Test ID : 813

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.UNIT TEST - 2 A
Std : Long term (Batch - A) Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 03.03.2023 CHEMISTRY & BOTANY Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. How many hydrogen bonded water 6. What is the position of the element in the
molecule(s) are associated with CuSO4.5H2O? periodic table satisfying the electronic
1) 1 2) 2 configuration (n–1)d1ns2 for n = 4?
3) 3 4) 4 1) 3rd period and 3rd group
2. In which pair, the first atom or ion is not larger 2) 4th period and 3rd group
in size than the second? 3) 3rd period and 2nd group
1) Br–, Br 2) Pb2+, Pb4+ 4) 4th period and 2nd group
3) N, P 4) N, F 7. An element ‘A’ has atomic number 56. What
3. Select the correct statement will be the formula of its halide?
1) Cl2O7 is the most acidic oxide
1) AX 2) AX2
2) Non-metallic character decreases in a
3) AX3 4) A2X3
period
8. The electron affinity for
3) BeO is a basic oxide
4) All are correct 1) Carbon is greater than oxygen
4. First and second ionization energies of 2) Fluorine is less than iodine
magnesium are 7.646 and 15.035 eV 3) Fluorine is less than chlorine
respectively. The amount of energy in kJ 4) Sulpher is less than oxygen
needed to convert all the atoms of magnesium
9. Which of the following is more stable
into Mg2+ ions present in 12 mg of magnesium
carbanion
vapour is [Given : 1 eV = 96.5 kJ mol–1]
1) 1.1 2) 2.5
1)
3) 2.0 4) 0.5
5. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for
the fact that
1) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
2)
2) Zr and Y have about the same radius
3) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
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16. IUPAC name of the compound
3)

1) 1-bromobut-2-ene
4) 2) 2-bromo-2-butene
3) 4-bromobut-2-ene
10. The volume strength of 10 N H2O2 is 4) 1-bromobut-3-ene
1) 112 2) 11.2 17. Among the following, the pair in which the
3) 0.112 4) 56 two species are not isostructural is
11. Which of the following has sp3 carbon 1) SiF4 and SF4 2) IO3− and XeO3
1) cyclo pentadiene 3) BH −4 and NH 4+ 4) PF6− and SF6
2) cyclo pentadiene anion
18. Match the column I with column II and mark
3) cyclo octatetraene the appropriate choice.
4) benzene
Column I Column II
12. Which of the following hydrides is electron-
A) C 2 H2 i) sp3d2 hybridisation
precise hydride?
1) B2H6 2) NH3 B) SF6 ii) sp3d3 hybridisation
3) H2O 4) CH4 C) SO2 iii) sp hybridisation
13. Which of the following reactions increases D) IF7 iv) sp2 hybridisation
production of dihydrogen? 1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
1270K
1) CH4(g) + H2O(g)  Ni → CO(g) + 3H2(g)
2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
1270K
3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
2) C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g) 4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
673K
3) CO(g) + H2O(g) 
Cat. → CO2(g) + H2(g) 19. The ONO bond angle is maximum in
1270K
4) C2H6 + 2H2O  1) NO3− 2) NO +2
Ni → 2CO + 5H2
14. A fisher projection of (2R, 3S)-2,3-butanediol 3) NO −2 4) NO2
CH3 CH3
20. Which of the following compounds shows
HO H HO H
1) HO H
2) Metamerism
H OH
a) Alcohols b) Carboxylic acid
CH3 CH3
CH3 OH c) Esters d) Ethers
H OH CH3 H
3) HO 4) 1) a and d 2) b and c
H HO H
3) c and d 4) a and c
CH3 CH3
21. In which of the following molecule/ion all the
15. The ratio of σ to π-bonds in mesitylene is
bonds are not equal?
1) 3 2) 7
1) XeF4 2) BF4−
3) 5 4) 6
3) C2H4 4) SiF4
 3 Test ID : 813[A]
22. Match the following correctly 27. The correct order of decreasing bond length
Detection/ Respective species of CO, CO2 and CO32− is
Estimation formed 1) CO > CO2 > CO32−
A) Lassaigne’s test of N K) [Fe(CN)5NOS]-4 2) CO32− > CO2 > CO
B) Lassaigne’s test of S L) NH3
3) CO2 > CO > CO32−
C) Duma’s method M) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
4) CO2 > CO32− > CO
D) Kjeldahl’s method N) N2
28. In which of the following species the bond is
1) A-K, B-M, C-L, D-N
non-directional?
