08-06-2025

7501CMD303002250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the gas equation , the dimensions of constant a is :

(1) [L3]
(2) [ML3T–2]
(3) [ML5T–2]
(4) [ML2T–2]

2) The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by , where a,b and c are constants. The
dimensions of a,b and c are respectively :-

(1) [LT–2], [L] and [T]

(2) [L2], [T] and [LT2]
(3) [LT2], [LT] and [L]
(4) [L], [LT] and [T2]

3) If energy(E), velocity(V) and time(T) are considered as fundamental quantities then dimension of
mass will be :-

0
(1) [E V–2 T ]
0
(2) [E2 V–2 T ]
(3) [E V2 T]
(4) [E–1 V2 T1]

4) Convert density = 0.5 gm/cc into MKS system:

(1) 5 × 106
(2) 5 × 109
(3) 5 × 103
(4) 5 × 102

5) A dimensionless quantity:-

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist
6) The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derive which of the following relations ?

–λt
(1) N0e
(2) A sin(ωt + kx)

(3)
mv2
(4) None of the above

7) Given that y = a sin , where t represent time and x represents distance. Which of the
following is correct?

(1) Dimension of t is same as that of q.

(2) Dimension of x is same as that of p.
(3) Dimension of x is same as that of q.
(4) Dimension of t is same as that of p.

8) Surface tension of a liquid is 70 dynes/cm. It may be expressed in M.K.S. system as :-

(1) 70 N/m
(2) 7 × 10–2 N/m
(3) 7 × 10+2 N/m
(4) 7 × 10+3 N/m

9) The force is given in terms of time (t) and displacement (x) by the equation :
F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt

Then, the dimensions of are :-

(1) M°L°T°
(2) M°L°T–1
(3) M°L–1T°
(4) M°LT–1

10) If n is numerical value of a physical quantity and u is the size of unit then ?

(1) nu ≠ constant
(2) n ∝ u

(3)
n∝
(4) n and u are not correlated

11) Imagine a system of units in which the unit of mass is 10 kg, length is 1 km and time is 1 minute.
Then 1N in this system is equal to :-

(1) 360
(2) 3.6
(3) 36
(4) 36 × 10–2

12) The time dependence of a physical quantity P is given by P = P0 e–αt, where α is a constant and t
is time. The constant α

(1) is dimensionless
(2) has dimensions [T–2]
(3) has dimensions of P
(4) has dimensions [T–1]

13) If we change unit of a physical quantity then :-

(1) Its dimension changes

(2) Its dimension remain same
(3) It may change or may not change
(4) Its magnitude changes

14) If y = sin2x + cos2x then is :-

(1) 4 sin cos x

(2) 2 sin x + 2 cos x
(3) zero
(4) 1

15) Graph of line y = –3x + 4 can be represented by-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
16) :-

(1) x4 + x3 + x2 + x + c
(2) 12x2 + 6x + 2 + c
(3) 4x4 + 3x3 + 2x2 + x + c

(4)

17) Value of cos is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If then angle made by the line with positive x-axis is :-

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 150°

19) Radius of a metallic plate is given as r = 2t2 then rate of increase of area of the plate at t = 2 sec
is:-

(1) 64 π
(2) 128 π
(3) 32 π
(4) 144 π

20) If y = sin2x then is :-

(1) sin 2x
(2) –sin 2x
(3) cos 2x
(4) –cos 2x

21) Find greatest value of 'y', where y = 3sinθ – 4cosθ

(1) 7
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 4

22) Find differentiation of y = x ln(x)

(1) 1
(2) ln x
(3) 1 + ln x
(4) 1 – ln x

23) If y = x2 then will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

24) The area of a circle is given by A = πr2, where r is the radius. Calculate the rate of increase of
area w.r.t. radius.

(1)

(2) 2πr
(3) 0
(4) πr

25)

For given graph of straight line. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Slope angle is 143°

(2) Intercept on y-axis is 10
(3) Slope is negative
(4) All above

26) cos(2π - θ) is equal to :-

(1) cosθ
(2) –cosθ
(3) sinθ
(4) –sinθ

27) Unit vector along will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Find a vector having magnitude double of and direction same as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

29) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of q is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Two vectors and lie in a plane, another vector lies outside this plane, then the resultant of
these three vectors i.e. :

(1) Can be zero

(2) Cannot be zero
(3) Lies in the plane containing &

(4) Lies in the plane containing &

31) If then -

(1) is parallel to
(2)
(3)
(4) and are mutually perpendicular

32) If then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

33) Find the magnitude of the unknown forces X and Y if sum of all forces is zero.

(1) 4, 8
(2) 5, 10
(3) 4, 10
(4) 5, 5

34) If = 2 and = and angle between and is 30°, then resultant will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) What should be added to the sum of vectors and so that the resultant is a
unit vector along the x-axis ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :-

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

37) The angle made by the vector with x,y and z-axis are respectively :-

(1) 30°, 60°, 45°

(2) 60°, 60°, 45°
(3) 45°,30°,60°
(4) 30°,45°,45°

38)

Figure shows three vectors and , where R is the mid-point of PQ. Then which of the following
relations is correct?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) The area of a parallelogram whose diagonals are and is :-

(1) 5 unit
(2) 10 unit
(3) 20 unit
(4) 2.5 unit

40) If a vector make angles α, β and γ respectively with X, Y and Z axes, then sin2α + sin2β +
sin2γ =

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
41) Find the resultant of three vectors , and shown in the following figure. Radius of the

circle is R :-

(1) 2R

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The vector component of vector along vector is :–

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) If angle between and is 30°, then find out the angle between and .

(1) 180°
(2) 150°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°

44) If and the magnitude of and are 5,4 and 3 units respectively, the angle
between and is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) Find the value of sin(–30° ) + cos (–30°) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value

(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) +1
(4) All of the above are correct

2) Mass of proton is :-

(1) 1.08 amu

(2) 1.007 amu
(3) 9.1 × 10–28 g
(4) 1.675 × 10–24 g

3) Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of ?

