15-06-2025

5001CMD303003250001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

If tan θ = then find the value of sin θ ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

2) radian = ...........?

(1) 60°
(2) 18°
(3) 36°
(4) 108°

3)

780° = ....?... radian

(1)

(2) 4π

(3)

(4)

4) If radius R = 9m and angle θ = 120° then find arc length S = ?

(1) 1080 m
(2) 13.33 m
(3) 6π m
(4) 9 m

5)

Value of sin235° + cos235° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

6) Minimum value of y = sin x + cos x is :-

(1) –2
(2) 2
(3) –1
(4)

7) Value of sin 2° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

8) Value of sin120° + cos120° is –

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A circular arc is of length cm. Find angle subtended by it at centre in degree :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

10) At 3 ‘O’ clock the hour and minute hands of clock are inclined at :-

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) none

11) Bottom end of a ladder leaning against a wall is 3 m away from the foot of the wall as shown in

figure, length of the ladder is :-

(1) 8 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 6 m

12) Find the value of :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

13) The maximum & minimum value of (4 – 2cosθ) is :-

(1) 4 & 0
(2) 4 & 2
(3) 6 & 0
(4) 6 & 2

14) Find value of tan (π – θ) is

(1) –tanθ
(2) tanθ
(3) cotθ
(4) –cotθ

15) As θ increases from 0° to 90°, the value of secθ:

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) First decrease then increase

16) tan 300° is equal to :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

Value of cos2° is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) 2

18) cos 425° = ?

(1) cos 65º

(2) cos 125º
(3) sin 25º
(4) sin 65º

19) is :

(1) 0
(2) e2
(3) 2e2

(4)

20) If y = logex + sinx + ex then is

(1)
+ sinx + ex

(2)
– cosx + ex

(3)
+ cosx + ex

(4)
– sinx

21) Find , when .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) log x

22) If , then =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Match the column :

Column I Column II

A. P.
= –cosec2x

B. y = sin 2 x Q.

C. y = tan x R.

D. y = cot x S.

(1) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S

(2) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(3) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

24) If x = at3, y = bt then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

If displacement is given by x = 3t4 + 2t2 + 1, calculate velocity at t = 2 sec.

(1) 104 m/s2

(2) 100 m/s2
(3) 50 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

26) If y = x3 cos x then

(1) x2 (3 cos x + x sin x)

(2) x2 (3 cos x – x sin x)
(3) 3x2 cos x + x3 cos x
(4) –x3 sin x – 3x2 cos x

27) If y = then value of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If y = sin2x + cos2x then

(1) 2(sinx + cosx)

(2) 1
(3) Zero
(4) cos2x – sin2x

29)

Differentiate y = 4x3 + 3x2 – 7x + 5 with respect to x.

(1) 12x2 + 6x – 7

(2)
x4 + x3 – + 5x
(3) 12x2 + x2 – 7
(4) None of these

30) The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Assertion :- At maxima, first derivative = 0 and second derivative < 0.

Reason :- At minima, first derivative = 0 and second derivative > 0.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

32) The minimum value of y = x2 – 10x + 40 is:-

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 15
(4) 24

33) The value of sum of first hundred natural numbers 1+2+3+....+100 is :-

(1) 4950
(2) 5050
(3) 5150
(4) 5250

34) Calculate 41st term in given expression :

4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + 20 +.............(41st term)

(1) 160
(2) 100
(3) 164
(4) 200

35)

Find 2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +.........+ 38 =

(1) 200
(2) 300
(3) 100
(4) 400

36)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37)

log10(0.001) =

(1) 1
(2) –3
(3) 3
(4) 2

38) Suggest suitable match between function given in the first column and it's description given in
the second column.

Column - I Column - II

(A) log101 (P) 6

(B) logxx2 (Q) 0

(C) logem (R) 2

(D) log5125 + log7343 (S) 2.303 log10m

(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P
(4) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R

39)

Value of =

(1) ∞
(2) loge x + C
(3) –x–2 + C
(4) None of these

40) =?

(1) +cos θ + c
(2) – cos θ + c
(3) cos θ + sin θ + c
(4) sin θ + c

41) Find the value of

(1) 3x3 + 2x2 + x + c

(2) 6x2 + 4x2 + x + c
(3) x3 + x2 + x + c
(4) 3x3 + 2x2 + c

42) Assertion (A) : Radian is the unit of distance.

Reason (R) : One radian is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc equal in length to
the radius of the circle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and the reason (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

43) Assertion :- To convert an angle from degree to radian, we multiply it by .

Reason :- The relation between radian and degree is π rad = 180°.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

44) Assertion : Value of sin θ is positive for 0° to 90° and 270° to 360°.
Reason : sin θ is the ratio of base and perpendicular.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

45) Assertion: By help of differentiation, if y is given, we can find dy/dx.

Reason: If y = 3x2 – 2x + 5 then .

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which is not isoelectronic with O2– :-

(1) N–3
(2) Na+
(3) F–
(4) Ti+

2) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) Na10+

3) Isotone of is/are -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

4) If in periodic table the mass of an atom of C12 assumed to be 150 units then what will be mass of
an atom of O16 ?

