LIF101A – Sample question paper

Name

Roll No.

Date

Duration

Marks Obtained
Section - I 30 marks
Section - II 35 marks
Section - III 35 marks
Total 100 marks

Invigilator …………………………………..

Checked by ………………………………….

Codon Dictionary

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 OMR SHEET FOR SECTION-A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

• In section A, all questions carry 1 mark each.

• There is negative marking of 0.5 marks for each wrong answer.
• No marks shall be deducted for unattempted answer.

a b c d a b c d a b c d
1 11 21

a b c d a b c d a b c d
2 12 22

a b c d a b c d a b c d
3 13 23

a b c d a b c d a b c d
4 14 24

a b c d a b c d a b c d
5 15 25

a b c d a b c d a b c d
6 16 26

a b c d a b c d a b c d
7 17 27

a b c d a b c d a b c d
8 18 28

a b c d a b c d a b c d
9 19 29

a b c d a b c d a b c d
10 20 30

Correct: Incorrect: Un-attempted: Total Marks:

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 Section I (30 Marks)
1. If codons were 4 bases long, how many codons would exist in genetic code?
a. 256 b. 16 c. 24 d. 80

2. A cross has been made between two plants of genotypes AabbCcDd and AaBbCcdd. What is
the probability that the offspring will be of genotype aabbccdd?
a. 1/16 b. 1/64 c. 1/32 d. 1/128

3. Number of phenotypes in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross will be

a. 16 b. 8 c. 4 d. 9

4. Plasmid A and Plasmid B were digested with BamHI and analyzed by agarose gel
electrophoresis. If plasmid A gave two fragments and Plasmid B gave three fragments,
then which of the following inferences are correct?

P. Plasmid A has three sites and is circular

Q. Plasmid B has three sites and is circular
R. Plasmid A has two sites and is linear
S. Plasmid B has two sites and is linear.
a. P and S b. Q and R c. P and S d. Q and S
5. Which of the following sequences describes the general life cycle of a eukaryotic organism?

a. 1N →meiosis→ 2N →fertilization→ 1N
b. 2N→ meiosis →1N →fertilization →2N
c. 1N →mitosis→ 2N →fertilization →1N
d. 2N →mitosis→ 1N →fertilization →2N

6. How many chromatids are there in a cell during telophase of mitotic cell division of a
diploid cell?
a. n b. 2n c. 4n d. n/2

7. A species has 46 chromosomes in a cell. How many chromosomes are present during
metaphase of mitotic division and metaphase II of meiotic division respectively?

a. 46, 46 b. 92, 46 c. 92, 23 d. 46, 23

8. The numbers of mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from a single cell is
a. 7 b. 8 c.16 d.32

9. A 35 yr old male with hypercholesterolemia is found to have an LDL receptor protein that is
865 amino acids long, rather than the 840 amino acids found in the normal protein. Which of
the following point mutations is consistent with this abnormality?
a. UAG→UAC b. UAG→UAA c. GGA→ UGA d. AUC→ AUA

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10. What is the probability that a male will inherit an X-linked recessive gene from his father?
a. 0 b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%

11. The following pedigree shows inheritance of a given trait. The trait is:

a. autosomal dominant c. X linked dominant

b. autosomal recessive d. sex limited

12. Translation is a process which is:

a. unidirectional b. bidirectional c. multidirectional d. radial

13. Complementary bases of mRNA are present on tRNA at:

a. amino acid binding arm c. anticodon arm

b. ribosome binding arm d. DHU arm

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular RNA?

a. Contains uracil
b. Is single stranded
c. Is much shorter than DNA
d. Serves as template for its own synthesis

15. A genetic unit that codes for the amino acid sequence of a complete polypeptide chain is
most closely related to
a. an anticodon b. a promoter c. a gene d. a codon
16. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would be
expected in a kidney cell?
a.46 b.23 c.47 d.44

17. A locus is best defined as

a. An alternative form of a gene
b. The position of a gene on a chromosome
c. A cellular structure composed of DNA and protein
d. The place on a chromosome where spindle fibres attach

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18. If an individual of genotype AaBbCc are intercrossed, how many different phenotypes can
appear in the offspring?

a.3 b.6 c.8 d.16

19. A single nucleotide substitution (mutation) results in a shortened protein product.

1. The substitution introduced a stop codon.

2. The substitution introduced a missense mutation

3. The substitution introduced a nonsense mutation.

4. The substitution introduced a silent mutation

(a) Only 1 is correct

(b) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

(d) Both 1 and 2 are correct

20. Which of the following is not a method for gene transfer in bacteria?
a.Translocation c.Conjugation with Hfr transfer
b.Transformation d.Conjugation with an F’ cell

21. The type of gene regulation governing the lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I
gene product is best described as-

a. Positive, inducible c. Feedback inhibition

b. Negative, repressible d. Negative, inducible

22. The ability to taste the chemical phenylthiocarbamide is an autosomal dominant phenotype,
and the inability to taste it is recessive. If a taster woman with a nontaster father marries a taster
man who in a previous marriage had a nontaster daughter, what is the probability that their first
child will be a nontaster girl?
a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 1/8 d. 3/4

23. The form of genetic information used directly in protein synthesis is-
a.DNA b. mRNA c. rRNA d. cDNA
24. Red colored flower is dominant over white colored flower. A true breeding red flowered
male plant is crossed with a true breeding white flowered female plant. The F1 generation
gave pink colored flowers. After selfing the F1 progeny which of the following would be

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 most appropriate result for the F2 generation?

a. This phenomenon shows codominance

b. The phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio is 1:2:1
c. The phenotypic ration is 3:1 and genotypic ratio is 1:2:1.
d. None of the above