(1) Electron and neutron

(2) Electron and proton
(3) Proton and neutron
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

4) If in C-12 the mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled
then find out the % change in mass :-

(1) 25% decrease

(2) 30% increase
(3) 25% increase
(4) No change

5) Specific charge of cathode rays does not depend on :-

(1) Nature of cathode plate

(2) Nature of Anode plate
(3) Nature of gas in discharge tube
(4) All of these

6) Correct sequence for specific charge ratio of e, p, n, α is (with respect to magnitude only) :-

(1) e < p < n < α

(2) α < n < p < e
(3) n < α < p < e
(4) α < p < n < e

7) Two atoms having mass number 27 and 64. then find out the ratio of radius of their nucleus :-

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

8) Radius of Al nucleus is :

(1) 3.99 × 10–15 cm

(2) 3.99 × 10–13 cm
(3) 1.33 × 10–15 cm
(4) 1.33 × 10–13 cm

9) The nucleus of tritium contains :-

(1) 1 proton + 1 neutron

(2) 1 proton + 3 neutron
(3) 1 proton + 0 neutron
(4) 1 proton + 2 neutron

10)

The principal quantum number of an atom is related to the :-

(1) size of the orbital

(2) spin angular momentum
(3) orientation of the orbital
(4) orbital angular momentum

11)

Which of the following set of quantum numbers represent the highest energy of an atom :-

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = + 1/2
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = + 1/2
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2

12) In an atom 13Al27. number of protons is (A) electron is (B) and neutron is (C). Hence ratio will be
[in order c : b : a]

(1) 13 : 14 : 13
(2) 13 : 13 : 14
(3) 14 : 13 : 13
(4) 14 : 13 : 14

13) An electron is moving in fourth Bohr orbit. Its de-broglie wavelength is λ. What is the
circumference of the fourth orbit :-

(1)

(2) 2λ
(3) 4λ

(4)

14) For atom, which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) The number of protons is same as number of neutrons.

(2) The number of electrons is same as number of neutrons
(3) The number of protons is half of number of neutrons
(4) The number of nucleons is double the number of neutrons

15) Calculate the total number of electrons in ‘g’ subshell:-

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 18
(4) 22

16) Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition :–

(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 6 to n = 2
(3) n = 1 to n = 2
(4) n = 2 to n = 6

17) The following quantum no. are possible for how many orbitals n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = +2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18)

Species which are isoelectronic to one another are

(a) CN– (b) OH– (c) (d) N2 (e) CO
Correct Ans :-

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, d, e
(4) b, c, d

19) Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for the 19th electron of Chromium

n ℓ m s

(1) 3 0 0 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 1

(3) 4 0 0 1/2

(4) 4 1 –1 1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) If threshold wavelength for ejection of electron from metal is 550 nm, then work function for the
photoelectric emission is

(1) 19.8 × 10–18 J

(2) 0.36 × 10–18 J
(3) 39.6 × 10–18 J
(4) 19.8 × 10–20 J

22)

If number of protons in X2– is 16 then number of e– in X2+ will be

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) None

23)

Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode rays?

(1) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
(2) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic field.
Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray
(3)
tube.
(4) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube.

24) Which of the following is correct for mathematical representation of Heisenberg uncertainty
principle:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are correct

25) Compare the energies of two radiations E1 with wavelength 800 nm and E2 with wavelength 400
nm :

(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E1 = E2
(3) E2 = 2E1

(4)
E2 = E1

26) The electronic configuration and number of unpaired electrons for Mn4+ is : (Atomic number of
Mn = 25)

1s22s22p63s23p63d3
(1)
No. of unpaired electrons = 1
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5
(2)
No. of unpaired electrons = 5
 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
(3)
No. of unpaired electrons = 1
1s22s22p63s23p63d3
(4)
No. of unpaired electrons = 3

27) Ionization energy of H-atom is:

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 0 eV
(4) None of these

28) Angular momentum of electron present in M-shell is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The energy of electron in the 2nd orbit of Li+2 is:

(1) –10.2 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) –30.6 eV
(4) 30.6 eV

30) The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2s orbitals are respectively :

(1) 2, 0
(2) 0, 2
(3) 1, 2
(4) 2, 1

31) Radius of second orbit of hydrogen atom is:

(1) 2.11 Å
(2) 0.529 Å
(3) 4.76 Å
(4) 8.4 Å

32)

(i) Fe54, 26Fe56, 26Fe57, 26Fe58

26 (a) Isotopes
 (ii) 1H3, 2He4 (b) Isotones

(iii) 31 Ga76, 32Ge76 (c) Isodiaphers

(iv) 92 U235, 90Th231 (d) Isobars

(v) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3

Match the above correct terms:

(1) [(i), - a], [(ii), - d], [(iii), - b], [(iv), - c], [(v), - a]
(2) [(i), - a], [(ii), - d], [(iii), - d], [(iv), - c], [(v), - a]
(3) [(v), - a], [(iv), - c], [(iii), - d], [(ii), - b], [(i), - a]
(4) None of them

33) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 2.5 eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :

(1)

(2) λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2
(4) λ1 = 4λ2

34) Assertion : The charge to mass ratio of the particles in anode rays depends on nature of gas
taken in the discharge tube.
Reason : The particles of anode rays carry negative charge.
In the light of the above statements assertion and reason, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(4) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect

35) A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz
(kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is [speed of
light c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]

(1) 219.3 m
(2) 240 m
(3) 2192 m
(4) 21.92 cm

36) In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is –3.4 eV. Then find out KE of same orbit of
hydrogen ataom

(1) +3.4 eV
(2) +6.8 eV
(3) –13.6 eV
(4) +13.6 eV

37) A metal surface in 2 experiments is irradiated by 2–radiations of frequencieis . If then what is

the correct relationship between the work function of metal in both the experiments?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :

(Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 6.67 × 1015

(2) 6.67 × 1011
(3) 4.42 × 10–15
(4) 4.42 × 10–18

39) The graph between |ψ|2 and r (radial distance) is shown below. This represents :-

(1) 3s orbital
(2) 1s orbital
(3) 2p orbital
(4) 2s orbital

40) Assertion: An orbital can has maximum 2 e– with opposite spin.

