Department of Aeronautical Engineering

AE8009 Airframe Maintenance and Repair

Multiple Choice Questions

Unit-I

1. Welding is a process used for joining metal parts by

a) Fusion
b) Forging
c) All the above
d) None of the above

Ans: d

2. The following flux is used for brazing brass, copper, bronze and low carbon steels.......
a) Mixture of boric acid, borux and a wetting agent
b) Boric acid, borax or fluoride with a wetting agent
c) Chlorides and fluorides mixed with water
d) All of the above
Ans: a

3. The following flux is used for brazing cast iron.......

a) Mixture of boric acid, borux and a wetting agent
b) Boric acid, borax or fluoride with a wetting agent
c) Chlorides and fluorides mixed with water
d) All of the above
Ans: b
 4. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of oxidising flame is.......
a) 1:1
b) 1.2:1
c) 1.5:1
d) 2:1
Ans: c

5. Acetylene gas is generated form of......

a) Carbon
b) Calcium
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Calcium carbide
Ans: d

6. Acetylene is stored in gas cylinder in.......

a) .In gaseous form
b) In liquid form
c) In solid form
d) Under high pressure
Ans: b

7. The oxyacetylene gas used in gas welding produce a flame temperature of

a) 1800
b) 1200
c) 2400
d) 3200
Ans: d

8. Which of the following is also called “gas welding”?

a) Oxy fuel gas welding
b) Metallic welding
c) Arc welding
d) Fuel gas welding
Ans: a
 9. In which of the following type of flame, oxygen is of same proportion with acetylene?
a) Neutral flame
b) Oxidizing flame
c) Carburizing flame
d) Both oxidizing flame and carburizing flame
Ans: a

10. The oxy acetylene gas welding is a type of?

a) Endothermic reaction
b) Exothermic reaction
c) Neutral reaction
d) Both endothermic reaction and exothermic reaction
Ans: b

11. Shrinking is a process of making the metal smaller by applying force.

a) True
b) False
Ans: b

12. To make a small indentation (centre hole) in sheet metal, a------------------ is used.
a) Pencil
b) Center Punch
c) Needle
d) Scribber
Ans: b

13. To fasten the sheet metal with steel nail the -------------- is used.
a) Rivet Pliers
b) Pliers
c) Punch
d) Stappler
Ans: a
14. To bend the sheet metal by 180 degrees a -------------- is used.
a) Carperter’s Hammer
b) Ball peen Hammer
c) Mallet
d) Sledge Hammer
Ans: c

15. The bench vice is used to -----------the metal sheet firmly during shaping operations.
a) Cut
b) Bend
c) Hold
d) Break
e) None of above
Ans: c

16. The speed of a drill depends on

a) The size of the work.
b) The diameter of the hole required.
c) The length of the drill being used.
d) The shape of the hole required.
Ans: b

17. A---------- Machine is used to cut small pieces of sheet metal.

a) Bending
b) Welding
c) Notching
d) Drilling
e) None of above
Ans: c
18. Which is used to carry out the Ultrasonic Inspection?
a) Laser Beam
b) Low frequency sound wave
c) High Frequency Acoustic wave
d) None of the above
Ans: c

19. Wave signals from the flaw are compared with the normal wave to determine the flaw's
a) Location
b) Size
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Ans: c

20. Dye penetration technique is used to identify the

a) Deep Cracks
b) Small Cracks
c) Cleavages
d) None of the above
Ans: b

Unit-II
1. Which is the formation of Network of fine cracks in the surface of the material?
a) Crazing
b) Annealing
c) Cementing
d) None of the above
Ans: a

2. Name technique which is used to remove the paint from the surface of the plastics
a) Solvents
b) Sandblasting
c) Trialene soap
d) All the above
Ans: d
 3. Trialaene soap may be used to remove the
a) Acrylic-based paint
b) Cyclohexanone
c) Benzene
d) Carbon Tetrachloride
Ans: a

4. Heat gun is used to reduce the

a) Internal stress
b) Internal strain
c) Installation stress
d) Stress due to the fasteners
Ans: c

5. The process used to remove the Surface abrasion of the wind shield is
a) Annealing
b) Crazing
c) Meshing
d) Micro-Meshing
Ans: d

