09-07-2025

4504CMD303035250001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

cos2 (20°) is equal to :-

(1) 1 + cos 40°

(2) 1 – cos 40°

(3)

(4)

2) Find the value of sin(–30° ) + cos (–30°) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If x = t2, then graph between and t will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) = ……

(1) Secx.tanx – sec2x

(2) 2secx – 2tanx
(3) 0
(4) None of the above

5) The slope of the tangent to the curve y = ln (cosx) at x = is

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3)

(4)

6) Given that y = . Minimum positive value of y is :-

(1) zero
(2) 2
(3) 5

(4)

7) Use the small angle approximation to find approximate value for :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) tan 420° is equal to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If s = ut + at2 then =?
(Here u and a are constant)

(1) u + at
(2) u
(3) a
(4) a/2

10) Find the value of :-

(1) 0.333
(2) 0.995
(3) 0.9995
(4) 0.9999

11) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
time is :

(1) 0.2 cm/s

(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

12)

(1) sec x × cot x

(2) sec x
(3) sec x × cos x
(4) sec x × tan x

13)

The equation of shown sinusoidal graph is :-

(1) y = sinx
(2) y = 5 sinx
(3) y = 10 sinx
(4) y = 5 sin 2x

14) sin15° cos15° is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Graph of y = sin x is given. Area of shaded region is :

(1) π – 2
(2) 2
(3) π + 2
(4) π

16) A particle moves through angular displacement θ on a circular path of radius r. The linear
displacement will be :

(1) 2r sin (θ/2)

(2) 2r cos (θ/2)
(3) 2r tan (θ/2)
(4) 2r cot (θ/2)

17) If then is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

18) At what angle the two vectors of magnitude (A + B) and A – B must act, so that the resultant is
?

(1)
cos–1

(2)
cos–1
cos–1
(3)

–1
cos
(4)

19) Find unit vector which is perpendicular to and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Vector makes an angle with Z-axis equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) Resultant of two vectors and is of magnitude P. If is reversed, then resultant is of

magnitude Q. What is the value of P + Q2 ?
2
 2 2
(1) F1 + F2
2 2
(2) F1 – F2
2 2
(3) 2(F1 – F2 )
2 2
(4) 2(F1 + F2 )

22) What is the component of along

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

If then which of the following statements is wrong

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Magnitude of the resultant of two vectors shown is :-

(1)
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

25) Assertion: Three vectors equal in magnitude cannot produce zero resultant.
Reason: Minimum four vectors required to produce zero resultant.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
26) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

27) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

28) If the dimensions of length are expressed as Gxcyhz; where G,c and h are the universal
gravitational constant, speed of light and Planck's constant respectively, then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) For the pitch of a screw gauge 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be
:-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

30) Two full turns of the circular scale of screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading of 3 mm and the 35th division of circular scale coincides with the reference line of main
scale. The diameter of the wire is :

(1) 3.38 mm
(2) 3.32 mm
(3) 3.73 mm
(4) 3.67 mm

31) What is the reading of micrometer (screwgauge) shown in figure :- (Assume least count = 0.01
mm and no zero error)

(1) 2.31 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

32)

The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 1.5%

33) The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5.00 ± 0.05) kg and (1.00 ± 0.05) m3
respectively. Then the maximum possible percentage error in density :-

(1) 3%
(2) 10%
(3) 6%
(4) 5%

34) If L.C. of a vernier calliper is 0.2 mm. If main scale reading is 12 mm and 3rd division of vernier
scale coincides with base line, find measured value by vernier calliper :

(1) 1.23 cm
(2) 1.26 cm
(3) 12.6 cm
(4) 12.3 cm

35) The circular scale of a micrometer has 100 divisions and pitch of 1 mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 6.41 mm
(2) 3.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

36) Significant figures in 75600 are-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 7

37) The heat generated in a circuit is given by Q = I2Rt, where I is curent , R is resistance, and t is
time. If the percentage errors in measuring I, R , and t are 2%, 1% and 1%, respectively, then the
maximum error in measuring heat will be

(1) 2 %
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 6%

38) A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8±0.2) m in a time (4.0±0.3) s. The velocity of the
body within error limits is :-

(1) (3.45 ± 0.2)m s–1

(2) (3.45 ± 0.3)m s–1
(3) (3.45 ± 0.4)m s–1
(4) (3.45 ± 0.5)m s–1

39) The graph of function y = 1 + cos x will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40) Find dimensions of an unknown quantity ϕ. If relation is given . Where m

= mass, a = acceleration and ℓ = length:-
(1) [MLT2]
(2) [MT–2]
0 0
(3) [M LT ]
(4) [ML–3]

41) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) If P, Q, R are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can never be meaningful quantity

(a) (b) PQ – R

(c) (d)

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

43) The number 3.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give

(1) 3.85
(2) 3.80
(3) 3.83
(4) 3.84

44) Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements,
the reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect
or due to rough handling.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
45) The position x of a particle at time t is given by , where Vo is constant and a > 0.
The dimensions of Vo and a are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is/are correct :

(1) 1 mL = 1 cc
(2) 1 L = 1dm3
(3) 1 atm = 760 torr
(4) All of these

2) How many moles of magnesium phosphate (Mg3(PO4)2) will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 3.125 × 10–2

(2) 1.25 × 10–2
(3) 2.5 × 10–2
(4) 0.02

3) Weight of a single molecule of water is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 g

(2) 6.02 × 1023 g
(3) 6.02 × 10–23 g
(4) None of these

4) Vapour density of gas is 11.2. Volume occupied by 2.4g of this at STP will be :-

(1) 11.21L
(2) 2.24L
(3) 22.4L
(4) 2.4L

5) Density of a gas at STP is 4.5 g/L, then its molar mass would be (approximately) :

(1) 50
(2) 75
(3) 25
(4) 100
6) If 20% nitrogen is present in a compound, then minimum molecular weight of the compound will
be

(1) 144
(2) 28
(3) 288
(4) 70

7) Two oxides of a metal contains 50% and 40% of the metal respectively. The formula of the first
oxide is MO. Then the formula of the second oxide is

(1) MO2
(2) M2O3
(3) M2O
(4) M2O5

8) For the formation of NH3, if 0.5 moles H2 were used, moles of N2 required for the complete
reaction will be :-

(1) 0.16
(2) 0.32
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.0

9) Statement I : Number of gram-atoms present in 1 atom is NA.