2) A-M, B-K, C-L, D-N
1) NF3 2) RbCl
3) A-K, B-M, C-N, D-L
3) BeCl2 4) BCl3
4) A-M, B-K, C-N, D-L
29. Which one of the following is not an isomer of
23. What is the order of stability of N2 and its ions? 3-methyl but-1-yne
1) N 2 > N 2+ > N 2− > N 22 − 1) pent-1-yne 2) Buta-1, 3-diene
2) N +2 > N −2 > N 2 > N 22 − 3) pent-2-yne 4) penta-1, 3-diene
3) N −2 > N +2 > N 2 > N 22 − 30. The element that exhibits both electro valency
& covalency is
4) N 22 − > N −2 > N +2 > N 2
1) Ne 2) Na
24. Which type of hybridization is shown by
3) Ba 4) Cl
carbon atoms from left to right in the given
31. Which of the following is hypervalent
compound?
molecule?
CH2 = CH – C ≡ N
1) PCl5 2) PCl3
1) sp2, sp2, sp 2) sp2, sp, sp
3) H2O 4) PH3
3) sp, sp2, sp3 4) sp3, sp2, sp
32. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
25. Which of the following is an addition reaction
nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia
1) CH3 – Cl + Aq NaOH → CH3 – OH + NaCl evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized
dryether
2) CH3 – Cl + Na  → CH3 – CH3 + NaCl 10mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of
nitrogen in the soil is
3) CH2 = CH2 + HBr → CH3 – CH2 – Br
1) 37.33 2) 45.33
∆
4) CH3 – CH2 – Br + Alc. NaOH → 3) 54.33 4) 64.33
3-
CH2 = CH2 + NaBr 33. In PO4 ion, the average charge on oxygen
26. The most stable shape of ClF3 is shown by atom and P-O bond order respectively are
1) -0.75, 1.25 2) -0.75, 1
3) -0.75, 0.6 4) -3, 1.25
34. Which of the following is optically inactive?
1) Meso tartaric acid
2) Active tartaric acid
1) (i) only 2) (i) and (iii) 3) Erythro ribose
3) (ii) only 4) (iii) only
4) Threo ribose
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35. The correct order of acidic strength is 41. The number of significant figures in 2.6531 ×
1) CH3COOH < HCN < H2O < C2H5OH 104 is
2) CH3COOH > HCN > H2O > C2H5OH 1) 8 2) 7
3) HCN > CH3COOH > H2O > C2H5OH 3) 5 4) 4
4) CH3COOH > HCN > C2H5OH > H2O 42. The law of multiple proportions is illustrated
36. In Carius method of estimation of halogen by one of the following pairs
0.15 g of an organic compound gave 0.12g 1) H2S and SO2 2) NH3 and NO2
AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the
3) Na2S and Na2O 4) N2O and NO
compound is
43. In the formation of SO2 and SO3 the ratio of
1) 34.04% 2) 68.08%
the weight of oxygen which combines with
3) 12.6% 4) 48.2%
10kg sulphur is
37. Select a pair of species in which both have
different number of dative bond(s)? 1) 1 : 1 2) 3 : 2
3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 4
1) H3O+ and NH +4
44. Which of the following has more number of
2) N2O3 and N2O5
atoms?
3) NH +4 and NO3−
1) 11.2L of SO2 at STP
4) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ and [Ni(CN)4]2- 2) 1g atom of Al
38. The correct order of lattice energy is 3) 34g of NH3
1) NaCl > MgF2 > MgO 4) 8g of O2
2) NaCl < MgF2 < MgO 45. How many moles of potassium chlorate
3) MgF2 < NaCl < MgO needed to produce 11.2 litre oxygen at STP?
4) MgO < NaCl < MgF2 1) 0.5 mol 2) 0.33 mol
39. Statement – I : Benzyl amine is less basic 3) 0.25 mol 4) 0.66 mol
than ethyl amine.
