13-07-2025

6001CMD30303225002P MD

PHYSICS

1) A boat is sailing at a velocity with respect to ground and water in river is flowing with a
velocity . Relative velocity of the boat with respect to water is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2)

A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. With the same effort, he
throws the ball vertically upwards. The maximum height attained by the ball is :

(1) 100 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 50 m

3) An aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 216 km h–1 drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The total horizontal distance travelled by the packet is :

(1) 600 m
(2) 490 m
(3) 216 m
(4) 490 × 216 m

4) A river is flowing from the west to the east at 5 m/min. A swimmer on the southern bank can swim
at 10 m/min in still water. In what direction should he swim if He wishes to cross the river in
minimum time

(1) South to north

(2) North to south
(3) East to west
(4) West to east

5) Six persons of same mass travel with same speed u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that
each one always faces the other. After how what will they meet each other ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of m/s, from some height at t = 0. At what
time will its velocity make 60° angle with the initial velocity?

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2.5 sec

7) Match the Column.

If in ground to ground projection one particle is projected at an angle θ and other is at an angle (90 –
θ) with same speed from horizontal. Then:

Column I Column II

A. T1T2 P. 1

B. H1 + H2 Q.

C. R. tan2 θ

D. S.

(1) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R

(2) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

8) A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall 3 m height at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m
away from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at angles 30° and
60° with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of their ranges respectively is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 : 9
(2)
(3)
(4) 1 : 1

10) The figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank
the paths according to the initial horizontal velocity component, highest first

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 4, 1
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

11) If the time of flight of a projectile become double then maximum height attained will be :-

(1) Unchanged
(2) Halved
(3) Doubled
(4) Four times

12) A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions with the same initial velocity u. The
maximum area of ground covered by bullets is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times of its inital speed 'u' of projection. Its
range on the horizontal plane is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A motor cyclist is trying to jump across a path as shown by driving horizontally of a cliff A at
speed of 5 m/s. Ignore the air resistance and take g = 10 m/s2. The speed with which he touches the

peak B is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 25 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

15) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 25 m/s from the top of a tower of height 30
m. How long will it travel before it hits ground :

(1) 6 s
(2) 1 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s
16) A particle is projected with velocity m/s at an angle of 60° from a 20 m high building then
find out the speed with which it strikes the ground :

(1) 15 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

17) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

18) From the given displacement–time graph find out the velocity of a moving body.

(1)

(2) 3 m/s
(3) m/s

(4)
m/s

19) Find the displacement of the particle from following position-time graph:

(1) 200 m
(2) 0 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 100 m

20) In which of the following position-time graph velocity is decreasing :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following velocity-time graph represent uniform motion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity
of the particle is around the point :-

(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C

23) The distance-time graphs of the two particles P1 and P2 are shown in the adjoining figure. The

ratio of the distances covered by at any instant is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3

(3)

(4)

24) The variation of velocity of a particle moving along straight line is shown in figure. The average
velocity of the body in 4 seconds is :-

(1) zero
(2) 2.5 m/sec
(3) 10 m/sec
(4) 13.75 m/sec

25) The fig. shows the position time graph of a particle moving on a straight line path. What is the
magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds ?

(1) 2 ms–1
(2) 4 ms–1
(3) 6 ms–1
(4) 8 ms–1

26) Position-time graph of a particle in motion is shown. Then the average speed of particle in whole

motion :-

(1) 0 m/s
(2) 16.67 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 32 m/s

27) Figure shows the distance-time graph of the motion of a car. it follows from the graph that the
car is :

(1) at rest
(2) in uniform motion
(3) in non-uniform acceleration
(4) uniformly accelerated

28) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be :-

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 55 m/s
(3) 550 m/s
(4) 660 m/s

29) A balloon starts rising from rest with an accn of 1.5 m/s2. After 20 sec a man released a ball from
it. Calculate displacement of ball after 3 sec of releasing (t = 0 at the time of releasing) it :-

(1) 30 m downward
(2) 30 m upward
(3) 45 m downward
(4) 45 m upward

30) A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 12 m/s. The other half
of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is :

(1) 8.0 m/s

(2) 12.0 m/s
(3) 10.0 m/s
(4) 9.8 m/s

31) A person travels along a straight road for the first half time with a velocity v1 and the second half
time with a velocity v2. Then the mean velocity is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A boy goes from his house to market with 30 m/s and comes back to home from market with 60
m/s. His average speed for complete journey is :-

(1) 40 m/s
(2) 45 m/s
(3) 55 m/s
(4) 35 m/s

33)

The equation of shown sinusoidal graph is :-

(1) y = sinx
(2) y = 5sinx
(3) y = 10sinx
(4) y = 5sin2x

34) Which one is different among these :-

(1) Torque
(2) Force
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Momentum

35) A particle moves from (1, 1, 1) to (3, 4, 5). Then it's displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

37) Which of the following physical quantities is not an axial vector?