(1) 150 unit

(2) 200 unit
(3) 100 unit
(4) 50 unit

5) If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then number of protons in x will be

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

6) The total number of fundamental particles in one atom of is

(1) 20
(2) 7
(3) 17
(4) 21

7) The charge on the atom containing 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is :-

(1) +1
(2) -2
(3) -1
(4) Zero

8) Calculate the frequency of radiation having wavelength 1 Å ?

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
(4) All of the above

9) Neutron was discovered by the experiment of :

(1) Artificial distintegration of Berillium (4Be ) by α-particles.

9

(2) Artificial disintegration of nitrogen (7N ) by α-particles.

14

(3) Rutherford scattering of α-particle by heavy nuclei.

(4) Bequeral with radioactivity

10) Select isosters from the following :-

(1) KF, CaO

 12 14
(2) 6C , 6C
2 4
(3) 1H , 2He
(4) None of these

11) Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) An element m have two isotopes M50 and M52 if their percentage of occurance in nature are 80%
and 20% respectively, than average atomic weight of element 'M' is :

(1) 48
(2) 50.4
(3) 51
(4) 54

13) The approximate radius of the nucleus of 28Ni64 is :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 4 × 10–15 m
(3) 5 × 10–15 m
(4) 2 × 10–15 m

14) A 100 watt bulb emits light of λ = 400 Å, the number of photons/sec emitted by the bulb will be-

(1) 5 × 1016
(2) 2 × 1019
(3) 20 × 1029
(4) 5 × 1015

15) According to Bohr theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 6th orbit :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion is R then radius of its 6th shell will be :-

(1) 2R

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

17) If the velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is V, then what will be the velocity in 4th orbit
of Be+3:-

(1) V

(2)

(3) 16 V
(4) 4 V

18) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

19) The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which
value is closest to the wavelength in metres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1 :-

(1) 2 × 10–25
(2) 5 × 10–18
(3) 3.75 × 10–8
(4) 3 × 107
20) In H atom the ratio of wavelength of electron waves in two orbits is 3 : 5. The ratio of kinetic
energy of electron will be :-

(1) 25 : 9
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 9 : 25
(4) 3 : 5

21) If the de–Broglie wavelength of 4th Bohr orbit of H-atom is 2Å, the circumference of the orbit will
be :-

(1) 8 nm
(2) 2Å
(3) 8Å
(4) 2 nm

22) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 × 10–16 m

(1) 9.9 × 10–10 J

(2) 6.6 × 10–11 J
(3) 9.9 × 10–12 J
(4) 4.8 × 10–11 J

24) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

25) In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is –13.6 e.v, then that in second
excited state is:-

(1) –1.51 e.v

(2) –3.4 e.v
(3) –6.04 e.v
(4) –13.6 e.v

26) The de broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is
approximately:-

(1) 10–16m
(2) 10–25m
(3) 10–33m
(4) 10–31m

27) If energy of 4th Bohr orbit of Li+2 ion is X eV, then calculate energy in 6th excited state of He+ ion
in terms of X ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following having maximum value of frequency among electromagnetic wave ?

(1) γ-ray (gama)

(2) Infra red wave
(3) Radio wave
(4) Visible rays

29) What is the separation energy (in eV) for Be3+ in the first excited state in eV ?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.4 eV

30)

If change in energy (ΔE) = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of
the light is:-

(1) 6.64 × 103 m

(2) 6.64 × 105 Å
(3) 6.64 × 10–18 m
(4) 6.64 × 1018 Å
31) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :-

(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)

32) Calculate the ratio of ionisation energy of Li2+ & He+, ions : –

(1) 2.25
(2) 5.2
(3) 1.7
(4) none of these

33) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength :-

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) H2O

34) Find out the distance between 2nd & 3rd orbit of H-atom :-

(1) 2.7 Å
(2) 1.2 Å
(3) 4 Å
(4) 0.529 Å

35) The energy of the second bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second
Bohr orbit of He+ ion would be :–

(1) –0.85 eV
(2) –13.64 eV
(3) –1.70 eV
(4) –6.82 eV

36) What is the energy content per photon (J) for light of frequency 4.2 × 1014 ?

(1) 2.8 × 10–21

(2) 2.5 × 10–19
(3) 2.8 × 10–19
(4) 2.5 × 10–18

37) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lyman series of He+ ion ?
(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

38) Which of the following information is not correct about principal quantum number (n) :-

(1) As value of "n" increases, the energy of the orbit increases

(2) As value of "n" increses, the distance from the nucleus increases
(3) As value of "n" increases, the velocity of electron increases
(4) The number of electrons in a particular shell is equal to 2n2

39) What is the 3rd separation energy (in eV) for He+ :-

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 1.51 eV
(3) 0.85 eV
(4) 3.4 eV

40) For the given diagram e– revolve in which orbit according to De-Broglie's wave theory ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

41) Correct relation to calculate de-broglie wavelength of a moving particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

42) Statement-I :- de-broglie suggested that electron have dual nature.