6. If excessive crazing is found, the windshield or window should be replaced

a) True
b) False
Ans: a

7. Cracks commonly appear on the edges of a piece of plastic radiating out from a
a) pressure point
b) Mounting Hole
c) All the above
d) None of the Above
Ans; c
 8. Once these materials have set, further application of heat does not allow them to be
formed in a controllable manner is
a) Themoplastics
b) Thermosetting plastics
c) Clear Plastics
d) Plexi glass
Ans: b

9. Thermoplastic materials are those that with the application of heat.

a) Soften
b) Moulded
c) Harden
d) Deformation
Ans: c

10. When a hole is found in a plastic windshield or window, any cracks radiating from the
holes should be
a) Stop-drilled
b) Patch to be inserted
c) Abrasive to be removed
d) All the above
Ans: d

11. If a wrap fibre are positioned in only one direction is called

a) Anisotropic
b) Isotropic
c) Bi-directional
d) Uni-directional
Ans: a

12. High volume and critical composite structures are often heated using an autoclave
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 13. If the warp fibers are laid perpendicular to each other -that is, at a 0° and a 90° point-
they are said to be
a) Anisotropic
b) Isotropic
c) Bi-directional
d) Uni-directional
Ans: c

14. When the warp fibers are assembled in a laminate with the fibers heading in the 0°,
45°, 90°, and -45° positions, the lay-up is said to be as
a) Quasi-isotropic
b) Cross-ply stress design
c) Multidirectional pattern
d) Bi-Directional pattern
Ans: b

15. Isotropic refers to the capability of a material to bear loads in all directions, so
technically cross-ply applications are truly isotropic.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b

16. The warp fibers of the repair patches must align with the warp direction of the
a) Parent Material
b) Other Material
c) Supported Material
d) None of the above
Ans: a

17. If pre-preg materials are used, patches are simply cut from specified materials and laid
with the same warp direction
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 18. After the lay-up has been accomplished, the repair is sealed in a vacuum bag with
a) Thermocouples
b) Thermosets
c) Thermoplastics
d) Autoclaves
Ans: a

19. Which is used to fill the core, the core material should be undercut beyond the edges
of the surface opening to anchor the foam within the structure?
a) Re-agent solvent
b) Hagging film
c) Synthetic-foam
d) Trialene soap
Ans: c

20. The damaged area is prepared by scarfing or stepping the outer skin and removing the
damaged core with a router
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 Unit-III
1. The alignment of aircraft parts or sections to obtain proper flight characteristics is
a) Assembly
b) Rigging
c) Alignment
d) Symmetry check
Ans: b

2. Before raising an aircraft on jacks all the work strands and other equipment should be
a) Fixed
b) Aligned
c) Removed
d) None of the above
Ans: c

3. The aircraft jack must be located in well protected from the wing
a) Correct position
b) Level position
c) Balanced position
d) None of the above
e) Ans: b

4. Which is used to add weight on the nose or tail to achieve a safe balance
a) Sand bag
b) Sprit level
c) Supports
d) None of the above
Ans: a

5. The aircraft should be held to an absolute minimum on

a) Climbing
b) Gliding
c) Landing
d) Take-off
Ans: a
 6. Loading an airplane too heavy can dangerously the performance
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Balance
d) Fix
Ans: a

7. The location from which all horizontal distances are measured for weight and balance
purposes
a) Arm
b) Reference datum
c) Moment
d) Center of gravity
Ans: b

8. Distance from the datum measurements aft of the datum are generally positive
numbers, while those forward datum are general negative numbers
a) Arm
b) Reference datum
c) Moment
d) Center of gravity
Ans: a
9. Weight of the airplane + equipment + unusable fuel + full engine oil is
a) Basic empty weight
b) Licensed empty weight
c) Overall weight
d) Pay load
Ans: a

10. Weight of the airplane + equipment + unusable fuel + undrainable oil

a) Basic empty weight
b) Licensed empty weight
c) Overall weight
d) Pay load
Ans: b
 11. A control surface balance is checked by placing the surface on suitable bearings at the
a) Hinge line
b) Center of Gravity
c) Empty space
d) Jack
Ans: a

12. The weight of the screw jack is from the scale reading to give the weight of
the surface
a) Considered
b) Neglected
c) Balanced
d) None of the above
Ans: b