Reason: Presence of two electrons in an orbital will increases the stability the atom.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

41) The wavelength associated with an electron moving with a velocity of 108 cm s–1 is :-

(1) 72.7 Å
(2) 7.27 Å
(3) 0.727 Å
(4) 0.277 Å

42) What is the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)

Arrange the following wavelengths (λ) of given emissions lines of H-atom in increasing order.
(A) n = 3 n=1
(B) n = 12 n = 10
(C) n = 5 n=3
(D) n = 22 n = 20

Choose the correct option :

(1) λ4 < λ3 < λ2 < λ1
(2) λ4 < λ2 < λ3 < λ1
(3) λ1 < λ2 < λ3 < λ4
(4) λ1 < λ3 < λ2 < λ4

44) Energy of a quantum having a wavelength of 6.6 Å will be:-

(1) 3 × 10–16 J
(2) 3 × 10–14 J
(3) 5 × 10–16 J
(4) 5 × 10–14 J

45) If kinetic energy of a proton is increased by nine times then wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
associated with it would become :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

BIOLOGY

1) The process of oxidation of glucose during which CO2, H2O and energy are produced is known as
(1) Breathing
(2) Inspiration
(3) Respiration
(4) Expiration

2) The respiratory organs vary in different animals due to their

(1) Nutrition
(2) Habitat and level of organisation
(3) Excretion
(4) Reproduction

3) Which of the following are the respiratory organs of insects?

(1) Trachea
(2) Gills
(3) Cuticle
(4) Lungs

4) Which animal among the following respires via buccal cavity, moist skin and lungs?

(1) Hydra
(2) Frog
(3) Cockroach
(4) Earthworm

5) Respiratory organs in aquatic arthropods are

(1) Body wall

(2) Lungs
(3) Trachea
(4) Gills

6) Which of the following has most-developed respiratory system?

(1) Mammals
(2) Invertebrates
(3) Amphibians
(4) Hemichordates

7) Which structure in human respiratory system is involved in conditioning of air?

(1) Internal nares

(2) Nasal chamber
(3) Larynx
(4) Trachea
8) A thin-elastic cartilaginous flap which prevents the entry of food into the larynx is known as

(1) Glottis
(2) Wind pipe
(3) Epiglottis
(4) Bronchiole

9) At which level of thoracic vertebra, trachea divides

(1) 2nd thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 3rd thoracic vertebra
(4) 4th thoracic vertebra

10) Trachea divides into right and left

(1) Secondary bronchi

(2) Tertiary bronchi
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Primary bronchi

11) Which membrane covers the lungs and provide protection?

(1) Pericardium
(2) Renal capsule
(3) Pleura
(4) Epineurium

12) Where are lungs situated in human body?

(1) Abdominal cavity

(2) Thoracic cavity
(3) Coelomic cavity
(4) Pleural cavity

13) What is the last step involved in respiration?

(1) Diffusion of gases

(2) Breathing
(3) Utilisation of O2 by body cells and resultant release of CO2
(4) Transport of gases

14) Inspiration occurs when intra-pulmonary pressure is

(1) Higher than atmospheric pressure

(2) Lower than atmospheric pressure
(3) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(4) Zero compared to atmospheric pressure

15) Which muscles help us to increase the strength of expiration?

(1) Cardiac muscles

(2) Abdominal muscles
(3) Internal intercostal muscles
(4) Both (2) & (3)

16) The breathing rate of a normal healthy man is

(1) 8–18 times/min

(2) 6–12 times/min
(3) 16–24 times/min
(4) 12–16 times/min

17) Which group of animals respire through lungs?

(1) Earthworm and insects

(2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
(4) Reptiles, birds and mammals

18) Skin of man cannot act as respiratory organ because

(1) It is dry
(2) It is not thin
(3) It is not permeable to O2 and CO2
(4) All of these

19) What is the function of respiratory part of human respiratory system?

(1) It clears the incoming air from foreign particles

(2) It brings the temperature of air upto the body temperature
(3) It transports the atmospheric air
(4) It exchanges O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air

20) Ventrally and laterally, the thoracic chamber is formed by

(1) Diaphragm and sternum respectively

(2) Ribs and sternum respectively
(3) Sternum and ribs respectively
(4) Vertebral column and diaphragm respectively

21) Adam's apple is another name for

(1) Sound box in birds
(2) Sound box in man
(3) Epiglottis
(4) Thyroid cartilage

22)

Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea?

(1) Muscles
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Ribs
(4) Cartilaginous rings

23) In human, oblique fissure is present in

(1) Right lung

(2) Left lung
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Heart

24) A pair of external nostrils present in humans opens out

(1) Below the upper lips

(2) Above the upper lips
(3) Between upper and lower lips
(4) Above the larynx

25) During inspiration, the volume of thoracic cavity increases because of

(1) Contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(3) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of external intercostal muscles
(4) Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscles

26) Expiration occurs due to

(1) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscle

(2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
(3) Relaxation of abdominal and internal intercostal muscles
(4) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of abdominal muscles

27) What happens to the volume of pulmonary cavity when there is an increase in the volume of
thoracic chamber?

(1) It decreases
(2) It increases
(3) It remains same
(4) First decreases and then increases

28) Diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular structure which separates

(1) Coelomic cavity from pelvic cavity

(2) Pleural cavity from thoracic cavity
(3) Thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity
(4) Pelvic cavity from abdominal cavity

29) What happens when pressure within the pulmonary cavity is higher than the atmospheric
pressure?

