04-08-2024

1901CMD303001240064 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) At the top of the trajectory of a projectile the acceleration is :-

(1) Maximum
(2) Minimum
(3) Zero
(4) g

2) A stone is projected from the ground with velocity 25 m/s. Two seconds later, it just clears a
wall 5 m high. The angle of projection of the stone is (g = 10 m/sec2) :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 50.2°
(4) 60°

3) If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled then find out what happens to max. height :

(1) doubled
(2) becomes one fourth
(3) becomes four times
(4) remain unchanged

4) A car travelling with 72 km/hr applies brakes with retardation 2 m/s2. The distance it travels
before coming to rest is ?

(1) 50 m
(2) 75 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 125 m

5) A particle is released from the top of a four storey building & it takes time 't' to reach the ground.
Find the time taken by particle to travel entire length of 2nd storey & 3rd storey.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) The velocity displacement graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown. The most

suitable acceleration displacement graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A projectile is fired at an angle of 45o with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection, is:

(1) 45o
(2) 60o

(3)
(4)

8) Consider the acceleration and velocity of a tennis ball projected up and falls back. Directions of
which of these changes in the process?

(1) Velocity only

(2) Acceleration
(3) Both acceleration and velocity
(4) Neither acceleration nor velocity

9) A body is dropped from a height of 100m. At what height the velocity of the body will be equal to
one half of velocity when it hits the ground?

(1) 45 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 65 m
(4) 75 m

10) If x denotes displacement in time t and x = a sin t, then acceleration is :

(1) a cost
(2) –a cos t
(3) a sin t
(4) – a sin t

11) Figure shows a particle starting from point A, travelling upto B with speed v1, then upto point C
with speed v2 and finally upto A with speed v3. The average speed of the particle is:

(1)

(2)

(3) v1 + v2 + v3
(4) None of these

12) Three projectiles A, B and C are throw from the same point in the same plane. Their trajectories
are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is largest for particle C
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) All of the above

13) If time of flight of a projectile is 10 seconds. Range is 500 meters. The angle of projection is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) None

14) A thief is running away on a straight road in a jeep moving with a speed of 9 m s–1. A policeman
chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of 10 m s–1. If the instantaneous separation of the
jeep from the motor cycle is 100 m, how long will it take for the policeman to catch the theif ?

(1) 1 s
(2) 19 s
(3) 90 s
(4) 100 s

15) A body starting from rest covers a distance of 9 m in the fifth second. The acceleration of the
body is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 0.2 m/s2
(3) 1.8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

16) A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus:

(1) 10 ms–1
(2) 20 ms–1
(3) 40 ms–1
(4) 25 ms–1

17) The displacement of a body in 8 sec starting from rest with an acceleration of 20 cm/s2 is –
(1) 64 m
(2) 64 cm
(3) 640 cm
(4) 0.064 m

18) A body starting from rest moving with uniform acceleration has a displacement of 64 m in first 4
seconds. The acceleration of the body is :

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

19) The speed-time graph of a body is shown in the given figure. The body has maximum

acceleration during the interval.

(1) OA
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) DE

20)

The distance between points A(2, 3, 3) & B(5, –1, 3)

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

21)

A body is dropped freely from a height h above the ground. The ratio of the distances travelled in
one second, two second, three second........will be:-

(1) 1 : 3 : 5.....
(2) 1 : 4 : 9....
(3) 1 : 2 : 3.....
(4) 1 : 2 : 4....

22) A man walks 30 m towards North, then 20 m towards East and the last towards South-
East. The displacement from origin is
(1) 10 m towards West
(2) 50 m towards east
(3) towards North-West
(4) towards North-East

23) A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h
and having a width of 1 km. The minimum time taken around a round trip is

(1) 5 min
(2) 60 min
(3) 20 min
(4) 30 min

24) If a car cover 2/5th of total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed then the
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A motorcycle is moving with a velocity of 80 km/h and a car is moving with a velocity of 65 km/h
in the opposite direction. What is the relative velocity of the motorcycle with respect to the car ?

