07-07-2024

9610ZMD801332240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Area of a circle is growing such that after t second, its area is given by A = 5t2 cm2. Rate of
increase of area at t = 2 sec is :-

(1) 5 cm2/sec
(2) 10 cm2/sec
(3) 20 cm2/sec
(4) 40 cm2/sec

2) Value of sin 15° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and ?

(1) cos–1(P/Q)
(2) cos–1(–P/Q)
(3) sin–1(P/Q)
(4) sin–1(–P/Q)

4) The resultant of & is . On reversing the vector , the resultant becomes . What is the
value of ?

(1) A2 + B2
(2) A2 – B2
(3) 2(A2 + B2)
(4) 2(A2 – B2)

5) Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 gm on the same balance. Each person
obtains a reading of exactly 7.32 gm for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the
balance that used is :
(1) Precise but not accurate
(2) neither accurate nor precise
(3) Accurate but not precise
(4) Both accurate and precise

6) Range of cosθ will be:-

(1) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 0
(2) 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ –1
(3) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1
(4) –∞ ≤ cos θ ≤ ∞

7) Value of is :-

(1) cos30°
(2) –cos30°
(3) sin30°
(4) zero

8) Evaluate the following integrals

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) –1
(4) 1

9)

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) x3 + 6
(4) 3

10) Value of sin 1° is approximately equal to:-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11)
Equation of given line can be :

(1) y =
y=
(2)

y=
(3)

y=
(4)

12)

If y = dx then find :-

(1) 3x2 + 2x +1

(2)
+x+c
3 2
(3) x +x + x + 1
(4) None

13) Which of the following function remain unchanged after differentiation or integration ?

(1) sin x
(2) tan x
(3) sec x
(4) ex

14) Value of tan(–60°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) If and . Which of the following is correct?

(1) and are equal vectors.
(2) and are perpendicular vectors.
(3) and are parallel vectors.
(4) The dot product of and is zero.

16) The magnitude of the vector is :-

(1) 3 units
(2) 4 units
(3)
(4) 5 units

17)

The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A vector points vertically downward and point towards east. The vectors product of is
:-

(1) zero
(2) Along west
(3) Along north
(4) Vertically upwards

19) A given vector , the angle between and y-axis is :-

(1) tan–1 3/2

(2) tan–1 2/3
(3) sin–1 2/3
(4) cos–1 2/3

20) A vector perpendicular to is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) The area of the parallelogram whose two adjacent sides are represented by the vectors
and is :-

(1) 14 units
(2) 7.5 units
(3) 10 units
(4) 5 units

22) If u1 & u2 are the units selected in two systems of units and n1 and n2 are their numerical values,
then:

(1) n1u2 = n2u1

(2)

(3) n1n2 = u1u2

(4) n1 – u1 = n2 – u2

23) Temperautre can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of :-

(1) Length and mass

(2) Mass and time
(3) Length, mass and time
(4) None of these

24)

The number of significant figures in 6.59 × 1014 kg is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 18

25) If radius of a solid sphere is r = 4.00 ± 0.10 cm. Find percentage error in its volume :

(1) 2.5
(2) 5.0
(3) 7.5
(4) 10.0

26) Dimensional formula of a physical quantity A is [M–1L3T–2]. The errors in measuring the quantities
M, L, T respectively, are 2 %, 3 %, 4 % . The maximum error that occur in measuring the quantity A
is :-
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 14
(4) 19

27) In S = a + bt + ct2, s is measured in metres and t seconds. The unit of C is :-

(1) ms–2
(2) m
(3) m–1
(4) None

28) Which one of the following is dimensional variable ?

(1) π
(2) Velocity
(3) Angle
(4) Gravitational constant

29) Which of the following is an fundamental quantity :

(1) Force
(2) Velocity
(3) Length
(4) Density

30) Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures :-

(1) 0.009
(2) 8.39 × 105
(3) 0.0006032
(4) 6.0032

31) Which of the following is incorrect statement ?

(1) Radian and steradian are supplementry units.

(2) Light year and lunar month are unit of time.
(3) Horse power and light year are practical units.
(4) Parsec is an unit of distance.

32) A physical quantity where percentage error in a,b,c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Then find out percentage error in P is :-

(1) 14%
(2) 10%
(3) 4%
(4) 7%

33) Least count of a screw gauge is 0.02 mm & it's pitch is 1 mm then number of divisions on
circular scale :-

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 150

34) In a vernier calliper N division of main scale coincided with (N + 2) division of vernier scale. If
one main scale division is 2mm, the least count of vernier calliper will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The dimensional formula for momentum will be :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
(2) [M1L3T–2]
(3) [M1L1T–1]
0
(4) [M L1T–2]

SECTION-B

1) (ex cosx) = ?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)

(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None

2) The vector component of vector along vector is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) If then angle between is :

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

4) Find dimension formula of ?

(1) M1L1T–3
(2) M1L2T–2
(3) M1L1T–2
(4) M2L1T–1

5) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
0 0
(A) (p) M L1T

0
(B) (q) M L1T–1

0
(C) (r) M L1T–1

1 1 –2
(D) (s) MLT

(1) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r

(2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(3) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
(4) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p

6) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

7) The sum of the series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For given graph slope will be –

(1) tan30°
(2) tan120°
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then magnitude of difference is

(1)
(2)
(3) 1/
(4)

10) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is :

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

11) The resultant of the given forces is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 8N
(4) 10N

12) If and magnitude of is 10 N, then find value of 'α'.