Statement II : Number of electrons added to 32 gram of O-atom to convert into O is 4NA.
2–

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

10) 50 ml Toluene(g) undergoes combustion with excess of oxygen. Calculate the volume
contraction, if water is formed in liquid state.

(1) 0.15 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 150 ml
(4) 50 ml

11) In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mole of A, 0.6 mole of B and 0.72 mole of C ?

(1) 0.30
(2) 0.24
(3) 0.72
(4) 0.50

12) What will be the volume of CO2 at NTP obtained on heating 10 grams of 90% pure limestone?

(1) 22.4 litres

(2) 2.016 litres
(3) 2.24 litres
(4) 20.16 litres

13) 0.52 g of a dibasic acid required 100 mL of

0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralisation. The equivalent weight of acid is :

(1) 26
(2) 52
(3) 104
(4) 156

14) Calculate the equivalent weight of S in SO2 :-

(1) 32 g
(2) 8 g
(3) 64 g
(4) 16 g

15) The atomic mass of an element is 24. if valency is 2, the vapour density of the volatile chloride
will be:

(1) 95
(2) 47.5
(3) 667.5
(4) 81

16) Law of conservation of mass is not applicable in:-

(1) Exothermic reaction

(2) Endothermic reaction
(3) Combustion reaction
(4) Nuclear reaction

17) If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, which reactant is left at the end of the
experiment?

(1) 10 ml of H2
(2) 5 ml of O2
(3) 10 ml of O2
(4) 5 ml of H2
18) Assertion : 22.4 L of N2 at NTP and 5.6 L O2 at NTP contain equal number of molecule.
Reason : Under similar condition of T and P, all gases contains equal number of atoms in equal
volume.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N
NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is :

(1) 20 ml
(2) 40 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 4 ml

20) Statement I : If electron has magnetic quantum number –1, then it can't be present in s-orbital.
Statement II : Maximum number of electrons present in d-orbital are 10.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

21) If number of electrons present in X+3 is 16, then number of protons in X will be

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

22) Which of the following statement is incorrect for cathode ray's.

(1) They are deflected by magnetic and electric field.

(2) The e/m ratio of cathode rays are constant.
(3) They are matter particles.
(4) They are stream of positively charged particle.

23) If in periodic table the mass of an atom of C12 assumed to be 150 units then what will be mass of
an atom of O16 ?

(1) 150 unit

(2) 200 unit
(3) 100 unit
(4) 50 unit
24) Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25)

A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas & then emits two photons one photon has a wavelength 500
nm then the wavelength of second photon in nm: -

(1) 750
(2) 850
(3) 950
(4) 650

26)

According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 5th orbit is :

(1)
5

(2)
2.5

(3)
6

(4)
25
27)

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are

25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelength λ1 and λ2 will be:-

(1)

(2) λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2
(4) λ1 = 4λ2

28) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) Na10+

29) When an electron jumps from 'L' level to 'M' level there occurs ?

(1) Emission of energy

(2) Absorption of energy
(3) Emission of visible rays
(4) Emission of X rays

30) If the radius of 3rd Bohr's orbit of H is x, then radius of 4th orbit of Li2+ ion would be :-

(1)
x

(2)
x

(3)
x
(4) None of these

31) The ratio of area covered by second orbital to the first orbit is :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 16 : 1

32) Number of electrons present in 1.6 g methane would be :-

(1) 1.6 NA
(2) 0.1 NA
(3) NA
(4) 16 NA

33) In the following transition which statement is correct

(1) E3–1 = E3–2 – E2–1

(2) λ3 = λ1 + λ2
(3) v3 = v2 + v1
(4) All of these

34) If an electron jumps from 3rd orbit to 2nd orbit of Li+2 the energy of emitted photon will be :-

(1) 5.4 eV
(2) 17 eV
(3) 1.8 eV
(4) 15 eV

35) The energy needed to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground to its third excited state is

(1) 12.1 ev
(2) 10.2 ev
(3) 0.85 ev
(4) 12.75 ev

36) True statements are

(a) Electromagnetic waves do not require medium to move.
(b) All type of electromagnetic radiations have same wavelengths.
(c) In vacuum all electromagnetic radiations, travel at the same speed.
(d) The oscillating electric & magnetic fields produced by oscillating charged particles are
perpendicular to each other and both are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.

(1) a, c and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and c
(4) a, b, c and d

37) Which transition emits photon of maximum frequency :-

(1) Second spectral line of Balmer series

(2) Second spectral line of Paschen series
(3) Fifth spectral line of Humphery series
(4) First spectral line of Lyman series
38) If the kinetic energy of a free electron triples, then its de Broglie wavelength becomes _____ of
initial:

(1) 3
(2) 3
(3) 1/3

(4)

39) If position and momentum of an electron are determined at a time, then ΔP = 3Δx, now the
uncertainity in velocity of electron will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of microscopic
(1)
objects and is negligible for that of macroscopic objects.
In multi-electron atoms, energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decrease with increase in
(2)
the atomic number.
(3) 2s subshell have 2 spherical nodes.
The negative electronic energy for hydrogen atom means that the energy of the electron in H-
(4)
atom is lower than the energy of a free electron at rest.

