NIGERIAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEERS LICENCE EXAMINATION

EXAMINATION IN PRESSURIZED METAL AIRFRAME

REFERENCE NO: AMEL/PMA/01/2008

TIME ALLOWED: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE

All questions must be answered

Write your name and date on your answer paper (Top right hand corner)
Do not mark this question paper in any way
Each question is followed by three alternate answers.
Choose the correct answer by stating either (A), (B), (C) mark ǀXǀ
Only one answer will be accepted to each question
All questions carry equal marks.
Pass mark is 75%

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 NCAA/AMEL/2007/08
AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEERS LICENCE (AMEL) EXAMINATION IN PRESSURIZED
METAL AIRFRAME

1. The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to:
a. provide protection against overpressurization
b. maintain the desired cabin pressure
c. maintain the same cabin air pressure at all altitudes

2. Which best describes cabin differential pressure?

a. Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure
b. Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure
c. Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure

3. On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the

a. main landing gear operated switch
b. cabin pressure regulator
c. negative pressure-relief valve

4. What is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air-conditioning system?
a. Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air
b. Distribute conditioned air evenly to all parts of the cabin
c. Combine ram air with conditioned air

5. The principal types of hydraulic fluid used in aircraft systems are:

a. Butalene, polyvinyl and mineral based
b. Vegetable, phosphate ester and mineral based
c. Viscous naphthalene, mineral based

6. The purpose of a hydraulic actuator is:

a. To act physically during fluid flow
b. To actuate hydraulic motions
c. To transform fluid flow into linear or rotary motion

7. The purpose of a restrictor in a hydraulic system is to restrict:

a. The rate of build-up of hydraulic pressure
b. The distance of travel of a hydraulic actuator
c. The rate of operation of a service component

8. The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:

a. Relieve excess pressure from the system
b. Store hydraulic fluid under pressure
c. Collect air from the hydraulic fluid thus reducing the requirement for frequent
bleeding

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9. In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operate?
a. When the diluter control is set at normal
b. When the user demands 100 percent oxygen
c. When the user breathes

10. The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen and other types of
commercially available compressed oxygen is that:
a. the other types are usually somewhat less than 99.5 percent pure oxygen
b. aviation breathing oxygen has had all the water vapour removed
c. aviation breathing oxygen has a higher percentage of water vapour to help prevent
drying of a person’s breathing passages and possible dehydration

11. Pneumatic systems utilize

a. return lines
b. relief valves
c. diluter valves

12. What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to
provide for simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
a. Four-port, closed-center valve
b. Three-port, four-way valve
c. Two-port, open-center valve

13. Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to:
a. relieve system pressure
b. discharge the preload
c. drain the reservoir

14. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called:
a. volatility
b. viscosity
c. acidity

15. Contact between dissimilar metals, which may lead to corrosion, may be prevented
a. By fitting bonding strips between the two faces
b. By applying chromic acid to the two faces
c. By applying zinc chromate between the two faces

16. Mercury attack on aluminum alloys can be recognized visually by

a. A grayish powder, fuzzy deposits, or whiskery growth
b. A yellowish stain or coating
c. A black stain turning to reddish powder

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17. Heavy corrosion deposits on clad aluminum alloys should be removed
a. Mechanically using a pneumatic vibrator
b. Chemically by use of trichloroethylene
c. Chemically by use of phosphoric acid

18. When an aircraft’s oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be
a. removed and replaced
b. inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant
c. bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this
purpose

19. When silica gel has absorbed moisture the colour changes to:
a. blue
b. white
c. pink

20. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as

a. Layer corrosion
b. Sub surface corrosion
c. Filiform corrosion

21. Which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid?
a. High viscosity, low flash point, chemical stability, high fire point
b. High flash point, low viscosity, chemical stability, low fire point
c. Low viscosity, chemical stability, high flash point, high fire point

22. The pressure source for power brakes is:

a. the main hydraulic system
b. the power brake reservoir
c. a master cylinder

23. The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to:

a. reduce pressure for brake application
b. prevent the tyre from skidding
c. compensate for thermal expansion

24. At which component in an air-cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and
temperature drop?
a. Expansion turbine
b. Primary heat exchanger
c. Refrigerator bypass valve

25. Corrosion may be identified on a magnesium alloy component

a. By a red powder, accompanied by blistering
b. By a green powder, accompanied by pitting
c. By a grey powder, accompanied by pitting

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26. Quick-disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of:
a. easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common
b. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of
contaminates entering the system
c. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or
entrance of air into the system

27. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is
a. Magnetic flow
b. Ultrasonic
c. Electroflux

28. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured
from austenitic stainless steel?
a. Penetrant dye
b. Magnetic-particle
c. Hot oil and chalk

29. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is
applied to the surface, metal is
a. Aluminum
b. Alclad
c. Duralumin

30. Zinc chromate applied between faying surfaces will

a. Improve bonding between them
b. Improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of
c. Inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion

31. In the autopilot system, the position transmitter senses

a. The actual rate of roll, pitches, and yaws
b. An indication of the static and dynamic surface pressure
c. The angular displacement of a control

32. To repair an integral fuel tank you should use

a. Rivets
b. Bronzing
c. Welding

33. Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft,
how is cold air supplied?
a. By the air cycle machine turbine
b. By the flow control unit
c. By the ram cycle cooling unit

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34. What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?
a. Pressure test with manometer
b. Pressure test with nitrogen
c. Pressure test with water

35. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the:

a. amount of oil in the strut
b. physical condition of the strut itself
c. proper operating position of the strut

36. In an aircraft anti-skid system, the electrical solenoid

a. Allows less brake pressure by allowing a shuttling of the brake booster
b. Relieves the pressure to the brakes of the affected wheels
c. Immediately creates a transfer of pressure to the unaffected wheel brakes

37. During aircraft operation, a wheel brake fire occurs. Which of the following should be
used to extinguish this type of fire?
a. dry chemicals
b. moist chemicals
c. Foam similar as that used to coat the runway in case of an aircraft wheels up landing

38. What is windshear?

a. A phenomenon that can occur anywhere within the atmosphere
b. It can have both horizontal and vertical components and consists of large
volumes of air that moves in different and usually opposite direction
c. None of the above

39. Windshear warning conditions are caused by

a. Up drafts and temperature increase
b. Large tailwinds and down drafts
c. Rain, thunderstorm accompany with hail storm

40. Skydrol fluid is protected completely from environmental effect

a. By storing in quart cans which are hermetically sealed
b. By storing in large containers which are hermetically sealed
c. Storage form has nothing to do with the environment

41. Which statement is correct about analyzing skydrol?

a. skydrol should be analyzed when stored in containers between two to three years
b. if stored in containers other than hermetically sealed cans then it should be
analyzed between three to five years
c. it should be analyzed after five years

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42. What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?
a. Shuttle valve
b. Vacuum pump
c. Distribution valve

43. Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots
deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?
a. Distributor valve
b. Pressure regulator
c. Suction relief valve

44. Which statement is true about spilled skydrol?

a. paint rubber as well as plastic materials will disintegrate when in contact with
skydrol
b. clothing will mostly not be affected. Further cleaning can be done using Freon,
alcohol, mec.
c. both A and B are correct

45. Cabin heating systems that utilize an exhaust heat exchanger as a source of Heated air
a. should be checked frequently for leaks of exhaust gases
b. should be checked with a carbon monoxide testing instrument
c. both A and B are correct

46. The primary purpose of the autopilot is to

a. Hold a predetermined heading of the aircraft under adverse wing conditions
b. Relieves the pilot of undue stress during long period of flight
c. Aid the pilot when the actual landing (not simulated) on the runway

47. You are instructed to check a fire extinguisher bottle for full charge. You can determine
the amount of content by
a. checking the pressure of extinguisher bottle
b. checking the height of the content by looking through the sight gage
c. Weighing the bottle

48. A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of
a. Pressure
b. Velocity
c. Temperature

49. What may be used to clean deicer boots?

a. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel
b. Naphtha
c. Soap and water

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50. The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral is to increase
a. Lateral stability
b. Longitudinal stability
c. Lift coefficient of the wing

51. Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall
a. is imminent
b. is starting to occur
c. first affects the outboard portions of the wings

52. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

a. Landing gear safety switch
b. Red warning light bulb
c. Gear downlock microswitch

53. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal
to sound?
a. Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced
b. Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded
c. Landing gear not locked down and throttle

54. Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?
a. Red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up
b. Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear
c. Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up

55. When removing ground power from an aircraft after starting engines
a. removal of the ground power plug always automatically transfers power to the aircraft
system
b. the ground power supply should be switched off before removing the ground
power supply plug
c. the ground power unit will automatically stop on removal of the ground power plug