Statement-II :- According to heisenberg uncertainity principle, both exact position & exact
momentum for a particle like electron can be determined simultaneously.
(1) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect
(2) Both Statements are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statements are incorrect

43) The ratio of the radii of first orbits of H, He+ and Li2+ is

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 9 : 4 : 1

44) A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz
(kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is [speed of
light c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]

(1) 219.3 m
(2) 240 m
(3) 2192 m
(4) 21.92 cm

45) When the electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number of spectral
lines emitted is

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4

BIOLOGY

1) Study of tissues is known as :

(1) Cytology
(2) Histology
(3) Anatomy
(4) Physiology

2) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Tendon and Ligament

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage and bone
3) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

4) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

5) Which epithelium is composed of two or more cell layers and has protective functions as it does in
our skin :

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple columnar
(4) Compound epithelium

6) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

7) Mast cells secrete

(1) Hippurin
(2) Myoglobin
(3) Histamine
(4) Haemoglobin

8) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Kinocilia
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli

9) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
 A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

10) Which of the following cells is phagocytic in nature?

(1) Mast cell

(2) Podocyte
(3) Macrophage
(4) Fibroblast

11) Match list I with list II and find the correct option:-

List - I List-II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)

(A) Cuboidal 1 Epidermis of skin

(B) Ciliated 2 Inner lining of blood vessels

Brush-Border
(C) 3 Inner surface of gall bladder
Columnar

(D) Squamous 4 Inner lining of Fallopian tube

(E) Keratinized squamous 5 Lining of pancreatic duct

(1) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(2), (D)–(3), (E)–(1)
(2) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(3) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(3), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(4) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(1), (E)–(2)

12)

In which tissue, cells are compactly packed with little intercellular space?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

13) The tissue which joins bone to bone and muscle to bone respectively :-

(1) Tendon, Ligament

(2) Ligament, Cartilage
(3) Cartilage, Ligament
(4) Ligament, Tendon

14) The lining of blood vessels, Air sacs of lungs contain ______ :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

15) Given below structures are related with glandular epithelium. Identify correct option for the

given diagram :-

A B

(1) Unicellular Multicellular

(2) Unicellular Unicellular

(3) Multicellular Unicellular

(4) Multicellular Multicellular

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) The diagrams given below represent :-

(1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

 (4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column I

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a 1
Junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b Gap Junctions 2 to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
c 3 communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3,
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

18) Ear pinna & tip of nose consists :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

19) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

20) In all connective tissues, except ............, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

21) Transverse canals that connect Haversian canals are : –

(1) Lacunae
(2) Lamellae
(3) Volkmann's canals
(4) Neural canal

22) Lacunae are found in :-

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Both 1 & 2

23) Compound epithelium found in following places except :-

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) Pharynx
(3) Duct of salivary glands
(4) Stomach

24) Identify the incorrect statement.

Tissues are organized in specific proportion and pattern to form an organ like stomach, lung,
(1)
heart and kidney
Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits division of
(2)
labour
(3) The human body is composed of billions of cells to perform various functions
(4) In unicellular organisms, all physiological functions are performed by multiple or group of cells

25) When two or more organs perform a common function by their physical and chemical
interaction, they together form.

(1) Tissue
(2) Organ
(3) Organ system
(4) Body

26) Assertion : Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the out side
environment.
Reason : Epithelial tissue provides a Covering and lining for some part of the body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

27) Which of the following is most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex
organisms ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

28) Which type of tissue form inner lining of small intestine ?

(1) Glandular columnar epithelium

(2) Glandular brush bordered columnar epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

29) Assertion :- Main function of compound epithelium is to provide protection against chemical
and mechanical stresses.
Reason :- Compound epithelium is made of more than one layers of cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Lining or covering of bone marrow cavity is composed of :-

(1) Areolar connec. tissue

(2) White fibrous connec. tissue
(3) Yellow fibrous connec. tissue
(4) Reticular fibrous connec. tissue

31) Intercellular material of cartilage is

(1) Solid and pliable

(2) Semisolid and pliable
(3) Solid and non pliable
(4) Liquid and non pliable

32) Secretion of which of following structure called hormones ?

(1) Liver
(2) Gastric gland
(3) Thyroid
(4) Salivary gland
33) Which tissue present beneath the skin and serves as a support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Adipose
(2) Dense regular
(3) Dense irregular
(4) Areolar

34) In brain ventricles, what is the function of cilia ?

(1) Increase the surface area

(2) Filtration
(3) Conduction of CSF
(4) Diffusion

35) Assertion (A) : Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance.
Reason (R) : Bones matrix is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but the (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

36) Haversian canals are found in the :

(1) Bones of birds

(2) Bones of mammals
(3) Bones of frog
(4) Cartilage

37) Which of following tissue faces either a body fluid or the outside environment ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

38) The covering of articular cartilage is made up of:-

(1) Areolar C.T.

(2) Yellow fibrous C.T.
(3) White fibrous C.T.
(4) Reticular C.T.