(1) Inhalation of air

(2) Expulsion of air
(3) No inhalation and expulsion of air occurs
(4) Lungs inflate and rupture

30) Lungs are enclosed in

(1) Peritoneum
(2) Perichondrium
(3) Pericardium
(4) Pleural membranes

31)

When a person breathes air through a tube directly into the trachea (tracheotomy) it may lead to
serious lung crushing and infection due to

(1) Cooling effect

(2) Drying effect
(3) Non filtering effect
(4) All of these

32) Pitch of the voice is lower in males than females as the vocal cords of man are

(1) Thicker and longer

(2) Thinner and longer
(3) Thicker and shorter
(4) Thinner and shorter

33) Which of the following statement is not true for man?

(1) Forceful expiration is an active process

(2) Mammals have negative pressure breathing
(3) Internal intercostal and abdominal muscles are muscles of forceful inspiration
(4) Respiration excretes CO2, water etc.

34) The ventilation movements of the lungs in mammals are governed by

(1) Muscular walls of lung

(2) Diaphragm
(3) Costal muscles
(4) Both (2) & (3)

35) Hiccups can be best described as

(1) Forceful sudden expiration

(2) Jerky incomplete inspiration
(3) Vibration of the soft palate during breathing
(4) Sign of indigestion

36) Number of alveoli in the human lungs has been estimated to be approximately

(1) 100 million

(2) 300 million
(3) 125 million
(4) 300 billion

37) Assertion : The passage starting with the external nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole
constitute the respiratory part.
Reason : The respiratory part transport the air to the alveoli, clears it from the foreign material,
humidified and brings the air to body temperature.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false statement.

38) Assertion : Normal expiration during quiet breathing, unlike inspiration, is a passive process
because no muscular contractions are involved.
Reason : Normal expiration results from the elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false statement.

39) What are the characteristics of alveoli?

(1) Very thin, irregular walled and highly vascularised
(2) Thick and smooth membrane
(3) Network of blood capillaries and thick-walled
(4) Thick, regular walled and lack of blood vessels

40) Which of the following is not a character of respiratory surface?

(1) Thin, permeable to gases

(2) Extensive
(3) Least vascular
(4) Moist

41) Which of the following structures is not supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings?

(1) Trachea
(2) Secondary bronchi
(3) Terminal bronchioles
(4) Primary bronchi

42) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can
never be expelled because

(1) There is a negative pressure in the lungs

(2) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(3) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(4) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

43) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D.
Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

(1) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(2) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
(3) D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
(4) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

44) Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a
conscious effort?
 One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without
(1)
moving the ribs at all
(2) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
(3) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
(4) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

45) In man and other mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through

(1) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

(2) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

46) The main difference between animal and plant cell is :-

(1) Plant cell possess ribosome

(2) Animal cell possess vacuole
(3) Animal cell lack rigid cell wall
(4) Plant cell lack rigid cell wall

47) Cell is______and______unit of life.

(1) Structural
(2) Functional
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) Fundamental unique

48) Studies of the cell membrane showed that, it is composed of lipids which are:-

(1) Arranged in unilayer

(2) Arranged in protein bilayer
(3) Arranged in bilayer
(4) Arranged in multilayer

49) Functions like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to which nature
of the membrane ?

(1) Selective permeable nature.

(2) Living nature.
(3) Fluid nature.
(4) Stable nature.

50) Oligosaccharides of the glycolipid and glycoprotein of plasma membrane are helpful in:

(1) Transport of hydrophilic substance

(2) Cell to cell recognition
(3) Osmosis
(4) Maintenance of the shape of the cell

51) Which does not occur in cell membrane ?

(1) Glycolipid
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Cholesterol

52) Which of the following structure is universal in all living organisms?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Cell wall

53) Due to the absence of which of the following cell organelles, both prokaryotes and plant cells are
differ from an animal cell ?

(1) 80 s ribosomes
(2) Mesosome
(3) Centrioles
(4) 70 s ribosomes

54) The RER in the cell synthesized a protein which would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the membrane is slightly different from the protein
made in the RER. The protein was probably modified in another cell organelle. Identify the organelle

in the given diagram:-

(1) D
(2) B
(3) A
(4) C

55) Membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral on the basis of :-

(1) Attachment
(2) Type of amino acid
(3) Size
(4) Ease of extraction

56) Middle men of cell is :-

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi body
(4) Vacuole

57) Which of the following is correct regarding the given figure?

Number of Number of Number of

centromeres kinetochores chromatids

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 2

(3) 1 2 4

(4) 2 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Peroxisome
(4) ER

59) Protein which can be easily extracted from plasma membrane is known as :-

(1) Integral protein

(2) Tunnel protein
(3) Peripheral protein
(4) Transmembrane protein

60) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their
size. Choose the correct option among the followings:

i. Mycoplasma ii. Ostrich eggs

iii. Human RBC iv. Bacteria

(1) i, iv, iii & ii
(2) i, ii, iii & iv
(3) ii. i, iii & iv
(4) iii, ii, i & iv

61) Glycosylation is mainly the function of :-

(1) RER
(2) SER
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Ribosome

62) Endoplasmic reticulum remains attached to :

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosome
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chloroplast

63) The non-membranous structure is

(1) Centrioles
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Nucleolus
(4) All of these

64) Who proposed the "fluid mosaic model" for plasma membrane?

(1) C. Cramer and C. Naegeli

(2) Singer and Nicholson
(3) Denielli and Davson
(4) J. D. Robertson

65) Facilitated diffusion involves -

(1) Protein but not energy

(2) Protein and energy
(3) Lipid and energy
(4) Carbohydrate and energy

66) The isolated lysosomes vesicles have been found to be very rich in alomost all type of hydrolytic
enzymes which are optiomally active at the :-

(1) Highly basic pH

(2) Neutral pH
(3) Slightly basic pH
(4) Acidic pH
67) Which one of the following is not correct for mesosome ?