25. Which of the following is an enzyme used to form a phosphodiester bond in a nick between a
3’ end of one DNA chain and a 5’ end of another?
a. DNA polymerase c. DNA ligase
b. Restriction endonuclease d. S1 nuclease

26. The following four single stranded DNA molecules are mixed and allowed to re-nature after
heat treatment.

Which combination of single strands can form base pairing when re-natured together?
a. 1 mixed with 2 b. 1 mixed with 4 c. 3 mixed with 4 d. 3 mixed with 1

27. DNA is present in

a. nucleus only
b. nucleus, mitochondria and SER
c. nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplast
d. nucleus, mitochondria and RER

28. The genetic code is degenerated. Which of the following codons represents the principle of
degeneracy?

a. UAA and UAC c. AUG and AUA

b. CAU and CAC d. UUA and UUC

29. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder. Using "P" and "p" to represent the
alleles, what is the genotype of a phenylketonuric person?

a. PP b. Pp c,pp d.Pp or pp

30. A(n) is a piece of DNA with a group of genes that are transcribed together as
a unit.
a. Promoter b. repressor c. operator d. operon

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 Section II
Q1.Adouble-stranded DNA polynucleotide contains 80 thymidylic acid and 110 deoxyguanylic acid
residues. What is the total nucleotide number in this DNA fragment? (2marks)

Ans: 380 nucleotides

Q2. Dad 1 suspects that his children 1 and 2 are not his. He thus gets the DNA fingerprinting done for
him, his wife, his children and the neighbour (Dad 2). Given below is the result: (1+1=2 marks)

a.Who is the father of child 2?

Ans. DAD2

b.Who is the father of child 1?

Ans. DAD1

Q3.The following DNA sequence is transcribed into RNA, with the upper strand serving as the
template strand. (full marks will be awarded only if all bases are written correctly)

5’-ATGCTACAGTC-3’
3’-TACGATGTCAG-5’

What is the sequence of the resulting RNA? Label the 5’ and 3’ termini. (2 marks)

Ans. 3’- UACGAUGUCAG-5’

Q4. A genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an autosomal dominant gene. State whether each
of the statements that follows is true or false with regard to this disease. (0.5 x 4=2 marks)

a. Affected fathers have only affected children. FALSE

b. Affected mothers never have affected sons. false
c. If both parents are affected, all of their offspring have the disease. false
d. If a child has the disease, one of his or her grandparents also had the disease.
TRUE

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Q6. Parents with normal karyotypes have a daughter whose karyotype is XO (instead of XX). In
which parent did non-disjunction (meaning meiotic separation of the chromosomes, XX or XY)
occurred to yield the XO daughter? (This answer will be based on your theoretical
understanding of meiosis/ non-disjunction and not on actual factual knowledge. Thus arrive at
your answer logically and not based on memory) (1x2=2 marks)

a. Only mother b. Only father c. Either of the two

Q7. The substrates and products of two enzymes are shown in the diagram below. Name the
enzymes that catalyzed the reactions in A and B below? (1+1=2 marks)

Substrate Product

T-C-G-G-A-T-C-C-G T-C-G G-A-T-C-C-G

A
A-G-C-C-T-A-G-G-C A-G-C-C-T-A-G G-C

Break in sugar
phosphate backbone

5’------- -------------3’ 5’----------------------3’

B
3’----------------------5’ 3’----------------------5’

A. Restriction endonuclease B. DNA Ligase

Q8. In a DNA sequence, a protein change was seen as follows. What are the base changes that have
occurred due to mutation at the codon level? (1+1=2 marks)

i. Original: Gln-His-Ile-Glu-Lys Mutant: Gln-His-Met-Glu-Lys

Ans: AUU/AUA/AUC to AUG

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ii. Original: Ala-Val-Asn-Arg Mutant: Ala-Val-Ser-Arg

Ans: AAU to AGU or AAC to AGC

Q9. The following table lists the relative percentages of bases of nucleic acids isolated from
different species: (1x4=4 marks)

Species Adenine Guanine Thymine Cytosine Uracil

1 21 29 21 29 0
2 29 21 29 21 0
3 21 29 0 29 21
4 21 29 0 21 29

For each species, what type of nucleic acid (RNA versus DNA) is involved? Is it double or single
stranded?

Species Nucleic Acid Double/Single Stranded

1 DNA Double
2 DNA Double
3 RNA Double
4 RNA Single

Q10. Fill in the blanks of the following sentences. (1x3=3 marks)

a. The cellular organelle where translation takes place is termed as Ribosome .

b. An anticodon of sequence 3’-GUA-5’ will base-pair with a codon of sequence

5’ CAU 3’.

c. The sequence of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds and within which transcription
initiates is termed as Promoter .

Q 12. Indicate whether β-galactosidase and permease will be produced (mark by ‘+’ or ‘-‘)
in induced and non-induced conditions. (The superscript ‘+’ and ‘-‘on the symbols designate
normal and mutant alleles, while ‘S’ represents super-repressor allele, while ‘C’ represents
constitutively activated version of the operator) (1x6=6 marks)

Strain Non-induced Induced

β gal permease β gal permease
A I- P- /O+ Z+ Y+ I- P+ O+ Z- Y- + + + +
B I P O Z Y / I+ P-O+ Z- Y+
- + + + -
- - + +
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C Is P+ O+ Z+ Y- / I+ P+ O+ Z- Y+ - - - -
D I- P+ O+ Z+ Y+ / I+ P+ O+ Z- Y- - - + +
E I+ P+ Oc Z+ Y+ + + + +
F I- P+ Oc Z+ Y- + - + -

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