11-05-2025

1015CMD303051250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) tan (–53°) =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Value of tan 240° is : –

EL
(1)

(2)
IX
R
(3)
D
IN

(4)
M
-@

3) Radian measure corresponding to 240° :-

TG

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Value of sin 15° cos 15° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)
Maximum value of y = 6 sin θ – 8 cos θ ?

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) –2
(4) –10

6) The maximum and minimum value of (5 – 3 sin θ) respectively are:

(1) 8 and 0
(2) 2 and 0
(3) 8 and 2
(4) 5 and 2

EL
7) If radius R = 9m and angle θ = 120° then find arc length S = ?

(1) 1080 m
IX
R
(2) 13.33 m
D

(3) 6π m
IN

(4) 9 m
M
-@

8) Choose correct value of sin 2° :-

(1)
TG

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

9) For ellipse , the co-ordinate of point A & B are respectively :-

(1) (0, 3) & (5, 0)

(2) (3, 0) & (0, 5)
(3) (0, 9) & (25, 0)
(4) (25, 0) & (0, 9)

10)
If x2 + y2 = 5 then radius of circle, is :-

(1) 5
(2)
(3) 0
(4) 25

11)

The slope of straight line AB is :-

+
(1)

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(2) IX
–
R
(3)
D
IN

(4)
–
M
-@

12) The straight line graph for equation x + y = 2 is :-

TG

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) Equation of given line is:

(1) y =
y=
(2)

y=
(3)

EL
y=
(4)
IX
R
D

14)
IN
M

If I = then ; If G and M are constant

-@
TG

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) For the given straight line equation 2y = x + 4 what are the values of m, θ and c ?
Here :
m → Slope of straight line
θ → Slope angle
c → Intercept on y-axis

(1) 1, 45° and 4

(2) 2, tan–1(2) and 8

(3)
, tan–1 and 2
(4) None of the above

16) A particle moves along the straight line y = 3x + 5. Which coordinate changes at a faster rate ?

(1) x–coordinate
(2) y–coordinate
(3) Both x and y coordinates
(4) Data insufficient

17) If y = x(x – 2)–1 then is :

EL
(1) Zero
IX
R
(2)
D

(3) 2(x – 2)2

IN
M

(4)
-@

18)
TG

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The maximum value of y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2 is :

(1) –6
(2) 14
(3) 2
(4) 12
20) If y = esin x, then =?

(1) –cos x . esin x

(2) ecos x
(3) e–cos x
(4) None of these

21) cos 2x = ....

(1) 1
(2) 3

(3)

(4)

EL
IX
R
22) = ......?
D
IN

(1) 8
(2) 9
M

(3) 10
-@

(4) 2 + π
TG

23) is–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The plot of y with x is shown in figure, then the value of is :-

(1) 150
(2) 250
(3) 350
(4) 450

25) Solution of 7x2 + 8x – 12 = 0 is :

–2,
(1)

(2)
2,

(3)
2,
–2,
(4)

26) Find the sum of a series 1 + + + + ......∞

(1)

EL
(2) IX
R
(3)
D
IN

(4)
M
-@

27) The resultant is perpendicular to . Also, . The angle between

is :-
TG

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two vectors and are added. The magnitude of the sum of these vectors is :

(1) 36
(2) 1000
(3)
(4) 136

29) The ratio of maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors and is 3 : 2.
The relation between A and B is :-
(1) A = 5B
(2) 5A = B
(3) A = 3B
(4) A = 4B

30) Resultant of and is at right angles to and its magnitude is half of . Find the angle
between & :-

(1) 60°
(2) 90°
(3) 150°
(4) 30°

31) If vectors and have magnitude 5, 12 and 13 units and , then angle between
and is :

(1) cos–1 (5/12)

EL
(2) cos–1 (5/13)
(3) cos–1 (12/13) IX
(4) cos–1 (2/13)
R
D

32) Three concurrent force of same magnitude are in equilibrium.What is the angle between them ?
IN

(1) 60°
M

(2) 120°
-@

(3) 90°
(4) 30°
TG

33) , then the value of is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 3
(4)

34) If , then the angle between and is :-

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 120º
(4) 180º

35) is a unit vector, what is the value of b ?

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

36) Which of the following is unit vector of , where ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If , then find out the angle of from x-axis.

EL
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
IX
R
(3) 37°
D

(4) 53°
IN
M
-@
TG

38)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) If and , then find unit vector along :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) If the given two vectors and are perpendicular to each other, then
the ratio α/β is equal to :-

(1) 4/9
(2) 4/3
(3) 3/7
(4) 1/4

41)

The angle between the two vectors and will be

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°

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(4) 180°
IX
R
42) When = , then :-
D
IN

(1) and are perpendicular to each other

M

(2) and act in the same direction

-@

(3) and act in the opposite direction

(4) and can act in any direction
TG

43) Find the torque of a force acting at the point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44) Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are and will be :

(1) 14 unit
(2) unit
(3) unit
(4) unit

45) If , then which of the following statements is not true ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) In H-atom electron transit from 7th orbit to 1st orbit in multi steps, then number of spectral lines in
visible region will be :