46. Hyper conjugation involves delocalization of
Statement – II : In benzyl amine phenyl
1) σ-electrons of C – H with the unshared
shows +I effect.
p-orbital
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
2) Both Statement-I and II are false 2) p-electrons with the π-electrons of C-C
bond
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true 3) π-electrons of C = C with the unshared
40. The stability order of the following species p-orbital
4) Interaction of two π bonds (or) between a π
bond and lone pair of electrons
47. If X gms of an element ‘A’ reacts with 16 gms
of oxygen then the equivalent weight of
element ‘A’ is
X X
1) 2)
1) iv < iii < ii < i 2) i < ii < iii < iv 4 2
3) iv < iii < i < ii 4) iii < iv < ii < i 3) X 4) 2X
 5 Test ID : 813[A]
14 17
48. Nitrogen has two isotopes N and N whose The velocity corresponds to x is
relative abundance are 90% and 10%
2RT 3RT
respectively, average atomic weight 1) 2)
M M
1) 14 u 2) 15 u
3) 14.5 u 4) 14.3 u 8RT 3RT
3) 4)
49. 4g of H2 and 16g of O2 is allowed to react to πM πM
form water then which of the following 55. The volume of oxygen required for complete
statement is correct? combustion of 0.25 cm3 of CH4 at STP is
1) O2 is limiting reagent 1) 0.25 cm3 2) 0.5 cm3
2) H2 is limiting reagent 3) 0.75 cm3 4) 1 cm3
3) O2 is reagent in excess
56. Among the following mixtures dipole-dipole
4) 20g water is formed
as the major interaction is present in
50. Which of the following methods of expressing
concentration varies with temperature? 1) C6H6 and CCl4
1) Molality 2) Molarity 2) C6H6 and C2H5OH
3) Mole fraction 4) All 3) CH3COCH3 and CH3CN
51. The volume of oxygen at STP used when x 4) KCl and H2O
gms of Zn is converted to ZnO is (At. mass of 57. The number possible stereo isomers in
Zn = 65g) OH OH
2x x | |
1) × 5.6L 2) × 5.6L CH 2 = CH − CH − CH − CH − CH = CH − CH 3
65 65 |
4x 2x Br
3) × 5.6L 4) ×11.2L
65 65 1) 18 2) 20
52. The equivalent mass of divalent metal is W. 3) 14 4) 16
The molecular mass of its chloride is
58. Consider a gas in a vessel. If the
1) W + 35.5 2) W + 71 intermolecular interactions suddenly begin to
3) 2W + 71 4) 2W + 35.5
act then which of the following will
53. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of acetic acid are happened?
present in 500 ml of its solution. The
concentration of solution is 1) The pressure decreases
2) The pressure increases
1) 0.002 M 2) 10.2 M
3) 0.012 M 4) 0.01 M 3) The pressure remains unchanged
54. Graph between fraction of molecules and 4) The gas collapsed
velocity is given below. 59. Which of the following is correct for an ideal
gas (m = mass, M = molar mass)?
V P MV P
1) = 2) =
n RT m RT
d P
3) = 4) All of these
M RT
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60. At constant pressure for a fixed moles of a 65. At STP the order of the RMS speeds of
gas, volume and temperature are related as molecules of H2, N2, O2 and HBr gases is
 t  1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr
1) Vt = V0 1 +  2) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2
 273 
3) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
 273 
2) Vt = V0 1 +  4) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr
 t 
66. Which of the following is correct order for
 t 
3) V0 = Vt 1 +  strength of overlapping of orbitals
 273 
1) S-S > P-P > S-P 2) S-P > P-P > S-S
 273 
4) V0 = Vt 1 +  3) P-P > S-S > S-P 4) P-P > S-P > S-S
 t 
67. Compressibility factor for one mole of CO2 at
61. In a series ethane; ethylene and acetylene the 400K and 71.0 bar is 0.86. Molar volume of
C−H bond energy is CO2 under these conditions is
1) the same in all the three compound 1) 22.4 L 2) 2.24 L
2) greatest in acetylene 3) 0.403L 4) 19.5 L
3) greatest in ethylene 68. Temperature at which gas behaves ideally
4) greatest in ethane over a wide range of pressure is called as
62. Partial pressure of 3 gases A, B and C in their 1) Boyle’s temperature
mixture are pA, pB and pC respectively. Find 2) Critical temperature
the correct relation if the number of moles of 3) Absolute zero temperature
A, B, C are equal 4) Kraft temperature
1) pA > pB > pC 69. At very high pressure, Vander Waal’s
2) pA = pB = pC equation for one mole gas is
3) pA < pB < pC RT a RT a
1) P = − 2 2) P = +
4) pA + pB = pC V V V V2
63. Calculate relative rate effusion of O2 to CH4 RT RT
3) P = 4) P =
from a container. In which O2 and CH4 are in V−b V+b
3 : 2 mass ratio 70. Capillary action of the liquid can be explained
3 2 3 on the basis of
1) 2) 1) resistance to flow
4 4 2
3 2) surface tension
3) 4) 4 3) heat of vapourisation
2
4) refractive index
64. The kinetic energy per unit volume is
71. For the reaction Fe0.95O → Fe2O3 what is the
3 3 equivalent mass of Fe0.95O. (Molar mass is M)
1) T 2) P
2 2
M M
3 RN 3 RT 1) 2)
3) 4) 0.85 0.95
2 N0 2 n
M M
3) 4)
0.875 200
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−
72. What is the normality of resulting solution 79. Statement – I : I2 → IO + I– is an example
3
obtained by dilution of 200 ml of 0.2M HCl of a disproportionation reaction
solution to 1 litre?