(1) Help in cell wall formation

(2) Help to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
(3) Help in DNA replication
(4) Help in photosynthesis

68) Lysosomes are called suicidal bags of cell due to:-

(1) Autophagy
(2) Heterophagy
(3) Extracellular digestion
(4) Autolysis

69) Cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Central vacuole
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Ribosome

70) Which of the following provides fluidity to plasma membrane ?

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Extrinsic protein
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Unsaturated fatty acid of phospholipid

71)

Which of the following are correct regarding prokaryotic cells ?

(A) Genetic material is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane
(B) Compartmentalisation of cytoplasm is present
(C) The plasma membrane is similar structurally to that of the eukaryotes

(D) Genetic material is organised in the form of many chromosomes

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and C

72) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex A and
concave B .

(1) A-cis or maturing face;B-Trans or forming face

(2) A-Trans or maturing face;B-cis or forming face
(3) A-cis or forming face;B-Trans or maturing face
(4) A-Trans or forming face;B-cis or maturing face

73) Na+/K+ pump is an example of :-

(1) Active transport

(2) Passive transport
(3) Osmosis
(4) Simple diffusion

74) The inner membrane of mitochondria forms a number of infoldings called

(1) Cistemae
(2) Cristae
(3) Microtubules
(4) Mesosomes

75) Hydrolytic enzymes are stored in :

(1) Mitochondrial
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

76) Tonoplast is the surrounding membrane of :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Nucleus
(3) Vacuole
(4) Chloroplast

77) Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are :-

(1) Xanthophylls
(2) Chlorophylls
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Anthocyanins

78) Plasma-membrane is composed of :-

(1) Lipids and proteins only

(2) Proteins, carbohydrates and lipids
(3) Proteins only
(4) Proteins, some bit of nucleic acid and lipid.

79) Where are ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell ?

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Both (1) and (2)

80) Diameter of RBC is :-

(1) 7 µm
(2) 700 mm
(3) 6 µm
(4) 6000 mm

81) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.

(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
(3) Lysosome are membrane bound structures.
(4) Chloroplast are formed by the process of packaging and released from Mitochondria.

82) The concept of "omnis cellula-e-cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by :-

(1) Rudolf Virchow

(2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Schleiden
(4) Aristotle

83) A protoplast is a cell :-

(1) Without cell wall

(2) Without cell membrane
(3) Without nucleus
(4) Undergoing division

84) Which ions are essential for binding the ribosome subunits ?

(1) Mg+2
(2) Mn+
(3) Ca+2
(4) K+

85) Vacuole is bound by a __A__ membrane called __B__. In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy upto
__C__ of the volume of cell :-

A B C

(1) Single Cell sap 90%

 (2) Single Tonoplast 90%

(3) Double Tonoplast 90%

(4) Single Tonoplast 10%

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Which of the following is analogous to lysosomes in bacteria ?

(1) Perimitochondrial space

(2) Perinuclear space
(3) Incipient nucleus
(4) Periplasmic space

87) Which cell organelle does not have a membrane?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centrosome

88) Choose the correct option for given figure :-

(1) Site for active RNA synthesis

(2) Main site for Protein synthesis
(3) Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(4) Site for the digestion of macromolecules

89) Ribosome is made of :-

(1) rRNA + protein

(2) rRNA + mRNA + protein
(3) mRNA + protein
(4) rRNA + tRNA + protein

90) Which of the following cell is smallest in size?

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Human red blood cell
(4) Blue green algae
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 4 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 1 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 1 2 4 4 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)
and [t]=[c] ⇒ [a] = [LT–2], [b]=[L], [c]=[T]

3)

m ∝ Ex Vy Tz
0
M1L T0 ∝ [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
1 0 0 x 2x + y –2x–y + z
MLT ∝M L T
x=1 solving
2x + y = 0 x=1
–2x – y + z = 0 y = –2
z=0

4) Density = 0.5 gm/cc

= 0.5 gm/cm3
= 0.5 (10–3kg)/(10–2m)3

=
= 5 × 102 kg/m3
∴ option (4) is correct

0 0 0
5) Unit of angle is radian but dimensions = [M L T ]

6)

Exponential and trigonometric functions can not be derived using dimensional analysis.

Dimension less constant ( in ) can not be obtained by derivation using dimensional

analysis.

7) Because will be dimensionless.

Hence dimensions of t is same as p.
8) [S] = MT–2
n1u1 = n2u2
⇒ 70 × (MT–2)1 = n2(MT–2)2

9) [Bx] = 1

⇒
[Dt] = 1

10) nu = constant ⇒

11)

1N = n2u2

n2 = 1

=1
n2 = 36 × 10–2
1N = 36 × 10–2 unit

12) 1. Explanation of question: The question asks about the dimensions of the constant a in
the given equation P = P0 e –αt
2. Concept: The argument of an exponential function must be dimensionless. This is a
fundamental rule. Since at is the argument of the exponential, it must be dimensionless.
3. Formula: N/A - This is a conceptual application of dimensional analysis rules.
4. Mathematical Calculation:
Since at is dimensionless, the dimensions of a multiplied by the dimensions oft must result in a
dimensionless quantity (which we can represent as 1).
Dimensions oft are [T] (time).
Let the dimensions of a be [X].
Therefore, [X] *[Tl= 1 (dimensionless)
 Solving for [X], we get [X] = [Tl-1
5. Correct answer with option:
The correct answer is 4. has dimensions [T-1].
6.Level: Basic Physics/Dimensional Analysis

13) When unit of physical quantity is changed its dimension & magnitude remain same
eg : Magnitude = 1 m = 100 cm
Both have same dimension i.e. [L]

14) y = sin2x + cos2x = 1

thus =0

15)