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

2) In an atom of neutral element 2K, 8L, 11M and 2N electrons are present. Total number of s-
electrons in this atom are :

EL
(1) 2 IX
(2) 8
R
(3) 10
D

(4) 6
IN
M

3) Any nd-orbital can accomodate upto :

-@

(1) 10 electrons
(2) 6 electrons
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(3) two electrons with parallel spin

(4) two electrons with opposite spin

4) What is wavelength of last line of lyman series in H-spectrum :-

(1) 1012 Å
(2) 912 Å
(3) 1216 Å
(4) 608 Å

5) Which electro magnetic radiation have minimum energy :-

(1) X-ray
(2) Visible waves
(3) Infrared waves
(4) Radio waves

6) If number of protons in X+2 are 20 then number of electrons in X–4 will be :-

(1) 26
(2) 24
(3) 22
(4) 20

7) If the atomic mass of sodium is 23, the number of moles in 46 g of sodium is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 2.3
(4) 4.6

8) The vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of 2 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the ratio of
:-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 2 : 3

EL
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 7
IX
9)
R
D

If 1.5 gram molecules of N2(g) removed from a sample of 56 g of nitrogen gas then remaining
IN

amount of nitrogen gas is :-

M

(1) 28 g
-@

(2) 14 g
(3) 54.5 g
TG

(4) 28.5 g

10) The volume of CO2 at STP obtained by heating 10g CaCO3 will be :-

(1) 224 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 0.224 L

11) If the molar volume of O2 at NTP is 22.4 L mol–1 then what would be the molar volume of O3 at
NTP ?

(1)
× 22.4 L mol–1

(2)
× 22.4 L mol–1
(3) 22.4 L mol–1
(4) 11.2 L mol–1
12) 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) N2O

13) A mixture of gases contain N2 & O2 gas in the ratio of 7 : 16 (w/w). What is the ratio of their
number of molecules ?

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1

14)

Total number of neutrons present in 54 ml H2O is

EL
(1) 3 NA
(2) 30 NA
IX
R
(3) 24 NA
D

(4) None of these

IN
M

15) What will be the mass of 3.01 × 1021 oxygen molecules :

-@

(1) 16 amu
(2) 0.16 amu
TG

(3) 0.16 gram

(4) 16 gram

16) Out of 1.0 g dioxygen, 1.0 g (atomic) oxygen and 1.0 g of ozone, the maximum number of oxygen
atoms are contained in -

(1) 1.0 g of atomic oxygen

(2) 1.0 g of ozone
(3) 1.0 g of oxygen gas
(4) All contain same number of atoms

17) Assertion :- Emitted radiation will fall in visible range when an electron jump from n = 4 to n =
2 in H–atom.
Reason :- Frequency of radiation of Lyman series belongs to visible region for H-atom.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Simplest formula of the compound containing 50% of element X(atomic mass = 30) and 50% of
element Y by mass (atomic mass = 20) is :

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY2
(4) X2Y3

19) The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 gram molecules of CO2 is :

(1) 1.2 × 1023

(2) 6 × 1022
(3) 5.3 × 1024
(4) 12 × 1023

20) What is the mass of one molecule of urea in grams? (NH2CONH2)

EL
(1) 10–22 IX
(2) 1.1 × 10–21
R
D

(3) 3.0 × 10–23

IN

(4) 1.7 × 10–24

M

21) How many moles of MgCO3 will contain 0.6 mole of oxygen atoms?
-@

(1) 0.1 mol

TG

(2) 1.2 mol

(3) 0.4 mol
(4) 0.2 mol

22) The number of moles of N2 molecules required to produce 40 moles of ammonia in the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) is

(1) 30
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 50

23) Average atomic mass of an element (A) having two isotopes 10A and 12A with percentage
abundance 80% and 20% respectively is :

(1) 10.8
(2) 10.4
(3) 11.4
(4) 11.8

24) A certain transition in H spectrum from an excited state to the ground state in one or more steps
gives rise to a total of 10 lines. How many of these belong to UV spectrum ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5

25) The energy of electron in first Bohr's orbit of H-atom is –13.6 eV. What will be its potential
energy in n = 4th orbit :-

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –3.4 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –1.70 eV

EL
26) For hydrogen atom, which energy level order is not correct ?

(1) 1s < 2s IX
R
(2) 2p = 2s
D

(3) 2p > 2s
IN

(4) 2p < 3s
M

27) Match the column :

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Column-I Column-II
TG

(Quantum numbers) (Sub-shell)

(A) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (P) 2p

(B) n = 4, ℓ = 2 (Q) 5f

(C) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (R) 4d

(D) n = 5, ℓ = 3 (S) 3s
(1) A→S, B→R, C→P, D→Q
(2) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(3) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(4) A→S, B→P, C→R, D→Q

28) Read the following statements and mark the incorrect statement :

(1) No two electrons in an atom can have all the four quantum numbers same.
(2) All the orbitals in a same subshell are first occupied single electron with same spins
(3) The outer electronic configuration of chromium atom is 3d44s2
(4) Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in ultraviolet region.
29) If travelling at same speed, which of the following matter waves has the shortest wavelength ?

