RADBIOLOGY AND PROTECTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. If the radiation response occurs within minutes or days after the radiation exposure it is said to
be:
A. Stochastic effect C. Early effect
B. Late effect D. Deterministic effect

2.. If the response is not observed for months or years it is called:

A. Latency C. Early effect
B. Stochastic effect D. Late effect

3. Which of the following is the ultimate molecule that fuels the body?
A. Nucleic Acids C. Antibodies
B. Glucose D. Hormone

4. The energy contained in the nucleus of an atom.

A. Nuclear energy C. Neutrons
B. Nucleons D. Protons

5. It has the shortest wavelength in the region of visible light.

A. Red C. Green
B. Blue D. Violet

6. The walls of the x-ray room should be made of:

A. Wooden walls lined at least 6 inch thick lead sheet to a height of at least 2
meters from the floor.
B. A six (6) –inch thick concrete hollow blocks with all cores filled with concrete or
6-inch thick poured concrete.
C. Both
D. Neither

7. Over _____% of the human body is composed of CHON.

A. 80 C. 85
B. 95 D. 90

8. Which of the following statement is true regarding pregnant technologist?

A. The Dose limit for the fetus is 50 mSv for the period of pregnancy.
B. An additional radiation monitor is necessary.
C. Involuntary leave is necessary as a consequence of pregnancy.
D. NOTA

9. The dose limits for the skin is:

A. 500 mSv / yr C. 5 mSv / yr
B. 50 mSv / yr D. 20 mSv / yr

10. Student younger than 18 years of age may not receive more than 1 mSv / yr during the course of
their educational activities.
A. True C. Radiation monitor should be provided
B. False D. Radiation monitor is unnecessary

11. It is called the period of major organogenesis:

A. 0-2 weeks of pregnancy C. 6-8 weeks of pregnancy
B. 4-6 weeks of pregnancy D. 2-10 weeks of pregnancy

12. Spontaneous abortion after irradiation during the first 2 weeks of pregnancy is more pronounced at
radiation doses of:
A. 25 rad C. 1000 rad
B. 5000 rad D. Greater than 5000 rad

13. Protective housing:

A. Reduces patient dose C. Improves contrast
B. Reduces leakage radiation D. Produces short-scale contrast

14. The SID indicator must be accurate to within:

A. 5% of indicated SID C. 2% of indicated SID
B. 3% of indicated SID D. 10% of indicated SID

15. Radiographic tubes operated between 50 to 70 kVp must have a total filtration of at least:
A. 1.5 mm of AI C. 0.5 mm of AI
B. 2.5 m of AI D. 30 µm Mo or 60 µm Rh

16. What is the SSD of stationary fluoroscope?

A. At least 15 inches C. At least 38 cm
B. At least 30 cm D. Both A and C

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17. Which of the following best describe/s the primary radiation:
A. The most intense and most hazardous type of radiation.
B. The most difficult to shield
C. Is the useful beam
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

18. Types of secondary radiation

A. Scatter C. Both
B. Leakage D. Neither

19. What is the radiation emitted from the x-ray tube housing in all directions other than that of
the useful beam?
A. Leakage radiation C. Primary beam
B. Scatter radiation D. Secondary radiation

20. An area occupied primarily by radiology personnel and patients:

A. Uncontrolled Area C. Occupied Area
B. Controlled Area D. Unoccupied Area

21. LiF is relatively sensitive, it can measure doses as low as:

A. 20 mrad C. 10 mrad
B. 15 mrad D. 5 mrad

22. The following statements are true regarding TLD except.

A. TLD gives immediate result C. TLD responds proportionately todose
B. TLD is reusable D. None

23. DSL is more sensitive than TLD.

A. True C. Depends on radiation type
B. False D. Depends on intensity

24. Identifies the biologic effectiveness of the radiation energy absorbed.

A. Dose C. Effective dose
B. Exposure D. Threshold dose

25. It is expressed in units of kiloelectron volts of energy transferred per micrometer of track length in
soft tissue.
A. LET C. OER
B. RBE D. PET

26. The relationship between linear energy transfer and biologic response is:
A. Inversely proportional C. Inversely proportional to d2
B. Directly proportional D. Directly proportional to d2