(1) 15 km/h
(2) 20 km/h
(3) 25 km/h
(4) 145 km/h

26) A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a straight line with an acceleration as shown in

the following figure. The velocity of the particle at t = 3

seconds is

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s
27) A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the last second of its motion as
covered in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for a time of:-

(1) 3 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 9 s

28) A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 40 m completes half a revolution in 40 second. Its
average velocity is :

(1) Zero
(2) 4π m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 8 π m/s

29) A ballon is rising upwards at a velocity of

10 ms–1. When it is at a height of 45 m from the ground, a parachutist bails out from it. After 3s he
opens his parachute and decelerates at a constant rate of 5ms–2. What was the height of the
parachutist above the ground when he opened his parachute. (g = 10 ms–2) :

(1) 30 m
(2) 68 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 45 m

30) A body moves along a curved path of a quarter circle. The ratio of distance to displacement is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The velocity time of graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The
displacement and distance travelled by the body in 6 sec are respectively.
(1) 16 m, 8 m
(2) 8 m, 16 m
(3) 16 m, 16 m
(4) 8 m, 8 m

32) A ball is projected upwards from the foot of a tower. The ball crosses the top of the tower twice
after an interval of 6s and the ball reaches the ground after 12s. The height of the tower is (g =
10m/s2) :-

(1) 120 m
(2) 135 m
(3) 175 m
(4) 180 m

33) A stone dropped from the top of a tower travels part of height of tower during the last
second of fall. Find height of tower (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 52 m
(2) 36 m
(3) 45 m
(4) 78 m

34)

A boat crosses a river of width 3 km along the shortest path in 20 minutes. If the speed of boat in
still water is 15 km/hr, then what is the speed of the river ?

(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 8 km/hr
(3) 12 km/hr
(4) 5 km/hr

35) A wheel of radius 'R' is placed on ground and its contact point is 'P'. If wheel starts rolling
without slipping and completes half a revolution, find displacement of point P.

(1)
(2) R
(3) π2 + 4
(4) R2

SECTION-B

1) A player catches a ball of 100 g moving with a speed of 5 m/s. If the time taken to complete the
catch is 0.25 s, the force exerted on the player's hand is :-

(1) 8 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 0 N

2) Which of the following statements about distance are true ?

(1) It cannot be negative

(2) It cannot be zero
(3) It can never decrease with time
(4) All of the above

3) A body is projected at angle 30° to horizontal with a velocity 50 ms–1. Its time of flight is

(1) 4 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 6 s
(4) 7 s

4) If a stone is thrown up with a velocity of 9.8 ms–1, then how much time will it take to come back ?

(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 3 (s)
(4) 4 s

5) A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant displacement
from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

6) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is :-

(1) East-north direction

(2) West-north direction
(3) South-east direction
(4) None of these

7) Two car A & B start from rest (from the same point) in same direction with acceleration 8 m/s2 &
4 m/s2 respectively then acceleration of car B in frame of A (Take direction of motion of car is
positive) :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) –4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) None of these

8) A train is moving towards East with a speed 20 m/s. A person is running on the roof of the train
with a speed 3 m/s in the direction of motion of train. Velocity of the person as seen by an observer
on ground will be :

(1) 23 m/s towards East

(2) 17 m/s towards East
(3) 23 m/s towards West
(4) 17 m/s towards West

9) Velocity of a swimmer in still water is 5 m/s. If he takes 10 sec to swim upstream a distance of 30
m, then the speed of river is :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

10) Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed of 60 km/h. They are separated
by 10 km. What is the speed of a car moving in the opposite direction if it meets the two cars at an
interval of 5 minute?

(1) 45 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 105 km/h
(4) None

11) Four persons P, Q, R and S of same mass travel with same speed u along a square of side 'd'
such that each one always faces the person next to him. After what time will they meet each other?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A 10 kg mass is accelerated from rest to 30 m/s in 2 s. What force acts on it : -

(1) 300 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 600 N

13) A body of mass 80 g is moving with a constant velocity of 4 cm/s on a horizontal frictionless
table. The force on the body (in dynes) is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 39200
(3) 78400
(4) 8000

14) Newton's II law of motion connects :

(1) Momentum and acceleration

(2) Change of momentum and velocity
(3) Rate of change momentum and internal force
(4) Rate of change of momentum and external force

15) When we kick a stone, we get hurt. Due to which of the following properties of stone does it
happens ?

(1) Inertia
(2) Velocity
(3) Reaction
(4) Momentum

CHEMISTRY
 SECTION-A

1) One molecule of a substance absorbs one quantum of energy. The energy involved, when 1.5 mole
of the substance absorbs red light of frequency 7.5 × 1014 sec–1 will be :-

(1) 2.99 × 105 J

(2) 3.23 × 105 J
(3) 4.48 × 105 J
(4) 2.99 × 106 J

2) Which atom has as many as s-electron as p-electrons?

(1) H
(2) Mg
(3) N
(4) Na

3) Number of waves associated with an electron in one revolution in nth orbit is :

(1) n2
(2) n
(3) (2n + ℓ)
(4) 1

4)

What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum numbers n=3 and
l=2?

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 10

5) The number of unpaired valence electrons in an atom of phosphorus is :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) A cricket ball of mass 0.5 kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms–1. The wavelength associated with
its motion is :-

(1) 1/100 cm
(2) 66 × 10–34 m
(3) 1.32 × 10–35 m
(4) 6.6 × 10–28 m

7) In which of the following transition the wave length will be minimum for ?