(1) 8
(2) –8
(3) 1 and 2 both
(4) None

13) When a steel sphere is heated, maximum percentage change will be observed in :-

(1) Radius
(2) Area
(3) Volume
(4) None of these

14) In a vernier callipers one main scale division is x unit and y division of vernier scale coincide
with (y-2) division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) While measuring diameter of a wire using a screw gauge the main scale reading is '7 mm' and
zero of circular scale is '35' divisions above the reference line. If the screw gauge has zero error of
(–0.003 cm), the correct diameter of the wire is (given least count = 0.001 cm)

(1) 0.735 cm
(2) 0.738 cm
(3) 0.732 cm
(4) 7.38 cm

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Consider the ground state of Cr atom, the number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum
numbers, ℓ = 1 and 2 are respectively :
(1) 16 and 5
(2) 12 and 5
(3) 16 and 4
(4) 12 and 4

2) For 37Rb which of the following set of quantum numbers are correct for valence electron :

(1)
5, 0, 0, +

(2)
5, 0, 1, –

(3)
5, 0, 1, +

(4)
5, 1, 1, +

3) Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element is -

(1) 92, 120, 90

(2) 92, 90, 146
(3) 92, 146, 92
(4) 92, 140, 90

4) If number of proton in X+2 is 17. Then number of electron in X–2 will be -

(1) 19
(2) 18
(3) 16
(4) 17

5) Which of the following pair is isodiaphers :-

(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

6) If the radius of the first bohr orbit is X,the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the third orbit
for H-atom is nearly:-

(1) 2πX
(2) 6πX
(3) 9X
(4) X/3
7) According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) How many electrons in an atom can have n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = –1 and s = +½

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

9)

Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(Sub shell) (Numbers of orbitals) (Azimuthal Quantum Number)

(A) d (p) 1 (i) 1

(B) f (q) 3 (ii) 2

(C) s (r) 5 (iii) 0

(D) p (s) 7 (iv) 3

(1) (A)-r-ii, (B)-s-iv, (C)-p-iii, (D)-q-i
(2) (A)-q-i, (B)-s-iv, (C)-p-iii, (D)-r-ii
(3) (A)-p-iii, (B)-s-iv, (C)-r-ii, (D)-q-i
(4) (A)-r-ii, (B)-p-iii, (C)-s-iv, (D)-q-i

10) Choose the correct statement

(1) Size of the s orbital: 4s > 3s > 2s > 1s

(2) Size of p orbital: 4p > 3p > 2p
(3) Size of p orbitals: 4p < 3p < 2p
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) Which set of quantum numbers is not possible ?

(1)
1, 0, 0,

(2)
1, 1, 0,
 1, 0, 0,
(3)

2, 1, –1,
(4)

12) The number of radial node present in 4d-orbital is

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

13) Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order of energy

A. n = 3, = 0, m = 0
B. n = 4, = 0, m = 0
C. n = 3, = 1, m = 0
D. n = 3, = 2, m = 1 The correct option for the order is :

(1) D >B > A >C

(2) B > D > C > A
(3) A > C > B > D
(4) D > B > C > A

14) The value of principal quantum number is 3. The number of its (i) subshell and (ii) orbitals would
be respectively.

(1) 3 and 5
(2) 3 and 7
(3) 3 and 9
(4) 2 and 5

15) Select the correct Statements from the following :

(A) Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
(B) The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg.
(C) All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
(D) Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) C, D and E only

(2) A and E only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) A,B and C only

16) Match the following column-I(types of nodes) with column -II(formula to calculate nodes)
 Column-I
Column-II
Types of
Formula to calculate nodes
nodes

(A) Angular
1.
nodes

(B)Total
number of 2.
nodes

(C) Number
of radial 3.
nodes
(1) A-1, B-3, C-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1

17) Frequency of radiation of wavelength

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Rutherford's gold foil experiment cannot explain the line spectrum of hydrogen atom.
Statement-II: Bohr's model of hydrogen atom contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

19) An isosters is :-

(1) and
(2) N2O3 and N2O4
(3) H2O and HNO3
(4) CaO and KF

20) The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is :-

(1) e, p, n, α
(2) n, p, e, α
(3) n, p, α, e
(4) n, α, p, e

21) The vapour density of gas A is four times that of B. If molecular mass of B is M, then molecular
mass of A is -

(1) M
(2) 4M

(3)

(4) 2M

22) The volume occupied by 4.4 gm of CO2 at STP will be :

(1) 22.4 lit

(2) 2.24 lit
(3) 0.224 lit
(4) 0.1 lit

23) If law of conservation of mass is to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of H2SO4
will produce 7.3 g of HCl and _________g of BaSO4.

(1) 11.65 g
(2) 23.3 g
(3) 25.5 g
(4) 30.6 g

24) 26 cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is:–
C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)

(1) 15 cc
(2) 10 cc
(3) 32 cc
(4) 52 cc

25) If Mw of Ca = 40, then calculate weight of 1.5 g atom of Ca.

(1) 60 gm
(2) 40 gm
(3) 1.5 gm
(4) 6.0 gm

26) Which of the following will contain maximum number of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 16 g O2
(2) 16 g O3
(3) 88 g CO2
(4) 64 g SO2

27) Statement-1 : In all physical and chemical changes, mass remains conserved.
Statement-2 : When gases react together, they always do so in volumes which bear a simple ratio
to one another and to the volumes of products if they are also gaseous, when all measurement are
made under same conditions of temperature and pressure.

(1) Only Statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 is correct.
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 is incorrect.