(1) Electron
(2) Alpha particle (He2+)
(3) Neutron
(4) Proton

30)

Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

(1) 64 g SO2
(2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3
(4) 8 g H2

31) Frequency of revolution (f) of electron is :-

EL
(1)
f∝
IX
R
(2)
f∝
D
IN

(3)
f∝
M

(4)
-@

f∝

32) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function Ψ520 ?

TG

(1) 3dxy
(2) 4dx –y 2 2

(3) 4px
(4) 5dz 2

33) Assertion (A) :- Value of ℓ for a p-subshell is 1.

Reason (R) :- An orbital of p-subshell can occupy maximum six electrons.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

34) Statement-I : For any gas, vapour density = so unit of vapour density is
g/mole.
Statement-II : Molar volume of an ideal gas at NTP is 22.4 L.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

35) If ionization energy of unielectronic species is 960 eV and energy of electron in nth orbit is –60
eV. then find out the value of n :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

36) Radial nodes present in 3s and 3p orbitals are respectively :-

(1) 0, 2
(2) 2, 1

EL
(3) 1, 1
(4) 2, 2
IX
37)
R
D

10 g of MnO2 on reaction with HCl forms 2.24 L of Cl2 gas at STP % purity of MnO2 is
IN
M

MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

-@

(1) 13%
(2) 87%
TG

(3) 50%
(4) 8.7%

38)

Calculate radius ratio of 3rd excited state of He+ to the 2nd excited state of Li+2.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Photon of the maximum frequency will be absorbed in the transition (for H atom) :

(1) From n=4 to n=1

(2) From n=2 to n=5
(3) From n=2 to n=3
(4) From n=5 to n=2

40) The manganese (Z = 25) has the outer configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

Column-I Column-II

(i) Aufbau principle (a) λ = h/(mv)

EL
De Broglie's
(ii) (b) λ = hc/ΔE
hypothesis IX
Max. unpaired e–
R
(iii) Hund's rule (c)
D

(iv) Planck's law (d) Electronic configuration

IN
M

Correct match is :-
(1) (i) d, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) a
-@

(2) (i) c, (ii) a, (iii) d, (iv) b

(3) (i) d, (ii) a, (iii) c, (iv) b
TG

(4) (i) c, (ii) b, (iii) d, (iv) a

42)

The wavelength of a photon having energy 2E is 8000 Å determine wavelength of a photon having
energy E ?

(1) 3200 Å
(2) 4000 Å
(3) 16000 Å
(4) 2000 Å

43) A compound having the empirical formula C3H4O, has a molar mass of 168. The molecular
formula of compound is :

(1) C3H4O
(2) C6H8O2
(3) C9H12O3
(4) C6H12O4

44) The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α-particle is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

45) What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accomodate in the subshell for which n =
3 and ℓ = 2 :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 14

BIOLOGY

EL
1) Secondary follicle in ovary has- IX
R
(1) Primary oocyte
D
IN

(2) Secondary oocyte

(3) Ootid
M

(4) Antrum
-@

2) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

TG

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Leydig
A a Ovary i Inhibin
cells
Sertoli Semini-ferous
B b ii Progesterone
cells tubule
Theca
C c Testis iii Androgens
interna
Corpus
D d Follicle iv Estrogen
luteum
A → d → i; B → c → iv;
(1)
C → b → iii; D → a → ii
A → c → iii; B → b → iv;
(2)
C → d → ii; D → a → i
A → b → i; B → c → iii;
(3)
C → a → iv; D → d → ii
A → c → iii; B → b → i;
(4)
C → d → iv; D → a → ii

3) Relaxin hormone is secreted by.

(A) Placenta
(B) Sec. follicle
(C) Graafian follicle
(D) Corpus luteum

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) B and D

4)

If in a sperm, proximal centriole becomes

non-functional, which of the following process will be affected?

(1) Fertilization
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Movement of sperm
(4) Cleavage

EL
5) Which glands secretion help to destroy the acidic medium present in Male urethra ?

(1) Secretions of seminal vesicle

IX
R
(2) Secretions of cowpers gland
D
IN

(3) Secretions of prostate gland

(4) Secretions of preputial gland
M
-@

6)

Which structure is not the part of female external genitalia

TG

(1) Clitoris
(2) Hymen
(3) Vagina
(4) Mons pubis

7) Arrange the sequence of embryonic development and choose the correct option :-
(A) Morula (B) Unicellular zygote
(C) Foetus (D) Gastrula
(E) Blastula

(1) B → A → E → D → C
(2) A → C → D → B → E
(3) C → A → B → E → D
(4) D → B → C → A → E

8) During parturition process, oxytocin is released from :-

(1) Maternal pituitary

(2) Foetal pituitary
(3) Placenta
(4) Hypothalamus of foetus

9) In a female undergoing hysterectomy, which of the following event will not occur?

(1) Completion of meiosis-II and formation of ovum

(2) Fertilization
(3) Menstruation
(4) All of these

10) If the epididymis is being removed, then what will happen?