Here, m = – 3 (negative)
and c = 4 (positive)
So, y-intercept = positive

angle = obtuse angle

16)

17) cos = cos120° = cos (180 – 60)

= –cos60° =

18)

y= ⇒ y=
m=

19) r = 2t2 ⇒ A = πr2

A = π(2t2)2 = 4πt4

= 16πt3

20) y = sin2x

= 2 sinx cosx = sin2x

21) y = 3sinθ – 4cosθ
= sin [θ + α]
y = 5 sin [θ + α]

22)

y = x· ln(x)

23) =

24) A = πr2

25) Slope = 180 – 37° = 143°

Intercept on y-axis = 10
Slope is negative

26) cos(2π – θ) = cosθ

27)

28)

Magnitude of

Direction of

Required vector =

29)

⇒
⇒ 0.2 + q2 = 1
⇒ q2 = 0.8

30)

Resultant of and will also lie in same plane as them so this resultant can no be opposite to
as does not lie in same plane as and
So,
can not be zero.

31)
⇒ θ = 90°

32)

Explain : a relationship between the magnitudes of the cross product and dot product of two
vectors and . find the magnitude of the vector .

Concept : Cross product and dot product.

Formula : Dot Product: | . | = abcos θ, where θ is the angle between and .

Cross Product: | . | = abcos θ
Magnitude of resultant of

Calculation : Given: | × | = ( . )

ab sinθ = ab cosθ

tanθ = cos θ

θ = 30°

Final Answer : (4)

33) ΣFx = 0
⇒ x + 5 cos53° – y sin53° = 0

⇒x+3– = 0 ⇒ 5x + 15 – 4y = 0
ΣFy = 0
10 – 5 sin53° – y cos53° = 0

⇒ 10 – 4 – =0⇒ 6= ⇒ y = 10
∴ x = 5.

34)

Resultant

35)

Let is added,
Now,

36)

37)

cos θx = ⇒ θx = 60°

cos θy = ⇒ θy = 60°

cos θz = ⇒ θz = 45°

38)
 ........(1)
If R is the mid point

39)

Area of parallelogram =
where,
∴ Area = 2.5 units.

40) cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ = 1.

1 – sin2α + 1 – sin2β + 1 – sin2γ= 1
sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ = 2

41)

42)

Vector component of along is

43)

44)
θ = 53°
 cosθ =

θ = cos–1

45)

Question explanation
Let's solve sin(-30°) + cos( -30°) step by step.

Concept: Properties of negative angles

Formula:

A. Sine of negative angles: sin( -θ) = - sin (θ).

B. Cosine of negative angles: cos(-θ) = cos(θ).

Calculation
1. Use the properties of negative angles

sin(-30°) = -sin (30°) = .

cos(-30°) = cos(30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =
Correct Option : 2

Final Answer:

CHEMISTRY

46)

the magnetic quantum number has value : l = 1 m = –1, 0, + 1

47)

1.007 amu

48)
Proton and neutron

49)

25% increase

50)

Specific charge doesn't depends on nature of gas and nature of electrodes.

51) EXPLANATION: Correct sequence for specific charge ratio of e, p, n, α is to be found.

GIVEN DATA : particles are e, p, n, α .
CONCEPT :
specific charge = magnitude of charge divided by mass
CALCULATION :
For electron, Specific charge =1.76 × 1011C/kg
For proton, Specific charge = 9.58 × l07C/kg
For neutron, Specific charge = 0
For alpha particle, Specific charge = 4.79 × l07C/kg
So, Correct sequence for specific charge ratio of e, p, n, α is n< α<p<e
FINAL ANSWER : n< α<p<e
CORRECT OPTION : 3

52)

The ratio of radius of their nucleus is 3 : 4

53)

(R = Ro A1/3)
A = 27 ; Ro = 1.33 × 10–13 cm

54) EXPLANATION - element is given and subatomic particles present in the nucleus are to
be found.
GIVEN DATA : element is tritium.
CONCEPT - neutrons and protons are present in the nucleus. atomic mass number is sum of
number of neutrons and protons.
CALCULATION - The nucleus of tritium contains 1 proton and 2 neutrons.
FINAL ANSWER : 1 proton and 2 neutrons.
CORRECT OPTION - 4

55)

size of the orbital

56)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = + 1/2

57)

ratio will be : 14 : 13 : 13

58)

The circumference of the fourth orbit 4λ

59)

The number of protons is half of number of neutrons

60) ℓ = 4(g) m = –4, –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4

9 orbitals
∴ 18 e–s

61)

Question Asking About:

Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition.

Concept:

Emission means photon jump from higher energy level to lower energy level.
For max frequency ; energy difference also maximum because
E = hr E v
according to option an is may be (1) and (2) higher energy E; transition n = 2 to n = 1; E=
3.6

Hence, option (1) is correct.

62)

Question Asking About:

How many quantum numbers are possible.

Given Data:

n =3, = 2 d – subshell
3 dxy or 3 dyz or 3 dxz – yz of 3 d orbital.

means
Hence, option (1) is correct.
63)

CN¯ → 6 + 8 = 14e¯
OH¯ → 8 + 2 = 10e¯
→ 6 + 2 = 8e¯
N2 → 7 + 7 = 14e¯
CO → 6 + 8 = 14e¯

64)

Acc. to hund’s rule paring of electrons in orbitals belonging to same subshell does not takes
place until each orbital has got one electron each with same spin.

65) Question is Asking About:

Correct set of quantum number of 19th electron of chromium.

Solution/Explanation
Concept:
Fill electrons in chromium atom.
⇒ 1S2 2S2 2S6 3S2 3P6 3d5
4S1 19th electron enter here.

n = 4i l = 0, n = 0, and =

66)

0.36 × 10–18 J

67)

the number of e- in x2+ is 14

68)

Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube.