41) The number of radial nodes of 5s and 3d orbitals are respectively :-

(1) 4, 0
(2) 0, 4
(3) 1, 4
(4) 4, 1

42) Which one of the following set of quantum number is not possible for 4p electron :-

(1)
n = 4, l = 1, m = 2, s =

(2)
n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 4, l = 1, m = –1, s =
(4)
n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = –

43) Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 3

44) A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11 M and 2N electrons. The number of p-electrons in
the atom are :-

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 6

45)

If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is written as 1s2, 2s2 it would violate:-

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Paulis exclusion principle
(3) Both Hund's and Pauli's principles
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY

1) Match the following column - I with column - II

Column - I Column - II

He discovered an organelle in early 1831

(A) Theodar schwann (i) which is absent in mature human
erythrocyte

He concluded that cell wall is the unique

(B) Rudolf Virchow (ii)
character to the plant cell

He was a German botanist who examined

(C) Robert Brown (iii)
large number of plant cell

Matthias He explained that cells divided and new

(D) (iv)
Schleiden cells are formed from pre-existing cells
(1) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
(3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
(4) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)

2) Which of the following is not incorrect?

(1) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell only in width

(2) Bacteria could be to in length
(3) Human RBCs are about 9μm in diameter.
(4) All of these

3) Match the column

Cell Shape

(a) Epithelial cells (i) Branched and long

(b) Mesophyll cells (ii) Elongated

(c) Tracheid (iii) Long and narrow

(d) Nerve cells (iv) Round and oral

(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

4) Which one is non-membranous cell organelle found only in animal cell-

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Nucleus
(4) All of these

5) The fluid nature of plasma membrane is responsible for all, except

(1) Endocytosis
(2) Secretion
(3) Protecting cells from virus attacks
(4) Formation of intercellular junctions

6) Main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells is:-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Centriole
(3) Cell organelle
(4) Cytoplasm

7) In a prokaryotic cell,
I. Pigment containing membranous extensions present in cytoplasm are (a) .
II. Reserve material are stored in cytoplasm in the form of __(b)__ .

(a) (b)

(1) Fimbriae Gas vacuoles

(2) Vesicles Polysome

(3) Chromatophores Inclusion bodies

(4) Tubules Inclusion bodies

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) A – Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

B –Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all organisms
C –All cells arise from pre-existing cells
D – Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are wrong
(3) Statement A, B, C and D are correct
(4) Statement A, B, C and D are wrong

9) Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

(1) Muramic acid

(2) Calcium pectate
(3) Phosphoglycerides
(4) Hemicellulose

10) Which one of the following plastid is involved in storage of proteins?

(1) Chromoplast
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Amylplast
(4) Aleuroplast

11) Which of the following cell organelle is specialised for the synthesis of lipids and steroids ?

(1) SER
(2) RER
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Vacuole

12) The membrane of RBCs of human have protein and lipid content respectively in the ratio of
(1) 52 percent and 40 percent
(2) 40 percent and 52 percent
(3) 60 percent and 40 percent
(4) 70 percent and 30 percent

13) Plasmodesmata are

(1) Locomotory structures

(2) Membranes connecting the nucleus with cell wall
(3) Cytoplasmic connections between adjacent plant cells
(4) Lignified cemented layers between cells

14) Match the following and select the correct answer

Column I Column II

(a) Centrioles form (i) Infoldings in mitochondria

(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(c) Cristae (iii) RNA and protein

Basal body of cilia or

(d) Ribosomes (iv)
flagella
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

15) Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane ?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosomes

16) A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

(1) Lysosome
(2) Microsome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mesosome

17) Which is odd one out w.r.t. prokaryotic cell

(1) Possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope

(2) Membrane less cell organelle are present
(3) Plasma membrane is selective permeable
(4) Pili is composed of special protein

18) The _______ DNA confers certain unique phenotypic characters to such bacteria

(1) Genomic DNA

(2) RNA
(3) Mesosome
(4) Plasmid

19) Here 'S' (Svedberg's unit) stands for the sedimentation coefficient then what are [A] & [B] for

prokaryotic cell ?

(1) A – 50S B – 30S

(2) A – 30S B – 50S
(3) A – 70S B – 50S
(4) A – 30S B – 70S

20) Select the wrong statement w.r.t. Prokaryotic cell

(1) Represented by bacteria, cyanobacteria, mycoplasma or PPLO

(2) Generally smaller and multiply more slowly than eukaryotic cell
(3) May vary greatly in shape and size
(4) Plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA

21) What is the basis of classification of bacteria into Gram positive and Gram negative?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Glycocalyx layer
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) All of these

22) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) ER divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(b) The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and
proteins
(c) Lysosomes is the double membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of
packaging in the golgi body
(d) In plant cells, the vacuole can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the cell

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

23) Assertion: Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, lysosome and vacuoles are collectively
considered as a part of endomembrane system.
Reason: The functions of endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, lysosome and vacuoles are
coordinated.

(1) A and R both are true but R does not explain A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A and R both are true and R explain A
(4) A and R both are false

24) Identify the following cell organelles

Statement (P): Cell organelle within an organelle
Statement (S): Contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments
Statement (R): Cell organelle divide by fission

(1) P - Ribosome, S - Chloroplast, R - Lysosome

(2) P - Chloroplast, S - Ribosome, R - Chloroplast
(3) P - Mitochondria, S - Ribosome, R - Mitochondria
(4) P - Ribosome, S - Chloroplast, R - Mitochondria

25) Which of the following is not common in mitochondria and chloroplast?

(1) Presence of 70 S ribosomes

(2) Presence of two membranes
(3) Presence of photosynthetic pigments
(4) 1 and 2 both

26) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) 60S subunit of ribosome is present in Mitochondria

(2) 50S subunit of ribosome is present in Chloroplast
(3) 70S Ribosome is present in Golgi body
(4) 80S Ribosome is present in Mitochondria

27) The longer and shorter arms of a submetacentric chromosome are respectively referred to as

(1) s-arm and i-arm respectively

(2) p-arm and q-are respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(4) m-arm and n-are respectively

28) Arrangement of microtubules in flagellum axoneme and a centriole is respectively:

(1) 9 + 2 and 9 + 1
(2) 9 + 2 and 9 + 0
(3) 9 + 0 and 9 + 2
(4) 9 + 1 and 9 + 0

29) Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?

(1) Motility
(2) Transportation
(3) Nuclear division
(4) Lipid synthesis

30) Match List I with List II.