(1) angular velocity

(2) angular momentum
(3) velocity
(4) torque
38) If = 500 N & = 500 N then which statement is correct :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All above

39) Find the torque of a force acting at the point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40)

The area of parallelogram formed by two adjacent sides of and is (in square
units)-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 75

41) The component of along is :-

(1) 5

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

42) A parrot is flying parallel to a railway track at speed 18 km/h. A train is also moving on the track
opposite to bird with speed 15 m/s. If length of train is 200 m then time taken by the parrot to cross
the train is

(1) 40 s
(2) 20 s
(3) 25 s
(4) 10 s
43) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as =t+7 , then the:

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of the particle is proportional to t
(3) velocity of the particle is proportional to
(4) the particle moves with a variable acceleration

44) The horizontal range is 12 m and maximum height of the projectile is 4 m. Find velocity on
projection is

(1)
ms

(2)
ms

(3)
ms

(4)
ms

45) A lift is moving upwards with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a ball within the lift. The
acceleration of the ball as observed by man in lift and man standing stationary on the ground are
respectively:-

(1) g, g
(2) g+a, g
(3) g–a, g
(4) g+a, g+a

CHEMISTRY

1) Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given
acids :

(1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

(2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

2) Which of the following order is correct -

(1) Basic character : Li2O > Na2O > K2O > Cs2O
(2) Acidic character : Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < Cl2O7
(3) Acidic strength : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) Acidic character : N2O > NO2 > N2O5 > N2O3
3) Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of lanthanides ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

Correct order of first ionisation energy (IE1) are:

(1) B < Be < O < N < C < F

(2) Be < B < N < O < F < C
(3) B < Be < C < O < N < F
(4) Be < B < C < F < O < N

5) The I.P1, I.P2, I.P3, I.P4 and I.P5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be :

(1) Na
(2) Si
(3) F
(4) Ca

6) In which of the following process energy is liberated:-

(1) Cl → Cl+ + e
(2) HCl→ H+ + Cl–
(3) Cl + e → Cl–
(4) O– + e → O-2

7) Which one of the following order of given properties is correct ?

(1) Atomic radius - Li < Be < B

(2) Ionisation potential - Li < Be < B
(3) Electron affinity - Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity - Li < Be < B

8) Assertion : F atom has less electron affinity than Cl atom.

Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more strongly by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is correct for the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

9) Second electron gain enthalpy :

(1) Is always negative

(2) Is always positive
(3) Can be positive or negative
(4) Is always zero

10) The electron affinity values (in kJ mol–1) of three halogens X, Y and Z are respectively –349, –333
and –325. Then X, Y and Z are respectively :

(1) F2, Cl2 and Br2

(2) Cl2, F2 and Br2
(3) Cl2, Br2 and F2
(4) Br2, Cl2 and F2

11) The X–X bond length is 1.00 Å and C–C bond length is 1.54 Å. If EN of 'X' and 'C' are 3.0 and 2.0
respectively. The C-X bond length is likely to be :-

(1) 1.27 Å
(2) 1.38 Å
(3) 1.18 Å
(4) 1.08 Å

12) The value of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.2 and 4 respectively. The percentage ionic
character of A–B bond is :-
(1) 50.0%
(2) 43.0%
(3) 55.3%
(4) 72.2%

13) Which is the example of non-polar covalent bond formed between two different atoms :-

(1) Na–Cl
(2) P–H
(3) N–F
(4) H–Cl

14) Which of the following electronic configuration represent d-block element :

(1) 4f145d16s2
0
(2) 5f 6d27s2
(3) 5f146d27s2
(4) Both (2) and (3)

15) Group, period, block for Z = 82 is :-

(1) 14th, 6th, p-block

(2) 14th, 7th, p-block
(3) 16th, 6th, p-block
(4) 16th, 7th, d-block

16) The hybridisation and geometry of molecules are :

(1) and T shaped

(2) and tetragonal
(3) and bent
(4) none of these

17) The formal charges on the three O-atoms in O3 molecule are

(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, 0, –1
(3) 0, 0, +1
(4) 0, +1, –1

18) Which condition favours the bond formation:

(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential energy

(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) None of the above

19) Among the given pairs, which are iso-structural ?

– +
(1) CH3 and CH3
+ –
(2) NH4 and BH4
2–
(3) SO3 and BF3
–
(4) NH2 and BeF2

20) Assertion (A): The correct Lewis structure of O3 may be drawn as :

Reason (R): In O3, the formal charges on atom 1, 2 and 3 are +1, 0 and –1, respectively.

(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

21)

In a regular octahedsral molecule MX6, the number of X–M–X bonds at 180° is :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

22) Correct statement regarding this reaction

BF3 + NH3 → [F3B ← NH3]

(1) Hybridization of N is changed

(2) Hybridization of B is changed
(3) B–F bond length increases
(4) (2) & (3) both

23)

The correct order of increasing s-character in the hybrid orbitals of following molecule / ion is :
(I) CO32– (II) XeF4
–
(III) I3 (IV) NCl3
(V) BeCl2
(1) II < III < IV < I < V
(2) II < IV < III < V < I
(3) III < II < I < V < IV
(4) II < IV < III < I < IV

24) Hybridisation and shape of XeO3 is

(1) sp2 and Trigonal planar

(2) sp3 and Trigonal pyramidal
(3) sp3d and T-shape
(4) sp3d and See-saw

25) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) SeF4 (i) Trigonal bipyramidal

(b) BrF5 (ii) Square planar

(c) XeF4 (iii) Square pyramidal

(d) SbCl5 (iv) See-saw

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

26) In which of the following compound all the bond angles are equal?

(1) SF4
(2) CCl4
(3) CHCl3
(4) XeF6

27) The strongest bond is present in :-

(1) Br2
(2) I2
(3) Cl2
(4) F2

28)

NH3 and BF3 combine readily because of the formation of :-

(1) a covalent bond

(2) a hydrogen bond
(3) a coordinate bond
(4) an ionic bond

29) Which of the following order is correct for dipole moment?

(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I

(2) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3C > CH3I
(3) CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3I > CH3F
(4) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I

30) Select the correct statement regarding SO42– ion :-

(1) It is non-planar with sp3 hybridisation

(2) All s-o bond length are equal
(3) It has two pπ-dπ bonds
(4) All of these

31) Which one is a polar molecule ?