56. When the generator field is supplied through the battery master switch, if the switch is
selected off whilst the engine is running
a. the generator will continue to produce power since it is self-sustaining
b. the generator will be de-excited and hence cease producing power
c. the generator will only continue to produce power if the engine is above idle since the
generator is then self-sustaining

57. Since electrical supply taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services
would
a. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar
b. not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage
c. increase the current consumption from the bus-bar

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58. When towing a large aircraft
a. a person should be in the cockpit to watch for obstructions
b. persons should be stationed at the nose, each wingtip, and the empennage at all times
c. a person should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes

59. When checking the bonding of a component which is anodically treated against corrosion
the
a. resistance of the anodic film is negligible and may be ignored
b. resistance of the anodic film is negligible and may be ignored
c. Anodic film must be penetrated to ensure good contact of the test probes

60. When resistor are in parallel

a. the total resistance is smaller than the smallest resistor
b. the total resistance is larger than the smallest resistor
c. the total resistance is the sum of all resistor

61. If a Ni-Cad battery overheats, it is an indication of

a. thermal runaway
b. the generator not being connected to the bus-bar
c. too low generator voltage regulator setting

62. The result of an insulation resistance test of an electrical cable

a. also indicates continuity of the cable
b. may vary with the weather conditions under which the aircraft is tested
c. will always be infinity if the cable is correctly installed

63. A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that
the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by
using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?
a. The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak
b. The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system
c. The fluid level in the reservoir is low

64. The tube of an airplane tyre should be lined up with

a. the red dot on the tyre
b. the line that indicates a possible slippage of the tyre on the wheel
c. the valve core of the tube at the end dot on the tyre

65. After bleeding the brakes, an engineer finds they are still spongy. This is probably caused
by
a. extremely rigid flexible hose installed in the brake system
b. flexible hose that has deteriorated
c. incorrect fluid in the brake system

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66. The name of the hydraulic valve that opens the landing gear door prior to landing gear
extension is
a. sequence valve
b. gear-door time lag valve
c. time lag extension valve

67. If the compressor fails, which of the following prevents loss of cabin pressurization
a. air that is available from the secondary system
b. a check valve (one-way valve) in the air duct
c. the secondary cabin outflow valve

68. When checking for oxygen leaks, you should use

a. a high flash-point mineral solution
b. a soap solution specially prepared for this purpose
c. any suitable solution that will be compatible since oxygen is not inflammable

69. Which of the following instruments normally have operating range and unit markings?
a. directional gyro and airspeed indicator
b. cylinder head temperature gage (CHT) and altimeter
c. airspeed indicator and CHT

70. A ditching control is used to:

a. close all valves and inlets
b. rapidly inflate floatation bags
c. rapidly depressurize the cabin

71. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to:

a. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivery to the cabin at all times
b. allow the pilot to select the desire cabin altitude
c. ensure that there is an adequate supply of cool air through the heat exchangers

72. Which of the following statements concerning humidity is correct?

a. humidity decreases with decreasing temperature
b. humidity increases with decreasing temperature
c. humidity increases with increasing temperature

73. Electrically driven discharge valves are usually equipped with more than one motor. The
reason for this is:
a. to provide the extra power needed to drive large valve against the high mass of air
used in large jets
b. that more motors provide for finer adjustment of the valve position
c. to provide a means of back up if a particular motor or its electrical supply fails

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74. When a mechanical linkage passes through pressure bulkheads it:
a. must always be pressure sealed
b. need only be sealed if motion is linear
c. need only be sealed if motion is rotary

75. Failure of the normal maximum differential control is catered for by fitting:
a. safety relief valves
b. inward relief valves
c. altitude selector valves

76. During a normal pressurized climb following Take-off:

a. the cabin ROC is less than the aircraft’s ROC
b. the cabin ROC is more than the aircraft’s ROC
c. the ROC is constant

77. Cabin pressurization is achieved by:

a. controlling the supply of air to the cabin
b. controlling the amount of air release from the cabin
c. varying the output of the compressor

78. In a pneumatic pressurization system, positive pressure signals from the controller will
cause
a. the discharge valve to move towards closed
b. the discharge valve to move towards open
c. an excessive rate of cabin air discharge

79. In pressurized aircraft, temperature control is mainly achieved by:

a. adding heat to the pressurizing air
b. extracting heat from the pressurizing air
c. varying the cabin pressure

80. The purpose of a spill valve is to:

a. Provide additional heat by creating back pressure
b. release excess air being delivered at sea level and the lower altitude
c. relieve excess pressure in the air supply ducting