27. Entrance skin exposure is most often referred to as:

A. Erythema dose C. Effective dose
B. Patient dose D. Absorbed dose

28. It simply measures the quantity of radiation to which the monitor was exposed.
A. Radiation monitor C. TLC
B. Film badge D. OSL dosimeter

29. The usual filters used in film badge are made of:
A. Aluminum & Nickel C. Aluminum and Copper
B. Nickel & Copper D. All of the above

30. Film badge is not capable of measuring exposures:

A. Less than 5 mR C. Above 10 mR
B. Less than 10 mR D. NOTA

31. These are the disadvantage of film badge, except:

A. Cannot be reused C. Cannot be worn for more than 1 month
B. Inexpensive D. None

32. The uncontrolled rapid proliferation of cell is the principal characteristic of radiation induced
genetic damage.
A. True C. Always
B. False D. Sometimes

33. If the radiologic technologist participates in fluoroscopy, then the occupational radiation monitor
should be positioned on the collar above the protective apron.
A. True C. Sometimes
B. False D. Always

34. Protective aprons and gloves should be fluoroscope to check for some defects or cracks.
A. At least once a year C. At least once a month
B. At least twice a year D. At least twice a month

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35. The latent period for gastrointestinal syndrome is:
A. 4 weeks C. 12 hours
B. 3-5 days D. None

36. Radiation dose that can reduce the number of sperm or may delay / suppress menstruation:
A. 25 rad C. 20 rad
B. 10 rad D. 15 rad

37. If the initial ionizing event occurs on the target molecule it is said to be:
A. Deterministic effect C. Direct effect
B. Stochastic effect D. Early effect

38. Radiation doses to the ovaries / testes which results in permanent sterility.
A. 200 rad C. 10 rad
B. 500 rad D. None

39. Described the molecular structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as the genetic substance of
the cell in 1953.
1. Watson
2. Crick
3. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

40. Human cell can be killed with a dose of less than:

A. 10 rad C. 5 rad
B. 100 rad D. 50 rad

41. Which of the following are true?

1. Younger tissue and organs are radiosensitive
2. Stem cells are radioresistant
3. Tissues with high metabolic activity are radiosensitive
4. Mature cells are radioresistant
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. These are the physical factors affecting radiosensitivity:

1. Linear Energy Transfer
2. Protraction and Fractionation
3. Relative Biologic Effectiveness
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3

43. The probability or frequency of the biologic response to radiation dose, increases proportionally
with dose; and there is no dose threshold.
A. Stochastic effect C. Late effect
B. Deterministic effect D. Early effect

44. Defined as the breakage of the backbone of the long-chain macromolecule.

A. Atrophy C. Cross-linking
B. Point lesion D. Main-chain scission

45. A gas-filled detector which has the ability to distinguish between alpha and beta radiation.
A. TLD C. Geiger-Muller Counter
B. Ionization chamber D. Proportional counter

46. The smallest hereditary unit of a DNA is called __________.

A. Gene C. Chromosome
B. Codon D. Nucleus

47. A macromolecule which serves as a thermal insulator of the human body from the environment.
A. Lipid C. DNA
B. Sugar D. Starch

48. A type of protein molecule which constitute a primary defense mechanism of the body against
infection and disease
A. Hormone C. Enzyme
B. Antibodies D. Mineral

49. Diagnostic x-ray beams must have a total filtration of at least _______ mm A1 when operated above
70 kVp.
A. 1.5 C. 2.5
B. 2.0 D. 3.0

50. The use of x-ray filters for diagnostic x-ray machines provides the following functions
EXCEPT:
A. Increases x-ray penetrability C. Increases average x-ray energy
B. Increases x-ray quality D. Increases quantity of scatter x-rays

51. The maximum acceptable variation in x-ray beam linearity of diagnostic x-ray machines is ____.
A. + 2% C. + 10%
B. + 5% D. + 1%

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52. Most radiographs are taken at an SID of 100 cm. What is the allowable difference between the
projection of the light field and the x-ray beam at the film?
A. 1% of 100 cm C. 3% of 100 cm
B. 2% of 100 cm D. 5% of 100 cm