69)

The correct for mathematical representation of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is

70)
Compare the energies of two radiations is E2 = 2E1

71)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
No. of unpaired electrons = 1

72) I.E = 13.6 × z2 = 13.6 eV

73)

Angular momentum of electron present in M-shell is

74) Li2+ ⇒ Z = 3, n = 3

E = –13.6 × = –13.6 eV

75)

2, 1

76)

77)

[(v), - a], [(iv), - c], [(iii), - d], [(ii), - b], [(i), - a]

78)

λ1 = 2λ2

79)

Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect

80)

Wavelength
 c is speed of light
v is frequency

81)

+3.4 eV

82)

83)

Explanation

A. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength.

Given Data

A. Wavelength (λ) = 45 nm = 45 × 10⁻⁹ m

B. Planck's constant (h) = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js

C. Speed of light (c) = 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹

Concept

A. Energy of a photon (E) = hc/λ

Calculation

A. E = (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js × 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹) / (45 × 10⁻⁹ m)

B. E = (19.89 × 10⁻²⁶ Jm) / (45 × 10⁻⁹ m)

C. E = 4.42 × 10⁻¹⁸ J

Answer option 4, (4.42 × 10⁻¹⁸ J).

84)
2s orbital

85)

Assertion is true, but reason is false.

86)

7.27 Å

87)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks for the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of the He+ ion.

B. Given Data:

We are dealing with the Lyman series of the He+ ion.

C. Concept: Rydberg Formula

D. Formula:

1/λ = R × Z2 × (1/n12 – 1/n22)

E. Mathematical Calculation:

For the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series, the electron transitions from the n = 2 level
to the n = 1 level.

1/λ = R × 22 × (1/12 – 1/22) 1/λ = 4R × (1 – 1/4) 1/λ = 4R × (3/4) 1/λ = 3R λ = 1/(3R)

F. Final Answer:
The correct answer is option (2) 1/(3R).

88)

λ1 < λ2 < λ3 < λ4

89) Question : Calculate the energy of a quantum (photon) with a wavelength of 6.6 Å
Concept :
Quantum (Photon) :
Formula : The relationship between the energy of a photon and its wavelength is given by :
E = hc / λ
Solution :
Convert the wavelength from Angstroms (Å) to meters (m) :
1Å = 10–10 m
λ = 6.6 Å × (10–10 m/1Å) = 6.6 × 10–10m
 Substitute the values into the formula :
E = (6.626 × 10–34 J.s × 3× 108 m/s) / 6.6 × 10–10 m
E = (19.878 × 10–26 J.m) / 6.6 × 10–10 m
E = 3.0118 × 10–16 J

90)

BIOLOGY

91) Breathing = Inspiration (Inhalation of air) + Expiration (Exhalation of air)

Respiration is the process of oxidation of food in which CO2, H2O and energy is/are produced.

92) Because of different habitat (place where an animal live) and level of organisation, the
breathing mechanism varies, hence the respiratory organ also get vary in different animals.

93)

Insect(e.g. Cockroach) → Tracheal system

Gills → Aquatic animal (fish, amphibian)
Cuticle → Earthworm
Lungs → Birds, reptiles, mammals

94)

Frogs can respire by their moist skin, buccal cavity and lungs as they live on land and its larval
form i.e. tadpole which lives in water respire through gills.
Hydra, Sycon : No well-developed respiratory system, exchange of gases by simple diffusion.
Earthworm : Moist cuticle.

95)

Aquatic arthropods (Crustacean) respire through gills.

96)

The respiratory system is well developed in the vertebrates as they have more complex body.
In between amphibians and mammals, the mammals have more well-developed respiratory
organ i.e., lungs.

97)

(1) Mucus from goblet cells and glands make the surface sticky for trapping dust particles
present in inspired air.
(2) Moisture from the epithilium also makes the air humid.
(3) It brings the temperature of the incoming air, upto the body temperature.

98)

Epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing of food.

99)

The trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.

100)

The trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.

101)

Pericardium : Covers heart

Renal capsule : Covers kidney
Pleura : Lungs
Epineurium : Covers nerve trunk

102)

A pair of lungs are present in humans, lie in an air-tight chamber known as thoracic cavity or
chest cavity.

103)

Steps involve in respiration :

(1) Breathing
(2) Diffusion of gases between alveoli and blood
(3) Transport of gases
(4) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(5) Utilisation of O2 by body cell

104)

Air can flow to lungs, when the pressure within the lungs is less than the atomospheric
pressure.

105)

Cardiac muscle i.e., muscle of heart, it do not have any role in inspiration and expiration.
Rest two muscles i.e., abdominal and internal intercostal muscle undergo contraction and
increase the strength of expiration.
106)

Breathing rate of a normal healthy man is about 12–16 times/min.

107)

108)

Because human skin is dry (does not allow exchange of gases), it is not thin (gases can pass
through thin membrane) and it is impermeable to O2 and CO2).

109)

Respiratory part of human respiratory system includes alveoli and their ducts.
It is the main site of human respiratory system where diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) occurs.

110)

Thoracic cavity is formed :

Dorsally – By the vertebral column
Ventrally – By the sterum
Laterally – By the ribs

111)

Its shape is like apple. It is hyaline cartilage and more prominent in male.

112)

Trachea is lined by C-shaped cartilagenous ring, which prevents the collapsing of trachea.

113)

Both right and left lungs have oblique fissure whereas only right lung also has a horizontal
fissure.

114)

Internal nares open into pharynx.

 115) During inspiration, the contraction of diaphragm muscle causes it to become flat and
lowered down, thereby increasing the volume of thoracic cavity in antero-posterior axis. The
contraction of external intercostal muscle, lift ribs and sternum up and outward causing an
increase in volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis i.e., backward-forward direction.

116) Expiration : It is the moving of air out of lungs if the pressure within the lungs is more
than the atmospheric pressure.
Relaxation of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscle returns the diaphragm and
sternum to their normal thoracic volume and thereby pulmonary volume.

