity reached to its maximum

9. Which of the following is correct?

A. Center of pressure and center of gravity are located at the same point on the chord of the given airfoil

B. The point on the chord line of an airfoil where all of the aerodynamic forced are considered to be
concentrated is called center of gravity.

C. The point on the chord line an air foil where all of the aerodynamic force are considered to be concentrated
is called center of pressure.

10. Which of the following is not true?

A. Wash in is the condition in the rigging of an airplane in which a wing is twisted so that its angle of
incidence greater at the tip than the root

B. Aspect ratio is found by dividing the square of chord by the wing area.

C. Symmetrical airfoil is an airfoil that has the same shape on both sides of its center line.

D. Yaw is the rotation of an aircraft about its vertical axis.

11. Wings, stabilizers, aileron, rudder can be treated as airfoil.

A. True B. False

12. When the critical angle of attack is exceeded an a/c will stall at the same

A. Air speed regard less of the attitude with the relation to the horizon

B. Angle of attack & attitude with the relation to horizon

C. Angle of attack regardless of the attitude with the relation to horizon

13. What are the three planes of an a/c movement?

A. Pitching, lateral, & rolling

B. Pitching, rolling & yawing

C. Yawing, longitudinal & rolling

14. What are the three axis about which an aircraft can move?

A. Pitching, lateral & longitudinal

B. Yawing, longitudinal & normal

C. Longitudinal, lateral & normal

15. Which three terms describe static stability?

A. Positive, neutral & negative

B. Stable, rolling & unstable

C. Yawing, neutral & satble

16. The basic force involved in an a/c is produced by the turbo jet engine or propeller and the counter acting
force for the weight are ____&_____ are stable.

A. Drag/trust B. Thrust/weight C. Thrust/drag

17. Lateral control is basically performed by

A. Ailerons B. rudders C. Elevators

18. Which of the following is true?

A. The angle of attack(AOA) at which the air no longer flows smoothly over the top of the wing and the wing
stalls is called maximum angle of incidence

B. The wing design in which greater angle of incidence at which the root of the wing than the tip is
maintained called washout

C. As the angle of attack increase, the location of cp is unchanged

19. If CG is forward of the CP there is a natural tendency for the aircraft to want pitch

A. Nose down B. Nose up C No change

20. L/D I ratio is maximum when

A. Induced & parasitic drag are the same

B. Induced drag is greater than parasitic

C. Parasitic drag is greater than induced

21. In differential aileron system the aileron moving upward to begin turn travels _______than the aileron
moving down ward.

A. Greater B. Lesser C. The same

22. Which of the following is NOT true about spoilers?

A. Hinged surfaces located ahead of the flap

B. Can be used in lateral control (flight spoilers)

C. Basically designed for pitching control

23. A horizontal tail surfaces that combines the function of the stability and elevator is called__
A. Elevons B. Ruddervator C. Stabilator

24. Dutch roll____

A. Is the safest condition for the air craft once it happened

B. A coupled longitudinal/directional oscillation

C. A result of two oscillations (roll & yaw)

25. Name the three forces acting on gliding aircraft

A. Force, weight, lift

B. Drag, weight, thrust

C. Drag, weight, lift

26. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Glide ratio is the number of feet a glider travels horizontally in….. for every foot of altitude lost

B. A glide is the descent with the thrust equal to maximum

C. Glide ratio= (lift/drag)

27. In sweep back wings

A. Wing tips washout

B. Wing tips wash in

C. Wing tips washout for some parts & wash in for others parts of…..

28. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Fitness ratio is the ratio between wing span & max. Thickness of the airfoil

B. Aspect ratio is the ratio between is the square of the span & the wing area

C. Fitness ratio is the ratio between maximum thickness of the airfoil & the chord

29. for the above formulae which of the following is TRUE?

A. S stands for total span of the wing/airfoil

B. Increase the velocity of the aircraft decreases the corresponding coefficient of the lift or drag

C. When the speed of aircraft is double (others constant) lift forced doubles

30.Ratio of actual load the acting on the wing to the gross weight of the airplane is called____.