List I List II
A. Axoneme I. Centriole
B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella
C. Circular DNA III. Chromosome
D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-IV, B-II C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

31) The material of the nucleus is stained by — — and was given the name chromatin By........

(1) Basic dyes, Robert Hook

(2) Acidic dyes, W. Harvey
(3) Basic dyes, Flemming
(4) None of these

32) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles
(2) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
(3) Secondary construction are non-staining and are found at a constant location.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between
(4)
nucleus and cytoplasm

33) How many of the following statements are correct:

a. Nuclear envelope forms a barrier between nuclear material and cytoplasm
b. Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cell actively carrying out protein synthesis
c. A chromatin contain DNA, histone protein, non- histone protein and also RNA
d. Primary constriction of chromosome is called as kinetochores

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

34) Select the correct matching:

Column-I Column-II
A. G1 Phase 1. Gap 1 Phase
B. Cytokinesis 2. Nuclear division
3. Cytoplasmic
C. Karyokinesis
division
D. S phase 4. Synthesis phase
(1) A‒3, B‒1, C‒2, D‒4
(2) A‒1, B‒3, C‒2, D‒4
(3) A‒4, B‒3, C‒2, D‒1
(4) A‒1, B‒3, C‒4, D‒2

35) In a diploid cell before S-phase amount of DNA is 20 pico gram(pg). What will be the amount of
DNA in each daughter cell after meiosis-I?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 5 pg
(4) 40 pg

36) When a cell does not divide, it enters

A. G1 phase
B. Quiscent stage
C. S-shape
D. G2 phase

(1) Both A and C

(2) Both B and C
(3) Only B
(4) Only D

37) Statement-I : A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture. These cells
divide once in approximately every 23 hours
Statement-II : This duration of cell cycle can vary from organism to organism and also from cell
type to cell type. Yeast for example, can progress through the cell cycle in only about 90 minutes.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
38) Which of the following event occur in given figure ?

(1) Disappearance of GB, ER and nuclear membrane

(2) Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes
(3) Division of centromere at the last of this phase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

39) Arrange the following mitotic events in the correct sequence :-

(A) Equatorial plate
(B) Centromere division
(C) Condensation of chromatin
(D) Decondensation of chromosome

(1) A → C → B → D
(2) C → A → B → D
(3) C → D → A → B
(4) A → B → D → C

40) Read the following statements and identify them as true (T) or false (F) and accordingly choose
the correct option.

A Splitting of centromere takes place during anaphase of mitosis.

During the anaphase of mitosis, the centromere of each chromosome

B remains directed towards pole and hence at the leading edge, with
the arms of the chromosome trailing behind.

C Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform during end of prophase.

D In animal cells cytokinesis is carried out by furrow formation.

(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
(2) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-T
(3) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T
(4) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T

41) During cell division chromosome attaches with spindles fibres through:

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Centrosome
(3) Centriole
(4) Secondary constriction

42) Assertion: Cytokinesis in animal cells occur by the formation of furrow in cell wall.
Reason: The furrow gradually deepens & ultimately joins in the centre dividing the cell cytoplasm
into two.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

(2) Assertion is false & Reason is true.
(3) Assertion is true & Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true.

43) Which among the following occurs only once in meiosis?

(a) Karyokinesis
(b) DNA replication
(c) Cytokinesis

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (b) only

44) a. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

b. Formation of recombination nodules
c. Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres
d. Alignment of bivalent chromosome on the equatorial plate
e. Terminalisation of chiasmata
Select the correct sequence of events during meiosis-I:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) A diploid cell has 68 chromosomes. How many bivalents will be formed in this cell during
Meiosis-I ?

(1) 68
(2) 34
(3) 136
(4) 14

46) Select the incorrect statement with respect to the structure of a bone :

(1) The matrix of bone is present in the form of layers called lamellae.
(2) Lamellae consists of concentric circles.
(3) Lacunae contain bone cells called chondrocytes.
(4) The matrix is hard because of the presence of salts such as calcium phosphate.

47) Main function of compound epithelium is:-

(1) Secretes fibres of structural proteins like collagen or elastin.
(2) Secretion of enzymes and hormones
(3) Carry impulses from one part of body to another.
(4) Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

48)

.....(1)..... epithelium is involved in secretion and absorption and is found in .....(2)..... :-

(1) A-Squamous B-air sacs of lungs

B-inner surface of
(2) A-Cuboidal
fallopian tube

(3) A-Columnar B-lining of intestine

(4) A-Compound B-dry surface of skin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49)

Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in which type of tissue

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of above

50) Identify the following epithelium, this epithelium is found in :

(1) Walls of blood vessels

(2) Ducts of glands
(3) Lining of gall bladder
(4) Air sacs of lungs

51) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) Found in the lining of body cavity
52) Which of the following type of cell junctions are found in animal tissues?
(a) adhering junctions (b) tight junctions
(c) gap junctions (d) plasmodesmata

(1) a , b and d
(2) a , b and c
(3) b , c and d
(4) d only

53) The tissue which joins bone to bone and muscle to bone respectively :-

(1) Tendon, Ligament

(2) Ligament, Cartilage
(3) Cartilage, Ligament
(4) Ligament, Tendon

54)

How many of the following do not present in skin ?

Compound Epithelium, Dense Irregular Connective tissue, ligament , Dense regular Connective
tissue.
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

55) ____________ is pearly white, unbranched, wavy and most abundant protien fibre in animal
kingdom.

(1) Yellow fibre

(2) Elastic fibre
(3) Collagen fibre
(4) Reticular fibre

56) The unicellular gland present in the lining of stomach?

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Paneth cells
(3) Mucus gland
(4) Ciliated epithelium

57)

Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a glandualr tissue, Find out the incorrect option
w.r.t. given diagram.
(1) Pancreas, salivary gland
(2) Mammary gland, sebaceous gland
(3) Goblet gland, gastric gland
(4) Both (1) and (2)

58) Basement membrane is made up of :-

(1) Endodermal cells

(2) Epidermal cells
(3) Both endodermal and epiderml cells
(4) No cells at all, but it is a product of epithelial cells and connective tissues

59) Assertion :-Arachidonic acid is saturated fatty acid. Reason :- There are no double bonds in the
structure of Arachidonic acid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

60) Read the following statements and find out the correct statements.