(1) XeF2
(2) SO3
(3) XeF4
(4) PH3

32) Which one of the following arrangements of molecule is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments:-

(1) BF3 > NH3 > NF3

(2) BF3 > NF3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > NF3 > BF3
(4) NH3 > BF3 > NF3

33)

Dipole moment of a diatomic molecule is 1.2 D. If its bond length is 1×10–8 cm what fraction of
charge exist on each atom :

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.3
34) Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole moment of :-

(1) 1.5 D
(2) 1D
(3) 2.35
(4) 3 D

35) Match column-I with column – II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II
(Molecules) (Property)

(P) IF7 (1) Planar and polar

(Q) SO2 (2) Non-planar and polar

(R) SF4 (3) Planar and nonpolar

(S) CS2 (4) Non-planar and non-polar

(1) P → 4 ; Q → 1 ; R → 2 ; S → 3
(2) P → 4 ; Q → 2 ; R → 1 ; S → 3
(3) P → 3 ; Q → 1 ; R → 2 ; S → 4
(4) P → 3 ; Q → 1 ; R → 4 ; S → 2

36) Which of the following compound has maximum viscocity :-

(1) CH3–O–CH3

(2)

(3) C2H5–OH

(4)

37) The correct order of boiling point is -

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(2) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(3) PH3 > AsH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
38)

In which of the following molecule, the shown hydrogen bond is not possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) As per M.O.T. two atomic orbital on overlapping produce :-

(1) Two new atomic orbital

(2) Two new molecular orbital
(3) One molecular orbital
(4) One hybrid orbital

40) How many nodal plane is present in σ*2s molecular orbital ?

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

41) In , O2 & number of antibonding electron's respectively are -

(1) 3, 2, 4
(2) 7, 6, 7
(3) 7, 6, 8
(4) 8, 6, 8

42) Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour ?

(1) NO
 2–
(2) O2
+
(3) O2
(4) O2

43) Which of the following is the correct order of stability ?

+ +
(1) H2 > H2 > He2 > He2
+ +
(2) H2 > He2 > H2 > He2
+ +
(3) H2 > H2 > He2 > He2
+ +
(4) H2 > He2 > He2 > He2

44) An ionic bond A+ B– is most likely to be formed when-

(1) the ionization energy of A is high and the electron affinity of B is low
(2) the ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high
(3) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is high
(4) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is low

45) As compared to covalent compounds electrovalent compounds generally possess -

(1) High m.p. and high b.p.

(2) Low m.p. and low b.p.
(3) Low m.p. and high b.p.
(4) high m.p. and low b.p.

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following class of algae do not have any motile gamete :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Pheophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

2) Which of the following plant group is known as vascular cryptogames

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm

3) Coralloid roots are associated with :-

(1) Cicer (Fungus)

(2) Pinus (Fungus)
(3) Cycas (Cyanobacteria)
(4) Pinus (BGA)

4) Chlorophyll-a, Chlorophyll-d and phycoerythrin are characteristics of :-

(1) Xanthophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae

5) Isogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in :-

(1) Chlamydomonas & Volvox

(2) Chlamydomonas & Sargassum
(3) Spirogyra & Ulothrix
(4) Volvox & Fucus

6) Pyrenoids are made up of protein & starch they are located:-

(1) In the chloroplast

(2) on the chloroplast
(3) In the cytoplasm
(4) In the thylakoid

7) Which of the following are members are flat bryophytes?

(1) Riccia and Anthocerose

(2) Riccia and Penicillium
(3) Sphagnum and Aspergillus
(4) Mangifera and Sphagnum

8) What is common between gametophytes of both moss and ferns ?

(1) Both are vascular

(2) Both are free living
(3) Both have sexual organs
(4) Both (2) & (3)

9) Choose the correct statement regarding gymnosperm -

(1) Seeds are developed pre-fertilization

Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after
(2)
fertilization
(3) They show double fertilization
(4) They form haploid endosperm after fertilization
10) Read the following characters :
(a) Asexual spore are absent
(b) Asexual reproduction by multicellular green vegetative bud
(c) Some members having peristomial teeth for spore dispersal
The above characters belongs to :

(1) Algae
(2) Pteriodophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Gymnosperm

11) Which one of the following statements is not true-

(1) All gametophytes are non vascular.

(2) Gymnosperm is the last group, which has antheridia.
(3) Archegonia are absent in Angiosperm
(4) Gymnosperms cone are just like, flower of angiosperm.

12) If the number of chromosomes of a megaspore mother cell of Pinus is 36, then what will be the
chromosome number of the cells of nucellus :-

(1) 72
(2) 36
(3) 48
(4) 18

13) Select the incorrect statement for gymnosperms:-

(1) Their root shows association with fungi & cyanobacteria

(2) They are primitive than angiosperm
(3) Some of them have motile male gamete
(4) Coniferales is most advanced group of gymnosperms

14) Double fertilization and presence of xylem vessels is the feature of :-

(1) Wolfia, Eucalyptus, Polytrichum.

(2) Wolfia, Eucalyptus, Cycas.
(3) Cycas, Polytrichum, Psilotum.
(4) Wheat, Rice, Gram

15)

Which of the following option indicate correct sequence of primitive to advance groups ?

(1) Pteridophyta → Bryophyta → Angiosperm → Gymnosperm

(2) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Cycadophyta → Coniferophyta
(3) Bryophyta → Algae → Angiosperm → Coniferales
(4) Algae → Bryophyta → Angiosperm → Coniferales

16) Which of the following is not common in Funaria and Selaginella ?