13. Helicopter flight controls allow control of

a) Movement about the three axes of the aircraft
b) The engine powers
c) The rotor system lift
d) All the above
Ans: a

14. The pilot to operate the main rotor system swash plate, which tilts and causes the rotor
blades to increase or decrease their blade angle at appropriate positions in the rotor
plane of rotation
a) Cyclic control
b) Anti-torque control
c) Throttle control
d) Collective control
Ans: a
 15. In cyclic control, the rotor tilts and causes the helicopter to move in the
a) left
b) right laterally
c) forward or back longitudinally
d) All the above
Ans: d

16. The tail rotor thrust is controlled by the pilot's foot pedal is called
a) Cyclic control
b) Anti-torque control
c) Throttle control
d) Collective control
Ans: b

17. In Anti-torque control, as the pilot changes the power being delivered to the main
rotor system or the amount of pitch in the main rotor blades, he or she also alters the
angle of the tail rotor blades to maintain
a) Balance
b) Heading of the aircraft
c) Velocity
d) Pressure
Ans: b

18. The engine throttle control is usually incorporated in the twist grip located in the grip
of the
a) Cyclic control
b) Anti-torque control
c) Throttle control
d) Collective control
Ans: d
 19. Helicopter rotor systems are major aircraft assemblies used to convert the engine
power into
a) Lift
b) propulsive force
c) directional control
d) All the above
Ans: d

20. When the freewheeling unit disconnects the engine from the rotor system, the
helicopter enters a type of flight known as
a) Rigging
b) Alignment
c) Auto-rotation
d) Directional-control
Ans: c
 Unit-IV
1. Air conditioning may include
a) Heating and cooling
b) Ventilation
c) Pressurization
d) All the above
Ans: d
2. Combustion heaters may become inoperable because of
a) Fuel-system failure
b) Ignition-system failure
c) Over heating
d) All the above
Ans: d

3. The valve controlling the cold-hot air mixture is called

a) Control Valve
b) Mixing Valve
c) Heating valve
d) None of the above
Ans: b

4. Pressurization of small aircraft designed for high-altitude operation is usually

accomplished by bleeding air from the
a) Cabin Pressure-control valve
b) Engine Turbo charger
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Ans: b

5. The pressure in the cabin of an airplane is usually designated as

a) Cabin altitude
b) True Altitude
c) Absolute altitude
d) Indicated altitude
Ans: a
 6. A thorough inspection of landing gear involves the careful examination of the entire
structure of the gear, including the
a) attachments to the fuselage or wings,
b) struts, wheels, brakes,
c) actuating mechanisms for retractable gear, gear hydraulic system and valves
d) All the above
Ans: d

7. The entire structure of the landing gear should be closely examined for
a) cracks, nicks and cuts
b) corrosion damage
c) other condition that can cause stress concentrations and eventual failure
d) All the above
Ans: d

8. Small nicks or cuts can be filed and burnished to a smooth contour, eliminating the
point of
a) Stress concentration
b) Loads
c) Cracks
d) Cuts
Ans: a

9. Bolts in the torque links and shimmy damper tend to wear and become loose due to
the placed on them.
a) Fasteners
b) Operational loads
c) Excessive loads
d) Brakes
Ans: b
 10. The amount wheels are tilted from the vertical is
a) Camber
b) Toe
c) Taxing
d) Sling
Ans: a
11. The system which is designed to allow the pilot to have a clear view of the airport
when taxiing and to allow him or her to see the approach and departure paths and
runway environment when taking off and landing during rain.
a) Cabin Pressurization system
b) Rain removal system
c) Water and waste system
d) Air-conditioning system
Ans: b

12. The wiper blades clear a path 15 in [38.1 cm] wide through an arc of
a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 40°
d) 50°
Ans: c

13. Hydraulically and pneumatically operated wiper systems are similar in that each
requires a pressure supply to be directed to
a) Control valve
b) Actuator
c) Control unit
d) None of the above
Ans: b
14. Water and waste systems consist of
a) Potable (drinkable) water for the galley and drinking fountains,
b) Water for the lavatories
c) Water for the toilet systems
d) All the above
Ans: d
 15. A valve is installed in the drain tube to control on the service attachment is
a) Safety valve
b) Control valve
c) Actuator
d) Control Unit
Ans: a