28) One gram-molecule of N2 will not equal to :

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecule

(2) 22.4 lit of N2 at STP
(3) 11.2 lit of N2 at STP
(4) 28 gm of N2

29) The number of moles in 224 ml of a gas at STP is :-

(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.1 mol
(3) 0.0001 mol
(4) 0.01 mol

30) The reaction, 2C + O2 → 2CO2 is carried out by taking 24 g carbon and 96 g O2. Which one is
limiting reagent:

(1) C
(2) O
(3) CO2
(4) None of these

31) The molarity of the solution containing 4g NaOH dissolved in 200 ml of the solution is:-

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 1 M
(3) 0.5 M
(4) 5 M

32) The mass of 1atom of sodium is -

(1) 23 amu
(2)
gm
(3) 23 × 1.67 × 10–24gm
(4) All of these

33) If vapour density of a gas is 8 then the gas would be -

(1) NH3
(2) O2
(3) CH4
(4) CO2

34) How many mole contains 30.1 × 1023 molecules :

(1) 2 mol
(2) 3 mol
(3) 5 mol
(4) 4 mol

35) Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect ?

(1) A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.

(2) A compound can be chemically separated into its constituent elements.
(3) A compound contains atoms of same type only.
(4) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.

SECTION-B

1) Magnetic moment of Xn+ (Z = 26) is B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons and value of n
respectively are :

(1) 4, 2
(2) 2, 4
(3) 3, 1
(4) 0, 2

2) Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1. The energy of first stationary state (n =1) of Li+2 is
:-

(1) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1

(2) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
(3) –2.20 × 10–15 J atom–1
(4) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1

3) 0.5 g particle has 2 × 10–5 m uncertainty in position find the uncertainty in its velocity (m/s)
(1) 3.0 × 1033
(2) 5.27 × 10–27
(3) 4 × 10–30
(4) 4 × 10–10

4) A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of
wavelengths λ1 and λ2 respectively. The wavelength λ is related with λ1 and λ2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in Lyman series is λ. The longest wavelength in
Balmer series of He+ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Numbers of electrons present in 3.6 mg are:-

(1) 1.2 × 1021

(2) 1.2 × 1020
(3) 1.2 × 1022
(4) 2 × 10–3

7) Relative density of a volatile substance with respect to CH4 is 4. Its molecular weight would be:

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 128

8) The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic
mass of Ca = 40)
[CaCO3 CaO + CO2]
(1) 1.76 g
(2) 2.64 g
(3) 1.32 g
(4) 1.12 g

9) In a compound, A(Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and B (Atomic weight = 37.5) is 75% by weight.
The Empirical formula of the compound is

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) A2B2
(4) A2B3

10) The number of litres of air required to burn 8 litres of C2H2 under similar conditions is
approximately-

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

11) 9 g of Al will react, with

2Al + O2 → Al2 O3

(1) 6 g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

12) A 5 litre mixture of CH4 & C3H6 is completely burn in excess of oxygen and 7 litre of CO2 is
produced then find the original composition of CH4 & C3H6 in the mixture

(1) 2 litre & 3 litre

(2) 4 litre & 1 litre
(3) 44 litre & 4 litre
(4) 2.5 litre & 2.5 litre

13) Assertion : A compound contains 3.2% oxygen by mass, then minimum molecular mass of the
compound is 500.
Reason : For minimum molecular mass of the compound, it must have one atom of that element.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
14) 10 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 ml of CO2(g) and 50 ml of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

15) From 176 gram of CO2, if 1.5 × 1024 molecules are removed then calculate number of moles of
CO2 left.

(1) 4
(2) 1.2
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which is incorrect about frog ?

(1) Food is captured by bilobed tongue.

(2) A triangular structure called conus arteriosus.
(3) Frogs respire on land and in the water by two different methods.
(4) In conus arteriosus ventricle are open.

2)

(1) A - Oviduct, B - Cloaca, C - Ureter, D - Ova

(2) A - Cloacal aperture, B - cloaca, C - ureter, D - ova
(3) A - Cloaca, B - Oviduct, C - Ureter, D - Ova
(4) A - Oviduct, B - Ureter, C - Cloaca, D - Ova

3) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A Summer sleep i Hibernation

B Winter sleep ii Protect while in water

C Copulatory pad iii Absent in female

D Nictitating membrane iv Aestivation

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iv i iii

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iv i iii ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) (i) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.

(ii) In some countries the muscular legs of frog are used as food by man.
(iii) RBC are enucleated and contain red coloured pigment namely haemoglobin in frog.
(iv) The vascular system of frog is well developed open type.
How many statements are incorrect about frog ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Statement-I : The nervous system is organised into a central and a peripheral nervous system.
Statement-II : Brain is enclosed in a cartilaginous structure called brain box (Cranium).

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

6) Assertion :- Forebrain includes olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and unpaired
diencephalon.
Reason :- Midbrain is characterised by a pair of optic lobes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.

7) Hind brain consists of _______ and _______ .

Fill in the blanks .

(1) Cerebellum, medulla

(2) Medulla, optic lobes
(3) Cerebellum, diencephalon
(4) Diencephalon, cerebral hemisphere

8) Which structure are joined by tendons?

(1) Skeletal muscles to ligaments

(2) Bone to bone
(3) Bone to ligaments
(4) Skeletal muscles to bone

9) Smooth muscles are

(1) Involuntary
(2) Unstriated
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Striped

10) Consider the following figure and choose the correct option.