(1) Roots
(2) Archegonium
(3) Embryo
(4) Motile male gametes

17) Sporic meiosis is found in :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Funaria
(4) All of these

18)

The spore of homosporous pteridophytes germinates & produces :-

(1) Prothallus
(2) Sporogonium
(3) Sporophyte
(4) Megasporophyll

19) In mosses, the predominant stage of life cycle is :-

(1) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage sporophyte.
(2) The sporophytic green protonema and the green leafy stage.
(3) The gametophytic green protonema and the gametophytic leafy stage.
(4) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage gametophyte.

20) Which of the following is correct for pteridophytes showing the events which is precursor to the
seed habit?

(1) These are heterosporous

The female gametophytes in these plants are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable
(2)
periods.
(3) The development of zygotes into young embryos take place within the female gametophytes.
(4) All are correct

21) Thallus of brown algae is divided into three parts as .............. :-

(1) Foot, seta and capsule

(2) Lamina, stipe and holdfast
(3) Root, stem and leaf
(4) Rhizoid, Gemma cup and antheridia
22)
Choose the ploidy of gametophytic generation of A, B and C :-

(1) A-2n, B-2n, C-2n

(2) A-n, B-2n, C-n
(3) A-2n, B-n, C-2n
(4) A-n, B-n, C-n

23) Select the correct match

(1) Pteropsida – Equisetum

(2) Sphenopsida – Pteris
(3) Lycopsida – Selaginella
(4) Psilopsida – Dryopteris

24) A. Selaginella is advance among pteridophytes as it produces seeds B. Heterospory is found

in all members of pteropsida
C. Pinus leaves are monomorphic, pinnate compound and have sunken stomata as adaptation
against transpiration
D. Fern prothallus are non vascular and devoid of true roots

(1) A & D are incorrect

(2) A & B are correct
(3) A, B & D are incorrect
(4) Only D is correct

25) Pigments in Green Algae, Brown Algae and Red Algae are respectively :

(1) chl a, c ; chl a, b ; chl a, c

(2) chl a, b ; chl a, c ; chl a, d
(3) chl a, a ; chl a, d ; chl a, e
(4) chl a, c ; chl a, d ; chl a, b

26) Which of the following is diploid ?

(1) Prothallus of fern

(2) Endosperm in gymnosperms
(3) Protonema of mosses
(4) Spore mother cell

27) Few examples of the plants are given below :-

Anthoceros, Ulothrix, Laminaria, Fucus, Polytrichum, Gelidium, Pinus, Eucalyptus, Pteris and
Dryopteris
How many are non-vascular embryophytes :

(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Five

28) Well developed gametophyte and sporophyte is respectively found in :-

(1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes

(2) Gymnosperm and Bryophytes
(3) Angiosperm and Bryophytes
(4) Bryophytes and Angiosperms

29) Archegonia is present in :-

(1) Gnetum
(2) Capsella
(3) Welwitschia
(4) Ephedra

30) What is the unique feature of bryophytes ?

(1) Vascular bundles

(2) Medicinal importance
(3) Gametophyte is parasitic
(4) Sporophyte attached to gametophyte

31) Which of the following are seed producers (spermatophytes) :-

(1) Pinus & Neem

(2) Salvia & Salvinia
(3) Funaria & Ferns
(4) Riccia & Peepal

32) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) In gymnosperms sporophyte have an independent free-living existence.

The leaves of gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature humidity
(2)
and wind.
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is mainly carried by water
(4) The multicellular female gametophyte of gymnosperm is retained within mega-sporangium.

33) Select true statement from following :-

(1) All gymnosperms are homosporous and shows exogenous development

(2) Pinus is monoecious however most of the gymnosperms are dioecious
(3) Some angiosperms are homosporous
(4) Stamens are female sex organ of angiosperms
34) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) In ferns asexual reproduction takes place by green, multicellular buds called gemmae.
The sporophyte in bryophytes is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule and it is a free living
(2)
generation
Protonema is a green, creeping, branched and filamentous stage is mosses, which develops
(3)
directly from a spore.
(4) The liverworts have Peristomial teeth for spore dispersal.

35) In which of the following Zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately :-

(1) Blue green algae

(2) Bryophytes
(3) Green algae
(4) Euglenoids

36) The leaves of gymnosperms, are well adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind, because of which of the following features?

(1) Needle like leaves

(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken stomata
(4) All of these

37) Which is not a heterosporous plant :

(1) Mango
(2) Pinus
(3) Selaginella
(4) Marchantia

38) The group of plants represented by minimum number of species :-

(1) Algae
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

39) Archegoniate are :-

(1) Algae, bryophtya and pteridophyta

(2) Bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperm
(3) Bryophyta, pteridophyta, gymnosperm and angiosperm
(4) Pteridophyta, gymnosperm and angiosperm

40) How many plants in the list given below are the members of embryophytes :-
Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia, Polytrichum, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Funaria, Selaginella,
Equisetum.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

41) In the members of green algae the cell wall is double layered, inner cell wall is cellulosic while
outer cell wall is composed of :-

(1) Cutin
(2) Pectose
(3) Algin
(4) Lignin

42) In pteridophytes, sporophylls may form distinct compact structure called :-

(1) Sorus
(2) Cones or strobili
(3) Tropophyll
(4) Macrophyll

43) Arrange the following events in correct sequence regarding life cycle of a moss :-
(A) Spore dispersal (B) Fertilisation
(C) Filamentous stage (D) Gametogenesis
(E) Leafy stage

(1) A → E → B → C → D
(2) E → D → B → A → C
(3) B → C → D → E → A
(4) E → C → D → B → Α

44) Main differentiating characteristic between bryophytes and pteridophytes is :-