53. Motion unsharpness can be reduced by one of the following techniques:

A. Use of large OID (object-image distance) C. Use of high mAs
B. Use of restraining device D. Application of 15% kVp rule

54. In Radiolysis of H2O, the product formed when a positive H2O molecule dissociates is a
_______.
A. Hydrogen free radical C. Hydroxyl free radical
B. Toxic agent D. Hydroxyl ion

55. The sequence of events following large doses up to 75000 cGy leading to death within 3days
describes _______.
A. Prodromal Syndrome C. Gastro Intestinal Syndrome
B. Hematologic Syndrome D. Central Nervous Syndrome

56. The following are examples of stem cells EXCEPT:

A. Basal cells C. Intestinal crypt cells
B. Pluripotential cells D. Sperm cell

57. This is the period of ARS during which time no signs of radiation sickness are visible.
A. Prodromal C. Latency
B. Early or prompt D. Manifest illness

58. One of the following chemicals is a radio sensitizer.

A. Methotrexate C. Sulfhydryl compound
B. Cysteine D. Hydrogen sulfide

59. Within the first 2 weeks of fertilization, the most pronounced effect of high radiation dose is
manifested as __________.
A. Neonatal death C. Malignancy
B. Deformed organ D. Spontaneous abortion

60. Skeletal and congenital abnormalities are observed during this period which occurs from the 2 nd to
8th weeks.
A. Pre-implantation period C. 2nd trimester
B. Major organogenesis D. Infancy

61. The dose of radiation that will produce twice the frequency of genetic mutation as would have
been observed without the radiation:
A. Threshold dose C. Doubling dose
B. Genetically significant dose D. Lethal dose

62. Which of the following statement is true about genetic effects?

A. Most radiation induced mutations are dominant.
B. The female is more sensitive to the genetic effects than the male.
C. The frequency of radiation induced mutations is directly proportional to dose
D. Genetic effect is not dependent on the rate at which radiation is delivered.

63. A radiation scientist, engineer, or doctor concerned with the research, teaching or operational
aspect of radiation safety.
A. Medical physicist C. Health Physicist
B. Radiation worker D. Medical officer

64. The following are principles of radiation protection EXCEPT:

A. Minimize exposure time C. Optimize radiation shielding
B. Maximize distance from source D. None of the above

65. A radiation source has an exposure rate of 250 mR/hr at 1 m. If a worker stays at 50 cm, he
will be exposed to a rate of ________.
A. 100 mR/hr C. 1 R/hr
B. 125 mR/hr D. 500 mR/hr

66. If the same worker opted to stay at 1 m and remained there for 30 min, his total exposure is ____.
A. 100 mR C. 250 mR
B. 125 mR D. 500 Mr

67. If the total exposure allowed per day is 0.2 mSv. The total exposure allowed per hour at 8
working hrs a day is ________.
A. 0.2 mSv C. 0.025 mSv
B. 2 mSv D. 25 mSv

68. Positron emission involves a decay of radio nuclides with:

A. Too many neutrons C. Too many electrons
B. Too many protons D. Too many neutrinos

69. Positron emitters are generally produced by _________.

A. Nuclear reactors C. Betatron
B. Cyclotron D. Microtron

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70. Film badge are not able to measure exposures that are ________.
A. Less than 100 mR C. Less than 25 mR
B. Less than 10 mR D. Less than 15 Mr

71. The length of the exposure cord on a portable x-ray unit must be at least ________.
A. 1 meter C. 50 cm
B. 1.8 meter D. 3 m

72. Crystals that emit light when heated following exposure to radiation are called ________.
A. Scintillators C. Phosphorescent
B. Thermoluminescent D. Fluoroscopic

73. The Department of Health requires this equivalent thickness of lead on lead rubber apron.
A. 1 mm C. 0.25 mm
B. 2 mm D. 1.5 mm

74. This type of detector uses a quenching agent.

A. Ion chamber C. Proportional counter
B. GM counter D. Scintillation counter

75. The ability of an instrument to detect very low radiation intensities describes its _________.
A. Linearity C. Accuracy
B. Reproducibility D. Sensitivity

76. The ability of an instrument to precisely detect and measure the intensity of a radiation field
describes its _________.
A. Linearity C. Accuracy
B. Reproducibility D. Sensitivity

77. The % of time during which the x-ray beam is on and directed toward a particular wall is called
________.
A. Use factor C. Transmission factor
B. Occupancy factor D. Workload

78 – 81. The plans for a small hospital call for two x-ray rooms. The estimated patient load for each
room is 15 patients per day and each patient will average three films taken at 80 kVp, 70 mAs.