(1) Palmitic acid is saturated while arachidonic acid is unsaturated fatty acid.
(2) Monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides are lipids having both glycerol and acetic acid.
Saturated fatty acids have one or more C=C double bonds while unsaturated fatty acids are
(3)
without double bonds.
(4) Fats and oils are differentiated on the basis of –COOH groups.

61) Assertion :- Glycogen gives Iodine test. The glycogen-I2 is red in colour.
Reason :- Glycogen can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

62) Assertion :- All polysaccharides do not show Benedict's Test.

Reason :- Polysaccharides can't have '1-4" glycosidic linkage.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

63) Which of the following is triglyceride ?

(1) wax
(2) phospholipid
(3) oil
(4) steroid

64)

Match the entities in Column I with their characters in Column II regarding average composition of
cells:
Column I Column II
(Component) (% of the total
cellular mass)
(A) Water (i) 2
(B) Proteins (ii) 5-7
(C) Carbohydrates (iii) 1
(D) Lipids (iv) 70-90
(E) Nucleic acids (v) 10-15
(F) Ions (vi) 3

(1) A-iv, B-v, C-vi, D-i, E-ii, F-iii

(2) A-iv, B-v, C-vi, D-i, E-iii, F-ii
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-ii, F-vi
(4) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i, F-vi

65) Reducing sugars are sugars which can reduce Cu2+ ions into Cu+. Which of the following
represents a reducing sugar ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Both 2 and 3

66) The mast cells secrete the following substance:

(1) Heparin
(2) Histamine
(3) Serotonin
(4) All of the above
67) Connective tissue is :-

(1) Ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces

(2) Mesodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(3) Ectodermal in origin without intercellular spaces
(4) Mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces

68) The function of gap junction is to :-

(1) Performing cementing tokeep neighbouring cells together.

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(2)
of ions, small molecules and sometimes large molecules
(3) Seprate two cells from each other
(4) strops substances from leakage

69) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

70) Earpinna & Tip of nose consists :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

71) Select the option of location in which the given epithelia is found :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Fallopian tubes

72) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, trachea and bronchi is

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium
73) The outer covering of cartilage is called :-

(1) Peritoneum
(2) Mysium
(3) Endosteum
(4) Perichondrium

74) Exocrine glands

(1) Consist of squamous cells

(2) Consist of compound epithelium
(3) Secrete hormones
(4) Consist of cuboidal or columnar epithelial cells

75) Leakage of substances between tissues is prevented by ?

(1) Adhering junctions

(2) Gap junctions
(3) Tight junctions
(4) None of the above

76) How many chondrocytes are their in each lacunae in cartilage

(1) 1-2 chondrocytes in each lacunae only

(2) 1-4 chondrocytes in each lacunae only
(3) 1-4 chondrocytes in 2 lacunae only
(4) 1-2 chondrocytes in 2 lacunae only

77) Match the entities in Column I with their characters in Column II with respect to elements
present in living matter:
Column I Column II
(A) Sodium (i) Negligible
(B) Calcium (ii) 0.1
(C) Magnesium (iii) 1.5
(D) Silicon (iv) 0.2
(E) Oxygen (v) 65.0

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii, E-v

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, E-v
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i, E-v
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-v

78) The fibres of connective tissue provide

(a) Strength
(b) Elasticity
(c) Flexibility
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only a and b
(4) All a, b and c

79) Which of the following is absent in P.C.T. of nephron

(1) Microvilli
(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Simple columnar epithelium

80) In which type of epithelial tissue, nucleus located at the base :-

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Psedostratified epithelium

81) Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts and many collagen fibres that are oriented
differently which are present -

(1) in the skin

(2) Salivary glands
(3) in blood vessel
(4) Nephrons

82) Basal lamina of Basement membrane is made up of :

(1) Glycoprotein
(2) Glycoprotein & mucopolysaccharide
(3) Protein fibres
(4) Hyaluronic acid

83) Regneration is absent in :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Nervous tissue
(4) both 1 & 2

84) The cartilage is :-

(1) Solid and pliable

(2) Hard and pliable
(3) Hard and non-pliable
(4) Only pliable

85) Lipids are extracted with acid insoluble fraction because:-

(1) its molecular weight is less than 800 Da

(2) it form vesicle or micelle which are not water soluble
(3) it is polymer
(4) it is not a polymer

86) In polysaccharides, monosaccharides are linked by which bond ?

(1) Peptide bond

(2) Ester bond
(3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

87) Carbohydrates are :-

(1) Aldehyde and ketone derivatives

(2) Polyhydroxy compound
(3) Hydrates of carbon
(4) All of these

88) Lactose is composed of-

(1) Glucose + galactose

(2) Glucose + fructose
(3) Glucose + glucose
(4) Glucose + mannose

89) Lipid may be :

(1) Monoglyceride
(2) Diglyceride
(3) Triglyceride
(4) All the above

90) Polysaccharide is the part of __

(1) Insoluble fraction

(2) Soluble pellet
(3) Retentate
(4) Both 1 and 3
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 1 4 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 1 4 4 4 2 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 3 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ∵ cos 2θ = 2 cos2θ – 1

2)

Question explanation
Let's solve sin(-30°) + cos( -30°) step by step.

Concept: Properties of negative angles

Formula:

A. Sine of negative angles: sin( -θ) = - sin (θ).

B. Cosine of negative angles: cos(-θ) = cos(θ).

Calculation
1. Use the properties of negative angles

sin(-30°) = -sin (30°) = .

cos(-30°) = cos(30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =

⇒ sin(-30°) + cos(-30°) =
Correct Option : 2

Final Answer:

3)

4)

∵ sec2x – tan2x = 1

5) y = ℓn(cos x)

Let t = cos x →
 so y = ℓnt

⇒
= – tan x

6) y will be minimum when denominator will maximum.