Statement – II : Oxidation number of ‘I’ can
1) 0.02 2) 0.03 vary from –1 to +7
3) 0.04 4) 0.06
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
73. A redox reaction always involves
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
1) change in oxidation number
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
2) change in phase
3) the transfer of protons 4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
4) the formation of ions 80. Total number of peroxy bonds in ‘X’
ether
74. 10gm of XeF4 gas was introduced into vessel K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + H2O2  → K2SO4+ X+ H2O
of 11 litre capacity at 75oC. What is the 1) 5 2) 3
pressure of the gas in atmosphere (XeF4 M.wt 3) 4 4) 2
is 207.3) 81. The specialized cells present in Nostoc that are
1) 0.125 atm 2) 0.135 atm involved in nitrogen fixation are called as
3) 0.145 atm 4) 0.155 atm 1) Auxospores 2) Pyrenoids
75. In Fe(II) and MnO −4 titration HNO3 is not 3) Heterocysts 4) Akinetes
used because 82. Identify the incorrect statements
1) It oxidises Mn+2 2) It reduces MnO −4 i) Diatoms are the chief producers in the
terrestrial habitat
3) It oxidises Fe+2 4) It reduces Fe+2
ii) The spores of slime moulds possess true
76. What are the values of X, Y and Z in the
walls
following equation?
iii) The cell wall of euglenoids has stiff
H2C2O4 + XH2O2 → YCO2 + ZH2O
cellulosic plates
1) 2, 1, 2 2) 1, 2, 2
iv) Protists reproduce sexually by a process
3) 2, 2, 1 4) 1, 2, 1
involving cell fusion and zygote formation
77. 5 mol of Fe2(C2O4)3 is oxidized by X mol of
v) The plasmodium of slime moulds causes
K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium for complete
malaria
reaction the value of X is
1) i, ii and iii 2) i, iii and v
1) 2 2) 3
3) iv and v 4) i and iv
3) 5 4) 6
83. Identify the incorrect match
78. The redox reaction among the following is
1) Entamoeba – Amoeboid protozoan
1) 2NaOH + Cl2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
2) Gonyaulax – Flagellated protozoan
2) 2KMnO4 + 10FeSO4 + 8H2SO4 → 2MnSO4 +
3) Paramoecium – Ciliated protozoan
5Fe2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + 8H2O
4) Trypanosoma – Parasitic protozoan
3) CuCl2 + Cu → Cu2Cl2
4) All the above 84. Dikaryotic phase is observed in
1) Ascomycetes 2) Phycomycetes
3) Basidiomycetes 4) Both (1) and (3)
 8 Test ID : 813[A]
85. The fungi used extensively in biochemical and 89. A) Sex organs are absent
genetic research work is B) Produce exogenous sexual spores
1) Aspergillus 2) Claviceps C) Asexual spores are absent
3) Neurospora 4) Rhizopus The above features belongs to
86. Match the following 1) Ascomycetes 2) Basidiomycetes
List – I List – II 3) Phycomycetes 4) Deuteromycetes
90. Identify the labelled part ‘A’ from the diagram
A) Smut fungi I) Puccinia
given below.
B) Sac fungi II) Penicillium
C) Edible fungi III) Agaricus
D) Rust fungi IV) Ustilago
1) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
2) A – IV, B – II, C – III D – I
3) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV 1) ssDNA 2) dsDNA
4) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II 3) ssRNA 4) dsRNA
87. Identify the correct statements. 91. Identify the incorrect match
A) The maximum type of nutritional diversity 1) Beijerinck – Contagium vivum fluidum
is found in Monera.