(1) Vascularisation
(2) Terrestrial habitat
(3) Requirement of water for fertilisation
(4) Independent gametophyte

45) In ferns, fertilization does not involves :

(1) Archegonia
(2) Water
(3) Pollen tube
(4) Flagellated anterozoids

46)
How many of the following reflexes from the list given below are concerned with medulla oblongata
?
sneezing reflex, vomiting reflex, knee jerk reflex, withdrawal reflex, coughing reflex, yawning reflex
:–

(1) six
(2) four
(3) three
(4) five

47) Broca's area is connected with :-

(1) Sensation of smell

(2) Learning and reasoning
(3) Speech
(4) Receiving impulse from eye

48) Which of the following neurotransmitter cause hyperpolarisation of post-syneptic membrane :-

(1) Acetyl choline

(2) Adrenaline
(3) Nor-Adrenaline
(4) Dopamine

49) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct option :-

Column -I Column-II

a Unipolar Neuron 1 Cerebral cortex

b Bipolar Neuron 2 Embryonic stage

c Multipolar neuron 3 Retina

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

50) Release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicle is triggered by :-

(1) Mg2+, Sr2+

(2) Fe, S
(3) Cl
(4) Ca2+

51) Schwann cells are found on :-

(1) Myelinated nerve fibres

(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cell body of neuron

52) Blood-brain barrier is formed by :-

(1) Oligodendrocyte
(2) Schwann cell
(3) Microglial cell
(4) Astrocyte

53) Association areas as

(1) Sensory in function

(2) Motor in function
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function
(4) Neurosecretory in function

54) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is :-

(1) Similar to chemical synapse

(2) Very similar to impulses conduction along single axon
(3) Very slow
(4) Depend upon neurotransmitters

55) Which part of hind brain consist of fibre tracts that interconnect different region of brain :

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Brain stem

56) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse in its resting condition, the axonal membrane is
nearly impermeable to :

(1) Na+
(2) K+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Cl–

57) The neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus are responsible for the ______ function.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank

(1) Exocrine
(2) Endocrine
(3) Protective
(4) Insulation

58) From the parts mentioned in the box, which ones are not a part of the forebrain ?

Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Corpora Quadrigemina

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

59) Both the cerebral hemispheres communicate with each other. This communication is possible
because of which of the following structure?

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) corpora quadrigemina

60) In resting condition the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a ___A___ while its inner
surface becomes ___B___ and therefore is ___C___.

A B C

Positive Negatively
(1) Depolarised
charge charged

Positive Negatively
(2) Polarised
charge charged

Negative Positively
(3) Polarised
charge charged

Negative Positively Hyper

(4)
charge charged polarised
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Select the option with the incorrect matching of the following structures with their location and
functions in our body.

Structure Location Function

Major co-ordinating centre for

(1) Thalamus Fore brain
sensory and motor signaling

Base of Regulate body temperature,

(2) Hypothalamus
diencephalon urge for eating and drinking
 Analysis of sound impulses
(3) Auditory cortex Cerebellum
and recognition of sound

Corpora Between
Receivers and integrate visual,
(4) quadrigemina hypothalamus
tactile and auditory inputs
(mid brain) and pons
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Assertion :- Electrical synapses are common in our nervous system.

Reason:- Electrical synapses allow slower impulse transmission than chemical synapses.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is correct and reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

63) Assertion : Myelinated nerve conduct impulse more quickly than unmyelinated nerves.
Reason : Myelinated nerves perform saltatory conduction.

If both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is a correct explantion of the
(1)
assertion
If both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is correct but the reason is not correct
(4) If the assertion is not correct but reason is correct

64) The nerve impulse is unidirectional as :

(1) Neurotransmitters are released by axonic end and not by dendrites

(2) Neurotransmitters are released both by axon and dendrites
(3) Dendron lacks cytoplasm
(4) Na+ channels are present only in cell body

65) Nissl's granules are absent in :-

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendron
(3) Axon
(4) Both (2) and (3)

66) Skeletal muscles are controlled by :-

(1) Sympathetic Nervous system

(2) Parasympathetic Nervous system
(3) Autonomic Nervous system
(4) Somatic Neural system

67) Myelin sheath is made up of :-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Salts

68) Which of the following is not a function of cerebellum ?

(1) Involuntary coordination of voluntary muscle

(2) Skillful movement after perfection
(3) Learning piano initially
(4) Body balancing and posture

69) Most sensitive part of neuron is ? :-

(1) Axon
(2) Axon hillock
(3) Dendron
(4) Cyton

70)
The flow of electric current on the inner surface of neuron will be :-

(1) From left to right

(2) From right to left
(3) There will be no current flow
(4) Direction is not certain

71) Inhibitory Neurotransmitter is

(1) Norepinephrine
(2) Epinephrine
(3) GABA
(4) All of them

72) Neurons are classified on the basis of

(1) Number of nucleus present in it

(2) Number of processes arising from the cell
(3) Number of dendrites present
(4) Number of axons present

73) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The origin of the nervous system is the ectodermal

(2) The speed of impulse transmission is inversely proportional to the diameter of the axon
High speed transmission is facilitated by saltatory propagation of the impulse at the nodes of
(3)
Ranvier
(4) Neurons have a resting potential across the cell membrane

74)

Find out the correct match

Column I Column II

A Dendron I Protein synthesis

B Nissl's granule II Saltatory conductions

C Neurofibril III Afferent part

D Myelinated Axon IV Efferent part

E Nerve fibres V Helps in internal conductions

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV, E-V
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-V
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II, E-IV

75) Following is the part of neuron of central nervous system, identify A,B,C :-

A = Sheath of schwann’s cell

(1) B = Node of Ranvier
C = Synaptic knob
A = Neurilemma
(2) B = Node of Ranvier
C = Synaptic knob
A = Sheath of oligodendrocyte
(3) B = Node of Ranvier
C = Synaptic knob
A = Neurilemma
(4) B = Node of Ranvier
C = Dendrites
76) Which of the following is not false about cerebral cortex ?