39) Skeletal tissue is originated from which embryonic germinal layer?

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) All the above

40) In which part of Bone, Epiphysial plate is present........

(1) Epiphysis
(2) Diaphysis
(3) Metaphysis
(4) All of these

41) Which of the following is identical character of columnar epithelium ?

(1) Rounded nucleus at centre

(2) Flat nucleus at centre
(3) Elongated nucleus at base
(4) Nucleus absent

42) Cells of which tissue are specialised to store fat.

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) Adipose connective tissue
(3) Dense connective tissue
(4) Cartilage

43) Compound epithelial tissue found in the inner lining of

(1) Pancreatic ducts

(2) Small bronchioles
(3) Fallopian tubes
(4) Moist surface of skin

44) The function of the gap junction is to

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(2) Separate two cells from each other.
(3) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(4) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

45) Yellow, white & Reticular fibres are made up of protein :-

(1) Elastin, Reticulin, Collagen respectively

(2) Reticulin, Elastin, Collegen respectively
(3) Collagen, Elastin, Reticulin protein respectively
(4) Elastin, Collagen, Reticulin protein respectively
46) (A) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence
(B) Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms
(C) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(D) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells
Option :-

(1) Statement A,C and D are wrong

(2) Statement A, B and D are not correct
(3) Statement A, B and C are not wrong
(4) Statement B, C and D are not correct

47) The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Vacuole
(3) Plastids
(4) Ribosome

48) Golgibodies are involved in :-

(1) Formation of acrosome during spermiogenesis

(2) Synthesis of glycolipids
(3) Modification of proteins
(4) All of these

49) Which of the following statement is wrong regarding model of plasma membrane given by S.J.
Singer and G.L. Nicolson ?

(1) The quasi-fluid nature of protein enables lateral movement of lipids

(2) The integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the membrane
(3) Protein iceberg in sea of lipids
(4) Phosphoglycerides are present in lipid component

50) Lysosomes are formed by :-

(1) Golgibody
(2) ER
(3) Golgibody + ER
(4) Mitochondria

51) Which of the following components of plasma membrane is helpful in cell to cell recognition?

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Transmembrane protein
(3) Integral protein
(4) Glycoprotein
52)

Match the following column correctly :-

Column–I Column–II

(Cell) (Size)

(i) Mycoplasma (A) Longest cell

(ii) Bacteria (B) 7 μm

(iii) Human RBC (C) 3–5 μm

(iv) Nerve cell (D) 0.3 μm

(1) i–C, ii–D, iii–B, iv–A
(2) i–D, ii–C, iii–B, iv–A
(3) i–C, ii–D, iii–A, iv–B
(4) i–B, ii–C, iii–D, iv–A

53)

Cell organelle which contain hydrolytic enzyme-

(1) Golgi bodies

(2) Vacuoles
(3) Lysosome
(4) Chloroplast

54) Assertion : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.
Reason : Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms except
unicellular organisms.

(1) Assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion & reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion and reason are false.

55) Bacillus, Coccus, Vibrio and Spirillum are four basic shapes of :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) PPLO
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Both (2) and (3)

56) Living cells were first observed by :

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Schleiden
(3) Schwann
(4) Leeuwenhoek

57) Which of the following is the smallest cell ?

(1) Red Blood cell

(2) Bacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Ostrich egg cell

58) Statement-1 : Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound cell organelles.

Statement-2 : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.
Option :

(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct

(2) Only statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(3) Only statement (2) is correct and (1) is incorrect
(4) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect

59) Assertion (A) : The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex,
lysosome and vacuole.
Reason (R) : The mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisome are not considered as part of
endomembrane system.

(1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

60) Nature of plasma membrane is best described as :-

(1) Semi-permeable and fluid

(2) Semi-permeable and quasifluid
(3) Selectively permeable and fluid
(4) Selectively permeable and quasi-fluid

61) Choose the correct combination for given flow chart :-

A B C

Transport Plasma Secretory

(1)
vesicle membrane vesicle

Secretory Transport Plasma

(2)
vesicle vesicle membrane
 Transport Secretory Plasma
(3)
vesicle vesicle membrane

Secretory Plasma Transport

(4)
vesicle membrane vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Enzymes of lysosomes become active in :-

(1) Acidic pH
(2) Basic pH
(3) Neutral pH
(4) Any pH

63) Detoxification of drugs is the function of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Peroxisomes
(4) SER

64) Which chemical property is shared by all types of lipids forming the plasma membrane ?