2) T.O. Diener – Discovered prions
B) As per whittakers classification four
3) Stanley – Crystallized TMV
kingdoms consists of multicellular
4) Ivanowsky – Recognised causal organism
eukaryotes.
of tobacco mosaic disease
C) Aristole classified plants into trees, shrubs
92. Statement – I : Cyanobacteria appear only in
and herbs based on evolutionary
filamentous form.
relationships
Statement – II : Chemosynthetic autotrophs
D) The first oxygenic photosynthetic
play a major role in recycling nutrients.
monerans are cyanobacteria
1) Both the statements are correct
1) A and B
2) Both the statements are incorrect
2) B and C
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
3) C and D incorrect
4) A and D 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
88. How many organisms in the given list belongs correct
to kingdom protista as per whittakers
93. Identify incorrect statement w.r.t Viroids
classification?
1) Smaller than viruses
Paramoecium, Chlorella, Chlamydomonas,
2) Free RNA of low molecular weight
Nostoc, Anabaena, Spirogyra, Amoeba,
Trichoderma 3) Causes mad cow disease in cattle
1) Five 2) Two 4) Causes potato spindle tuber disease
3) Three 4) Four
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94. Identify incorrect statement w.r.t 99. In which of the following plant, both
Methanogens gametophyte and sporophyte have
1) Present in the gut of ruminant animals independent free living existence?
2) Responsible for the production of biogas 1) Funaria 2) Sphagnum
3) Belongs to Archaebacteria 3) Fern 4) Polytrichum
4) Primitive eukaryotic organisms 100. Tracheophytic archegoniate plant among the
95. Artificial system of classification is based on following is
1) Chromosomal number and behaviour 1) Salvia
2) Chemical constituents of the plant 2) Selaginella
3) Gross superficial morphological characters 3) Porphyra
4) All the above 4) Both (1) and (2)
96. The hydrocolloid substances like algin and 101. Assertion (A) : Bryophytes are called as
carrageen are obtained respectively from amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R) : Bryophtyes live in soil but are
1) Green and brown algae
dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
2) Red and brown algae
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3) Brown and red algae
the correct explanation of (A).
4) Red and green algae
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
97. A : Produce gametes that bear two laterally correct explanation of (A)
attached flagella.
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
B : Stored form of food is floridean starch.
Based on the above characters identify the 4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
102. Prothallus in pteridophytes represents
suitable option that matches correctly for A
and B. 1) haploid sporophyte
1) A – Polysiphonia, B – Dictyota 2) diploid sporophyte
2) A – Fucus, B – Porphyra 3) haploid gametophyte
3) A – Ectocarpus, B – Ulothrix 4) diploid gametophyte
4) A – Chlamydomonas, B – Laminaria 103. Identify the incorrect match
98. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t 1) Tallest tree – Sequoia
Marchantia 2) Branched stem – Pinus
i) Reproduce asexually through gemma cups 3) Unbranched stem – Cedrus
ii) Spores germinate to give protonema 4) Corolloid roots – Cycas
iii) Both male and female reproductive parts 104. Highly evolved last archegoniates are also
present on same thallus known as
iv) The thallus is dorsiventral and closely 1) first embryophytes
appressed to the substratum 2) first tracheophytes
1) ii and iii 2) i and iv 3) first spermatophytes
3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv 4) first land plants
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105. Which of the following are unique features of 112. Which of the following is the most common
angiosperms? non membranous cell organelle found in plant
I) Presence of endosperm cell?
II) Presence of seed 1) Lysosomes 2) Centriole
III) Double fertilization 3) Ribosomes 4) Both (2) and (3)
113. In animal cell, 70s ribosomes are found in
IV) Fruit formation
I) Chloroplast II) Mitochondria
V) Presence of tap roots III) Cytoplasm IV) RER
1) II, III and V 2) III and IV 1) I and II 2) II and III
3) Only IV 4) I, II, III, IV and V 3) II, III and IV 4) Only II
106. Atracheophytic, homosporous and archegoniate 114. The special membranous extensions which
plant exhibiting haplodiplontic life cycle is contain pigments in cyanobacteria are called
1) Ectocarpus 2) Polysiphonia 1) Mesosomes 2) Chromatophores
3) Sphagnum 4) Selaginella 3) Chloroplasts 4) Chromoplasts
107. Zygoticmeiosis is the characteristic feature of 115. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t plasmid

1) haplondiplontic life cycle DNA

2) diplontic life cycle 1) It confers certain unique phenotypic
characters to bacteria
3) haplontic life cycle
2) It has genes encoding for antibiotic
4) Both (1) and (2) resistance
108. What is the ratio of male and female nuclei 3) It is used to monitor bacterial
involved in triple fusion respectively? transformation with foreign DNA
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 3 4) It can replicate by depending on the main
3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1 genome
109. Naturalsystem of classification was given by 116. Find the odd one w.r.t structure of bacterial

1) Aristotle and Linnaeus flagellum?