81. Ball bearings accept mainly

a. Tangential loads
b. Axial and radial loads
c. Radial loads

82. A right angled triangle has sides of 3 and 4 units, the other side will be:
a. 6 units
b. 5 units
c. 4 units

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83. The fraction 3/8 as a decimal is
a. 0.375
b. 0.250
c. 0.240

84. The solution to 0.75 x 0.003 is:

a. 0.0025
b. 0.0225
c. 3.00225

85. Dimpling is a process of:

a. stop drilling a crack
b. anodising aluminium surface to prevent corrosion
c. indenting thin sheet material around a drilled hole to accommodate a counter
sunk rivet

86. At high speed an aircraft will produce

a. more profile drag than induced drag
b. more induced drag than profile drag
c. about the same profile drag as induced drag

87. The desire effect of using winglets on an aircraft wingtips is to

a. increase the lift to drag ratio
b. reduce the aspect ratio
c. optimize wing dihedral and improve lateral stability

88. The purpose of stall strips on airplane wings is to

a. increase lift in the areas of installation
b. prevent stall in the areas of installation
c. ensure that the wing root areas stall first

89. Nicks around the edge of the head of a bolt indicates

a. Light alloy
b. High tensile steel
c. Low tensile steel

90. A laminar boundary layer will produce

a. more skin friction drag than a turbulent one
b. less skin friction drag than a turbulent one
c. the same skin friction drag as a turbulent one

91. Aerodynamic balance is used to:

a. Prevent flutter of the flying controls
b. Make the flying controls easier to move
c. Reduce the control load to zero

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92. In a differential aileron system:
a. the aileron moves further up than down
b. the aileron moves further down than up
c. the leading edge of the up going aileron

93. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstreams is:

a. A thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary
b. A layer of separated flow where the air is turbulent
c. A layer of air over the surface where the air is retarded by the effect of friction

94. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the Right is caused by
a. The Right spoiler extending, and the Left spoiler remaining retracted
b. The Left spoiler extending, and the Right spoiler remaining retracted
c. Both spoilers extending

95. The identification of the horn for the landing gear and the stall warning is achieved by:
a. Pulsing the gear warning horn
b. Using horns of different notes
c. Pulsing the stall warning horn

96. Over pressure is usually caused by:

a. Engine r.p.m. too high
b. Excessive bleeds switched on
c. The HP Shut Off Valve seized open

97. Engine air used for air conditioning and pressurization is usually called:
a. compressed air
b. ram air
c. bleed air

98. The exhaust heater system uses:

a. Charge air to heat the cabin
b. Ram air to heat the cabin
c. Compressor air to heat the cabin

99. To ensure the correct mixing of the conditioned air, mixing chamber has:
a. Jet pumps
b. Baffles
c. Swirl devices

100. The water extractor is normally located:

a. Before the cold air unit
b. Between the cold air unit and the outlet to the cabin
c. Between the cold air unit compressor and turbine

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Additional unconfirmed questions

1) Ailerons controls the aircraft in the.

a) Longitudinal plane
b) Directional plane

c) Lateral plane
2) Dutch roll is movement in.

a) Yaw and roll

b) Yaw and pitch
c) Pitch and roll

3) If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?

a) Down
b) Up
c) Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
4) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.
a) Nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
b) Nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA
c) Nose should be raised, including AoA

5) A hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system
pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be:

a) 1,000 PSL
b) 3,000 PSL
c) 4,000 PSL
6) How is the air in the hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering into the fluid system?

a) By forcing the oil/air mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the air
from leaving the accumulator
b) By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with flexible or movable
separator
c) By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a preset amount.

7) After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system
Hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until:

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 a) At least one sector valve has been actuated to allow fluid flow into the fluid side of the
accumulator
b) The air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure
c) The fluid side of the accumulator has been charged

8) The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated IN A Pneumatic
System is?

a) Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard

b) Returned to the compressor
c) Charged or pressurized for use during the next operating cycle

9) Before removing the filter cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir, in order to service the system,
You must:

a) Relieve the hydraulic system pressure

b) Pressurize all components in the system
c) Relieve the air pressure

10) What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid
When no demands are on the system?

a) Pressure relief valve

b) Shuttle valve
c) Pressure regulator
11) If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable
a) Aircraft becomes too sensitive
b) Aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
c) C of P moves back

12) When an aircraft’s oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be:

a) Removed and replaces

b) Inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant
c) Bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this purpose
13) To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.

a) Installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root

b) Installed at the wing tip
c) Installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
14) Failure of the normal maximum differential control is catered for by fitting:

a) Safely relief valves

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 b) Inward relief valves
c) Altitude selector valves1

15) When aircraft stalls.

a) Lift decreases and drag increases
b) Lift and drag increase
c) Lift and drag decreases
16) What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?

a) Cabin altitude
b) Bleed air pressure
c) Compression air pressure

17) The basic air – cycle cooling system consists of:

a) A source of compressed air, heat exchangers and a turbine

b) Heaters, coolers and compressors
c) Ram air source, compressors and engine bleeds

18) The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of
airflow, is known as.

a) Camber layer
b) None of the above is correct
c) Boundary layer

19) Where does the last stage of cooling in an air – cycle air – conditioning system occur?

a) Refrigeration unit compressor

b) Secondary heat exchange
c) Expansion turbine

20) The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the:

a) Outflow valve opening

b) Pneumatic system pressure
c) Inflow valve opening
21) (1) An airspeed indicator measure the differential between pilot and static air pressures
surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight.
(2) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pilot and cabin air pressures at
any

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 moment of flight.

Regarding the above statements:

a) Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true

b) Only No. 2 is true
c) Only No.1 is true

22) The primary purpose of the autopilot is to:

a) Hold a predetermined heading of the aircraft under adverse wing conditions

b) Relieve the pilot of undue stress during long period of flight
c) Aid the pilot when the actual landing (not simulated) on the runway

23) A radar altimeter determines attitude by:

a) Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal

b) Receiving signals transmitted from ground radar stations
c) Means of transponder interrogation

24) A radar altimeter indicates:

a) Flight level (pressure) altitude

b) Altitude above sea level
c) Altitude above ground level
25) When flags such as NAV, HDG or GS are displayed on an HIS, the indication is:

a) That function is inoperative

b) That function is operative
c) To call attention to deviation from desired setting or flight path, or heading

26) A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes:

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four

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 27) Dutch roll, a combination OF yawing and rolling oscillation that Affects many swept wing
aircraft, is
Counteracted with:

a) A flight director system

b) An aileron damper system
c) A yaw damper

28) Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by:

a) Shocks mounts
b) Spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks
c) Rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit chassis and case

29) How does temperature affect fuel weight?

a) Cold fuel is heavier per gallon

b) Warm fuel is heavier per gallon
c) Temperature has no effect
30) An electrical – type fuel quality indicating system consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a:

a) Float – operated transmitter installed in the tank

b) Float resting on the surface of the tank
c) Float – operated receiver installed in the tank

31) What is the purpose of flapper – type check valves in integral fuel tanks:

a) To allow defueling of the tanks by suction

b) To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps
c) To allow the engine – driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump
fails

32) Aircraft defueling should be accomplished:

a) With the aircraft’s communication equipment on and in contract with the tower in case of fire
b) In a hanger where activities can be controlled
c) In the open air for good ventilation

Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight

a) Nose should be lowered, reducing AoA

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 b) Nose should remain in the same position, maintain same AoA
c) Nose should be raised, increasing AoA
33) If the Aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
a) Up to move elevator up
b) Down to move elevator up
c) Up to move elevator down
34) What is required when operating two aircraft AC generators in parallel?

a) Amperes and frequency must both be equal

b) Frequency and voltage must both be equal
c) Amperes and voltage must both be equal

35) Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One purpose of
Grounding is to:

a) Prevent current return paths

b) Allow static charge accumulation
c) Prevent development of radio frequency potentials

36) Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or whose in advertent activation could
endanger
a system frequently employ:

a) Guarded switches
b) Push – pull – type circuit breakers only (no switches)
c) Spring – loaded to off toggle or rocker switches

37) If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic
should:

a) Coat the connector with grease

b) Use a special moisture – proof type
c) Spray the connector with varnish or zinc – chromate

38) The three kinds of circuit – protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are:

a) Circuit breakers, resistors and current limiters

b) Circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters
c) Circuit breakers, capacitors and current limiters plugins mechanical reset types
39) What safely device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?

a) Up lock switch
b) Downlock switch

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 c) Ground safety switch

40) Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called:

a) Electromechanical devices
b) Photoelectrical devices
c) Visual devices

41) A fire – extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by:

a) Attaching a remote pressure gauge

b) Weighing the container and its contents
c) A hydrostatic test

42) The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous – loop fiRe – detection system is:

a) Improper routing or clamping loops

b) Moisture
c) Dents, kinks or crushed sensor

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