(1) Sperm early cross the male reproductive path

(2) Functional maturation is early
(3) Long life span of sperm
(4) Sperm will be incapable for fertilization

EL
11) During pregnency menses cycle does not occur due to :-

(1) Negative feed back of LH

IX
R
(2) Positive feed back of FSH
D

(3) Negative feed back of progesterone

IN

(4) Positive feed back of FSH, LH

M
-@

12) The edges of infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in :-

(1) Collection of sperms

TG

(2) To faciliate implantation

(3) To pass nutrition towards ovum
(4) Collection of ovum after ovulation

13) Which of the following is temporary endocrine structure in female ?

(1) Corpus luteum

(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpus allatum
(4) Corpus cardiacum

14) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about diaphragms, Cervical caps and vaults.
(A) Barrier methods of contraception.
(B) Cover the cervix during coitus.
(C) Protect the user from contracting STDs
(D) They are reusable.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) Only B
(4) Only C

15) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Non medicated IUD's - Lippes loop

(2) Copper releasing IUD - LNG-20
(3) Hormone relearning IUD - Progestasert
(4) Saheli - Once a week contraceptive pill.

16) Assertion : MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e. upto 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
Reason : Foetus becomes intimately associated with maternal tissues after the first trimester.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

EL
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
IX
17) In Z.I.F.T. zygote transfer into the fallopion tube upto _____ .
R
D

(1) 8 cell stage

IN

(2) 16 cell stage

M

(3) 32 cell stage

-@

(4) 64 cell stage

18) Which of the following method of contraception has maximum chances of failure?
TG

(1) Rhythm/Periodic abstinence

(2) Vasectomy
(3) Condoms
(4) IUDs

19) In ZIFT technique.

(1) more than 8 celled stage is transffered into fallopian tube.

(2) more than 8 celled stage is transffered into uterus.
(3) up to 8 celled stage is transffered into fallopian tube.
(4) up to 8 celled stage is transffered into uterus.

20) Assertion : Pills are very effective contraceptives with few side effects.
Reason : Pills inhibt only implantation.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

21) Which of the following is copper releasing IUD ?

(A) Multiload 375
(B) LNG-20
(C) Lippes loop
(D) Progestasert

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B both
(4) Only D

22) A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked. What ART can help her to conceive
a child?

(1) GIFT

EL
(2) IUT
(3) IUI
(4) AI
IX
R
D

23) Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to maximum period of:

IN

(1) 3 months
M

(2) 6 months
-@

(3) 9 months
(4) 12 months
TG

24) Which of the following can not be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(1) Sex of foetus

(2) Jaundice
(3) Metabolic disorder
(4) Down syndrome

25) In which of the following method of embryo formation a sperm is directly infected into the ovum
?

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IUI

26) Assertion : Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycles are called fertile period.
Reason : Chances of fertilisation during day 10 to 17 are very high.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

27) Which STD is completely curable if detected early and treated properly?

(1) Hepatitis–B
(2) Genital herpes
(3) AIDS
(4) Trichomoniasis

28) Natural method of contraception includes:-

(1) coitus interruptus

(2) lactational amenorrhea
(3) periodic abstinence

EL
(4) All of the above

29) Enzyme of Acrosome helps in- IX

R
(1) Ovulation of ovum
D

(2) Formation of ovum

IN

(3) Transportation of ovum

M

(4) Fertilisation of ovum

-@

30) Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included under which barrier ?
TG

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

31) Which of following are the cells of cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Monocyte
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Both (1) & (2)

32) Anamnestic response is -

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) primary response
33) Characterstic of acquired immunity is ?

(1) Differentiation between self and nonself.

(2) Specificity
(3) Retains memory
(4) All of the above

34) Cross match the following column-I and Column-II :-

Column I Column II

(i) Active natural (a) Antiserum

(ii) Active artificial (b) Colostrum

(iii) Passive natural (c) Vaccination

(iv) Passive artificial (d) Infection

i ii iii iv
(1) a b c d

EL
(2) b c d a
(3) c d a b
(4) d c b a IX
(1) 1
R
D

(2) 2
IN

(3) 3
(4) 4
M
-@

35) The injection given against the snake venom contains :

TG

(1) Antigenic proteins

(2) Preformed antibodies
(3) Attenuated pathogen
(4) All of these

36) Which of the following is important to maintain good health?

(1) Balanced diet

(2) Personal hygiene
(3) Regular exercise
(4) All of the above

37) Statement-I : The primary and secondary immune response are carried with the help of B and T
lymphocytes.
Statement-II : The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B cells, to produce them.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

38) Most important phagocytes are.

(1) Natural killer cells and monocytes

(2) Plasma cells and CD-4 cells
(3) Mucosal cells and T-cells
(4) Macrophages and Neutrophils

39) T–lymphocytes are mainly produced in.......and matured in..........:

(1) Thymus – Bone marrow

(2) Bone marrow – Thymus
(3) Bone marrow – Bone marrow
(4) Thymus – Thymus

40) The term 'immunity' refers to

EL
(1) Mutualism between host and parasite
(2) ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms
(3) ability of the parasite to survive within a host
IX
R
(4) a fatal disease.
D
IN

41) Human Immune system consist of

M

(1) Spleen
-@

(2) Lymphoid tissue

(3) Antibodies
TG

(4) All of these

42) The light and heavy chains in an antibody molecule are linked to each other mainly by

(1) Ionic bonds

(2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Disulphide bonds
(4) Peptide bonds

43) What is the function of antigen?