(1) It is made up of white matter.

(2) It is composed of cell bodies of neurons.
(3) It is very less convoluted part of cerebrum.
(4) It is very less developed in mammals.

77) During depolarisation when the action potential is reached, the charge inside is maximum
positive i.e. +30 to +45 mv. What will happen now at this particular moment ?

(1) Na+ VGC remains open and K+ VGC start opening

(2) Na+ VGC start closing and K+ VGC also remains closed.
(3) Na+ VGC start closing and K+ VGC start opening.
(4) Na+ VGC remains open and K+ VGC remains closed.

78) Myelinogenesis occurs on which part of neuron?

(1) Nissl's granules

(2) Dendron
(3) Axon
(4) Cyton

79) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord consist :–

(1) Multipolar neuron

(2) Bipolar neuron
(3) Unipolar neuron
(4) Pseudounipolar neuron

80) Assertion : Hypothalamus lies at the base of the cerebellum of brain which control many
important functions .
Reason : Hypothalamus contains a number of centres which control body temperature, urge for
eating and drinking.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is True
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

81) The cerebrum wraps around a structure called ............... which is major coordinating centre for
sensory & motor signalling.

(1) Epithalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Medulla
82) Which of the following function is not performed by hypothalamus ?

(1) Maintenance of osmotic concentration in body

(2) Thermoregulation of body
(3) Endocrine control
(4) Balance of body

83) Which of the following is not a function of parasympathetic nervous system :-

(1) Increase Peristalsis

(2) Constriction of Pupil
(3) Increase Micturition
(4) Increase Heart beat

84) Synaptic vesicles are found in –

(1) presynaptic neuron

(2) post synaptic neuron
(3) synaptic cleft
(4) none of these

85) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Medulla oblongata controls respiration and ardiovascular reflexes.

consists of fibre tracts that interconnect

(2) Limbic system
different regions of brain; controls movement.

production of releasing hormones and

(3) Hypothalamus
regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

band of fibers connecting left and right

(4) Corpus callosum
cerebral hemispheres.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) In cerebrum, auditory area occurs in

(1) Frontal lobe

(2) Parietal lobe
(3) Temporal lobe
(4) Occipital lobe.

87) Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood capillaries :

(1) Duramater of brain

(2) Piamater of spinal cord
(3) Epidermis of skin
(4) Epithelial lining of trachea

88)

Parkinson disease is a neurodegenerative disease, caused by deterioration of neurons. It is due to

deficiency of which neurotransmitter ?

(1) Acetyl choline

(2) Dopamine
(3) GABA
(4) Nor-epinephrine

89) The most abundant intracellular cation is:

(1) Ca++
(2) H+
(3) K+
(4) Na+

90) Minimum stimulus which is required to make action potential is known as ?

(1) Subthreshold stimulus

(2) Graded stimulus
(3) Threshold stimulus
(4) Nerve stimulus
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 3 2 1 3 4 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 4 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 1 4 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) =

2) Rmax = 2Hmax

3) = 60 m/s

s
x = uxt = 60 × 10 = 600 m

4)
(i) to cross in minimum time he should swin south to north.

5)

Alternative method: -

6)

7)
Conceptual.

8)

tanθ =

9)

10) Each path has same value of maximum height therefore initial vertical component of
velocity and time of flight is same for each path.
Horizontal range
R = u cosθ T, as T is same
4, 3, 2, 1

11)
T → 2T
H → H' = 4H

12)

area =

13) ⇒ θ = 60°

14)

speed =
 = ×10
=
=15

15)

∵ s = ut + at2 ∴ – 30 = 25 t – × 10 × t2
∴ t2 – 5t – 6 = 0 ∴ t = 6 sec

16)

30 m/s

17) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
• The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.

A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.

B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
1.For t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The slope of the line is constant.

B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be x0.Then,
 A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

18)

V = tan 60º = m/s

19) Displacement = 0
as initial & final position of object is same.

20)

Slope of x-t graph gives velocity

21)

Slope of velocity - time

graph gives velocity

velocity = uniform

22)

Slope at C is maximum

23)

24)

25) = 2ms–1

26) Average speed =

27) By Theory

28)

55 m/s

29)

v = u + at
v = 0 + 1.5 (20)
v = 30 m/s

S = 30 (3) – (10) (32)

S = 45 m upward

30) Average speed in last half = = 6 m/s

Average speed in total journey =

= 8 m/s

31)

32)

40 m/s

33)

y = 5sinx

34)

Moment of inertia

35) Question Explanation: To find displacement vector.

Concept: Subtraction of vector.
Formula: Displacement
Solution: A (1, 1, 1) & B (3, 4, 5)
Then displacement =
=
 ​

36) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

37) 1. Asking About: Axial vector.

2. Concept: Types of vector
3. Soln/ Explanation: Vector's having there direction along the axis is called axial vector.

38)

All above

39)

40)

41)

42)

10 s

43)

velocity of the particle is proportional to t

44) ms

45)

g+a, g

CHEMISTRY

46)
Explanation -

The question asks for the correct order of increasing acid strengths for the given series of
chlorine oxyacids.