(1) Sugar component

(2) Glycerol backbone
(3) Phosphate group
(4) Amphipathic nature

65) Singer & Nicolson are associated with :-

(1) Cell theory

(2) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(3) Fluid mosaic model
(4) Discovery of cell

66) Cell organelle connected with intracellular digestion of macromolecules is :

(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Polysome
(4) Glyoxisome

67) How many of the following statments are correct

(a) ER divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(b) The cis and the trans face of the golgi body are entirly different but inter connected
(c) Lysosome are the double membrane bound vesicular structure formed by the process of
packaging in the golgi body
(d) In plant cells the vacuole can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the cell.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

68) Name the outermost living boundary of the plant cell?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Nuclear membrane
(4) Cell wall

69)

Which is not true for inclusion bodies :

(1) They are stored in cytoplasm

(2) They are not bounded with membrane system
(3) They are not reserve material in prokaryotic cell
(4) All of the above

70) In plants, middle lamella is made up of :

(1) Magnesium pectate

(2) Calcium pectate
(3) Cellulose
(4) Both (1) & (2)

71) Which of the following component is structurally similar in bacteria as well as plant cells?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Vacuoles
(3) Flagella
(4) Cell wall

72) The main chemical component of fungal cell wall is:

(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Chitin
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin
73) What is tonoplast ?

(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(2) Membrane of lysosome
(3) Outer membrane of chloroplast
(4) Membrane of the vacuole of plant body

74) Which one of the following cell wall gradually diminishes as the cell matures but has the capacity
to grow ?

(1) Primary cell wall only

(2) Primary & secondary cell wall both
(3) Secondary cell wall only
(4) Tertiary cell wall

75) Which of the following structure is not found in a prokaryotic cell?

(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Ribosome
(c) ER
(d) Golgi complex
(e) Peroxysome

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c, d
(3) c, d and e
(4) c, d, a

76) The fluid nature of the membrane helps to perform functions like. (a) Cell growth & cell division
(b) Formation of intercellular junctions
(c) Endocytosis

(1) Only (c)

(2) (b) & (c) only
(3) (a) & (c) only
(4) (a), (b) & (c)

77) Which is not an example of prokaryotic cell :

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Blue Green Algae

78) Which is the outermost layer of cell envelop in eubacteria ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Middle lamella

79) Which organelle packages and secretes materials?

(1) Golgi body

(2) ER
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

80) Which cell donot show correct match with its shape:

(1) WBC — Amoeboid

(2) Nerve Cell — Branched and long
(3) Tracheids — Elongated
(4) Columnar epithelial cells — Round and oval

81) Which is not a correct combination :

(1) Slime layer – Loose sheath

(2) Capsule – Thick and tough
(3) Mesosome – Extensions of plasmamembrane into cell
(4) Chormatophore – determines the shape of cell.

82) Material to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the ...............

(1) Convex face of the golgi apparatus

(2) Maturing face of the golgi apparatus
(3) Trans face of the golgi apparatus
(4) Both (1) and (3)

83) The genomic DNA of a bacterium is :

(1) Circular
(2) Linear
(3) Segmented
(4) Rod shaped

84) Delimiting structure of the animal cell is :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Cell coat
(4) (1) & (2) both

85) Which one is the continuous with outer membrane of nucleus :-

(1) Golgibody
(2) Chloroplast
(3) RER
(4) Lysosome

86) The classification of bacteria into Gram positive and Gram negative had been possible due to-

(1) Difference in cell envelopes

(2) Differences in staining procedure
(3) Differences in decolorising process
(4) All of the above

87) All the following are the part of a eukaryotic cell endomembranous system except

(1) Vacuole
(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Mitochondria

88) Hydrolytic enzymes comprises of which of the following-

(1) Lipases
(2) Proteases
(3) Carbohydrases
(4) All of these

89) The figure given below show the structure of plasma membrane, with its parts labelled from A to
E, Identify the correct :-

(1) A → 52 percent of erythrocyte membrane

(2) B → Movement of this measured fluidity of membrane
(3) C → Help in faciliated transport of polar molecules
(4) D → Its polar tail contain saturated hydrocarbon

90) Identify the components labelled A, B,C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given with Components :

(i) Cristae of mitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii) Nucleus
The correct component are :

A B C D

(1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)

(2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)

(3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) tan θ =
Perpendicular =
Base = 1
Hypotenuse = 2

2) Question Explanation:

We are asked to convert radians to degrees. This requires applying the standard conversion
factor between radians and degrees.
Concept Based'
This question deals with Radian to Degree Conversion.
Formula Used'
To convert from radians to degrees, the formula is:

Degrees Radians
Calculation :

Substitute radians into the conversion formula:

Degrees =

Degrees =
Final Answer:
The correct answer is
Option 4:108°.

3)

= radian

4) (1) Asking About

We are tasked with finding the arc length (S) of a circle, given the radius (R) and the central
angle (θ)

(2) Concept
The formula for the arc length of a circle is:

Here:
• θ is the central angle in degrees.
• R is the radius of the circle.

(3) Formula

(4) Solution/ Explanation

Substitute the given values:

Simplify:

S = 6πm

(5) Final Answer

The arc length S is π m.
Correct Option: 3. 6 π m

5)

Question Explaination:

The problem requires finding the value of sin235° + cos235°, which is based on a fundamental
trigonometric identity.

Concept :

Trigonometric Identities

Formula Used:

sin2θ + cos2θ = 1

Calculation:

Substituting θ = 35°,
sin235° + cos235° = 1

Final Answer:

The correct option is (4).

6) 1. Question Explanation:
We need to determine the minimum value of y = sinx + cos x.