(1) lowers body temperature

(2) kills harmful bacteria
(3) triggers the immune system
(4) As an antidote to poison, it is used

44) Short lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus placenta or through mother's milk to the
infants is categorised as.
(1) cellular immunity
(2) innate non-speciifc immunity
(3) active immmunity
(4) passive immunity

45) Which of the following act as cytokine barriers?

(1) Natural killer cells

(2) Interferons
(3) Saliva in the mouth
(4) Mucus wating of the epithelium lining the respiratory

46) The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cell is/are
?

(1) Thymus
(2) Peyers patches and bone marrow

EL
(3) Bone marrow and thymus
(4) Tonsils and spleen
IX
47) Among __(A)__ diseases, __(B)__ is the major cause of death-
R
D

(1) A = Non-infectious, B = AIDS

IN

(2) A = Infectious, B = Cancer

M

(3) A = Infectious, B = Asthama

-@

(4) A = Non-infectious, B = Cancer

TG

48) Antigen binding site present on :-

(1) Only variable region of light chain

(2) Constant region of both heavy and light chain
(3) Variable region of heavy and light chain
(4) Hinge region of antibody

49) Which of the following is not an example of secondary lymphoid organ.

(1) Tonsils
(2) Appendix
(3) Payer's patches
(4) Bone marrow

50) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to

(1) Capacitation of sperms

(2) Increase in secretion of hypothalamic hormone (GnRH)
(3) Increase in prolactin secretion
(4) Increase in secretion of inhibin

51) Which hormone peaks twice during menstrual cycle?

(1) Progesterone, an ovarian hormone

(2) FSH, a pituitary hormone
(3) LH, a pituitary hormone
(4) Estrogen, an ovarian hormone

52) Menstrual flow occurs due to

(1) Decline in FSH level

(2) Decline in progesterone level
(3) Increase in prolactin level
(4) Decline in estrogen level

53) In the given below hormones how many are not secreted by placenta in human
HCG, HPL, Cortisol, Estrogens, Progestogens, Thyroxine, Relaxin, Prolactin

EL
(1) 7
(2) 6
IX
R
(3) 5
D

(4) 3
IN
M

54) The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside the mammary gland is :
-@

(1) Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla
(2)
TG

→ mammary duct → lactiferous ducts

Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary duct →
(3)
mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary ampulla →
(4)
mammary tubules → lactiferous ducts

55) Normally placenta is formed by the interdigitation of :

(1) Chorionic villi with trophoblast

(2) Chorionic villi with fallopian tube wall
(3) Chorionic villi with uterine wall
(4) Chorionic villi with inner cell mass

56) Statement I: The labia minora are paired folds of tissue under the labia majora.
Statement II : The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two
labia minora above the Urethral opening.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

57) Uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex for parturition is induced by :

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Fully developed foetus
(3) Placenta
(4) Both 2 and 3

58) Assertion (A) :The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called
scrotum.
Reason (R) : Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of testes which is necessary for
spermatogenesis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

EL
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true IX
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
R
D

59) Statement I : FSH act at the leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
IN

Statement-II : LH act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factor which help in the
M

process of spermiogenesis.
-@

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
TG

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

60) In the absence of fertilisation.

a) The corpus luteum degenerates.
b) The disintegration of the endometrium.
c) Menstruation, marking a new cycle.
d) Secretion of progesterone continue.
Which of the above statements are incorrect

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) Only d

61) Statement I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Statement II : The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

62) Primary oocyte completes first meiotic division in______.

(1) Graffian follicle

(2) Tertiary follicle
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Primary follicle

63) In human female the blastocyst

(1) Forms placenta even before implantation

(2) Gets implanted into uterus three days after ovulation
(3) The trophoblast layer cells get differentiated as embryo
(4) Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast cells

EL
64) During pregnancy the level of the many hormones are increased several folds in the maternal
blood. These hormones are
a. Prolactin
IX
R
b. Thyroxine
D

c. Estrogens
IN

d. Cortisol
M

(1) Only a, c
-@

(2) Only a, c, d
(3) Only a, b, c
TG

(4) a, b, c, d

65) Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal →
(1)
Urethra → Urethral meatus
(2) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
(3)
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(4) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

66) How many cells are haploid in nature:

Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Ovum, Secondary Spermatocyte, first polar body, Second
polar body, primary oocyte.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6
67) Artificial insemination means :

(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova or in the uterus
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina or uterus
(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
Transfer of ovum of a healthy donor into the fallopian tube of another female who can not
(4)
produce one

68) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A: All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
Statement B: Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region.