16. A system which is framed to allow the flight crew to determine if a control surface is
in the correct position for some phase of flight is
a) Position system
b) Warning system
c) Control-surface indicating system
d) Auxiliary power system
Ans: c
17. Control-surface indicating system is used to determine the
a) Flight control
b) Flight path
c) Non-functioning systems
d) Functioning systems
Ans: a

18. An indicator is designed to indicate to the pilot when the aircraft is close to the
stalling angle of attack is
a) Stall warning system
b) Mach warning system
c) Altitude warning system
d) Position warning systems
Ans: a

19. Operating controls and indicating systems are typically separated by the functions
they serve. The gas turbine operations and the control switch for the air bleed valve
are found on the same panel
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
 20. The APU inlet door controls access to the gas-turbine compressor inlet and provides
cooling air for the APU's accessories.

a) True
b) False
Ans: a

Unit-5
1. The practicing aviation maintenance technician in the workplace would most likely be
exposed to biological hazards when working on
a) Passenger Aircraft
b) Cargo Aircraft
c) Military Aircraft
d) UAV
Ans: b

2. FAA regulations require that the transportation of hazardous

materials be documented
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Biological
d) All of the above
Ans: c

3. MSDSs provide detailed information on

a) concerning composition
b) health hazards and special handling instructions
c) proper disposal practices for materials
d) All of the above
Ans: d
 4. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?
a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
d) To reduce probability of occurrence
Ans: c
5. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?
a) To estimate the risk
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
c) To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
d) For determination of remedial actions
Ans: c

6. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants
Ans: a

7. Hazard identification mainly focus on ______________

a) Chemical source and concentration
b) Chemical exposure
c) Chemical analysis
d) Chemical pathway
Ans: a

8. What does the term “exposure” to chemical pollutants from hazardous waste
management processes indicate?
a) contact with chemical substances that can potentially cause adverse health effects
b) contamination level
c) spatial distribution of the contaminant
d) affected biota
Ans: a
 9. The severity of toxic exposure on an individual depends on ________
a) Age and health
b) Genetics
c) Dose and susceptibility
d) Diet
Ans: c

10. What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?

a) hazard identification and dose-response evaluation
b) chemical analysis
c) pathway analysis
d) evaluation of long-term impact
Ans: a

11. Which is made of honeycomb core with fire-resistant glass fabric on both sides and a
decorative laminate on the inboard finished surfaces?
a) Sidewall linings
b) Armrest
c) Deck floor covering
d) None of the above
Ans: a
12. The flight deck equipment and furnishings provide stations for the
a) captain,
b) first officer
c) observers
d) All of the above
Ans: d
13. The pilots’ seats are capable of inches of travel forward/aft
a) 4
b) 6
c) 18
d) 10
Ans: d
 14. Which is located at the base of the seat, used to secure the seat base to the seat tracks?
a) Bogie Unit
b) Inertial reel lock control
c) Control Switch
d) Lumbar support
Ans: a

15. Which is located on the inboard side of the pilot’s seat, repositions the lumbar pad
forward and back through a range of 1 1/4 inches?
a) Bogie Unit
b) Inertial reel lock control
c) Control Switch
d) Lumbar support
Ans: d

16. Troubleshooting is the process of identifying the cause of a

a) malfunction and discrepancy
b) determining its severity
c) eliminating the cause and replacing or repairing
d) All of the above
Ans: d

17. The ultimate object of troubleshooting in aviation is to return aircraft to an airworthy

condition offering a high probability that the will not recur
a) malfunction and discrepancy
b) determining its severity
c) eliminating the cause and replacing or repairing
d) All of the above
Ans: a
 18. When attempting to troubleshoot a discrepancy without the aid of a troubleshooting
chart, the technician's first step is to decide where to begin the process
a) Analysing
b) Analytic
c) Identifying
d) Validation
Ans: b

19. The final step in the troubleshooting process is the that the analytical
steps of the troubleshooting process were properly interpreted
a) Analysing
b) Analytic
c) Identifying
d) Validation
Ans: d

20. A format which has a tendency to follow the aircraft system's operational sequences is
a) Pick format
b) Flow format
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Ans: b