2) Bentham and Hooker 1) Basal body 2) Hook
3) Plasma membrane 4) Filament
3) Ernst Mayr and Linnaeus
117. Statement – I : The physico chemical
4) Whittaker and Linnaeus
approach to study and understand living
110. Which of the following is an exception for cell organisms is called reductionst biology.
theory? Statement – II : The cytoplasm is the main
1) Viruses 2) Viroids arena of cellular activities in both plant and
3) Prions 4) All the above animal cells.
111. Identify
the incorrect match. 1) Both the statements are correct
1) Robert Brown – discovered nucleus 2) Both the statements are incorrect
2) Schleiden and Schwann – cell theory 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
incorrect
3) Anton von leeuwenhoek – described live
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
cell
correct
4) Ramachandran – Structure of insulin
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118. Identifythe incorrect statement C) Site of light III) Cristae
i) During plant cell maturation, the secondary reaction
cell wall is formed on the innerside of the D) Site of rRNA IV) Tonoplast
primary cell wall synthesis
ii) ER helps in synthesis of proteins and lipids
1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
iii) Prokaryotic ribosomes are madeup of 40S
2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – II
and 30S subunits
3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
iv) In bacteria, pili play a major role in
4) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
motility
123. Microtubules are usually absent in
v) In prokaryotes, mesosomes helps in
1) Cilia 2) Centriole
respiration
3) Flagella 4) Mitochondria
1) i and ii 2) ii, iii and iv
124. Identifythe odd one w.r.t membrane bound
3) iii and iv 4) ii, iii and v
organelles
119. Which type of plastids are rich in potato?
1) Food vacuole 2) Gas vacuole
1) Aleuroplast 2) Amyloplast
3) Contractile vacuole 4) Sap vacuole
3) Elaioplast 4) Chromoplast
125. Which
is not a part of interphase?
120. Organelles that lacks DNA but capable of
1) DNA replication
duplication are
2) Duplication of cell organelles
1) Mitochondria 2) Chloroplast
3) Duplication of centrioles
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Centrioles
4) Splitting of centromere
121. Assertion (A) : The metacentric chromosome
has middle centromere forming two equal 126. Which of the following cell is most suitable to
arms of chromosomes. study the different phases of mitosis?
Reason (R) : A pair of kinetochores are 1) Mature human RBC
observed near each centromere 2) Heart cells
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 3) Sieve tube cells
the correct explanation of (A). 4) Root tip cells
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 127. Which is not true w.r.t significance of
correct explanation of (A) mitosis?
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 1) Cell repair
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 2) Maintain nucleoplasm to cytoplasm ratio
122. Match the following 3) Growth of multicellular organisms
List – I List – II 4) Variation in population
A) Membrane of I) Grana 128. During meiosis chromosomes number reduced
vacuole to half for the first time in
B) Inner II) Nucleolus 1) Telophase I 2) Anaphase I
membrane of 3) Metaphase I 4) prophase I
mitochondria
 12 Test ID : 813[A]
129. Statement – I : Cells in Go phase are 133. Splitting of centromere and separation of sister
metabolically active. chromatids occurs in
Statement – II : M phase is the most dramatic 1) Anaphase I
period of the cell cycle. 2) Anaphase II
1) Both the statements are correct 3) Anaphase
2) Both the statements are incorrect 4) Both (2) and (3)
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 134. Number of meiotic division required to form
incorrect 800 seeds are
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is 1) 800 2) 1000
correct 3) 1600 4) 400
130. Identify
the incorrect statement w.r.t meiosis 135. Number of mitotic divisions required to form
1) Prophase I is the longest phase 128 cells from a single cell is
2) Diakinesis represents transition to 1) 7 2) 127
metaphase 3) 64 4) 32
3) Interkinesis is followed by prophase II 136. Meiosishelps to form
4) Meiosis I resembles a normal mitosis 1) gametophyte from haploid spores
131. ProphaseI has been further divided into five 2) gametes from a gametophyte
phases based on
3) spores from spore mother cell
1) Frequency of recombination
4) embryo from zygote
2) Duration of each individual phase
137. Ifa meiocyte has 10 pg of DNA content at
3) Chromosomal behaviour metaphase I, then what would be the DNA
4) Number of tetrads formed content in prophase I?