(1) A is true and B is incorrect statement

(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(3) Only B statement is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

EL
69)

Which statement is incorrect about interferon ? IX

R
(1) It is anti viral protein
D

(2) It is secreted by both virus and bacteria infected cells

IN

(3) It is species specific

M

(4) It is cytokine barrier

-@

70)
TG

Oogenesis process starts in but completes in

(A) (B)

1. Fallopian tube Ovary

2. Uterus Fallopian tube

3. Ovary Fallopian tube

4. Ovary Uterus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all four blanks
A, B, C, D :-

A B C D

(1) Foetus Zygote Morula Gastrula

EL
(2) Zygote Morula Blastocyst Gastrula

(3) Embryo Blastocyst Gastrula Cleavage

(4) Zygote Morula Gastrula Cleavage

IX
R
D

(1) 1
IN

(2) 2
(3) 3
M

(4) 4
-@

72)
TG

How many total number of follicles are found in both ovaries at puberty ?

(1) 60 - 80 thousand
(2) 2 - 3 lakhs
(3) 1.2 - 1.6 lakhs
(4) 5 - 7 lakhs

73) During implantation, the embryo becomes embedded in which layer of uterus ?

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Epimetrium

74) Degeneration of corpus luteum occurs due to inhibition of secretion of hormone :-

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

75) Which accessory sex gland in human being is unpaired ?

(1) Bartholin's gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Cowper gland
(4) Prostate gland

76)

What will be happened, if we remove zona pellucida of a embryo in morula stage ?

(1) Embryo may be destroyed in fallopian tube

(2) Embryo may be implanted at abnormal site
(3) Implantation will not be possible
(4) Both (1) and (2)

EL
77)
IX
R
Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle (human) in sequence :-
(I) Secretion of FSH
D

(II) Growth of corpus luteum

IN

(III) Growth of follicles

M

(IV) Ovulation
-@

(V) Sudden increase in level of LH

(1) III → I → IV → II → V
TG

(2) I → III → V → IV → II
(3) I → IV → III → V → II
(4) II → I → III → IV → V

78) Match the following :-

(1) A–d, B–c, C–b, D–a

(2) A–c, B–a, C–b, D–d
(3) A–b, B–c, C–a, D–d
(4) A–a, B–c, C–b, D–d

79) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called ___A____, and inner
group of cells attached to trophoblast called the ___(B)___.

(1) 'A' is trophoblast and 'B' are inner cells mass

(2) Both A and B are inner cells mass
(3) Both A and B are trophoblast
(4) 'A' are inner cells mass and 'B' is trophoblast

80) In the following structures identify morula and Blastocyst respectively :-

EL
(1) c & e
(2) c & d
IX
R
(3) b & e
D

(4) a & d
IN

81) Placenta contains :

M
-@

(1) Only chorionic villi

(2) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
TG

(3) Trophoblast and Amnion

(4) Only uterine tissue

82) Which is not correct about amnion?

(1) It provides a fluid medium to the developing embryo

(2) It acts as a shock absorber
(3) It takes part in the formation of human placenta
(4) Both (1) and (2)

83) A temporary endocrine gland.........formed after ovulation in ovary and secretes.......hormone

respectively:-

(1) Corpus albicans & estrogen

(2) Corpus luteum & LH
(3) Corpus albicans & progesterone
(4) Corpus luteum & progesterone

84) Generally fertilisation takes place in :-

(1) Isthumus
(2) Ampulla
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Uterus

85) Which of the following hormone responsible for milk formation in Human female ?

(1) Prolactin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

86) The region outside the seminiferous tubule which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is present called:-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space

EL
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space
IX
87) Rupture of mature graffian follicle to release ovum is caused by :-
R
D

(1) LH
IN

(2) FSH
M

(3) GnRH
-@

(4) Estrogen
TG

88) A structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body is called
-

(1) Umbilical cord

(2) Cleft palate
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Placenta

89) The tertiary follicle is characterised by __________

(1) Presence of oocyte

(2) Presence of theca externa
(3) Presence of theca interna
(4) Presence of antrum

90) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a_______.It continues to divide and transforms
into_________:-

(1) Morula & Zygote

(2) Morula & Blastocyst
(3) Blastocyst & Morula
(4) Blastocyst & Zygote

EL
IX
R
D
IN
M
-@
TG
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 1 2 2

EL
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 1 3

IX
R
BIOLOGY
D
IN

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
M

A. 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 2 1 1 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
-@

A. 1 2 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 4
TG

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) tan(–53°) = – tan 53°

2) tan 240° = tan (180 + 60) = tan 60° =

3) Radian

4)

EL
5) IX
R
D

6)
IN

–1 ≤ sin θ ≤ 1
M

(sin θ)min = –1
-@

(sin θ)max = +1
So (5 – 3 sinθ)max = 5 – 3 (–1) = 8
(5 – 3 sinθ)min = 5 – 3 (+1) = 2
TG

7) (1) Asking About

We are tasked with finding the arc length (S) of a circle, given the radius (R) and the central
angle (θ)

(2) Concept
The formula for the arc length of a circle is:

Here:
• θ is the central angle in degrees.
• R is the radius of the circle.