Concept - oxy acids

Solutions -

The given acids are oxyacids of chlorine:

A. HOCl : Oxidation state of Cl = +1

B. HOClO : Oxidation state of Cl = +3

C. HOClO2 : Oxidation state of Cl = +5

D. HOClO3 : Oxidation state of Cl = +7

Therefore, the increasing order of oxidation states of chlorine in these acids is +1 < +3 < +5
< +7. Following the trend, the increasing order of acid strength should be:

HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3

Final Answer - Option (2)

47)

Acidic Nature ∝ O.S. of Non-Metal

48) Asking for: Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of
lanthanides
Concept: Lanthanide contraction, ionic radii, periodic trends.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the concept of lanthanide contraction.
Solution/Explanation:
1. Lanthanides: The lanthanide series consists of elements from lanthanum (La) to lutetium
(Lu).
2. Lanthanide Contraction: As we move across the lanthanide series, the effective nuclear
charge increases due to the poor shielding of 4f electrons. This leads to a gradual decrease in
the ionic radii of the L n^ 3- ions.
3. Trend: The size of L n3+ ions decreases from L a3+ Lu3+
4. Correct Graph: The graph that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La3+ to is the
correct representation. Ln3+
Analyzing the Options:
• Option 1: Shows an increase in ionic size, which is incorrect.
• Option 2: Shows a decrease in ionic size, which is correct.
• Option 3: Shows a linear increase in ionic size, which is incorrect,
 • Option 4: Shows a V-shaped trend, which is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct graph is the one that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La to
Lu
Answer:
Option: 2
.

49)

Question Explanation:-The question asks for the correct order of the first ionization energies
(IE₁) of elements.

Concept:- Ionization energy trend

Solution:

A. Ionization energy generally increases across a period (left to right) due to increasing
nuclear charge and decreasing atomic radius..

B. Electron configuration and stability also play a role:

A. N has a half-filled stable configuration (2p³), making it more stable and harder to
ionize compared to O (which has 2p⁴).

B. Be (2s²) is more stable and has a higher ionization energy than B (2s² 2p¹).

C. F has the highest ionization energy in this series due to its high electronegativity.

A. The correct order of first ionization energies is: B < Be < C < O < N < F.

Final Answer:- Option (3)

50)

Conceptual

51)

Cl + e → Cl–

52)

Electronegativity - Li < Be < B

 53)

Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

54)

Is always positive

55)

Cl2, F2 and Br2

56)

1.18 Å

57)

72.2%

58) Concept:

A. Covalent Bond: A chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.
B. Non-polar Covalent Bond: A covalent bond where electrons are shared equally between
atoms due to similar electronegativity.
C. Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons.
D. The difference in electronegativity difference is close to zero, the bond is non-polar.

Formula:

A. Electronegativity difference (ΔEN) = |EN(atom1)-ENatoms2|

Solution/Explanation:

A. Na-Cl:
A. sodium (Na) is a metal, and chlorine (Cl) is a nonmetal.
B. This forms an ionic bond due to a large electronegativity difference.
C. ΔEN is very large, so it an ionic bond
B. P-H:
A. ​Sodium (Na)​ is a metal, and chlorine (Cl) is a nonmetal.
B. This electronegativity difference is small, resulting in a nearly non-polar covalent bond.
C. ΔEN is very large, so it is an ionic bond
C. ​N-F:
A. Nitrogen (N) and fluorine (F) have a significant electronegativity difference.
B. This forms a polar covalent bond.
C. ΔEN is large, therefore polar covalent bond.​​
D. H-Cl:
A. ​Hydrogen (H) and chlorine (Cl) have a significant electronegativity difference.
B. This forms a polar covalent bond.
C. ΔEN is large, therefore polar covalent bond.
59)

5f146d27s2

60)

14th, 6th, p-block

61) and T shaped

62)

0, +1, –1

63) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about favours conditions for the bond formation

Concept:
This question is based on Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction.

Solution:
Lower potential energy state is more stable and a stranger attraction between atoms leads to a
more stable bond.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

64)

Explanation - The question asks: Which pair of molecules or ions possesses the same
molecular shape and arrangement of atoms?

Concept - (Geometry & arrangement of atoms of NH4+ and BH4–)

NH4+ and BH4- are isostructural (tetrahedral)

Final Answer - Option (2)

65)

Conceptual.
66)

Conceptual

67)

(2) & (3) both

68)

II < III < IV < I < V

69)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page 114

70)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page 121

71)

CCl4

72)

Cl2

73)

a coordinate bond

74)

CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I

75)

All of these

76) PH3 is pyramidal with one L.P.

77)

NH3 > NF3 > BF3

 78)

0.25

79)
∴ Given ans is 1.5 D

80)

Molecules Shape Planar Polar

IF7 Pentagonal bipyramid ✕ ✕

SO2 V-shape ✓ ✓

SF4 See-saw shape ✕ ✓

CS2 Linear ✓ ✕

81)

82)

BPt. order → BiH3 >SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3

83)

84)

Explanation

A. Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) describes the formation of molecular orbitals from
atomic orbitals.
 Concept

A. When atomic orbitals overlap, they combine to form a set of molecular orbitals. The
number of molecular orbitals formed is always equal to the number of atomic orbitals
that combine.

Answer option 2, (Two new molecular orbital).

85)

Conceptual

86) Explanation -
The question asks you to determine the number of antibonding electrons present in the
molecular orbitals of three oxygen species
Concept - (Number of antibonding electron in O2, O⊖2 & O22–)
O2- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 7

O2 : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)1 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 6

O22- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)2

A. Antibonding electrons: 8

Final Answer - Option (3)

87)

O22–

88) Explanation - The question asks: Arrange the given diatomic species in order of
decreasing stability based on their bond orders.

Concept - (Stability order based on bond order H2, H2+,He2 & He2+)
To determine the stability order, we need to consider the bond order of each species.