132. Match the following 1) 2.5 pg 2) 5 pg
List – I List – II 3) 20 pg 4) 10 pg
A) Zygotene I) Crossing over 138. What is the ratio of number of kinetochores
B) Pachytene II) Terminalisation of and centromeres respectively in a bivalent?
chiasmata 1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1
C) Diplotene III) Synapsis 3) 1 : 2 4) 4 : 1
139. DNA dependent DNA polymerase is most
D) Diakinesis IV) Dissolution of
active during
synaptonemal
complex 1) M phase 2) G1 phase
3) S phase 4) G2 phase
1) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
140. The number of carbon atoms in palmitic acid
2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
and arachidonic acid excluding carboxyl
3) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
carbon are respectively.
4) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
1) 19 and 15 2) 16 and 20
3) 15 and 19 4) 20 and 16
 13 Test ID : 813[A]
141. Identifythe incorrect statement w.r.t Collagen 147. Identify the incorrect statement.
1) It exhibits triple helical structure 1) Non protein part of an enzyme is called as
2) It is a homopolymer co-factor
3) It functions as intercellular ground 2) zinc is a cofactor of the enzyme
substance carboxypeptidase
4) It is the most abundant protein in the 3) Living state is the equilibrium steady state
animal world to be able to perform work
142. Biochemical nature of energy currency in a 4) Carbonic anhydrase accelerates the rate of
living system is reaction of 10 million times
1) Carbohydrate 2) Ribonucleotide 148. The‘R’ group in serine represents
3) Deoxy ribonucleotide 4) Triglyceride 1) Methyl group
143. Identifythe correct statement 2) Ethyl group
1) All enzymes are proteins 3) Hydrogen
2) Enzymes are called as inorganic catalysts 4) Hydroxy methyl group
3) Organic catalysts are more active at high 149. Findthe number of nucleotides present in a B-
temperatures DNA with 34A° of length
4) Ribozyme is an organic catalyst 1) 10 2) 20
144. Identify
the incorrect match 3) 30 4) 40
1) Cellulose – Polymer of glucose 150. Match the following
2) Glycogen – Polymer of glucose Column – I Column –II
3) Inulin – Polymer of aminoacids A) Deoxy ribose I) Nucleoside
4) RuBisCO – Polymer of aminoacids B) Cytosine II) Nucleotide
145. Match the following C) Adenosine III) Nitrogen
List – I List – II base
A) Pigments I) Abrin D) Guanylic acid IV) Pentose
B) Toxins II) Anthocyanin sugar
C) Lectins III) Concanavalin 1) A – III, B – II, B – I, D – IV
A 2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
D) Drugs IV) Curcumin 3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV 4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 151. Which of the following elements are relatively
3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III more abundant in human body than in earths
crust?
4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
1) N and Si 2) C and O
146. ‘Haem’ part in peroxidase enzyme represents
3) Na and S 4) Mg and Ca
1) coenzyme 2) prosthetic group
3) apoenzyme 4) both (2) and (3)
 14 Test ID : 813[A]
152. Findthe odd one w.r.t biomacromolecules 158. Identify
the incorrect match
1) Proteins 2) Polysaccharides 1) Thorns – Bougainvillea
3) Lipids 4) Nucleic acids 2) Stem tendrils – Pea
153. Which method is usually employed to study 3) Fleshy leaves – Onion
inorganic elemental composition of living 4) Underground storage stem – Ginger
tissue? 159. What is the ratio of number of leaves arise
1) Trichloroacetic acid test from each node in guava and sunflower
2) Ash analysis respectively?
3) Chromatography 1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
4) Density gradient centrifugation 3) 2 : 1 4) 2 : 3
154. In apolysaccharide individual monosaccharides 160. Match the following
are linked by Column – I Column –II
1) Hydrogen bonds A) Silk cotton I) Insectivorous
2) Ester bonds plant
3) Glycosidic bonds B) Venus fly II) Alternate
4) Phosphodiester bond trap phyllotaxy
155. Find out the incorrect statement from the C) Cactus III) Palmately
following compound leaf
1) Maize plants have stilt roots that originates
D) Hibiscus IV) Spines
from lower nodes of the stem
1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
2) Prop roots perform the function of
mechanical support 2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
3) In carrot adventitious roots are involved in 3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
storing food 4) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – II
4) Pneumatophores are negatively geotropic 161. Identify the correct statements w.r.t
roots and helps in respiration Racemose inflorescence?