Dense regular connective Joint skeletal

(1) Tendon
tissue muscle to bone

Dense irregular Joint bone to

(2) Ligament
connective tissue bone

Dense irregular Collagen fibre

(3) Present in skin
connective tissue oriented regularly
 Dense irregular Collagen fibre
(4) Present in skin
connective tissue oriented differently
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(i) Chondrocytes (a) Bone cells

(ii) Cardiac muscle (b) Fusiform

(iii) Smooth muscle (c) Fluid connective tissue

(iv) Osteocytes (d) Cartilage cells

(v) WBC (e) Intercalated discs

(1) i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-c, v-a
(2) i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
(3) i-a, ii-e, iii-b, iv-d, v-c
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-d, v-c

12) Choose the correct statement :

In cardiac muscles communication junctions at all fusion point allow the cells to contract as a
(1)
unit
(2) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid and non-pliable.
(3) Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body.
(4) The bone marrow in all bones is the site of production of blood cells.

13) Which of the following statement is/are not incorrect.

A. All cells of connective tissue secrete fibres of structural proteins.
B. Areolar tissue present beneath the skin.
C. Myofibrils are long, cylindrical and branched fibres.
D. Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.
E. Bones have a hard and pliable ground substances

(1) A, C and E
(2) B, D and E
(3) B and D only
(4) A B and D

14) Given below are two statements.

Statement I : Cartilage and bone are both structural materials.
Statement II : Connective tissue covers all three types of tissues.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct, but statement I is incorrect

15) Given below are two statement.

Statement I : In blood cells use to secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
Statement II : Smooth muscle is the component of internal organs.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

16) Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of compound epithelium?

(1) Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(2) Main role in secretion and absorption.
(3) Cover the dry surface of skin, pharynx.
(4) It is made of more than one layer of cells.

17) Match the List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

For rapid transfer of ions, small molecules & sometimes

A i Endocrine glands
big molecules.

B Stop substances from leaking across a tissue. ii Adhering junctions

C Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. iii Gap junctions

Hormones are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the

D iv Tight junctions
gland.

v Exocrine glands

A B C D

(1) iii iv ii v

(2) ii iv iii i

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) ii iii iv v
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Assertion :- Ciliated epithelium mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
fallopian tube & bronchioles.
Reason :- Cilia help in absorption and secretion.

(1) Both assertion and reason are false.

(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

19) Statement-I :- Epithelia are sheet like tissues lining the body's surface & its cavities, ducts and
tubes.
Statement-II :- Epithelia cells are structurally & functionally connected at junctions.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

20) Identity the figure (P & Q) :-

Q → Goblet cells of the alimentary canal

(1)
P → Consisting cluster of cells (Salivary gland)
Q → Consisting cluster of cells
(2)
P → Goblet cells of the alimentary canal
(3) Q → Multicellular, P → Unicellular
(4) Q → Digestive enzyme, P → Goblet cells

21) The mouth parts of cockroach contain -

(1) Two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum, labium and hypopharynx

(2) Two mandibles and maxillae each, two labrum and labium each
(3) One mandible and maxilla each, labarum and hypopharynx
(4) One mandible, labarum, labium and hypopharynx

22) Refer to the given diagram of cockroach’s alimentary canal:

Which of the following options represent correct name and characteristic of labelled structures?

(1) A – Gizzard – Food grinding structure

(2) B – Ileum – Food absorption
(3) C – Hepatic ceca – Secretary digestive juices
(4) D – Malpighian tubules – 6–8 blind tubules

23) How many organs are sensory structure in cockroach?

Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, labial palps, anal cerci, ocellus

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Six

24) Statement I : The organisation of prokaryotic cell is fundamentally similar even though
prokaryotes exhibit wide varity of shape and function.
Statement II : The shape of cell may vary with the function they perform.

(1) Both statement I, and statement II are wrong.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is wrong.
(3) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
(4) Both statement I, and statement II are correct.

25) Statement I : Flagella are extensions of cell wall in motile and non-motile bacteria.
Statement II : Filament in the flagellum is the longest part which extend from cell surface to
outside.

(1) Both statement I, and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I, and statement II are wrong.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is wrong
(4) Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct
26) Statement I : The transportation of ions across the plasma membrane is facilitate by polar lipid
layer.
Statement II : Middle lamella is a layer of calcium pectate that glues different neighbouring cell of
muscle for providing extra support.

(1) Both statement I, and statement II are wrong.

(2) Both statement I, and statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is wrong.
(4) Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.

27) Match the column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(i) 70S (a) Decide the plane of division in animal cell.

(ii) Axoneme (b) Prokaryotes

(iii) Centrosome (c) Core of cilium

(iv) Mesophyll (d) 20-40 chloroplast

(e) Core of centrioles

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-e, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

28) In this figure A,B,C,D represents.

(1) A-Peripheral protein, B-Sugar, C-Cholesterol, D-Phospholipid layer

(2) A-Sugar, B-Peripheral protein, C-Cholesterol, D-Phospholipid layer
(3) A-Cholesterol, B-Peripheral protein, C-Sugar, D-Phospholipid layer
(4) A-Cholesterol, B-Phospholipid layer, C-Sugar, D-Phospholipid layer

29) Assertion (A) : The ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity.
Reason (R) :The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall
bilayer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

30) How many organelles among them are surrounded by single membrane. i.e. Nucleolus,
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgibody, mitochondria, Nucleus, Ribosome, Plastid.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

31) In chloroplast, a number of organised flattened membranous sac called the _______are present in
_______ .

(1) Grana, Stroma

(2) Thylakoid, Stroma
(3) Oxysome, Matrix
(4) Grana, Matrix

32) Centrosome present in animal cells are surrounded by ________material.