(3) Formula

(4) Solution/ Explanation

Substitute the given values:
Simplify:

S = 6πm

(5) Final Answer

The arc length S is π m.
Correct Option: 3. 6 π m

8) sin(2°)

sin =
(for small angle)

9)

Question Explanation:

EL
The problem gives an ellipse equation I and asks for the coordinates of two points
IX
(A and B) where the ellipse intersects the axes.
R
D

Concept Based:
IN
M

This relates to Ellipse Geometry. The general form of an ellipse equation is used
-@

to find points on the ellipse, where the axes' intersections give key coordinates.
TG

Formula Used:
The general form of the ellipse equation is:

Where a is the semi-major axis and b is the semi-minor axis. Coordinates of points are found by
substituting a: x = 0 or y = 0 for axis intersections.

Calculation (in brief):

For the given equation, a2 = 9 (so a = 3) and b2 = 25 (so b = 5).
• For Point A (on the x-axis), set y = 0:

⇒x=
Thus, A = (3, 0).
• For Point B (on the y-axis), set x = 0:

Thus, B - (0, 5).

 Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: (3, 0) & (0, 5).

10) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We are asked to evaluate the indefinite integral This involves finding the
antiderivative of each term in the expression.
2. Concept (20 words):
To integrate a polynomial, apply the power rule for integration to each term and add the
constant of integration.
3. Formula:
The power rule for integration:

where C is the constant of integration.

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps):
1. Apply the power rule to each term:

A. For

EL
B. For IX
R
C. For 1,
D
IN

2. Combine the results:

M
-@

11)
TG

slope of straight line =

slope of straight line =

12)

x+y=2
y = –x + 2
Slope ⇒ (–)ve & C ⇒ (+)ve

13) Slope of line, m = –tan 30° =

Intercept on y–axis, c = 4
Equation of line, y = mx + c

⇒y= x+4
14)

15)

y = mx + C

16) y = 3x + 5 ⇒
⇒ y–coordinate changes at faster rate.

EL
17) y = x(x – 2)–1
IX
R
D
IN
M
-@
TG

18)

(1)

Let t = (x2 + 2) → ...(1)

⇒ ⇒
by equation (1)
⇒ 2(x2 + 2)(2x) ⇒ 4x(x2 + 2)

(2)

Let t = –2x →

so ⇒ et ⇒ e–2x(–2)

(3)
 Let t = ax + b →

so

⇒ cos t · ⇒ a cos (ax + b)

(4)

Let t = x3 + 3x + 1 →

so

⇒ 2t ⇒ 2(x3 + 3x + 1)(3x2 + 3)

19) y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2

⇒ –6x = – 12 ⇒ x = 2

EL
→ Maxima
2
y = –3x + 12 x + 2
IX
R
At x = 2 ⇒ ymax = –3(2)2 + 12(2)+ 2
D

= –12 + 24 + 2 = 14
IN
M

20)
-@
TG

21) (1) Asking About:

A. The definite integral of cos(2x) from 0 to π/4

(2) Concept:

A. Integration of cos(ax) :

A. Definite Integral:

where F(x) is the antiderivative of f(x)

(3) Calculation / Explanation:

Evaluating from 0 to π/4
(4) Final Answer:
The definite integral is 1/2
(5) Correct Option:
Option 3 (1/2)

22)

= 8 + (1 – (–1))
= 8 + 2 = 10

23) =

EL
24) area under the curve
IX
R
= 35 × 10 = 350
D
IN
M
-@

25)
TG

Now, and

26)

27) tan α =
α is Angle between

A + B cos θ = 0

....... (1)
C2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ

A2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB
A2 = A2 + B2 – 2A2

...... (2)

cos θ =

28)

EL
29) ⇒ A = 5B
IX
R
30)
D
IN

cosθ =
M

R=
-@
TG

A2 =

A=

cosθ =
θ = 150°

31) Here, P2 + Q2 = R2
(5)2 + (12)2 = (13)2
∴ Angle between P and Q = 90° , if α is the angle between Q and R ;

then cos α = or α = cos–1 .

32)
n=3

33) so angle between & is 120°.

⇒ ⇒

34) ⇒ 2(1) sin = 1 ⇒ sin

sin ⇒

35) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1

EL
b=

36)
IX
R
D

Concept:
IN

Unit vector in vector divided by its magnitude.

M

Formula:
-@
TG

where |A| is magnitude of given vector

|A| =
Calculation:

Given:

So,

37) ⇒ θ = 53°
38)

Ax = A cos 45° =

Ay = A sin 45° =

39)

unit vector along

40)

EL
IX
4β – 3α = 0
R
D
IN

41)
M
-@

=
cos θ = 0
TG

⇒ θ = 90°

42)

cos θ = +1
θ = 0° ⇒ ||

43)

44)

Area of parallelogram =
 and are diagonals.

45)
is ⊥ to plane of and

Thus

CHEMISTRY

46)

Visible region ⇒ Balmer (n1 = 2)

number of lines in visible region = 7 – 2 = 5

47) Total electron = 23

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d3
total s-electrons = 8

EL
48)
IX
R
Any nd-orbital can accomodate upto maximum 2-electron with opposite spin.
D
IN
M

49)
-@

Last line of lyman ⇒ n1 = 1 n2 = ∞

TG

50)

Minimum energy or maximum wavelength will be of radio waves.