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 6 to n = 4
(3) n = 4 to n = 2
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

8) The uncertainity in position of an electron & Helium atom are same. If the uncertainity in
momentum for the electron is 32 × 105 kg m/s, then the uncertainity in momentum of Helium atom
will be :-

(1) 32 × 105 kg m/s

(2) 16 × 105 kg m/s
(3) 8 × 105 kg m/s
(4) 24 × 105 kg m/s

9)

(i) 26Fe54, 26Fe56, 26Fe57, 26Fe58 (a) Isotopes

(ii) 1H3, 2He3 (b) Isotones

(iii) 32Ge76, 33As77 (c) Isodiaphers

(iv) 92U235, 90Th231 (d) Isobars

(v) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3

Match the above correct terms :-

(1) [(i) - a] [(ii) - d], [(iii) - d] [(iv) - c] [v - a]
(2) [(i) - a], [(ii) - d], [(iii) - b], [(iv) - c], [(v) - a]
(3) [v -a] [(iv) - c]. [(iii) - d] [(ii) - b] [(i) - a]
(4) None of them

10) Potential energy of electron at infinity is equal to :

(1) 0
(2) ∞
(3)

(4)

11) A single electron in an ion as ionisation energy equal to 217.6 eV. What is the total number of
neutron present in one ion of it.
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 9

12)

The mass of a photon of wavelength 1 nm is :-

(1) 2.2 × 10–35 Kg

(2) 2.21 × 10–38 Kg
(3) 2.21 × 10–33 Kg
(4) 2.21 × 10–26 Kg

13)

The quantum numbers of four electrons (e1 to e4) are given below :-

The correct order of decreasing energy of these electrons is :

(1) e4 > e3 > e2 > e1

(2) e2 > e3 > e4 > e1
(3) e3 > e2 > e4 > e1
(4) none

14)

Which of the following orbital is represented by the complete wave function Ψ410?

(1) 4s
(2) 3p
(3) 4p
(4) 4d

15) If radius of first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom is a0 then the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in
third orbit is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16) The maximum number of electrons in p- orbital with n = 5, m = 1 is:-

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 14
(4) 10

17)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Energy of ground state of He+ (p) +6.04 eV

(b) Potential energy of Ist orbit of H-atom (q) –27.2 eV

(c) Kinetic energy of 2nd excited state of He+ (r) 54.4 eV

(d) Ionisation potential of He+ (s) –54.4 eV

Which of the following is correct matching :

(1) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(2) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r

18) What is the orbit number for the following diagram :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5

19) The wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition

from an energy level with n = 3 to a level with n = 2 is : [Given that ]

(1) 6.56 × 10–7 m

(2) 65.6 nm
(3) 65.6 × 10–7 m
(4) any of the above

20) The first emission line of Balmer series in

He+-spectrum has the wave no. in (cm–1)
(R-Rydberg constant)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electrons for copper in its ground state is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following orbital has same number of radial nodes and total nodes ?

(1) 3s
(2) 3p
(3) 3d
(4) 4f

23) Assertion :- In H–atom, the energy of 3d–level is smaller than 4s–level.

Reason :- An orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than the orbital with larger
value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) In any sub-shell, the maximum number of electrons having same value of spin quantum number
is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) For an electron if the uncertainty in velocity is Δv, the uncertainty in its position (Δx) is given by
-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in third orbit of hydrogen atom to second orbit of He+
ion

(1) 8/27
(2) 27/2
(3) 27/32
(4) None of these

27) The maximum number of electrons with spin value +1/2 in the orbital with azimuthally quantum
number value l = 2 and magnetic quantum number m = +2 is.......

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 1

28)

Column–I Column–II

a. p. 2

b. P.E + 2K.E. q.

c. r. –1

d. s. Zero

(1) a–q, b–s, c–p, d–r

(2) a–p, b–s, c–p, d–r
(3) a–q, b–s, c–r, d–p
(4) a–q, b–r, c–s, d–p

29) Angular momentum of electron in M-shell of Li+2 ion is :

(1) 1.054 × 10–27 erg. sec.

(2) 1.99 × 10–19 erg. sec.
(3) 3.162 × 10–27 erg. sec.
(4) 9.486 × 10–27 erg. sec.

30) Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following elements ?

(1) C
(2) N
(3) F
(4) Ne

31) Which of the following set of elements have exceptional electronic configuration ?

