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APPLETON PRACTICE TEST 1-B; 5 edition Question.doc

1. Which of the following statements are true regarding Figure 2-28?

1. The radiograph was made in the RAO position.

2. The central ray should enter more inferiorly.
3. The sternum should be projected onto the right side of the thorax.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

2. To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to

1. use a 15º AP Trendelenburg position.
2. apply compression to the proximal ureters.
3. apply compression to the distal ureters.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

3. Which of the following is (are) causes of grid cutoff when using reciprocating grids?
1. Inadequate SID
2. X-ray tube off-center with the long axis of the lead strips
3. Angling the beam in the direction of the lead strips

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

4. Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?

1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

5. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

6. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for patient consent to be valid?
1. The patient must sign the consent form before receiving sedation.
2. The physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure.
3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the patient signs the form.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

7. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

8. The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit of:

(A) 2.5 rem (25 mSv).

(B) 5 rem (50 mSv).
(C) 10 rem (100 mSv).
(D) 20 rem (200 mSv).

9. Distortion can be caused by

1. tube angle.
2. the position of the organ or structure within the body.
3. the radiographic positioning of the part.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

10. Mammography of the augmented breast is best accomplished using:

(A) the Cleopatra method.

(B) the Eklund method.
(C) magnification films.
(D) the cleavage view.

11. In what position was the radiograph in Figure 2-30 made?

(A) Flexion
(B) Extension
(C) Left bending
(D) Right bending

12. Quantum mottle is most obvious when using:

(A) slow-speed screens.

(B) rare earth screens.
(C) fine-grain film.
(D) minimal filtration.

13. The pulse can be detected only by the use of a stethoscope in which of the following
locations?

(A) Wrist
(B) Apex of the heart
(C) Groin
(D) Neck

14. All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except:

(A) The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.

(B) Retained fecal material can simulate pathology.
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
(D) Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

15. Types of secondary radiation barriers include

1. the control booth.
2. lead aprons.
3. the x-ray tube housing.

(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

16. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

17. Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and the quality of the primary beam?
1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. kVp
3. mA

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

18. The device shown in Figure 4-12 is used for:

(A) tomographic quality assurance (QA) testing.

(B) timer and rectifier testing.
(C) mammography QA testing.
(D) kV calibration testing.

19. An esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal
disorders/symptoms?
1. Varices
2. Achalasia
3. Dysphasia
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

20. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when performing a double-contrast
upper GI series?

(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium,
then placed recumbent.
(B) Patient is placed recumbent, given a small amount of high-density barium, then given a gas-
producing substance.
(C) Patient is given a gas-producing substance, placed recumbent, then given a small amount of
high-density barium.
(D) Patient is given a small amount of high-density barium, placed recumbent, then given a
gas-producing substance.

21. Which of the following is (are) acceptable way(s) to monitor the radiation exposure of those
who are occupationally employed?
1. TLD
2. OSL
3. Quarterly blood count

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

22. A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which
of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

23. The steeper the straight-line portion of a characteristic curve for a particular film, the:
1. slower the film speed.
2. higher the film contrast.
3. greater the exposure latitude.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

24. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on:
1. respiratory phase.
2. body habitus.
3. patient position.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

25. The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor
is located at the:

(A) receiving bin.

(B) crossover roller.
(C) entrance roller.
(D) replenishment pump.

26. Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include

1. Clean from the most contaminated to the least contaminated area
2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward
3. Clean from the top down

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

27. Typical examples of digital imaging include

1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
2. computed tomography (CT).
3. pluridirectional tomography.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

28. Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube?

1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point.
2. The useful beam emerges from the port window.
3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

29. Which of the following positions / projections of the skull will result in the most shape
distortion?

(A) 0º PA
(B) 23º Caldwell
(C) 37º Towne / Grashey
(D) 25º Haas

30. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as:

(A) neurogenic.
(B) cardiogenic.
(C) hypovolemic.
(D) septic.
31. The medical abbreviation meaning "three times a day" is:

(A) tid.
(B) qid.
(C) qh.
(D) pc.

32. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-12?

(A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

(B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method)
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Submentovertical projection

33. Pulmonary fibrosis can result from the inhalation of dust particles; this is characteristic of:

(A) cystic fibrosis.

(B) chronic asthma.
(C) pneumoconiosis.
(D) pleural effusion.

34. Decreasing field size from 14 × 17 in to 8 × 10 in will:

(A) decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scatter radiation generated
within the part.
(B) decrease radiographic density and increase the amount of scatter radiation generated within
the part.
(C) increase radiographic density and increase the amount of scatter radiation generated within
the part.
(D) increase radiographic density and decrease the amount of scatter radiation generated
within the part.

35. Which of the following is likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose?
1. Beam restriction
2. Low kV and high mAs factors
3. Grids

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

36. The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and
relaxation of the heart is called:

(A) hypertension.
(B) elasticity.
(C) pulse.
(D) pressure.