A. Load B. Load factor C. Coefficient of the lift

31. Vortex generators mounted on the wings improves flight characteristics at_____ speed, but those on the
empennage improve at ______ speed

A. High/low B. Low/high C. Low/low

32. One of the following is NOT considered as high lift device:

A. Leading edge flap B. Slats C. Ailerons

33. Among the two basic types of drag (induced & parasitic drag) Parasitic drag is sub divided into three
types. These are

A. Form drag, induced drag, parasitic drag

B. Form drag, interference drag, skin friction drag

C. Form drag, induced drag, total drag

34. which of the following is wrong paring / set with respect to the basic control surface, associated airplane
movement and axis of the respective relation

A. stabilizer, pitch, longitudinal

B. elevator, roll, longitudinal

C. rudder, yaw, vertical

35. AOA is the angle b/n

A. the main chamber line and the relative wind

B. the airfoil (chord of airfoil) and the relative wind

C. the horizontal plane passing through the longitudinal axis and the chord of airfoil

36.w/c of the following is INCORRECT about stagnation point

A. is located close to the leading edge of the airfoil

B. its position moves if the AOA is changed

C. a point at w/c flow is splitting and velocity reached to its maximum

37. the total energy of fluid (incompressible flow) remain constant when it moves from one point to another
the principle that addressed this property is

A. bernoullis principle

B. coanda

C. newtons law of inertia

38. w/c of the ff is correct

A. cp and cg are located at the same point on the chord of a given airfoil

B. the point on the chord line of an airfoil where all aerodynamic force are considered to be concentrated is
called cg

C. the point on the chord line of an airfoil where all aerodynamic force are considered to be concentrated is
called cp
39. w/c of the ff is NOT TRUE about washout in wing design?

A. angle of incidence is greater than at the root of the wing that at the tip

B. angle of incidence is greater than at the tip of the wing that at the root

C. it is applicable in sweepback wing configuration to make the root stall first

40.what are the force acting on a gliding a/c with low engine power

A. force, weight, lift

B. weight, lift, drag, thrust

C. drag, weight, lift

41. how does a glider pilot decreases the air speed of the a/c

A. lower the nose by pushing the stick forward

B. raise the nose by pulling the stick back

C. lower the nose by pulling the stick back

42. which of the ff is not true

A. load factor is unity in straight and level flight

B. the steeper the bank angle the greater the G-force feet

C. in the bank turn of 60 degrees, the pilot experiences 2.5G force

43. which of the is true

A. the greater the dihedral angle is, the less lift produced by the wing

B. the angle of incidence of a wing is angle b/n the relative wind and wind chord

C. the critical AOA is equal to the AOA at which the total drug is minimum ( where the

parasitic drug equals induced drug)

44. which of the ff is not true

A. vortex generator and wing fences are used to improve air / boundary flow

B. spoilers can be used in lateral control ( flight spoilers)

C. spoilers are basically designed for pitching control

45. if CG is AFT of the CP, there is a natural tendency for the aircraft to pitch

A. nose down B. nose up C. no change

M 11 part 1 Turbine aeroplanes aerodynamics & structure

Airframe
01.Which one of the following machine is designed to be supported in the air by the dynamic reaction with the
air?

Balloon Airship Glider

02. The following are purpose of fuselage except

Provide space for cargo & passengers

Provide lift

Serve as an attachment point for wings & landing gear

03. In which construction are longerones used as the primary load carrying members?

Truss construction

Full monocoque

Semi-monocoque

04. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls, is moved rearward and to the left, the
right aileron will move?

down and the elevator will move up.

down and the elevator will move down.

up and the elevator will move down.

05. One of the following landing gear configurations do not allow more forceful application of the brakes
without nosing over?

Tricycle

Conventional

Tandom

06. During flight, which type of basic stress is exposed on the upper surface of the wing?

Bending

Compression

Tension

07. A tab which has separate control from the cockpit is?

Trim tab

Servo tab

Balance tab

08. Airframe is basic assembled structure of

 Balloon

Airplane

Airship

09 Which one of the following structural members is not found in full monocoque fuselages?

Longerons

frame

Skin

10.Which one of the following is not supported in the air by the dynamic reaction of its structure with the air?

Sea plane

Airship

Amphibian

11.Which one of the following needs additional support?

A. Swept back wing

B. Cantilever wing

C. Semi-cantilever wing

12. How is a smooth airflow maintained in the gap between the stationary trailing edge of a wing and the
movable control surface(s)

A. By use of Gap seals

B. by use of balance panels

C. By use of wing fences

13. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all the loads without supporting structure is called

Truss type construction

Pure monocoque construction

Semi monocoque construction

14.The Pratt truss type of fuselage construction is known for?