2. Concept-Based:
Minimum value of function.

3. Formula Used:
a sin x + b cos x = R sin(x + θ)
where R = and tan θ = .

4. Calculation:
Here, a = 1 and b = 1 so

We rewrite the function as:

sin x + cos x = sin(x + π / 4)
The range of sin(x + π / 4) is [–1, 1], so
sin(x + π / 4) varies from – to .
The minimum value is – .

Answer: 4 : –

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

7) Explain :- find the value of the sine function for an angle of 2°.

Concept :- Small angles approximation.

Formula :- Degrees to radians : radians = (degrees × π)/180

Approximation for small angles : sinθ θ(in radians)

Calculation : 2° = (2 × π)/ 180 = π/90 radians

sin2° =
Final Answer : (3)

8)

sin120° + cos120° =

9)

10)
θ = 90°

11) For this triangle

∴ℓ=5m

12)

13)

Let : y = 4 – 2 cos θ
For ymax → (cos θ)min
(cos θ)min = (–1)
ymax = 4 – 2(–1)
ymax = 6
For ymin → (cos θ)max
(cos θ)max = 1
ymin = 4 – 2 (1) = 2

14) 2nd quad

In 2nd quad tan θ = – ve – tanθ

15)

sec θ =
from 0° to 90° cosθ ↓
so secθ increases

16)

tan (270° + 30°) = - cot 30° =

17) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the value of cos(2°) using the small angle approximation method. For
small angles, cos(2°) is approximately equal to cos(0°), which is 1.
Concept :
This relates to the Small Angle Approximation.
Solution.
For small angles, cos(θ) ≈ 1, especially when θ is very small (like 2°). Therefore,
cos(2°) cos(0°) =1.
Using the small angle approximation, we approximate:
Therefore, the answer is Option 3:1.
So, the correct answer is Option 3:1.

18)

19) Differentiation of a constant is zero.

20) y = logex + sin x + ex

21)

22)

23) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given functions in Column I and their corresponding derivatives in Column II, The task
is to match each function with its correct derivative.

2. Concept Based : Differentiation.

3. Formula Used :

4. Calculation:
Now, let's match the functions with their derivatives:
• A:y = -ex

The derivative is which matches with Q.

• B:y = sin(2x)

The derivative is , which matches with R.

• C:y = tan(x)

The derivative is , which matches with S.

• D: y = cot(x)

The derivative is , which matches with P.

Conclusion:
The correct matching is:
This corresponds to Option 2.

24)

25) = 12t3 + 4t
= 12 × 8 + 4 × 2
= 96 + 8 = 104 m/s

26) y = x3 cos x

= x3 cos x + cos x x3

= – x3 sin x + 3x2 cos x

= –x3 sin x + 3x2 cos x

27)

y = x1x1/2 = x3/2

28)

sin2x + cos2x = 1

29)
= 12x2 + 6x – 7

30)
⇒

31)

At maxima

At minima

32) y = x2 – 10x + 40

= 2x – 10 = 0
2x – 10 = 0
x=5
ymin = 25 – 10 × 5 + 40
= 15

33) 1+2+3+...+n

34) ∵ a + (n – 1) D = Tn
∵ a = 4, n = 41, D = 4
⇒ 4 + (41 –1) × 4 = T41
⇒ T41 = 164

35)

Tn = a + (n – 1) d
38 = 2 + (n – 1)d
n = 10

2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +........+ 38 = {2a + (n – 1)d}

36)

37) Question Explanation: To get the value of log function.

Concept: Logarithmic identity.
Formula:

and =1
Solution:
 38) (A) log101 = 0
(B) logxx2 ⇒ 2logxx
2×1=2
(C) logem ⇒ 2.303 log10m
(D) log5125 + log7343 ⇒ log553 + log773
= 3 log55 + 3log77
3 + 3 =6

39)
formula

40) = – cos θ + c

41) =
= x3 + x2 + x + c

42) Radian is the unit of angle.

43)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

44) sinθ is +ve in 1st and 2nd qued.

i.e. , from 0° + 90°
and 90° to 180°
so assertion is wrong and sin θ = P/H
so reason is also wrong.

45)

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

CHEMISTRY
 46) Explanation :- not isoelectronic with the oxide ion (O²⁻).

Concept:- isoelectronic electron mean same no. of electron

Solution:

A. O²⁻ = 8+2=10

A. N³⁻ = (7 + 3 = 10).

B. Na⁺ = (11 - 1 = 10).

C. F⁻ = (9 + 1 = 10).

D. Ti⁺ = (22 - 1 = 21).

Final Answer : Option (4) :

47)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for which species the Bohr atomic model is valid. The Bohr model is
specifically applicable to species with only one electron.
Given Data:
The given options are:

A. H⁺ (Hydrogen ion)
B. He (Helium)
C. Li⁺ (Lithium ion)
D. Na¹⁰⁺ (Sodium ion with 10 positive charges)

Concept: Bohr Atomic Model

Analysis :

A. One-Electron Species: Species that have only one electron in their electron configuration.
B. H⁺: Hydrogen has one proton and normally one electron. When it loses that electron, it
becomes H⁺, which has zero electrons. Therefore, the Bohr model is not applicable.
C. He: Helium has two protons and two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply to multi-
electron species.
D. Li⁺: Lithium has three protons and three electrons. When it loses one electron, it becomes Li⁺,
which has two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply.
E. Na¹⁰⁺: Sodium has 11 protons and 11 electrons. When it loses 10 electrons, it becomes Na¹⁰⁺,
which has only one electron. The Bohr model is applicable.