(1) N, F
(2) Cr, Fe
(3) K, Ar
(4) Cu, Cr

32) Which of the following orbitals having electron density along the axis-

(1) dxy, dyz

(2) , dyz

,
(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Lother Mayer's curve was plotted against :-

(1) Atomic weight v/s melting point

(2) Atomic volume v/s boiling point
(3) Atomic weight v/s atomic volume
(4) Atomic number v/s atomic weight

35) 4d6 5s2 configuration belongs to which group :–

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

SECTION-B

1) For which undiscovered elements Mendeleev left the blank space

(1) Co, Ni
(2) Ga, Ge
(3) Li, Be
(4) B, Sc

2) Which period in periodic table contains only gaseous elements ?

(1) 4th period

(2) 3rd period
(3) 2nd period
(4) 1st period

3)

Match the column-I correctly with Column-II so that anomalous pair can formed as per Mendeleev's
P.T.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Ar (P) I
(b) Th (Q) K
(c) Te (R) Ni
(d) Co (S) Pa
a b c d
(1) Q P S R
(2) Q S P R
(3) S Q P R
(4) P Q R S

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Total number of elements in 2nd short period ?

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 18
(4) 32
5)

A diagonal relationship exists between lithium and :-

(1) Sodium
(2) Beryllium
(3) Magnesium
(4) Boron

6)

An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (Uut) belongs to :

(1) s-block element

(2) p-block element
(3) d-block element
(4) Transition element

7) The IUPAC name of the element which is placed after Db105 is the periodic table, will be :-

(1) Unnilpentium
(2) Ununnilium
(3) Unnilhexium
(4) Unnilquadium

8) Law of Triad applicable to :

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Fe, Co, Ni
(3) C, N, O
(4) H, O, N

9) Which of following will form most stable trivalent anion :

(1) N
(2) O
(3) Cl
(4) F

10) Among the following element group number is not equals to valence electrons -

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) Ne
(4) None

11)
The period number, group number, and block of the element having atomic number 39 will be:

(1) 5, 5, d
(2) 5, 4, d
(3) 5, 3, d
(4) 5, 15, p

12) Atomic number 15, 33, 51 represents the following family :-

(1) Carbon family

(2) Nitrogen family
(3) Oxygen family
(4) None

13) The element with atomic number Z = 117, will be placed in :-

(1) 7th period, IA group

(2) 8th period, IVA group
(3) 7th period, VIIA group
(4) 6th period, VB group

14) 5f series starts and ends with element

(1) Cerium and Lawrencium

(2) Thorium and Lawrencium
(3) Cerium and Lutetium
(4) Thorium and Lutetium

15) The metallic and non metallic elements which are liquid at room temperature respectively are :-

(1) Cs, Fr
(2) As, Fr
(3) Br, Hg
(4) Hg, Br

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Packaging of materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the
cell is done by.

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

2) Bacterial flagella do not show ATPase activity and 9 + 2 organization. These are chemically

(1) Flagellin
(2) Pilin
(3) Tubulin
(4) Bacterin

3) Which structure is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic plant cells

(1) Cell wall

(2) Nucleus
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Mitochondria

4)

Polyribosomes/Polysomes are made up of :-

(1) Ribosomes only

(2) Only larger subunit of ribosomes
(3) Ribosomes & m-RNA
(4) Ribosomes & DNA

5) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The Golgi complex remain in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
(2) RER is extensive and continuous with the inner membrane of nucleus.
(3) Cis and trans Face of Golgi bodies are completely different but interconnected
(4) ER divides the intracellular space into luminal and extra luminal part.

6) Bivalents are formed in which stage?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

7) The movement of homologous chromosomes towards opposite poles occur by shortening of

spindle fibres during :-

(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Telophase
(4) Metaphase-I
8) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in :-

(1) Laptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

9) Cleavage / Furrow method is observed in :-

(1) Plant cells

(2) Animal cells
(3) Bacteria cells
(4) Protista

10) A - Phase between two successive division phase.

B - Cell undergoes both growth and DNA replication.
C - In this phase cell prepares itself for next division.
D - Lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
E - Some scientist termed as resting phase
F - Chromatin condense to form chromosome
How many statements from above are the incorrect for interphase -

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Read the following statements :

A. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
B. Increase in body mass is considered as reproduction
C. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organism without exception
D. Self consciousness is a defining property of every living organism
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

12) Which of the following is not a defining property of living organism?

(1) Reproduction
(2) Metabolism
(3) Cellular organization
(4) Consiousness

13) Which of the following 'suffixes' used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
category of 'family':

(1) -ales
(2) -onae
(3) -aceae
(4) - ae

14) Assertion (A) :- Growth can not be taken as defining property.

Reason (R) :- Both non-living objects and living organisms exhibit growth

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

15) The scientific nomenclature representing the species of wheat is -

(1) Triticum
(2) Aestivum
(3) aestivum
(4) Triticum aestivum

16) Which is less general in characters as compared to genus?