∴ =
=2

ymin = =5

7)

sin 1° = 1 ×

cos 2° = 1

8)

tan(420) = tan(420 – 360)

= tan60° =

9)

10) (0.999)1/2 = (1 – 0.001)1/2 = 1 – × 0.001 = 0.9995

11) If side = a, then rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.

time =

12) Use trigonometric identity and simplify, you will need to differentiate secx =1/cosx Now
use division rule.
13) (1) Asking About:
Identifying the equation of a sinusoidal graph based on its amplitude, period, and other
transformations
(2) Concept:
The general form of a sinusoidal function is:

where:
• A is the amplitude (the maximum vertical distance from the centerline).

• B determines the period, which is calculated as Period = .

• C is the phase shift (horizontal shift).
• D is the vertical shift (centerline of the wave).
(3) Formula:
Using the general sinusoidal form

(4) Solution / Explanation:

• From the graph, we observe the amplitude (maximum value) is 5, so A = 5.
• The period of the graph is one full cycle, which occurs over a length of 2π. Using the
formula for period:

• There is no phase shift (C = 0) or vertical shift (D = 0).

Thus, the equation of the sinusoidal graph is:

y = 5 sin(x).

14) 1. Question Explanation :

We are asked to find the value of sin(15°) . cos(15°) This involves using a standard
trigonometric identity to simplify the expression.

2. Concept Based :
Trigonometric Identity for Product of Sine and Cosine

3. Formula Used :

sin(A) . cos(A) = sin(2A)

4. Calculation :
For A = 15° we have:

sin(15°) . cos(15°) = sin(30°)

We know that sin(30°) = , so:

Sin(15°). cos(15°)

Conclusion :

The correct answer is:

This corresponds to option 3.
15) Area 1 × π

= π + [–1 –1]
=π–2

16)

Linear displacement

17)

Explain : a relationship between the magnitudes of the cross product and dot product of two
vectors and . find the magnitude of the vector .

Concept : Cross product and dot product.

Formula : Dot Product: | . | = abcos θ, where θ is the angle between and .

Cross Product: | . | = abcos θ
Magnitude of resultant of

Calculation : Given: | × | = ( . )

ab sinθ = ab cosθ

tanθ = cos θ
 θ = 30°

Final Answer : (4)

18)

A2+B2 = A2+B2+2AB+A2+B2–2AB+2(A2–B2)cos θ
A2+B2 = 2(B2–A2)cos θ

19) Area =

= (2 – (– 2)) – =

Area =

20)
Let P makes angle g from Z-axis

∴
Here Pz = and

|P| =

21) P2 = F12 + F22 + 2F1 F2 cosθ

Q2 = F12 + F22 – 2F1 F2 cosθ
P2 + Q2 = 2(F12 + F22)

22) Component of along

=

or B2 = 2

23) is ⊥ to and .

24)

Resultant C = =1

25)

Conceptual.

26) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

27)

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]

28) Length ∝ Gxcyhz

L=
By comparing the power of M, L and T in both sides
we get –x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 1 and –2x – y – z = 0
By solving above three equations we get
29)

L.C. =

L.C. =

L.C = 0.005 mm

30)

L.C. = = mm
Diameter = 3mm + 35 (.01 mm) + 0.03 mm = 3.38 mm

31)

Reading of screw gauge

= 2mm + 31 × 0.01 mm = 2.31 mm

32) E = K + U = 100 + 200 = 300.0 J

ΔE = ΔK + ΔU = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0 J

33)

Density (ρ) =

= 1% + 5% = 6%

34) Measured value = MSR + LC × VSR = 12 mm + 0.2 mm × 3

= 12.6 mm = 1.26 cm

35) Least count = 1/100mm = 0.01mm

zero error = (CSR) (least count)
Final reading = (MSR + CSR × L.C) – (zero error)
= (3 × 1 mm + 46 × .01 mm) – (.05mm)
= 3.41 mm

36) Traiveling zero are not significant figure.

37) Q = I2Rt

+
=2 × 2 + 1 + 1
=6%

38) Here, S = (13.8 ± 0.2) cm; t = (4.0 ± 0.3)s

Also,

ΔV = ± 0.0895 × 3.45 = ± 0.3

(rounding off to one place of decimal)
V = (3.45 ± 0.3) m s–1.

39) Graph of (cos x) at line y = +1

40) input = 1 +

α = [MT–2]

[ϕ] =

41)

42)

Different dimentions can't be added or subtracted.

43)

If the digit to be rounded off is 5 then the preceding digit is increased by one if it is odd.

44) Assertion & Reason both are correct

Theory
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Conceptual

47)

From the formula, Mg3(PO4)2, its clear that 8 moles of oxygen atoms are present in 1 mole of
magnesium phosphate.
∴ 0.25 moles of oxygen atoms will be present in18 × 0.25 = 3.125 × 10−2 moles of Mg3(PO4)2.

48)

1 amu = 1.6×10–24g
mass of H2O molecule = 18 amu
18×1.6×10–24g
= 3.0 × 10–23 g

49)

To solve the problem of finding the volume occupied by 2.4 g of a gas with a vapor density of
11.2 at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we can follow these steps:
The molecular mass (M) of a gas can be calculated using the formula:
M = 2 × Vapor Density
Given that the vapor density of the gas is 11.2, we can substitute this value into the formula:
M = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4g/mol
Next, we need to calculate the number of moles (n) of the gas using the formula:

We have the given mass of the gas as 2.4 g and the molecular mass we just calculated as 22.4
g/mol:

Calculating this gives:

n = 0.1071 mol(approximately)

At STP, one mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 liters. Therefore, the volume (V)
occupied by the gas can be calculated using the formula:
V = n × 22.4L

Substituting the value of n we found:

V = 0.1071 mol × 22.4L/mol

50)

Density = 4.5 g/litre

4.5 g per litre
Molar mass = 22.4 ℓ of a gas
1 liter = 4.5 g
22.4 ℓ = 4.5 × 22.4 = 100.8 g = 100 g