37. X-ray photon energy is inversely related to

1. photon wavelength.
2. applied mA.
3. applied kVp.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

38. When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier,

1. a smaller patient area is viewed.
2. the image is magnified.
3. the image is less bright.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

39. A student radiographer who is under 18 years of age must not receive an annual occupational
dose greater than:

(A) 0.1 rem (1 mSv).

(B) 0.5 rem (5 mSv).
(C) 5 rem (50 mSv).
(D) 10 rem (100 mSv).

40. In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the
1. central ray is directed 12º cephalad.
2. MSP is 45º to the film.
3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

41. Medication can be administered by which of the following routes?

1. Orally
2. Intravenously
3. Intramuscularly:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

42. Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar
intervertebral foramina?

(A) Number 1
(B) Number 2
(C) Number 3
(D) Number 4

43. A satisfactory radiograph of the abdomen was made at a 42-in SID using 300 mA, 0.06 s
exposure, and 80 kVp. If the distance is changed to 38 in, what new exposure time would be
required?

(A) 0.02 s
(B) 0.05 s
(C) 0.12 s
(D) 0.15
44. Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the dose-response curve shown
in Figure 3-4?

1. The quantity of radiation is directly related to the dose received.

2. No threshold is required for effects to occur.
3. A minimum amount of radiation is required for manifestation of effects.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

45. The sensitometric curve may be used to

1. identify automatic processing problems.
2. determine film sensitivity.
3. illustrate screen speed.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

46. The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

(A) coxa plana.
(B) osteochondritis.
(C) talipes.
(D) muscular dystrophy.

47. Which of the two film emulsions illustrated in Figure 4-8 requires less exposure to produce a
density of 2.0?

(A) Number 1 requires less exposure to produce a density of 2.0.

(B) Number 2 requires less exposure to produce a density of 2.0.
(C) Emulsions 1 and 2 are of identical speed.
(D) Speed cannot be predicted from the illustration.

48. Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in
profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the film
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP position

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
49. When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15º caudal angle, the radiographer
should see
1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits.
2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit
bilaterally.
3. symmetrical petrous pyramids.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

50. How does the use of rare earth intensifying screens contribute to lowering the patient dose?
1. It permits the use of lower mAs.
2. It permits the use of lower kVp.
3. It eliminates the need for patient shielding.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

51. That portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the:

(A) diaphysis.
(B) epiphysis.
(C) metaphysis.
(D) apophysis.

52. Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest?
1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

53. Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QA program?

1. Beam alignment
2. Reproducibility
3. Linearity

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

54. What is the purpose of the thin layer of lead that is often located behind the rear intensifying
screen in a image receptor?

(A) To prevent crossover

(B) To increase screen speed
(C) To diffuse light photons
(D) To prevent scattered radiation fog
55. A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which of
the following positions?

(A) Trendelenburg
(B) Fowler's
(C) Sims
(D) Stenver's

56. Which of the following groups of technical factors will produce the greatest radiographic
density?

(A) 400 mA, 0.010 s, 94 kVp, 100-speed screens

(B) 500 mA, 0.008 s, 94 kVp, 200-speed screens
(C) 200 mA, 0.040 s, 94 kVp, 50-speed screens
(D) 100 mA, 0.020 s, 80 kVp, 200-speed screens

57. An inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed a:

(A) vector.
(B) fomite.
(C) host.
(D) reservoir.

58. Which of the following devices is (are) component(s) of a typical fluoroscopic video display
system?
1. Videotape recorder
2. TV camera
3. TV monitor

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

59. Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include

1. tuberculosis.
2. mumps.
3. rubella.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

60. With all other factors constant, as a digital image matrix size increases,
1. pixel size decreases.
2. resolution increases.
3. pixel size increases.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
61. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a
bony process?

(A) Avulsion fracture

(B) Torus fracture
(C) Comminuted fracture
(D) Compound fracture

62. Screen / film imaging is one example of a(n):

(A) analog system.

(B) digital system.
(C) electromagnetic system.
(D) direct-action radiation system.

63. The radiograph illustrated in Figure 5-4 was made using a single-phase, full-wave-rectified
unit with a timer and rectifiers that are known to be accurate and functioning correctly. What
exposure time was used to produce this image?

(A) 1/10 s
(B) 0.05 s
(C) 1/12 s
(D) 0.025 s

64. Radiographers use monitoring devices to record their monthly exposure to radiation. The
types of devices suited for this purpose include the
1. pocket dosimeter.
2. thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD).
3. optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL).

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
65. Which of the two characteristic curves shown in Figure 4-13 will require more exposure to
produce a density of 1.5 on the finished radiograph?

(A) Film 1.
(B) Film 2.
(C) They require identical exposures.
(D) Insufficient information is provided.

66. The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the:

(A) hepatic flexure.

(B) splenic flexure.
(C) transverse flexure.
(D) sigmoid flexure.