Final Answer

The Bohr model is valid only for species with one electron. Among the given options, only
Na¹⁰⁺ has one electron.
 Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4) Na¹⁰⁺.

48)

A. Explanation:
Isotones are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons but a
different number of protons.

B. Given Data: You haven't provided the options, but I'll explain how to find them. Let's say
the options were:

1. ¹⁴₆C
2. ¹⁵₇N
3. ¹⁶₈O
4. ¹⁷₉F

C. Concept:
Isotones, atomic number (number of protons), and mass number (number of protons +
neutrons). The number of neutrons is calculated as: Number of Neutrons = Mass Number -
Atomic Number.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

Calculate the number of neutrons in : 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

Now, check each option:

¹⁴₆C: 14 - 6 = 8 neutrons

¹⁵₇N: 15 - 7 = 8 neutrons

¹⁶₈O: 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

¹⁷₉F: 17 - 9 = 8 neutrons

F. Final Answer: All the options listed (¹⁴₆C, ¹⁵₇N, ¹⁶₈O, and ¹⁷₉F) are isotones of because they all
have 8 neutrons. So, the correct answer would be "all of the above" or option (4)

49)

50) 16 + 3 = 19 Proton

51) same no. of electrons

52) +17 – 18 = –1

53)
54)

Explanation

The neutron's discovery involved bombarding beryllium with alpha particles, leading to the
emission of a neutral, penetrating radiation. James Chadwick's experiment in 1932.

Answer option 1, (Artificial disintegration of Beryllium (49Be) by α-particles).

55)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to identify which given pairs of chemical species
are isosters. Isosters are pairs that have the same number of atoms and the same total number
of electrons. We need to check each pair to see if they satisfy these conditions.

Underlying Concept: The key concept here is isosterism in chemistry. Isosters are molecules
or ions that possess the same number of total electrons and have similar arrangements of
atoms. This often means that the pairs are isoelectronic (same total number of electrons) and
isostructural (similar structure). For this problem, the focus is on matching the total electrons
and atom count of the species.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. KF and CaO: - KF consists of K⁺ (18 electrons) and F⁻ (10
electrons), total = 28 electrons. - CaO consists of Ca²⁺ (18 electrons) and O²⁻ (10
electrons), total = 28 electrons. Both have two atoms and 28 electrons → isosters.
2. and : - Both are single carbon atoms, each with 6 electrons. Same atomic count
(1) and electrons (6) → isosters.
3. and : - Deuterium has 1 electron, helium has 2 electrons. Different electron counts
→ not isosters.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that isotopes have the same number of electrons and protons but
differ in neutrons - so isotopes of the same element are isosters. For ions, consider their
charge to find the electron count.

Common Mistakes: Confusing isotopes as different species despite them having the same
electron count. Also, not accounting for ion charges can lead to incorrect electron totals.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The pair and is incorrect as they have a
different number of electrons (1 vs. 2), so they are not isosters.

56)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).
 B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

57)

average atomic mass =

58)

r = ro A1/3
r = 1.33 × 10–15 × 641/3
= 1.33 × 10–15 × 4

= 5.32 × 10–15 m

59)

= 2 × 1019

60) mvr

61)

r= Å

⇒∴

62) V ∝
63) T ∝ n3

64) ν = 8 × 1015 s–1

λ=?
= 3.75 × 10–8 m.

65)

K.E.

66)

2πr = nλ
2πr = 4 × 2 = 8Å

67)

First line of Balmer series ⇒ 3 → 2

68) Asking : Energy of photon

Concept : Plank's Theory

Solution : E =
where h = 6.02 × 10–34
c = 3 × 108
λ = 2 × 10–10

∴E=

69)
=2:1

70) Second excited state n = 3

E3 = –13.6 × = –1.51 e.v

71)

λ= = = 10–33 m

72)

73)

R<M<I<V<U<X<G

74) For Be3+ E∞ – E2 = + 13.6

75)

76) Explanation : Relation between 1 & 2

Given data :
E1 = 25ev , E = 50 ev

Concept :

Calculation :
Final Answer : λ1 = 2λ2
Correct option : 2

77)

78)
 NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62, Part-1

79) r3 – r4

80)

81) E = hv = 6.62 × 10–34 × 4.2 × 1014 = 2.8 × 10–19 J

82)

Maximum wavelength = Minimum energy

(for lyman series)
n1 = 1, n2 = 2

83)

Explanation

A. The principal quantum number (n) defines the energy level and size of an electron's
orbital. Higher 'n' values mean higher energy and greater distance from the nucleus.