A. Having longerons, diagonal & vertical members

B. Not having vertical members

C. Not having diagonal member

15. One of the following landing gear configurations do not allow more forceful application of the brakes
without nosing over?
A. Tricycle

B. Conventional

C. Tandom

16. Redundant systems are found in one of the following design type.

A. Safelife

B. Tertiary structure

C. Fail-safe

17. Which combination control surface functions as a rudder and elevator?

A. Ruddervator

B. Elevon

C. Stabilator

18. In a semi monocoque construction, which one of the following is used in attachment points of wings and
landing gears?

A. Longerons Bulkheads Formers

19.Which control surface makes the aircraft rotate about the vertical axis?

A. Aileron

B. Elevator

C. Rudder

20. Which of the following is a width measurement to the right or to the left of the center line of the aircraft?

A. Butt line

B. Datum line

C. Water line

21. A Structural component that doesn't carry flight load is?

A. Fairings B. Landing gear C. Wing

M 11 part 4 Airframe system

01.What is the temporary disease caused by lack of oxygen

Anoxia Decompression sickness Hypoxia

02.Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine

Emulsifies the oil

Increases fuel temperature

Aerates the fuel

03.Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because

Kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication

Kerosene does not contain any water

Kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components

04.The valve which is used to drain water and sediment and drain trapped fuel after de-fueling
is

Refueling valve

Defueling valve

Drain valve

05.Which type of fuel is widely used in Gas turbine engines

Gasoline Jet A-1 Aviation gasoline

06.Which component in the fuel system delivers a continuous supply of fuel at the proper
pressure at all times during engine operation

Ejector fuel pump

Engine-driven fuel pump

Electrically driven booster pump

07.Which units in the vapor cycle cooling system separate the high-pressure side from the low-
pressure side

Condenser and evaporator

Condenser and evaporator

Compressor and receiver

08.What is the steering effect of pressing the right brake pedal on the airplane

Turns the airplane to the left

Stops the airplane

Turns the airplane to the right

09.Which of the following components is used to store hydraulic power

Accumulator

Gear pump
Reservoir

10.Spar valves are used for

Regulating flow of fuel

Controls the refueling of fuels

Shutoff fuel flow to the engine

11.Aircraft pressurization is mainly controlled by

Negative pressure relief valve

Outflow valve

Positive pressure relief valve

12.Superchargers are different from Turbochargers in that

Both are driven by Exhaust gas

Superchargers are driven by engine accessories and Turbochargers are driven by Exhaust gas

Turbochargers are driven by engine accessories and Superchargers are driven by Exhaust gas

13.Steel vanes are used in

Wet type vane pumps

High pressure compressors

Dry type vane pumps

14.Which one of the following cooling systems is an open-type cooling system

Air cycle cooling system

Combustion cooling system

Vapor cycle cooling system

15.Identify the component which is used to connect the landing gear to the fuselage

Reaction link

Torque link

Trunnion

16.Which one of the following statements is NOT true

Fuel system delivers a continuous supply of fuel at the proper pressure at all times during engine operation

Each fuel system must supply fuel to an engine independently from the fuel system supplying fuel to another
engine
All fuel except unusable fuel should NOT be available throughout flight

17.The shock strut reduces landing impact by

Reducing the downward velocity

Reducing the aircraft weight

Increasing the impact time

18.Whenever the aircraft is on ground

The ground lock pins should be inserted

Ground power should be connected

The gear door should remain open

19.The purpose of the low limit valve in the air cycle cooling system is

To control the temperature of the cabin

To maintain airflow through a Heat exchanger

To prevent Ice formation in the water separator

20.Pneumatic power for emergency brake operation uses

Low pressure system

Medium pressure system

High pressure system

21.Which of the following gear type has better shock absorbing capability

Shock chord

Spring gear

Air oleo shock strut

22.Which of the following valves is used to order the operation of the landing gear and landing
gear doors

Sequence valve

Shuttle valve

Hydraulic fuse

23.One of the following brake systems has no connection to the aircraft main hydraulic system

Power brake system

Independent brake system

Power boosted brake system

24.What is the advantage of pneumatic power as compared to hydraulic power

Pneumatic force is more controllable than hydraulic force

High pneumatic pressure is built with no energy loss

Air is freely available in the atmosphere

25.If a force is applied on a confined fluid, the pressure in the fluid

Depends on the volume of the fluid in the container

Varies with the height of the fluid column

Equal at every point and it acts perpendicular to the wall

26.The Addition of water into conditioned air is known as

Water separation

Water infiltration

Ozone conversion

27.At the outlet of the evaporator in the vapor cycle cooling system the state of the refrigerant
is