67. If a radiograph exhibits insufficient density, this might be attributed to

1. inadequate kVp.
2. inadequate SID.
3. grid cutoff.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

68. If 600 rad or more is received as a whole-body dose in a short period of time, certain
symptoms will occur; these are referred to as:

(A) short-term effects.

(B) long-term effects.
(C) lethal dose.
(D) acute radiation syndrome.

69. In the production of bremsstrahlung radiation, the incident electron:

(A) ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron.

(B) ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron.
(C) is deflected, with resulting energy loss.
(D) is deflected, with resulting energy increase.

70. What should be the radiographer's main objective regarding personal radiation safety?

(A) Not to exceed his or her dose limit

(B) To keep personal exposure as far below the dose limit as possible
(C) To avoid whole-body exposure
(D) To wear protective apparel when "holding" patients for exposures

71. Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?

(A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

(B) Percutaneous angioplasty
(C) Renal arteriography
(D) Surgical nephrostomy

72. The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned
oblique lumbar spine?

(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck
73. The skin response to radiation exposure, which appears as reddening of the irradiated skin
area, is known as:

(A) dry desquamation.

(B) moist desquamation.
(C) erythema.
(D) epilation.

74. A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations, is
the:

(A) phototimer.
(B) penetrometer.
(C) grid.
(D) rare earth screen.

75. Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart?
1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
2. Medical history
3. Informed consent

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

76. The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly
positioned oblique lumbar spine?

(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck

77. Rare earth phosphors that may be used in intensifying screens include
1. cesium iodide.
2. gadolinium oxysulfide.
3. lanthanum oxybromide.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

78. If 92 kV and 12 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase
equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, six-
pulse equipment?

(A) 36 mAs
(B) 24 mAs
(C) 8 mAs
(D) 6 mAs

79. A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed:

(A) an intravenous push.

(B) an infusion.
(C) a bolus.
(D) parenteral.

80. Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection?
1. Antecubital vein
2. Basilic vein
3. Popliteal vein

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3

81. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?

(A) Intravenous urogram

(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
(D) Nephrotomogram

82. Which of the following blood pressure measurements indicates shock?

(A) Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

(B) Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
(C) Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
(D) Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

83. The interaction between x-ray photons and matter pictured in Figure 3-1 is associated with:
 1. high-energy x-ray photons.
2. ionization.
3. characteristic radiation.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

84. AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 in of
the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate:

(A) spondylolisthesis.
(B) subluxation.
(C) scoliosis.
(D) arthritis.

85. All of the following statements regarding handwashing and skin care are correct except:

(A) Hands should be washed after each patient examination.

(B) Faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels.
(C) Hands should be smooth and free from chapping.
(D) Any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

86. During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?

(A) Pulmonary semilunar

(B) Aortic
(C) Mitral
(D) Tricuspid
87. A backup timer for the AEC serves to
1. protect the patient from overexposure.
2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat.
3. increase or decrease master density.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

88. Which of the following should be used to disinfect the area after a blood spill?

(A) Soap and water

(B) Betadine solution
(C) One part bleach to ten parts water
(D) One part alcohol to ten parts water

89. Image receptors / cassettes frequently have a lead foil layer behind the rear screen that
functions to:

(A) improve penetration.

(B) absorb backscatter.
(C) preserve resolution.
(D) increase the screen speed.

90. In Figure 2-25, which of the following is represented by the number 1?

(A) Pedicle
(B) Lamina
(C) Spinous process
(D) Superior articular process

91. The presence of ionizing radiation may be detected in which of the following ways?
1. Ionizing effect on air
2. Photographic effect on film emulsion
3. Fluorescent effect on certain crystals
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

92. The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called:

(A) patent ductus arteriosus.

(B) coarctation of the aorta.
(C) atrial septal defect.
(D) ventricular septal defect.

93. Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?
1. Congestive heart failure
2. Pleural effusion
3. Emphysema

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

94. Indications for a myelographic cervical puncture include

1. demonstration of the upper level of a spinal block.
2. suspected mass lesion in the upper cervical canal.
3. failure of lumbar puncture.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

95. Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their

1. ability to store a large quantity of energy.
2. ability to store energy for extended periods of time.
3. lightness and ease of maneuverability.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

96. Which of the following is an abnormal intensifying-screen action?

(A) Fluorescence
(B) Luminescence
(C) Speed
(D) Lag

97. Tungsten alloy is the usual choice for the anode target material of radiographic equipment
because it
1. has a high atomic number.
2. has a high melting point.
3. can readily dissipate heat.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

98. To better visualize the knee joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-29, the radiographer
should:

(A) flex the knee more acutely.

(B) flex the knee less acutely.
(C) angle the CR 5 to 7º cephalad.
(D) angle the CR 5 to 7º caudad.

99. Which of the following result(s) from restriction of the x-ray beam?
1. Less scatter radiation production
2. Less patient hazard
3. Less radiographic contrast

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

100. Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?

1. X-ray tube glass envelope
2. X-ray tube port window
3. Aluminum between the tube housing and the collimator

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3