(1) Class
(2) Species
(3) Order
(4) Family

17) Isolated metabolic reactions outside the body of an organism performed in a test tube are :-

(1) Only living

(2) Only non living
(3) Either living or non living
(4) Neither living nor non living

18) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics:

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

19) Find the correct statements from the following

(A) All living phenomena are due to underlying interactions
(B) Properties of tissues are due to interaction among its constituent cells
(C) Properties of cellular organelles are due to their molecular constituents and not due to the
interactions among them
(D) All living organisms present, past and future, are linked to one another by the sharing of
common genetic material in equal magnitude

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A & D

20) Self-consciousness is the property of :-

(1) All living organisms

(2) Prokaryotes only
(3) All eukaryotes only
(4) Human beings only

21) According to two kingdom system of classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed
under:-

(1) Kingdom – Protista

(2) Kingdom – Monera
(3) Kingdom – Fungi
(4) Kingdom – Plantae

22) The cell walls form two thin overlapping shells in which group of organisms such that they fit
together

(1) Euglenoids
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Chrysophytes

23) Which of the following kingdoms include organisms with chemosynthetic autotrophic mode of
nutrition?

(1) Plantae
(2) Protista
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi

24) Select the correct matching:

A. Fungi depend on dead substrate–Saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals–Parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae–Lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant–Mycorrhazia
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) All of these

25) Which pair of the following belongs to ascomycetes?

(1) Puff balls and morels

(2) Mushrooms and shelf fungi
(3) Morels and truffles
(4) Mushrooms and toad stool

26) Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Cell shape
(4) Mode of reproduction

27) Which of the following is non-cellular organism ?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Algae
(4) Virus

28) Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo and Phytophthora are members of

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Oomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

29) During favourable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation called:

(1) Heterocyst
(2) Basidiocarp
(3) Ascocarp
(4) Plasmodium

30) The motile asexual spores seen in phycomycetes are called:

(1) Zoospores
(2) Aplanospores
(3) Akinite
(4) Sporangiospores
31) Which disease is analogus to [BSE] Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy?

(1) MUMPS
(2) SMALL POX
(3) CJD
(4) Influenza

32) In Carl Woese classification prokaryotes were placed in how many domains ?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

33) Identify the four categories of bacteria marked as A,B,C and D based on their shapes :

(1) A = Spirilla, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = Bacilli

(2) A = Bacilli, B = Cocci, C = Vibrio, D = spirilla
(3) A = Vibrio, B = Bacilli, C = Cocci, D = Spirilla
(4) A = Cocci, B = Bacilli, C = Spirilla, D = Vibrio

34) According to five kingdom system, how many kingdoms is/are belong to photosynthetic
organisms ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Only one

35)

Mixotrophic nutrition occure in

(1) Slime mould

(2) Gonyaulax
(3) Euglena
(4) Gymnodinium

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(1) Cell wall
(2) Nuclear membrane
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Glycocalyx

2) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by :-

(1) Virus
(2) Prion
(3) Viroids
(4) Mycoplasma

3) Silica embedded in the structure of ?

(1) Cell wall of diatoms

(2) Cell membrane of euglenoid
(3) Cell wall euglenoid
(4) Cell membrane of diatoms

4) Most common method of bacterial reproduction is :-

(1) Transformation
(2) Conjugation
(3) Endospore formation
(4) Binary fission

5)

Under favourable conditions a bacterial cell divides in every 15 minutes. It takes 150 minutes to fill a
test tube. How much time will it take to fill a test tube of double size?

(1) 300 minutes

(2) 150 minutes
(3) 225 minutes+
(4) 165 minutes

6)

In which of the following groups, the cell wall has stiff cellulose plate on the outer surface?

(1) Diatoms
(2) Red algae
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Slime moulds

7) The _______ are bacteria that completely lack a cell wall

(1) BGA
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Methanogens
(4) Thermoacidophiles

8) Decomposer protists are :-

(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Euglenoid

9) Lichens are symbiotic associations between algae and fungi in which ..?

Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water
(1)
for its partner
Fungi prepare food for Algae and Algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water
(2)
for its partner
(3) Fungi prepare food , absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner and also provide shelter
Fungi prepare food , absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner and Algae provide
(4)
shelter to Fungi

10) In oogamy, fertilization involves :-

(1) A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
(2) A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete
(3) A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
(4) A large motile female gamete and a large non-motile male gamete.