A. H2:
A. Electronic configuration: (σ1s)²
B. Bond order = (2 – 0) / 2 = 1
+
B. H2 :
A. Electronic configuration: (σ1s)¹
B. Bond order = (1 – 0) / 2 = 0.5
C. He2:
A. Electronic configuration: (σ1s)² (σ*1s)²
B. Bond order = (2 – 2) / 2 = 0 (unstable)
D. He2+:
 A. Electronic configuration: (σ1s)² (σ*1s)¹
B. Bond order = (2 – 1) / 2 = 0.5

Stability increases with bond order. Therefore, the order is:

H2 (1) > H2+ (0.5) = He2+ (0.5) > He2 (0)

Since H2+ and He2+ have the same bond order, we can look at the fact that H2+ has no inner
shell electrons, whereas He2+ has 2. H2+ is therefore more stable.

Thus, the correct order is:

H2 > H2+ > He2+ > He2

Final Answer - Option (3)

89)

the ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high

90)

High m.p. and high b.p.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Pg. # 27

92)

Pteridophyta

93) Coralloid roots are specialized roots found in Cycas, which have an association with
cyanobacteria (Blue-Green Algae - BGA) like Nostoc and Anabaena for nitrogen fixation.
Correct Answer: Cycas (Cyanobacteria)
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

94)

Rhodophyceae

95) NCERT XI, Page # 30

96)

In the chloroplast
97) NCERT XI, pg.# 35

98)

Both (2) & (3)

99) NCERT (XI) Pg # 38, 39

100)

Bryophyta

101)

Gymnosperm is the last group, which has antheridia.

102)

Conceptual

103)

Coniferales is most advanced group of gymnosperms

104)

Wheat, Rice, Gram

105)

Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Cycadophyta → Coniferophyta

106)

Roots

107) NCERT XIth Pg.#42

108)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

109) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 36 (para - 3.2.2)

110) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 38 para - 3.3

111) NCERT Pg No. # 33

112)

A-n, B-n, C-n

113)

Lycopsida – Selaginella

114)

Only D is correct

115)

chl a, b ; chl a, c ; chl a, d

116)

Spore mother cell

117) Anthoceros and polytrichum are non vascular embryophytes (bryophytes)

118)

Bryophytes and Angiosperms

119)

Ephedra

120) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 35

121)

Pinus & Neem

122)

Pollination in gymnosperms is mainly carried by water

123)

Pinus is monoecious however most of the gymnosperms are dioecious

124)

Protonema is a green, creeping, branched and filamentous stage is mosses, which develops
directly from a spore.

125)

Bryophytes

126)

All of these

127)

Marchantia

128)

Gymnosperms

129)

Bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperm

130)

Six

131)

Pectose

132) NCERT XI, Page # 36, Para-3.3

133) NCERT XI, Page # 36, Para-3.2.2

134) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 35,36

135)
Pollen tube

136)

four

137)

Speech

138)

Dopamine

139) Explanation: Since unipolar neurons are seen in embryos, bipolar neurons in the retina,
and multipolar neurons in the cerebral cortex, Option 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (a-2, b-3, c-1)

140) Ca2+

141)

The correct answer is: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Schwann cells are glial cells found in the peripheral nervous system. Their primary function
is to provide support and insulation to nerve fibers.
1. Myelinated nerve fibers: Schwann cells wrap around the axons to form the myelin sheath,
which enhances the speed of nerve impulse conduction.
2. Unmyelinated nerve fibers: Even in unmyelinated fibers, Schwann cells provide support
by surrounding multiple axons without forming a myelin sheath.
Thus, Schwann cells are found on both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers, making
option 3 correct.

142)

The correct answer is Option 4: Astrocyte.

Astrocytes are star-shaped glial cells that play a crucial role in forming the blood-brain
barrier. They create a tight seal between the blood vessels and the brain tissue, restricting the
passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain.

143)

Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function

144) NCERT XI, Pg. # 319

145) NCERT-XI, Page # 236

146)

Na+

147)

Endocrine

148)

One

149)

Corpus callosum

150) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 317

151) NCERT Pg. # 321

152)

If both assertion and reason are false

153)

If both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is a correct explantion of the
assertion

154)

Neurotransmitters are released by axonic end and not by dendrites

155) Question Explanation:

The question asks where Nissl's granules, which are important components of nerve cells, are
absent.
Explanation:
Nissl's granules are present in the cyton (cell body) and dendrites but are absent in the
axon and axon hillock.
Correct Answer: (3) Axon

156)
NCERT Pg. No. # 231

157)

Lipid

158) Learning piano initially

159)

Axon hillock

160)

From right to left

161)

GABA

162)

Number of processes arising from the cell

163)

The speed of impulse transmission is inversely proportional to the diameter of the axon

164)

A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II, E-IV

165)

A = Sheath of oligodendrocyte
B = Node of Ranvier
C = Synaptic knob

166)

It is composed of cell bodies of neurons.

167)

NCERT XI Pg. No. 234

 168)

Axon

169)

The correct answer is (4) Pseudounipolar neuron.

Understanding Dorsal Root Ganglia

A. Location: Dorsal root ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies located in the dorsal (back) root
of the spinal cord.
B. Function: They contain the sensory neurons that bring information from the periphery (body)
to the spinal cord.

170)

Assertion is false but reason is True

171) NCERT-XI, Pg # 321

172)

Balance of body

173)

Increase Heart beat

174)

presynaptic neuron

175)

Match the list

176) Temporal lobe

177)

Piamater of spinal cord

178)

Dopamine
179)

Refer NCERT

180)

Threshold stimulus