(1) Homogenous pericentriolar

(2) Heterogenous pericentriolar
(3) Morphous pericentriolar
(4) Amorphous pericentriolar

33) Peripheral microtubules in cilium are of nature of :-

(1) Singlet
(2) Doublet
(3) Triplet
(4) Siglet with proteinaeous

34) Among them which option contains organelle of double membrane bounded.

(1) Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Lysosome, Peroxisomes

(2) Peroxisomes, Nucleus, Chloroplast, Mitochondria
(3) Nucleolus, Mitochondria, Chloroplast
(4) Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Nucleus

35) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a Power house of cell i Cilia

 b Basic dye ii Chromatin

c Work like oars iii Indirectly measure of density and size

d Svedberg's unit iv Mitochondria

a b c d

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) iv ii i iii

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iv i ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

a Ovarioles i Opening of ejaculatory duct

b Gonopore ii Chain of developing ova

c Phallometer iii Bundles of sperms

d Spermatophore iv External genitalia

Select the correct option :-

a b c d

(1) iii ii i iv

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) i iv iii ii

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) How many of the following substances are secreted by exocrine glands?

Earwax, Oil, Saliva, Prolactin, Thyroxine, Insulin, Mucus
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All of these

3) Forewings and hindwings in cockroaches arises from :

(1) Mesothorax and metathorax

(2) Prothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Prothorax and metathorax

4) Isolated lysosomal vesicles contain hydrolytic enzyme like proteases, lipases, amylase etc. it will
digest.

(1) All types of micromolecule

(2) All types of macromolecule
(3) All types of both micro molecules and macro-molecules
(4) Molecules of neighbour host cell

5) Human cheek cells has outer membrane as delimiting structure of cell, inside a cell the dense
membrane bound structure is called :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Nucleus
(4) Chromosome

6) Cytoskeleton is an elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structure perform the function

of :-

(1) Mechanical support

(2) Motility
(3) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(4) All of these

7) Variations in amino acid depend on -

(1) Side group

(2) Complexity of cell
(3) Amine group
(4) Carboxylic group

8) Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of -

(1) Allosteric modulator

(2) Catalytic activator
(3) Non competitive inhibitor
(4) Competitive inhibitor

9) When two or more organs perform a common function by their physical and or chemical
interaction, they together form _________?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Heart
(3) Digestive system
(4) Tissue

10) Assertion :- Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body.
Reason :- This tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.

(1) Both assertion and reason true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

11) The hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cell
was propose by :-

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Both Schleiden and Schwann
(4) Rudolf Virchow

12) The enzyme has accelerated the reaction rate of about how many times?

(1) 10 Million
(2) 10 Billion
(3) 10 Trillion
(4) 10,000 Time

13) Squamous epithelium is distinguished from cuboidal or columnar epithelium by its.

(1) Secretion
(2) Absorption
(3) Basement membrane
(4) Forming a diffusion boundary

14) Match the column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(a) Chromatin (i) Present in only plant cell

 Loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein
(b) Centromere (ii)
fibres.

(c) metacentric (iii) Equal arm ratio

(d) Kinetochore (iv) Primary constriction

(e) Microbodies (v) Disc shaped structure

(vi) Minute vesicle bounded by membrane.

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-vi
(2) a-v, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-v, e-vi
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-v, e-vi

15) Select the mismatch option from column I and column II :-

Column I Column II

(i) SER (a) Lack 80S ribosome

(ii) Forming face (b) Convex face

(iii) Division by fission (c) Mitochondria, Ribosome

(iv) Amyloplast (d) Fat store

(1) i-a, iv-d
(2) iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-a, ii-b
(4) iii-c, iv-d

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Fat soluble carotenoid pigments like carotene, xanthophylls etc. are present in :-

(1) Chromoplsats
(2) Chloroplasts
(3) Elaioplasts
(4) Aleuroplasts

2) Read the following statements :-

(i) Cell membrane is mainly composed of lipids and protein.
(ii) Major lipids are phospholipids that are arranged in a bilayer.
(iii) Lipids has polar head and hydrophobic tail.
(iv) Cell membrane also contains cholesterol.
How many statements are correct among them.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Four

3) Statement-I : Collagen is most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere.

Statement-II : RuBisCO is most abundant protein in animal world.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

4) At isoelectric point, Amino acid moves towards -

(1) Anode
(2) Cathode
(3) Neither towards cathode nor towards anode.
(4) Either towards cathode or anode.

5) Which of the following is considered as secondary metabolites?

(1) Lemon grass oil and collagen

(2) Vinblastine and curcumin.
(3) Codeine and trypsin
(4) Cellulose and lecithin

6) In a peptide chain 6 amino acids are present and molecular weight of one amino acids is 60.
Then calculate the molecular weight of this peptide chain.

(1) 360
(2) 252
(3) 270
(4) 354

7) (A) Primary structure of protein is most unstable.

(B) In proteins, only right handed helices are observed.
(C) Tertiary structure gives 3-dimensional view of protein.
(D) Quaternary structure of protein is most stable.
Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect.

(1) Only (A)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) None of the above

8) Fatty acids are linked with glycerol by _____(A)_____. Two amino acids are linked
by _____(B)_____ in peptide chain.
In polysaccharides, monosaccharides are linked together by _____(C)_____.

(1) (A) - Ester bond, (B) - Peptide bond, (C) - Glycoside bond
(2) (A) - Ether bond, (B) - Peptide bond, (C) - Glycoside bond
(3) (A) - Diester bond, (B) - Peptide bond, (C) - Glycoside bond
(4) (A) - Ester bond, (B) - Peptide bond, (C) - Disulphide bond

9) Catalytic activity is lost when the ______ is removed from the enzyme.