11) How many of the following are characters of only living organisms ?
Growth, Reproduction, Consciousness, Respiration, Metabolism.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) The process which is not included in taxonomy is

(1) Identification
(2) Phylogeny
(3) Classification
(4) Nomenclature

13) Mango belongs to

(1) Family Solanaceae

(2) Order Sapindales
(3) Class Sapindales
(4) Family Poaceae

14) The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other
constituents and eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as :-

(1) Interphase
(2) M-phase
(3) Karyokinesis & cytokinesis
(4) Cell cycle

15) A cell entering mitotic phase of the cell cycle is :-

(1) Always diploid, either with duplicated or unduplicated chromosomes

(2) Always haploid, always with duplicated chromosomes
(3) Either haploid or diploid, always with duplicated DNA
(4) Either haploid or diploid, either with duplicated or unduplicated chromosomes.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Number of spiracles in Periplaneta americana is :

(1) Ten
(2) Twenty
(3) Eight
(4) Six

2)

The muscles present between ribs are called

(1) Phrenic muscles

(2) Intercostal muscles
(3) Cardiac muscles
(4) Voluntary musches

3) A ring of blind tubules called is present at the junction of foregut and midgut
which secrete digestive juice. At the junction of Midgut and Hind gut is present another ring of
yellow coloured filamentous

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 Hepatic
(1) 6-8 Malpighian 100-150
Caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
(2) 100-150 6-8
tubules Caecae

Hepatic Malpighian
(3) 100-150 6-8
caecae tubules

Hepatic Malpighian
(4) 6-8 100-150
caecae tubules
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Male and female cockroach are differentiated by

(1) Mouth parts

(2) Thorax
(3) Legs
(4) Abdomen

5) When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they do not collapse. It is due to :-

(1) Presence of Lecithin

(2) Presence of cartilagenous rings
(3) Presence of bony rings
(4) Presence of mucous

6) Which of the following cannot be measured using spirometer ?

(1) Residual volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

7) First pair of wings in cockroaches arise from :

(1) Prothorax
(2) Mesothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Abdomen

8) On an average female Cockroach produce.....Ootheca containing 14 -16 eggs :-

(1) 4 – 5
(2) 9 – 10
(3) 14 – 15
(4) 21 – 22

9) In cockroach each compound eye is made up of how many ommatidia ?

(1) 20
(2) 200
(3) 2000
(4) 20000

10) The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by :-

(1) Arthrodial membrane

(2) Cartilage
(3) Cementing glue
(4) Muscular tissue

th
11) In both sexes of cockroach, 10 segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called :-

(1) Anal style

(2) Anal cerci
(3) Stink gland
(4) Gynovalvular plates

12)

Choose the incorrect pair from the matches given below :

(1) Antennae – sensory receptors

(2) Metathoracic wings – help in flying
(3) Malpighian tubules – excretory role
(4) Crop – grinding of food

13) Following are the characters of female reproductive system of cockroach, Find out the correct
statements.
(i) Ovaries of female cockroach are located from 2nd to 6th abdominal segment
(ii) on an average female produces 9-10 ootheca
(iii) Each ootheca contain 14-16 fertilized eggs.
(iv) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of abdomen

(1) ii & iii

(2) i, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

14) Which of the following does not acts as a sensory organ in cockroach ?
(1) Antennae
(2) Anal cerci
(3) Compound eye
(4) Anal styles

15) Assertion: Cockroach is uricotelic

Reason: Fat bodies, nephrocyte and uricose glands help in excretion in cockroach

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4)
assertion.

16) (A) Diaphragm contraction increases volume of thoracic chamber in ___(A)___ axis.
(B) Contraction of Intercostal muscles increases volume of Thoracic chamber in ___(B)___ axis.

A B
(1) Dorso-Ventral Anterio- Posterior
(2) Anterio- Posterior Dorso-Ventral
(3) Dorso - Ventral Dorsal - Ventral
(4) Anterior Posterior Anterio- Posterior
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Anal cerci occur in

(1) Female cockroach

(2) Both male and female cockroaches
(3) Male cockroach
(4) Female ascaris

18) Mushroom gland in cockroach is located in -

(1) 2nd - 5th segment

(2) 3rd - 5th segment
(3) 6th - 7th segment
(4) 7th - 8th segment

19) The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into

(1) head and tail

(2) head and thorax
(3) head and abdomen
(4) head, thorax and abdomen

20)

Gastric caecae is used to secrete

(1) Haemolymph
(2) Digestive juice
(3) Uric acid
(4) Sperm

21) Select the incorrect statement for frog :-

(1) Frog has the ability to change its body colour

(2) Internal fertilization takes place in frog
(3) Sexual dimorphism is present in frog
(4) Frog shows indirect development

22) What is the function of mesorchium in frog ?

(1) Joins kidney to ovary

(2) Joins kidney to testis
(3) Joins Liver to Gall bladder
(4) Joins Liver to stomach

23) Alimentary canal is short in frog due to ?