156. Which of the following is an example for A) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
zygomorphic flower with imbricate B) The main axis terminates into a flower
aestivation? C) Unlimited growth of peduncle
1) Pea 2) Beans D) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
3) Cassia 4) All the above 1) A and B 2) C and D
157. Identify
the incorrect statement w.r.t Neem 3) B and D 4) A and C
leaves. 162. The common characteristics observed in both
1) They possess reticulate venation coconut and mango fruits is
2) Leaflets are present on the rachis 1) Fibrous mesocarp
3) Bud is present in the axil of each leaflet 2) Stony endocarp
4) Pinnately compound leaves 3) Fleshy mesocarp
4) Edible epicarp
 15 Test ID : 813[A]
163. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t vexillary 1) Brassicaceae
aestivation 2) Fabaceae
i) Two smallest petals are known as keels 3) Solanaceae
ii) Two lateral petals are known as wings 4) Liliaceae
iii) Wings are in fused condition 168. Identify
the plant with tricarpellary syncarpous
iv) One largest posterior petal is known as gynoecium?
standard / vexillum
1) Lupin 2) Sesbania
1) only iv 2) only iii
3) Tomato 4) Onion
3) i and ii 4) iii and iv
169. How many of the given list are medicinal
164. Identify the mis-match.
plants that belong to monocots?
1) Marginal placentation – Pea Petunia, Brinjal, Ashwagandha, Aloe,
2) Parietal placentation – Argemone Belladona, Gloriosa, Muliathi
3) Free central placentation – Dianthus 1) One 2) Six
4) Axile placentation – Marigold 3) Three 4) Four
165. Which of the following monocot seed is non
170. Assertion (A) : Each statement in the key is
endospermic? called a lead.
1) Maize 2) Wheat Reason (R) : Keys are generally analytical in
3) Orchid 4) All the above nature.
166. Identify the correct statements 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
i) Unisexual flower has either only stamens or the correct explanation of (A).
only carpels 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
ii) The floral formula gives the information correct explanation of (A)
regarding position of ovary
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
iii) Calyx and androecium are called as
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
accessory organs of a flower
171. The taxonomical aid that serves as a quick
iv) The position of mother axis is represented
by a dot on the top of the floral diagram referral system is
v) Tegmen is the outer layer and testa is the 1) Herbarium 2) Museum
inner layer of a seed coat 3) Zoological park 4) Key
1) i, ii and iii 2) i, ii and iv 172. The taxonomical aid that contain information
3) iii, iv and v 4) iii and v of any one taxon is
167. Identify the floral diagram given below. It 1) Catalogue 2) Monograph
belongs to the member of which family? 3) Flora 4) Manuals
173. Statement – I : Higher the category, greater is
the difficulty of determining the relationship
to other taxa at the same level.
Statement – II : Families are characterized on
the basis of both vegetative and reproductive
features of plant species.
 16 Test ID : 813[A]
1) Both the statements are correct 177. Which of the following reproduces by

2) Both the statements are incorrect fragmentation?

3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 1) Filamentous algae
incorrect 2) Fungi
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is 3) Protonema of mosses
correct 4) All the above
174. Identifythe incorrect statement 178. Identify the incorrect statement
1) The number of species that are known and 1) Increase in mass and increase in number of
described range between 1.7 to 1.8 million individuals are twin characters of growth
2) Binomial nomenclature was practically 2) No nonliving object is capable of
implemented by Carlous Linnaeus reproducing or replicating by itself
3) The scientific names ensure that each 3) In animals, growth by cell division occurs
organisms has only one name continuously throughout their life span
4) In plants, classes with few similarities are 4) Photoperiod affects reproduction in
assigned to a higher category called phylum seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
175. Which among the following taxonomic 179. Identify
the incorrect match
category is common for mango and wheat? 1) Muscidae – Family
1) Family 2) Division 2) Triticum – Genus
3) Class 4) Order 3) Insecta – Order
176. Identify the defining feature of living 4) Monocotyledonae – Class
organisms from the following 180. Biological names are generally in
I) Growth II) Reproduction
1) Latin 2) French
III) Metabolism IV) Conciousness
3) Greek 4) Persian
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
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