(1) Co-factor
(2) Co-enzymes
(3) Apoenzyme
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) Match the columns and find out the correct combination :-

Proteinaceous amino acid R-group

a Serine i Hydrogen

b Glycine ii Hydroxy methyl

c Alanine iii Methyl group

a b c

(1) iii i ii

(2) ii iii i

(3) i ii iii

(4) ii i iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match the columns and find out the correct combinations.

(a) Alkaloids i Concanavalin A

(b) Toxin ii Curcumin

(c) Drugs iii Ricin

(d) Lectins iv Codeine

(e) Terpenoids v Diterpenes

 a b c d e

(1) iii iv ii i v

(2) ii v iv iii i

(3) i ii iii v iv

(4) iv iii ii i v

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) is the general formula of amino acid.

Here R stands for :-

(1) An amino acid

(2) A carboxylic group
(3) A variable group
(4) A hydroxyl group

13) What is the percentage of calcium, present in earth's crust and human body?

(1) 3.6 and 1.5

(2) 2.8 and 0.2
(3) 3.6 and 2.8
(4) 2.8 and 0.3

14) How many hydrogen bond's are present between guanine and cytosine?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

15) Find the correct statement :-

(1) Biomacromolecules are found in the acid soluble fraction.

The compounds found in the acid soluble pool have a common feature i.e., molecular weigh
(2)
ranging from 18 to 800 daltons.
(3) Acid insoluble pool represents cytoplasmic composition only.
(4) Acid soluble pool is due to macromolecules from cytoplasm and cell organelles.

16) Plant cell wall are made up of ?

(1) Homopolymer of fructose

(2) Heteropolymer of glycogen
(3) Homopolymer of glucose
(4) Homopolymer of glycogen

17) Incorrect statement is :-

(1) All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissue can be called biomolecules.
Some animal tissue especially the neural tissue have lipids with relatively more complex
(2)
structures.
Glycerols, monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides are called fats or oils based on melting
(3)
points.
A particular property of amino acid is the ionizable nature of -NH2 and -COOH group, hence in
(4)
solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes.

18) Which structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of protein?

(1) Primary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quaternary structure

19) _____________is a reservoir of stored energy.

(1) Adipocytes
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Neuroglia

20) Which structure of frog helps in swimming?

(1) Webbed digits

(2) Tympanum
(3) Nictitating membrane
(4) Skin

21) Assertion :- Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Reason :- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed by glycoside linkage between C-1 of α-glucose and C-2
of β-fructose.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

22) Read the following statements & choose the set of correct statements :-
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more C = C bonds.
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in water.
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) (A), (B) and (D)

(2) (A), (B), (C) only
(3) (A), (D), (E) only
(4) (C), (D), (E) only

23) It is said that elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate objects (like
earth's crust) are similar in the sense that all of the major elements are present in both. Then what
would be the difference between these two groups?
Choose a correct answer from among the following :-

(1) Living organism have more gold in then than inanimate objects.
(2) Living organism have more water in their body than inanimate objects.
Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate
(3)
objects,
(4) Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects.

24) Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion and other is labelled as Reason.
Assertion (A) : Cardiac muscle cell contract as a unit.
Reason (R) : Intervertebral disc is present between the adjacent cardiac muscle cells.

(1) A and R both are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true, but R is false.
(3) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false, but R is true.

25) Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries.
(B) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution.
(C) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal of male cockroach.
(D) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of female cockroach.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
26) Assertion : A pair of thread like antenae lying in front of eyes in cockroach.
Reason : the sense organs are antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, labial palps, anal cerci, etc.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) How many statements are correct among them.

(a) Resistance in bacteria is due to the small circular DNA.
(b) Glycocalyx has uniform composition and thickness among different bacteria.
(c) Mesosome is the extensions of plasma membrane outside of cell.
(d) All eukaryotic cells are not identical.

(1) Only d
(2) a, d
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c

28) The inner compartment is filled with substance called matrix in mitochondria, with respect to it
read the following statements.
(i) Matrix has enzymes for aerobic respiration.
(ii) It contains the circular DNA.
(iii) ATP is synthesis inside the matrix.
(iv) It has ribosomes type which is present in stroma of chloroplast.
Among them how many statements are not incorrect.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

29) Identify A, B, C, D.

(1) Leucoplast, Chloroplasts, Aleuroplast, Elaioplast

(2) Chloroplasts, Leucoplast, Aleuroplast, Elaioplast
(3) Chloroplast, Leucoplast, Elaloplast, Aleuroplast
(4) Leucoplast, Chloroplast, Elaioplast, Aleuroplast

30) How many statements are incorrect?

(A) A protein is imagined as a line, the right end represented by the first amino acid and the left end
represented by the last amino acid.
(B) Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a protein.
(C) The long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball to give rise to the secondary
structure.
(D) Adult human haemoglobin consist of 4 subunits.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

31) Which of the following type of tissue is being described on the basis of given statement?
(i) It have one free surface facing a body fluid or the outside environment.
(ii) The cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Specialised junctions provide both structural & functional links between its individual cells.

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Cuboidal tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Compound tissue

32) Statement-I : Algae have cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like
calcium carbonate.
Statement-II : Secondary cell wall form outer side of primary cell wall toward middle lamella.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

33) If percentage of adenine in double stranded DNA is 17%, then calculate the percentage of
cytosine.