High-pressure, Low-temperature liquid

High-pressure, High-temperature vapor

Low-pressure, low-temperature vapor

28.The conventional landing gear arrangement offers

Good runway visibility from the flight deck

Better propeller ground clearance

More forceful brake application advantage

29.Which of the following fluids are used with natural rubber seals

Vegetable base fluids

Mineral base fluids

Phosphate ester base fluids

30.Double acting hand pumps discharge fluid at

A.Every third stroke B. Every second stroke C. Every stroke

M 11 part 5 Auxiliary system

1. What is the purpose of ice and rain protection?

A. To prevent the craft from flying in to ice and rain condition

B. To keep passenger comfort at all weather condition

C. To prevent ice buildup which may affect the safety and performance of the aircraft

2. Which of the following is not possible adverse effect of ice and rain condition?

A: loss of electrical power

B. jamming of controls

C. loss of visibility

3. What is the cause for ice in the atmosphere?

A coldness acting on moisture in the air

B. high speed of aircraft

C. precipitation of moisture

4. Which detecting system detect icing condition?

A. pitot probes

B. hot rod ice detector

C. Temprature/moiture probes

5. What is de-icing system?

A. a system that aware the pilot the formation ice on critical aircraft structures

B. a system that remove ice formed on critical aircraft structure

C. a system that prevent ice formation on critical aircraft structure

6. How does thermal electric anti-ice system work?

A. by blowing hot air from engine compressor over components to be anti-iced

B. electric current that will heat the part component to be anti-iced is made to pass through it

C. electric current is made to flows through an integral conductive element that produces heat

7. What is the typical used in a propeller de-ice system?

A. propeller does not need de-icing since high speeed rotation of the propellers does not allow ice formation

B. pneumatic inflatable boots

C. Electrically heated boots

8. Why only aircrafts with large turbine engines use thermal anti-ice system?
 A. aircrafts with smaller engine will not be able to supply the required hot air quantity

B. aircrafts with smaller engine does not fly in to-icing condition

C. aircrafts with smaller engine need only de-icing|

9. What is anti-icing system?

A. a system that aware the pilot the formation ice on critical aircraft structures

B. a system that aware the pilot an icing condition exist

C. a system that prevent ice formation on critical aircraft structure

10. why should one NEVER operate the windscreen wipers on a dry screen?

A. The wipers may be damaged

B. windscreens may be scratched

C. wiper motor may be damaged

11. How is water delivered to different water access points?

A. by gravity force]

B. by compressed air

C. by water pump

12. Which of the following is not correct about the aircraft water system?

A. The water system supplies water to cock pit window wipers

B. The water is supplied to water faucets in the galleys and lavatories

C. The water system supplies water to the water heaters and vacuum toilet units

13. Which of the following is not drained overboard via drain masts?

A. waste water from the lavatory

B. waste water from toilets

C. waste water from galley sinks

14. How is Liquid flush toilets waste handled?

A. collected in tank under each toilet bowl

B. waste is drained overboard via drain mast

C. toilet waste is sucked in to collection tank by vacuum action

15. Hearing noises from the vacuum toilet flush valve indicates that,
 A. The flush valve does not close properly

B. collection tank full

C. low water pressure

16. Demand type oxygen system is designed for:

A. Passengers

B. Cockpit crew

C. Cabin crew

17. After the passenger masks fall what starts the flow of O2?

A. Pulling the masks

B. Putting the mask on one's face

C. A switch on the PSU

18. The purpose of the discharge indication disc is to:

A. Show if the 02 system is contaminated

B. Show low pressure in the system

C. Show if overpressure occurred in the system

19. During replacement of O2 system components more emphasis is given to:

A. Strength of materials

B. Cleanliness

C. Size of materials

20. During hotter weather to what level is the oxygen bottle filled?

A. Higher B. Lower C. Same

21. Which ice detector type is the most modern

A. Vibrating Rod Ice Detector

B. Pressure Ice Detector

C. Torque Ice Detector

22. What type of components use Thermal Electric Anti-Icing System

A. Wing leading edge surfaces

B. Horizontal leading edge surfaces

 C. Data probes

23. What is the purpose of gray water system?

A. To supply portable water to galley

B. To supply drinking water to passenger

C. To remove waste water from galley lavatory and door seals

24. Most Modern Aircrafts use ___________ oxygen system for passengers.

A. Gaseous B. Chemical C. Liquid

25. Most Modern Aircrafts use ________ oxygen system for cockpit Crew.

A. Gaseous B. Chemical C. Liquid