51)

Z = 20
∴ in neutral atom 20 electrons
∴ in X–4 = 20 + 4 = 24 e–

52)

moles of sodium =
53)

molar mass = 2 X V. D.

55)

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

0.1 mol 0.1 mol
vol. of CO2 at STP = 0.1 × 22.4 = 2.24 L

56)

Molar volume of each gas at NTP is 22.4 L.

57)

EL
moles of gas =
IX
R
M = 44
D

N2O has molar mass 44

IN
M
-@

59) ⇒ m = d × v = 1 × 54 = 54 gm

no. of moles = = = 3 mol

TG

no. of neutrons in 1 molecule of H2O = 8

no. of neutrons in 3NA molecules of H2O = 24 NA

62)

Theory based

69)
n(n – 1) = 20
n2 – n – 20 = 0
n2 – 5n + 4n – 20 = 0
n(n – 5) + 4(n – 5) = 0
n – 5) (n + 4) = 0
n=5
UV wavelength = 4 (5→1, 4→1, 3→1, 2→1)
70)

72)

Subshell Value of ℓ
s → 0
p → 1
d → 2
f → 3

74) l =

for same speed

So, α-particle (4 a.m.u.) has shortest λ

EL
76) f = =
IX
R
D
IN

79)
M

Vapour density is unit less quantity.

-@

Vm at STP = 22.4 L
TG

80)

∵ IP = –E1

–60 =
n=4

81) 3s → radial nodes = 2

3p → radial nodes = 1

85)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks for the correct representation of the outer electron configuration of
manganese (Mn), which has an atomic number of 25. The options show different ways of filling
the outermost s and d orbitals.

B: Given Data
 Atomic number of manganese (Z) = 25

C: Concept

To determine the electron configuration, we need to follow these rules:

A. Aufbau Principle: Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy.

B. Hund's Rule: Within a subshell, electrons individually occupy each orbital before any
orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same
spin.

C. Pauli Exclusion Principle: No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four
quantum numbers.

The electron configuration of manganese (Z=25) is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5. The outer

configuration involves the 4s and 3d subshells.

EL
IX
A. 4s subshell has one orbital, which can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
R
D

B. 3d subshell has five orbitals, each of which can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
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Following Hund's rule, the five electrons in the 3d subshell will individually occupy each of the
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five d orbitals with the same spin before any pairing occurs. The two electrons in the 4s
subshell will pair up in the single 4s orbital.
TG

D: Final Answer

The correct representation of the outer electron configuration of manganese (Z=25) is:

A. 4s orbital: ↑↓

B. 3d orbitals: ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑

This corresponds to option (2).

86)

NCERT–XI, Pg.# 60 Part - I (2021 – 2022 edition)

88)

n=
MF = C9H12O3
 89) Specific charge =

90) n = 3 ℓ = 2
3d subshell can accomodate
10 electrons.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E) 57(H) , Fig. (3.11)

93) The uterus, also known as the womb, is a pear-shaped, muscular organ located in the
female pelvis. It plays a crucial role in the reproductive system by providing a nurturing
environment for the development of a fetus during pregnancy.

EL
96)

NCERT, Pg. # 30
IX
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IN

98) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 54, Para-3 (E)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 59, Para-2 (H)
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102) NCERT Pg. # 45

TG

104)

NCERT - XII Pg. # 44

105)

NCERT, Pg. # 44

107) NCERT-XII, Pg # 64

115) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 64, Para 4.5

116) NCERT Pg. No. 44

117)

NCERT Pg. # 47
118) Natural Methods-
(i) Rhythm or Periodic abstinence method
(ii) Withdrawal or Coitus interrupts
(iii) Lactational amenorrhea

119)

NCERT, Pg. # 32

120)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 150

121)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 150

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122)

NCERT Pg. No. 151 IX

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124) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150, Para-8.2.1

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126) NCERT XII Pg. # 146

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135) NCERT Pg. No. # 150

TG

136) NCERT Page No. # 154

137) NCERT Pg # 146

138) NCERT Pg # 151

139) NCERT Pg # 153

152)

NCERT, Pg. # 32

158)

NCERT Pg. 51
159)

NCERT, Pg. # 135

160)

NCERT, Pg. # 33

162)

NCERT Pg. # 32

163)

NCERT Pg. 53

164)

EL
The correct answer is (2) LH.
The corpus luteum requires LH (Luteinizing Hormone) to remain active. When LH levels drop,
IX
the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to a decrease in progesterone and the onset of
R
menstruation.
D
IN

165)
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NCERT Pg. # 44
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TG

169) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 57 (E), 53 (H)

170) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E), 57 (H)

171)

NCERT XII, Page # 37

173) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 35

Remaining parts of graafian follicle transforms as the corpus luteum and secretes large
amount of progesterone.

174) NCERT Pg # 46

175)

NCERT Pg. 54
178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37

179) NCERT Pg. # 48(E), 53(H)

180) NCERT, Pg. 36-37

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IX
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TG