51)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the minimum molecular weight of a compound
that contains 20% nitrogen by mass. Given the atomic mass of nitrogen as 14, we need to
determine the smallest possible molecular weight of the compound that results in this nitrogen
percentage.
Underlying Concept: The problem is based on the concept of percentage composition by mass in
chemical compounds. Percentage composition refers to the mass percent of each element in a
compound. Here, we use the known atomic mass of nitrogen and the percentage to calculate the
minimum molecular weight of the compound assuming the number of nitrogen atoms is minimized.
Relevant Formulas: The formula used is the percentage composition formula:

Where: - is the number of nitrogen atoms in the molecule, - 14 is the atomic mass of nitrogen
(given), - is the molecular weight of the compound.
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Let be the molecular weight and be the number of nitrogen

atoms. 2. Given , substitute into the formula: 3. For minimum molecular

weight, take : Thus, the minimum molecular weight is 70.

Tips and Tricks: When asked for minimum molecular weight based on percentage composition,
try starting with one atom of the element in question. This simplifies calculations and gives a
boundary value.
Common Mistakes: Assuming multiple nitrogen atoms without checking if one atom satisfies the
condition. Also, mixing up mass percentage formula or forgetting to multiply by 100 for
percentage.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like 28 or 144 are incorrect because they do not
satisfy the mass percentage equation for 20% nitrogen. For example, if the molecular weight is 28,
the nitrogen percentage would be , which is higher than 20%.

52)

Let at wt of metal = x
oxide :- I
M O
 :
formula = MO
Hence x = 16
In oxide II : M O

formula of II oxide M2O3

2 : 3

53)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

1 mole of nitrogen will need 3 moles of hydrogen.
Using unitary method 0.5 mole of hydrogen will need 0.5/3 moles of nitrogen.
= 0.16

54)

Conceptual

55)

C7H8(g) + 9O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

50 ml of toluene produced 350ml CO2 and 200 ml of H2. 50 × V volume of O2 is used.
Volume contraction = Final volume – Initial volume
Volume contraction = 500 ml − 350 ml = 150 ml

56) 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3
1 mole 0.6 0.72 mole
mole
In the above reaction, reactant "C" will be the limiting reactant and it will decide yield of
product.
∴ from 3 moles of C ; 1 mole product is formed

∴ from 0.72 mole of C = × 0.72

= 0.24 moles of product.

57)

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

Volume of CO2 = Number of moles × 22.4 L/mol

= 0.09 moles × 22.4 L/mol = 2.016 liters

58)
0.52/E = 100 × 0.1/1000
E = 52

59)

32g of sulphur combines with 32g of oxygen.

So, 8 of oxygen will combine with 8 g of sulphur.

60)

Formula of its chloride will be ; MCl2

Molar mass is = 24 + 71
Vapour density = molar mass/2
= 47.5

61)

Conceptual

62) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

30 20
- 30 15 30
= 0 ml 5 ml 30 ml

63)

Conceptual

64)

(6.3/126) × 2 × 250 = 0.1 × V

V = 40ml

65)

Conceptual

66) 16 + 3 = 19 Proton

67)

NCERT XI, Part-I Pg. # 31

 68)

69)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).

B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

70)

E1 = E2 + E3

On solving, wavelength = 750 nm

71) Asking About : Angular momentum

Concept : Bohr's model of atom

Solution/Explanation : We know the angular momentum =

where n = 5

so angular momentum = =
Answer option (2)

72)

= λ1 = 2λ2

73)
 Question Explanation:
The question asks for which species the Bohr atomic model is valid. The Bohr model is
specifically applicable to species with only one electron.
Given Data:
The given options are:

A. H⁺ (Hydrogen ion)
B. He (Helium)
C. Li⁺ (Lithium ion)
D. Na¹⁰⁺ (Sodium ion with 10 positive charges)

Concept: Bohr Atomic Model

Analysis :

A. One-Electron Species: Species that have only one electron in their electron configuration.
B. H⁺: Hydrogen has one proton and normally one electron. When it loses that electron, it
becomes H⁺, which has zero electrons. Therefore, the Bohr model is not applicable.
C. He: Helium has two protons and two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply to multi-
electron species.
D. Li⁺: Lithium has three protons and three electrons. When it loses one electron, it becomes Li⁺,
which has two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply.
E. Na¹⁰⁺: Sodium has 11 protons and 11 electrons. When it loses 10 electrons, it becomes Na¹⁰⁺,
which has only one electron. The Bohr model is applicable.

Final Answer

The Bohr model is valid only for species with one electron. Among the given options, only
Na¹⁰⁺ has one electron.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4) Na¹⁰⁺.

74)

Asking : Energy

Concept : Bohr's theory of atom

Solution :

When electron moving low energy to higher energy shell it will absorbed of energy

75)
⇒

76)

Area of circle is πr2.

According to Bohr's theory,
i.e.., from a given Z,

rn ∝ n2
Hence,
An ∝ n4

77)

Number of electrons = Number of molecules × Number of electrons in 1 molecule

Number of molecules = Number of moles × NA
(1.6/16)× NA × 10 = NA

78)

Conceptual

79)

Energy = –13.6Z2/n2
Energy difference = E3 - E2
= 17.eV

80)

81)

Conceptual
82)

Conceptual

83)

The de-Broglie wavelength changes by a factor of

84)

Δx.ΔP = ............(1)

we have given ΔP = 3Δx ⇒ Δx =

put in (1)

ΔP. =

ΔP2 =

ΔP = =

mΔv =

Δv =

85) NCERT-XI, Pg # 48,57,52,44, Part-1

86)

Number of radial node = n - l - 1

For 5s, radial node = 5 - 0 - 1
For 3d, radial node = 3 - 2 - 1
= 4,0

87)

For l = 1, m can't be 2

88)