117)

Increase in the volume of thoracic cavity

Leads to Similar increase in the volume of pulmonary cavity

Causes
Decrease in pressure within the pulmonary cavity
Causes
Air enters from atmosphere to the lungs as it moves from higher pressure to lower pressure

118) Thoracic is closed below by the diaphragm which is a dome-shaped structure made up of
muscles and separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity (containing most of the digestive
organs).

119) High pressure in pulmonary cavity compared to atmosphere results in explusion of air.
Air moves high pressure to low pressure.

120) Lungs are enclosed in pleural membranes. i.e. external pleura and internal pleura and in
between pleural fluid is present. Pericardium → Membrane covers the heart
Perichondrium → Outer covering of cartilage
Peritoneum → Covering of visceral organ

121)

Because upper respiratory tract helps in filtering the air, bringing air to body temperature and
making it moist.

122)

In males, vocal cord is thicker and longer than females and pitch is affected by this
Male → Low pitch and female → High pitch

123)

124)
Inspiration and expiration both governed by diaphragm and costal muscles.

125)

Because hiccups occur due to spasm of phrenic muscle which leads to jerky inspiration.

126)

300 million

127)

The passage starting with the external nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the
conducting part.

128)

Normal expiration in human is due to relaxation of muscles.

129)

Alveoli membrane is very thin, irregular, richly supplied with blood vessels because of which
exchange of gases easily occurs here.

130)

Respiratory surface should be highly vascular for the easy transport of gases or exchange of
gases with the blood.

131)

Support is provided upto initial bronchioles.

132) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lung which
can never be expelled because there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung
walls.

133)

C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases

134) If we push voluntarily abdominal contents towards diaphragm, it will lead to expiration
without involvement of intercostal muscle.
 135)

136)

Explanation

A. The primary structural difference between plant and animal cells is the presence of a
rigid cell wall in plant cells. This cell wall provides structural support, shape, and
protection to plant cells.

B. Animal cells do not have a rigid cell wall; instead, they are surrounded by a flexible
plasma membrane that allows them to take on various shapes.

Answer: Option 3: Animal cell lacks rigid cell wall

137)

The correct answer is:

C. both (1) and (2)

Explanation: The cell is both a structural and a functional unit of life.

A. As the structural unit, the cell is the basic building block of all organisms, forming the
structure of an organism.

B. As the functional unit, the cell carries out essential functions required for life, such as
energy production, metabolism, and reproduction.

Thus, the cell is both structural and functional.

138)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 131 IInd para IIIrd line

 139) Function like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions are possible due to fluid
nature of the membrane.

140) Oligosaccharides of the glycolipid and glycoprotein of plasma membrane are helpful
in cell to cell recognition.

141)

Nucleic acid does not occur in cell membrane.

142)

New Ncert page 88.

143) Module No. 1, Pg. # 171

144) NCERT Pg. # 134

145) NCERT XI Pg. # 93, Para–5

146) The correct answer is: 3. Golgi body

Explanation:
The Golgi body (or Golgi apparatus) is often referred to as the "middle man" of the cell
because it modifies, sorts and packages proteins and lipids for transport to their final
destinations, either inside or outside the cell.

147) Explanation

A. The centromere is the region of a chromosome that connects two chromatids and helps
with the attachment of kinetochores.

B. In the metaphase or anaphase of mitosis or meiosis, the following common conditions

apply:

A. If there is 1 centromere and 2 chromatids attached, it suggests the chromosome

has duplicated, and the chromatids are connected at the centromere.

There can be 2 kinetochores attached to the chromatids (one for each chromatid).

Correct Answer ✔ 2

148) NCERT Pg. # 133- 6th Line

149) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 131, 8.5.1

150) NCERT XI Pg # 131

151)

Glycosylation is mainly the function of Golgi complex

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 133

153)

Centrioles, Ribosomes, Nucleolus

154)

Singer and Nicholson

155)

Protein but not energy

156)

Acidic pH

157) NCERT Page # 128, 129

158)

Autolysis

159)

Plasmodesmata

160) NCERT-XI Pg. # 132

161) The correct statement regarding prokaryotic cells are -

(A) Genetic material is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
(C) The plasma membrane is structurally similar to that of the eukaryotes.

162) NCERT (XIth) (E); Pg. # 133; Para-8.5.3.2

 163) Active transport

164) NCERT (XIth) (E); Pg. # 132; Para-8.5.2

165)

Lysosomes

166)

NCERT Page no 96

167)

Anthocyanins

168) NCERT Pg. # 131

169) NCERT XI (Eng.), Pg.# 127, 128

170) NCERT Pg.# 127

171)

Chloroplast are formed by the process of packaging and released from Mitochondria.

172)

Rudolf Virchow

173) Explanation:
A protoplast is a plant or bacterial cell that has had its cell wall removed, leaving the cell
membrane and contents intact. It still contains the cell membrane, nucleus, and other
organelles, but without the rigid outer cell wall.

Final Answer : option (1). Without cell wall

174)

Asking About:

A. The ions essential for binding ribosome subunits.

 Concept:

A. Ribosome Subunits: Ribosomes consist of two subunits: a large subunit and a small subunit.
These subunits come together during protein synthesis.
B. Magnesium Ions (Mg+2): Magnesium ions play a crucial role in stabilizing the ribosome
structure and are essential for the association of the large and small ribosomal subunits.
C. Other Ions: While other ions are important for various cellular processes, they don't have the
same specific role in ribosome subunit binding.

Solution:

A. Mg+2: Is well-known for its critical role in stabilizing ribosome structure and facilitating
subunit association.

Answer:

A. The correct answer is 1. Mg+2.

175) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134, para-8.5.3.4

176)

Periplasmic space

177)

Centrosome

178)

Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

179)

rRNA + protein

180)

Mycoplasma