B. Electron velocity is inversely related to 'n'.

C. The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by 2n2.

Concept

A. Options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

B. Option 3 is incorrect. As "n" increases, the velocity of the electron decreases, because
the electron is further from the nucleus and experiences less attraction.

Answer option 3, (As value of "n" increases, the velocity of electron increases).

84) 0.85 × 4 = 3.4 eV

85)
 In the given diagram, there are four electron waves, so it is fourth orbit.

86)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 52, Part-1

87)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 52, Part-1

88)

89)

Wavelength
c is speed of light
v is frequency

90) N = number of lines emitted

BIOLOGY

91)

The study of tissues is known as 2. Histology.

A. Cytology: The study of cells.

B. Anatomy: The study of the structure of organisms and their parts.
C. Physiology: The study of the functions and processes of living organisms and their parts.

92) Explain Question :

Loose connective tissue found beneath the skin.

93)

Explanation:
In both bronchioles and fallopian tubes, ciliated columnar epithelium is present. The cilia help
in moving mucus in the bronchioles and transporting the ovum in the fallopian tube.

Correct answer: Option (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

94)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

97) NCERT XIth Pg # 101 last para

98)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

99)

Pg. No. 103, 104_XI NCERT

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

101)

Let's match the epithelial tissues with their locations:

A. (A) Cuboidal: Cuboidal epithelium is often found in ducts and tubules where secretion
and absorption take place. The lining of the pancreatic duct (5) is a good example.

B. (B) Ciliated: Ciliated epithelium has cilia that help move substances across the cell
surface. The inner lining of the Fallopian tube (4) is a classic example, where cilia help
move the ovum.

C. (C) Brush-Border Columnar: Brush-border columnar epithelium has microvilli that

increase surface area for absorption. The inner surface of the gall bladder (3) is a good
example.

D. (D) Squamous: Squamous epithelium is thin and flat, ideal for diffusion. The inner lining
of blood vessels (2) is made of simple squamous epithelium (endothelium).
 E. (E) Keratinized squamous: Keratinized squamous epithelium is tough and protective. The
epidermis of the skin (1) is made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

The correct option is 3. (A)-(5), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(2), (E)-(1)

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

103) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

104) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102, Fig- 7.2 (a, b)

106) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104, Fig- 7.6 (a, b)

107)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

108) NCERT Pg. # 104, Para # 2

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

111) Module No. 2

112)

The correct answer is 4. Both 1 & 2.

Here's why:

A. Lacunae are small spaces or cavities within the matrix of bone and cartilage. These
spaces house individual cells:

A. In bone: Lacunae contain osteocytes (bone cells).

 B. In cartilage: Lacunae contain chondrocytes (cartilage cells).

Therefore, lacunae are found in both bone and cartilage.

113) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, IIIrd Para

114) NCERT Page No.-100

115) NCERT-P.g. # 100

116) NCERT- P.g. # 101

117) NCERT, Pg. # 102

118) NCERT, Pg. # 93

119) NCERT-Page No. # 102

120) Module-5, Pg. # 103

121) NCERT XI Page # 104

122) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102, Ist para

123) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103, IIst para

124) NCERT Pg.#101

125) Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres which give bone its strength.

126) Allen module page no. 148

127) Ncert Page No. 101

128)

NCERT Pg. No. 103, 104

129)

NCERT Pg. No. 103, 104

130)

NCERT Pg. No. 103, 104

131) NCERT Pg. No. # 101

132)

NCERT, Pg. # 103

133) NCERT Page no 103.

134)

NCERT Page no 102.

135) Concept :
Fibres of Connactive Tissue Proper

Solution/Explanation :
(i) Collagen fibres (White fibres) They are bright & white fibres composed of collagen protein.
(ii) Elastic fibres - (Yello fibres) They are yellow in colour and composed of elastin protein.
(iii) Reticular Fibres They are composed of reticulin protein.

136) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126, Para–2

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134, Para–4

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134, Para–2

139) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132, Para–1

140) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134, Para–3

141)

Glycoprotein

142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 88, 89

143)

NCERT-XI Pg#96

144)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

145) NCERT XI pg.# 127

146) NCERT Pg.#125

147) NCERT Pg.#125

148)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

149) NCERT-XI, Pg # 132, 133

150) NCERT Page No. 94

151)

correct answer (3)

152)

NCERT XI, Pg # 134

153)

SER

154)

Amphipathic nature

155)

NCERT XI, Pg # 132 (E), 131 (H)

156)
Lysosome

157)

Three

158)

Plasma membrane

159)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 129 # 8.4.2

160)

NCERT pg. # 94

161)

NCERT pg. # 93

162)

NCERT pg. # 94

163)

NCERT pg. # 96

164)

NCERT pg. # 94

165)

NCERT pg. # 89

166) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132

167)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 93

168)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 93

169)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95

170)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 89

171)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 90

172)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95

173)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 93

174)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 90

175) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95

176)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 90

177)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95

178)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 96

179)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 93

180)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95