(1) Carnivorous nature

(2) Omnivorous nature
(3) Herbivorous nature
(4) Frugivorous nature

24) Bidder's canal in frog is present in :-

(1) Testes
(2) Kidney
(3) Ovary
(4) Brain

25)

A mature female frog can lay :-

(1) 2500 to 3000 ova at a time

(2) 25 to 30 ova at a time
(3) 250 to 300 ova at a time
(4) 125 to 130 ova at a time

26) During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange take place through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Skin, lungs and buccal cavity
(3) Lungs & buccal cavity
(4) Skin and buccal cavity

27)

Find correct one :

(1) Tidal volume - 700 ml

(2) Functional residual capacity - 3000 ml
(3) Total Lung capacity - 4600 ml
(4) Expiratory Reserve volume -1100 ml

28) The main excretory product of frog is :-

(1) Urea
(2) Ammonia
(3) Uric acid
(4) Glycogen

29) How many heart chambers are found in frog?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

30) In human beings the number of lobes in right and left lungs is

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 2 and 2
(3) 3 and 2
(4) 4 and 2

31) Which of the following is a common passage for food and air ?

(1) External nostrils

(2) Oesopharynx
(3) Trachea
(4) Pharynx

32) Number of cranial nerves in frog is -

(1) 10 pair
(2) 12 pair
(3) 9 pair
(4) 11 pair

33) The mid-brain of frog is charecterised by :-

(1) Single optic lobe

(2) A pair of optic lobe
(3) Two pair of optic lobe
(4) Optic lobes absent

34)

In frog, medulla oblongata passes out from skull through __A__ and continues into spinal cord. Here
A is :-

(1) Foramen of Megandi

(2) Foramen of Iter
(3) Foramen of obturator
(4) Foramen of magnum

35) Assertion : Frog maintains Ecological balance.

Reason : These serves as important link of food chain and food web in Ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-B

1) Match the following regarding the morphology of Cockroach and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(i) Tergites (A) Forewings

(ii) Tegmina (B) Upper lip

(iii) Hypopharynx (C) Dorsal Sclerite

(iv) Labium (D) Tongue

(v) Labrum (E) Lower lip

(1) (i)-D, (ii)-E, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-D, (v)-A
(3) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-E, (v)-B

2) With reference to external features of Cockroach, which among the following statements is not
correct ?

(1) Body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.

(2) Hind wings are protective and are not useful in flight.
(3) Fore wings are elytra,
(4) Gonapophyses help in copulation.

3)

Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement about cockroach :-

(1) The blood (haemolymph) is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes

Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along mid ventral line of thorax
(2)
and abdomen
(3) The hindgut is broader than midgut and differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum
(4) Both gizzard and mandible helps in grinding the food particles

4) Identity A to D in the given diagram of female reproductive system of cockroach.

(1) A-Collaterial gland, B-Oviduct, C-Ovary, D-Spermatheca

(2) A-Conglobate gland, B-Phallic gland, C-Ovary, D-Ootheca
(3) A-Ovary,, B-Oviduct, C-Collaterial glands, D-Spermatheca
(4) A-Ovarioles, B-Ovary, C-Oviduct, D-Spermatheca

5) Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula & value ?

Respiratory
Formula Value
capacities

Functional
(1) Residual IRV + TV 2300 ml
capacity

(2) Vital capacity ERV + TV + IRV 4600 ml

Total lung
(3) RV + IRV + ERV 5800 ml
capacity
 Inspiratory
(4) TV + IRV 1600 ml
capacity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog. Select the correct set of names

labelled A, B, C and D :-

A B C D
Fat Bidder's Vasa
(1) Ureter
bodies Canal efferentia
Fat Bidder's Vas
(2) Ureter
bodies canal deferens
Adrenal Bidder's Vas
(3) Ureter
gland Canal deferens
Adrenal Bidder's Vasa
(4) Testes
gland canal efferentia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which option is correct :-

(1) Tidal volume > Inspiratory reserve volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume > Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Tidal volume > Residual volume
(4) Residual volume < Inspiratory reserve volume

8) A triangular structure that joins the right auricle in frog is called :

(1) Sinus venosus and receives blood from pre and post caval veins
(2) Conus arteriosus and receives blood from pulmonary artery
(3) Sinus venosus and receives blood from pulmonary artery
(4) Truncus arteriosus and receives blood from pre and post caval veins

9) Conducting part of the respiratory system is formed

(1) from external nostrils to tertiary bronchi

(2) from external nostrils to terminal bronchiole
(3) from external nostrils to the duct of alveoli
(4) from external nostrils to alveoli