(1) 33%
(2) 66%
(3) 17%
(4) 83%

34) Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S, S refers to :-

(1) Svedberg unit

(2) Smallest unit
(3) Smooth
(4) Speed

35) A single unit membrane organelle is :-

(1) Ribosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosome

SECTION-B

1) In human beings the membrane of erythrocytes has approximately _____% protein and _____%
lipid.

(1) 40, 52
(2) 40, 60
(3) 52, 40
(4) 58, 40

2) Assertion (A) : Cell wall gives the shape to the cell and protect the cell from mechanical damage
and infection.
Reason (R) : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of lipid.

(1) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

3) Ribosomes are granular structure composed of ribonucleic acid and protein, it is present in
eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell cytoplasm in former cell cytoplasm it is of type or its subunit is :-

(1) 60S, 30S

(2) 80S, 70S
(3) 60S, 40S
(4) 50S, 30S

4) Endomembrane system forming organelles have coordinated functions these are :-

(1) ER, Golgi complex, Ribosome, Vacuole

(2) ER, Polysomes, Vacuole, Golgi complex
(3) Polysomes, Lysomes, ER, Vacuole, Golgi complex
(4) Lysosomes, Vacuole, Golgi complex, ER

5) Nucleoplasm contain spherical structures called nucleoli which is site for.

(1) Active protein synthesis

(2) Active replication process
(3) Active RNA synthesis
(4) Active ribosomal RNA synthesis
6) Given below are statements regarding polysaccharide, choose the incorrect one.
(A) Cellulose, Glycogen, chitin, Inulin are hmopolysaccharides.
(B) Starch can not hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
(C) Insulin is a polymer of fructose.
(D) In glycogen and cellulose, the right end is called reducing end while the left end is called non-
reducing end.

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (D)

7) Match column-I with column-II and choose the appropriate answer.

Column-I Column-II

A Tryptophan i -OH group in their structure

B Proline ii Most complex amino acid

C Cysteine iii Have heterocyclic ring

D Serine iv Sulphur containing amino acid

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iii ii iv i

(4) ii iii i iv

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Identify the structural formula given in a figure.

(1) Adenine
(2) Ribose
(3) Uridine
(4) Uracil

9) Statement-A :- In female cockraoch, 7th sternum together with 8th and 9th sterna forms a brood
pouch.
Statement-B :- In cockroach, the hind wings are transparent, membranous and metathoracic in
origin.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(4) Only statement B is correct.

10) Assertion :- The long chain is folded upon itself like a hollow ball giving rise to the tertiary
structure.
Reason :- Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a protein.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

11) A triangular structure called ______ joines the______.

Fill in the blanks.

(1) Sinus venosus, right atrium

(2) Right atrium, sinus venosus
(3) Left atrium, sinus venosus
(4) Sinus venosus, Left atrium

12) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

P Ciliated i Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons.

Q Glandular epithelium ii Bronchioles & fallopian tubes

R Columnar epithelium iii Found in lining of stomach.

S Cuboidal epithelium iv Columnar or cuboidal cells specialised for secretion.

v Found in lining of body cavities, tubes.

P R S Q

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) ii iv v i
 (3) ii v i iv

(4) ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) During anatomical studies of cockroach, how would you differentiate malpighian tubules (A)
from gastric caeca (B)?

(1) A – 6–8 in number, B – 200–300 in number.

A – Present at the junction of midgut and hindgut, B – Present at the junction of foregut and
(2)
midgut.
(3) A – Blind, black-coloured tubules, B –Hollow, yellow-coloured tubules.
(4) All of these

14) Identify A, B and C in given graph of any enzymatic reaction -

A B C

(1) S Vmax Km

(2) Km Vmax S

(3) S Km Vmax

(4) Vmax S Km
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Plasma membrane is :–

(1) Selectively permeable

(2) Permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) Semipermeable
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 1 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 4 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

A = 5t2

2) sin 15° = sin(45 – 30°)

= sin45° cos30° – cos45° sin30°

3)

⇒ P2+QP cosθ = 0
⇒ cosθ = –P/Q.

4)

= A2 + B2 + 2AB cosθ

= A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ
thus = 2(A2 + B2)

5)

Precise but not accurate

6) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1

7)

8)
 9)
=8–1=7

10) sin 1° = sin

for angle to be small

11)

intercept = +4

So

12)

First integration of function x3 + x2 + x + 1 and then differentiation, we get same function.

13) remain same after differentiation & integration.

14)

tan(–60°) = –tan 60° =

15)

16)
 17)

18)
towards North

19)

20)

We see that dot product of with is zero.

21)

Area of parallelogram = = 5 units

22)

The physical quantity nu remains same in all systems.

23)

Because temperature is a fundamental quantity.

24)

6.59 × 1014 kg has three significant figures as the power of 10 is not considered for significant
figures.

25)

⇒ = 7.5 V

26)
= 2% + 3 × 3% + 2 × 4% = 19%

27)

ct2 must have dimensions of [L]

⇒ c must have dimensions of

i.e., c = [LT–2]
so the unit of c is ms–2

28)

Velocity is a dimensional variable

29)

Length is an fundamental quantity

30)

0.009 No. of significant No. = 01

8.39 × 105 No. of significant No. = 3
0.0006032 No. of significant No. = 4
6.0032 No. of significant No. = 5

31)

Light year is an unit of distance.