78. What is the total number of patient per week?

A. 15 C. 105
B. 30 D. 75

79. The total number of films used in a week is _______.

A. 75 C. 225
B. 100 D. 300

80. The workload in mA-min/wk is _________.

A. 200 C. 220.2
B. 262.5 D. 15,750

81. The total heat units generated per machine per day is ________.
A. 100,000 HU C. 252,000 HU
B. 200,000 HU D. 500,000 HU

82. Existing in an artificial environment outside the host organism

A. In vitro C. Experimental
B. In vivo D. Cloning

83. The output intensity of a radiographic unit at patient position is 400 mR for a KUB examination. The
scatter dose at 1 m from the patient will be ________.
A. 100 mR C. 0.40 mR
B. 40 mR D. 4 mR

84. Any wall to which the useful beam can be directed is designated as a _______ protective
barrier.
A. Primary C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. Special

85. A baby badge or fetal dosemeter has a dose limit during the 9 month period of _______.
A. 50 mSv C. 10 mSv
B. 5 mSv D. 1 mSv

86. Baby badge should be positioned at waist level _____ the lead rubber apron of the pregnant
technologist.
A. Underneath C. On the side of
B. On top of D. Above

87. The primary dose limit of radiation worker according to ICRP 50 shall be averaged in 5 yrs.
This dose limit is equal to ________.
A. 50 mSv C. 1 mSv
B. 5 mSv D. 20 mSv

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88. This principle relates the cost of radiation protection to the corresponding reduction in dose.
A. Justification C. Shielding
B. Optimization D. Time

88. This principle demands that the benefit should far exceed radiation risk.
A. Justification C. Dose Limitation
B. Optimization D. Shielding

89. This principle requires that potentially pregnant women shall be subjected to abdominal x-
ray examination within 10 days from the onset of menstruation.
A. 10 day rule C. Somatic Mutation Theory
B. Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau D. Viral Theory

90. This theory assumes that dormant carcinogenic virus are activated by ionizing radiation to become
cancer cells.
A. Target theory C. Viral theory
B. Cell theory D. Somatic mutation theory

91. According to this theory, for a cell to die following radiation exposure, its target molecule must be
inactivated.
A. Target theory C. Viral theory
B. Cell theory D. Somatic mutation theory

92. Which is not a gas filled detector?

A. LiF C. Geiger counter
B. Ion chamber D. Proportional counter

93. Acute effects manifest themselves immediately after exposure to large doses of radiation
exposure.
A. True C. Depends on LET
B. False D. Depends on RBE

94. Which of the following provides dynamic x-ray images?

A. Digital radiography C. Mammography
B. Doppler ultrasound D. Fluoroscopy

95. Collimation and Filtration do which of the following?

A. Compromise image quality C. Reduce patient dose
B. Improves spatial resolution D. Result in patient discomfort

96. Which of the following will reduce personnel exposure the most?
a. Collimation of the x-ray beam
b. Filtration of the x-ray beam
c. Record fluoroscopy time
d. Use of protective barriers for radiologic technologists

97. A cutie pie is considered a/an?

a. Ionization chamber c. GM counter
b. Neutron detector d. Electrometer

98. These are organic molecules, EXCEPT

A. Water C. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates D. Proteins

99. This is mostly to occur when the linear energy transfer increases.
A. Decreased chances to produce biologic response
B. Increased chances to produce biologic damage
C. Decreased relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)
D. Both A and C

100. When are human most sensitive to radiation exposure?

A. Old age D. Before birth
B. Age of maturity E. Both A and D
C. After birth

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