Total no. of orbitals in

nth shell = n2
So, n = 3 (3)2 = 9
 89) Asking About - No of e- electrons.
Concept - quantum No.
Solution / Explanation -
Given Data
ele. → 2K,8L,11M,2N
total ele. → 2+8+11+2=23(V)
ele. configuration of V = 1S22S22P63S23P64S23d3
No. of p electrons = 6+6=12
therefore correct Ans → option (2) 12

90)

Conceptual

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XIth, Pg#88

92) NCERT Pg No. 89

93) NCERT Pg No. 89

94) Pg. No. 88

95)

NCERT XIth, Pg#93

96)

NCERT XIth, Pg#88

97)

(3) Chromatophores Inclusion bodies

98)

NCERT XIth, Pg#88,87

99)
NCERT XIth, Pg#94

100)

NCERT XIth, Pg#97

101)

NCERT XIth, Pg#95

102)

NCERT XIth, Pg#93

103)

NCERT XIth, Pg#94

104)

NCERT XIth, Pg#98&99

105)

NCERT XIth, Pg#96

106)

NCERT XIth, Pg#96

107)

NCERT XIth, Pg#89&90

108)

NCERT XIth, Pg#90

109)

NCERT XIth, Pg#98

110)

Generally smaller and mutiply more slowely than eukaryotic cell

111) NCERT XI, Pg # 90

112)

NCERT XIth, Pg#96

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

114) Ncert Pg No: 134_ 2021-22

115) NCERT-XI, Pg., 97, 98

116)

NCERT XIth, Pg#98

117)

NCERT XIth, Pg#101

118)

NCERT XIth, Pg#99

119)

NCERT XIth, Pg#98

120)

NCERT XIth, Pg#99,100

121)

NCERT XIth, Pg#100

122)

NCERT XIth, Pg#100,101

123)

NCERT XIth, Pg#100,101

124)

NCERT XIth, Pg#121

125)

NCERT XIth, Pg#121

126)

NCERT XI, Pg#122

127)

NCERT XIth, Pg#122

128) NCERT Pg.#164 10.2.1

129) NCERT-XI, Page # 122,123,129

A → Equatorial plate in metaphase
B → Centromere division in anaphase
C → Condensation of chromatin in prophase
D → Decondensation of chromosome

130)

NCERT XIth, Pg#122-123

131) NCERT/P–123 (PMT 2005)

132) NCERT-XI, Page # 124

Assertion is false.
Cytokinesis in animal cells does not occur by the formation of furrow in cell wall, because cell
wall is absent in animal cell.
So, cytokinesis in animal cells occur by the formation of furrow in cell membrane.

133)

NCERT XIth, Pg#126

134)

NCERT XIth, Pg#126

 135)

NCERT XIth, Pg#126

136)

NCERT XIth, Pg#104

137)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

138)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 101, 102

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, Fig-7.1 (c)

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

142)

In animal tissues, the following cell junctions are present:

A. (a) Adhering junctions – Help in mechanically attaching cells to each other.

B. (b) Tight junctions – Prevent leakage of substances across cells.
C. (c) Gap junctions – Facilitate communication between adjacent cells by allowing ions and small
molecules to pass through.

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

144)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102/103

145) Explanation:
The question asks you to identify the protein fiber that is described as pearly white,
unbranched, wavy, and the most abundant in the animal kingdom.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
 3. Collagen fibre

A. Explanation: Collagen is the most abundant protein in the animal kingdom and fits the
description given. It is a fibrous protein that forms strong, flexible fibers. These fibers are
often described as pearly white, unbranched, and have a wavy appearance. Collagen is a major
component of connective tissues like skin, tendons, ligaments, and bones.

146)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

147)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

148)

The basement membrane is a thin membrane supporting the cells of an epithelium and
separating them from the underlying tissue. It consists of mucopolysaccharide and very fine
fibrous proteins.

149)

NCERT XIth, Pg#106

150)

NCERT XIth, Pg#106

151)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

152)

NCERT XIth, Pg#110

153)

NCERT XIth, Pg#107

154)

NCERT XIth, Pg#105

155)
Maltose, Glucose

156)

NCERT XIth, Pg#103

157)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

158) The correct answer is Option 2: Facilitate communication between adjoining cells
by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and large
molecules. Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that directly connect the
cytoplasm of two adjacent cells. They are formed by the close apposition of membrane proteins
called connexins, which create channels that allow for the direct exchange of ions, small
molecules, and even some larger signaling molecules.

159)

Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

160) NCERT Pg. # 104, Para # 2

161) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

162)

NCERT XIth, Pg#101

163)

All mature cartilages are surrounded by a firmly attached, dense fibrous sheath of connective
tissue. Called perichondrium.

164)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

165)

NCERT XIth, Pg#102

166)

NCERT XIth, Pg#104

 167)

NCERT XIth, Pg#105

168) NCERT XI Page # 103

169) NCERT XI Page # 101

170) NCERT Pg# 2, para-6

171)

NCERT XIth, Pg#103

172)

Glycoprotein & mucopolysaccharide

173)

NCERT XIth, Pg#105

174) NCERT Pg # 104

175)

Concept:
Lipids are amphipathic and can form micelles or vesicles in water due to their hydrophobic
and hydrophilic regions, making them insoluble in water. This characteristic contributes to
their separation during analysis.
Explanation:
While not being polymers is the main biochemical reason for exclusion from the
macromolecular fraction, the formation of vesicles or micelles and water insolubility also
explain why they're treated separately during extraction.

176) NCERT, Page No. 151

177)

Concept:
Carbohydrates are:

A. Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones (contain multiple -OH groups and either an aldehyde or
ketone group)
B. Traditionally described as hydrates of carbon (general formula: Cₙ(H₂O)ₙ)
Explanation:
All given options correctly describe aspects of carbohydrates:

A. Option 1: Monosaccharides have aldehyde or ketone groups

B. Option 2: Contain multiple hydroxyl groups
C. Option 3: Historical view; formula resembles hydrates of carbon

178)

Lactose is composed of two simpler sugars: glucose and galactose.

179)

NCERT XIth, Pg#106

180)

NCERT XIth, Pg#110