10) Copulatory pads present on :-

(1) Pollex of frog

(2) First digit of fore limb of female frog.
(3) Second digit of fore limb of male frog
(4) First digit of fore limb of male frog

11) Assertion :- During inspiration muscles of diaphragm contract which makes it flat.
Reason :- For inspiration to occur pressure inside lungs need to be more than atmospheric
pressure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

12) Statement-1 :- Any change in the volume of thoracic cavity will be reflected in lung(Pulmonary)
cavity.
Statement-2 :- Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by sternum and ventrally by vertebral column

(1) Only Statement 1 is correct

(2) Only Statement 2 is correct
(3) Both Statements are correct
(4) Both Statements are incorrect

13) Trachea is a straight tube extending upto the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of
______ vertebra :

(1) 5th thoracic

(2) 5th sacral
(3) 5th lumbar
(4) 5th cervical

14) During swallowing of food which of the following structures prevent the entering of food into the
glottis?

(1) Semilunar Valve

(2) Circular Muscular flap
(3) Cartilaginous flap
(4) Circular sphincter

15) The thoracic chamber is formed by

(1) dorsally by the vertebral column

(2) laterally by the ribs
(3) ventrally by the sternum
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 4 4 2 4 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 3 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2) use Sy = uyt –

⇒ θ = 30°

5)

if ℓ = length of each storey

t' = t3 – t1 = =

6)

7)

9)

Velocity on reaching the ground,

v2 = 2 × 9.8 × 100 = 1960 (ms–1)2
∴

Now,
Distance from the top:
= 1960/4
– u2 = 2 as
or 1960/4 = 2 × 9.8 × h
or h = = 25
∴ Height from the ground = 100 – 25 = 75 m

16)

t = 100 sec

applying relative motion

x = 20 m/s

17)

= 6.4 m
= 640 cm

20)
=5

22)

24) Average speed =

31)

Displacement = 8 – 4 + 4 = 8
Distance = 8 + 4 + 4 = 16

32) Let the ball reaches top of tower of height h at times t1 and t2 then t2 – t1 = 6 and t1 + t2 =
12.
Solving them : t1 = 3 s, t2 = 9 s.
Now height of tower:
 35)

CHEMISTRY

51)

1 molecule absorb 1 quantum of energy

given, 1.5 mole contains 1.5 × NA molecules
no. of quantum of energy used (1.5 × NA)
n = 1.5 × NA
E = nhν
= 1.5 × 6.02 × 1023 × 6.6 × 10–34 × 7.5 × 1014
= 446.98 × 103
E = 4.47 × 105 J

56)

= 1.324 × 10–35 m

57)

ΔE = Maxm energy → Minimum wavelength

59) (i) same Z → Isotopes

(ii) same A (p+n) → Isobars
(iii) same n → Isotones
(iv) same n – p → Isodiaphers
(v) same Z → Isotopes.
 71)

The electronic configuration of the Cu atom is

10 1
29Cu = [Ar] 3d 4s

Since, the outermost shell is 4s, thus outermost electron is in it.

For 4s1,

n = 4, l = 0, m = 0,

72)

Radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1
Total mole = n – 1
For 3s – n = 3, ℓ = 0
Radial nodes = 3 – 0 – 1 = 2
Total nodes = 3 – 1 = 2

73)

For Hydrogen atom energy depends on principal quantum no. ‘n’.

74)

Maximum no. of electrons having same value of spin quantum number is equal to the number of
orbitals.

80) Magnetic moment =

n = unpaired electron.

96)

97) Ans. (2)

Nitrogen Family

100)

80Hg-metal
35Br Nonmetal(ℓ)

BOTANY
 101)

NCERT Pg. # 134

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. #133

106) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 168

107) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 169

108)

NCERT Pg #168

109)

NCERT Pg #166

111)

NCERT-XI, Page No. # 5

114)

NCERT (Page. No: 4)

120)

NCERT, Page# 5

125)

NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 24

129)

Ncert Page 21.

130)

Ncert Page 23.

131)

Ncert Page 27.

142)

NCERT Pg. no. 20.

143) NCERT Page No. 21

 144)

NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 27

146)

147)

NCERT Pg no. 8

149)

NCERT Pg. # 162, 10.1

ZOOLOGY

152)

153)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 113

157)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 112, Ist Para

158)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 115, Ist Para

168)

NCERT XI Pg # 114

172)

NCERT Pg. # 119

173)

NCERT Pg No. # 81

175)

NCERT (Eng) Pg. # 120

178) NCERT Pg. # 118

183)
NCERT Page No. # 119

184)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 119

185)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 120

186)

NCERT XI Pg. # 111, 112 (E)

191)

NCERT Pg. # 119 Fig 7.21 (E)

195)

NCERT + Module

197) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 270