32)

= ± [3×1 + 2×2+3+4]
= ± 14%

33)

division on circular scale =

34) LC = 1 MSD
 35)

Momentum =
= [M] [LT–1]
= [M1L1T–1]

36)

(ex cosx)

= ex (cosx) + cosx. (ex)

= ex (–sinx) + cosx(ex)
= ex (cosx – sinx)

37)

Vector component of along is

38)

2a sin θ/2 = 1 a=1

sin θ/2 = 1/2
θ/2 = 30°
θ = 60°

39)

40)
41) Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ
Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

42)

Ans.

43) θ is measured from +ve x-axis ⇒ tan 60° = m =

44) Let and are the two unit vectors, then the sum is
or
+ 2n1n2 cosθ = 1 + 1 + 2 cosθ
Since it is given that ns is also a unit vector,

therefore 1 = 1 + 1 + 2 cosθ or cosθ or

θ = 120°
Now the difference vector is nd = n1 – n2 or
– 2n1n2 cosθ = 1 + 1 – 2 cos(120°)
∴ = 2 – 2(–1/2) = 2 + 1 = 3
⇒

45)

46)
(Angle should be between H-H or T-T )
 47)

(10)2 = 36 + α2
α2 = 100 – 36
α2 = 64
α=+8

48) Change in radius ∝

Change in Area ∝

Change in volume ∝
so maximum percentage change will be in volume

49) For vernier callipers

1MSD = x unit
y VSD = (y – 2) MSD

Least count = 1MSD

50)

Reading = MSR + (CSR × LC) – [Zero error with sign.]

= 0.7 cm + (35 × 0.001) cm – [–0.003 cm]
= 0.7 cm + 0.035 cm + 0.003 cm
= 0.738 cm

CHEMISTRY

51)

Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

24

Here ℓ = 1 (p subshell)
ℓ = 2 (d subshell)

52)

Rb = 4p6 5s1

53) Z = number of protons = number of e–

number of neutrons = A – Z.

54) np = z = 17
 = z + charge in x–2
= 17 + 2 = 19.

55) Isodiaphers have A - 2Z same.

56)

2πr = nλ

= 3λ
λ = 6πx.

57)

mvr =

58)

59)

ℓ = 0 (s) ℓ = 2 (d)
ℓ = 1 (p) ℓ = 3 (f)
number of orbital = 2ℓ + 1

60)

61)

Choice 2 is an impossible configuration because of the value of the quantum number. The value of
is only permitted to go from 0 to (n – 1). Therefore, cannot have the same value as n.
 62)

Radial node = n – –1
For 4d-orbital, n = 4, = 2, i.e. 4 – 2 – 1 = 1.

63) Higher the n + ℓ ; Higher the energy.

If (n + ℓ) is same ; higher the n ; higher the energy.

64)

No. of subshell = n = 3
No. of orbitals = n2 = 32 = 9

65)

It is statement based question.

Statements B, C & E are correct.
(B) Mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg
(C) All the isotopes of given elements show same chemical properties.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.

67)

69) Isosteres contain same number of atoms and electrons.

70) e/m for n, α, p, e are respectively.

71) V.D. ∝ M . M = .

72) at STP.

73) Total mass of Reactants = Total mass of products.

74) + → 2CO(g)
26 cc ?

.
VCO = 26 × 2 = 52 cc.
 75) 1.5 g atom = 1.5 mol
W = 1.5 × 40 = 60 gm.

76)

16 g O2 = NA atoms

16 g O3 = NA atoms

88 g CO2 = 4NA atoms

64 g SO2 × NA atom = 2NA atoms

78) 1 g-molecule = 1 mole = NA molecules = 22.4 litre at STP.

79) Number of mole = at STP.

80) Given moles

2C + O2 → 2CO2

= 2 mole = 3 mole

; C = L.R.

81) M = .

82) At mass = 23 amu = = 23 × 1.67 × 10–24 g.

83) Molecular mass = V.D × 2 = 8 × 2 = 16.

84) Number of moles = .

86)

Magnetic moment =
⇒ n' = 4
∴ Number of e– s lost = 2 as 3d6
so, n = 2

87)

E2 = –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1

88)

= 0.527 × 10–34

Δv =
= 5.2 × 10–27.

89)

E = E1 + E2

90)
Shortest λ for Lyman : ∞ → 1
Longest λ for Balmer : 3 → 2.

91) One NH4 ion contains 7 + 4 – 1 = 10 e–

+

number of ions in 3.6 mg NH4 =

+

⇒ number of e– = .

92) Mw = V.D × molecular mass of CH4

= 4 × 16 = 64.
 93)

Weight of impure limestone = 20 g

Weight of pure limestone (CaCO3) = 20% of 20 g

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

n=0.04 n=0.04

= 0.04 × 44
= 1.76 g

94)

95) C2H2 + → 2CO2 + H2O

1 Litre 2.5 L 2L –

= =

= 20 litres
Air contains 20% of O2 [assumed]
VAir = 100 litre.

96) 2 Al + → Al2O3

? moles

; = 8 g.

97) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 V V

C3H6 + → 3CO2 + 3H2O

(5 – V) 3(5 – V)
Total volume of CO2 = 7 litre = V + 3(5 – V)
= V + 15 – 3V
7 – 15 = – 2V ; V = 4 litre and = 5 – 4 = 1 litre.

98) % of O =
Atomicity = 1 for minimum molecular mass of compound.

3.2 =

M · Mass = = 500.

99) → x CO2 +
(g) (g) (g)
10 ml 40 ml 50 ml

⇒x=4 .......(i)

⇒ y = 10 ........(ii)

100) .

BIOLOGY-I

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BIOLOGY-II

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