CSH based MODEL QUESTIONS:-Radiography
1. The wavelength of the x-ray beam is the
A. 1m
B. 0.1A0
C. 2mm
D. 0.1 m
2. Which of the following provides modalities uses lowest kvp?
a. Digital radiography
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Mammography
d. Tomography
3. Collimation and filtration do which of the following?
a. Compromise image quality
b. Improve spatial resolution
c. Reduce exposure time
d. Reduce patient dose
4. Which of the following is not included in the 10 basic radiation control
principles of diagnostic radiology?
a. Collimate the x-ray beam to the smallest approximate field size.
b. Use high-kVp technique.
c. Use high-mA technique.
d. Wear protective apparel during fluoroscopy.
5. X-ray examination of the pelvis of women of reproductive capacity
should be limited to which of the following times?
a. The 10-day interval following the onset of menses
b. The 10-day interval preceding menses
c. The first 10 days of every month
d. There are no restrictions; any time is fine
6. the weight of the thyroid gland is
a. 60gm
b. 100gm
c. 15gm
d. 25gm
7. Tissue that absorbs x-radiation is called:
a. Radio emission.
b. Radiolucent.
c. Radiopaque.
d. Radio transmission.
8. The large filament is used during radiography when the heat load is:
a. High and visibility of detail is less important.
b. Low and high kVp is required.
c. Low and visibility of detail is important.
d. Low and visibility of detail is less important.
9. The heel effect occurs because of:
a. A focusing cup.
b. Reduced tube current.
c. The shape of the filament.
d. X-ray absorption in the anode.
10.Useful characteristic x-rays are produced in tungsten:
a. By excitation of a K shell electron.
b. By ionization of a K shell electron.
c. By ionization of an L shell electron.
d. When a valence electron is removed.
11.When the kVp is increased, x-ray quantity:
a. Decreases in proportion to kvp2.
b. Decreases proportionately.
c. Increases in proportion to kvp2.
d. Increases proportionately.
12.. During mammography:
a. Added filtration is removed to increase x-ray quality.
b. Aluminum is the usual filter.
c. Low total filtration is desirable.
d. No filtration is required.
13.The radiographic image is principally formed by which of the
following?
a. Classical scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. Photoelectric interactions
d. The uniform distribution of remnant x-rays
14.Average silver halide crystal surface size in radiographic film is
approximately:
a. 0.1 micro m.
b. 1.0 micro m.
c. 10 micro m.
d. 100 micro m.
15.Which of the following is a principal component of the emulsion?
a. Bromine nitrate
b. Cellulose triacetate
c. Silver bromide
d. Silver nitrate
16.When the latent image is processed, what type of image does it become?
a. Crystal
b. Excited
c. Induced
d. Manifest
17.High-contrast film has:
a. A thinner base.
b. A wide range of grain size.
c. Larger grain size.
d. Less silver halide.
18.Which of the following is the component of the developer that helps to
keep unexposed crystals from the developing agent?
a. Hydroquinone (developing agent)
b. Phenidone (developing agent)
c. Potassium bromide (restrainer)
d. Silver halide (crystal)
19.Most common complication in the IVU is
a. Extravasation
b. Headache
c. Pain in injection site
d. Vomiting
20.The approximate developer conditions in a 90-second processor are:
a. 85" C, 22 s.
b. 85" C, 45 s.
c. 95" C, 25 s.
d. 95" F, 22 s.
21.What is the limiting factor when using an extremely fast image
receptor?
a. Contrast resolution
b. Noise
c. Screen blur
d. Spatial resolution
22.Which of the following factors controlled by the radiologic technologist
affects radiographic screen speed the most?
a. Exposure time
b. kVp
c. mAs
d. Processor temperature
23.What is the principal limitation of the rare earth radiographic
intensifying screen?
a. Increased exposure factor
b. Increased quantum mottle
c. Reduced contrast resolution
d. Reduced spatial resolution
24.In general, as the thickness of the anatomy being radiographed
increases:
a. Contrast resolution will improve.
b. The kVp should be increased.
c. The mAs should be increased.
d. The patient exposure is unaffected.
25.Which of following neuroglial cell is responsible for formation of blood
brain barrier?
a. Oligodentrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Schwann cell
d. Ependymal cell
26.Which of following device is reducing the image contrast?
a. Collimators
b. Grids
c. Intensifying screens
d. PBL
27.Air-gap technique:
a. Increases the Bucky factor.
b. Reduces contrast by absorption of scattered radiation in the air.
c. Requires that the grid and film be separated by at least 30 cm.
d. Results in approximately the same patient dose as nongrid techniques.
e. Results in image magnification.
28.. Image magnification increases with increasing:
a. Object size.
b. OID.
c. SID.
d. SOD.
29.What is a principle complication of trans- femoral angiography?
a. Blood loss
b. Hemorrhage of the puncture site
c. Patient anxiety
d. Vessel collapse
30.Which of the following is the nitrogenous organic base found in RNA
but not in DNA?
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Thymine
d. Uracil
31.The late effects of diagnostic x-rays probably follow which type of
radiation dose-response relationship?
a. Linear, nonthreshold
b. Linear, threshold
c. Nonlinear, nonthreshold
d. Nonlinear, threshold
32.Which of the following is a best practice when performing a
radiographic image of a trauma patient?
a. Careful and lengthy review of the patient’s medical history
b. Repeated positioning to assess the site of trauma
c. Quick image production without ensuring quality image
d. Generating accurate images that have minimal distortion
33.Hypertension is most likely represented by which of the following
readings?
a. 110/79
b. 100/75
c. 152/95
d. 119/73
34.Which of the following is an example of a negative contrast media?
a. Ionic iodine
b. Osmolality contrast media
c. water
d. Monomer
35.Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary
portion of the ribs?
a. Left lateral
b. PA
c. LPO
d. RPO
36.The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated
with the
a. coronal plane 45º to the film.
b. midsagittal plane 45º to the film.
c. coronal plane 70º to the film.
d. midsagittal plane 70º to the film.
37.Which of the following Projection is used to evaluate the glenohumeral
joint articulation ?
a. Scapular Y projection
b. Inferosuperior axial
c. Transthoracic lateral
d. Ap oblique (Grashey projection)
38.Colles fracture is the fracture of
a. Proximal ulna
b. Distal ulna
c. Proximal radius
d. Distal radius
39.In the case of anaphylactic shock due to contrast media, what type of
emergency drugs important?
a. Atropine
b. Dopamine
c. Adrenaline
d. Furosemide
40.With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed
20º cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
a. Symphysis
b. Rami
c. Body
d. Angle
41.The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into
anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
a. Median sagittal plane.
b. Midcoronal plane.
c. Sagittal plane.
d. Transverse plane.
42.In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient
is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º
a. toward the affected side.
b. away from the affected side.
c. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
d. with the arm in external rotation.
43.Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate
the tarso- metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
a. Invert the foot
b. Evert the foot
c. Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
d. Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly
44.Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal
prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an
examination in
a. sonography.
b. computed axial tomography (CAT).
c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
d. nuclear medicine.
45.The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the
following positions?
a. Scapular Y
b. AP scapula
c. Medial oblique elbow
d. Lateral oblique elbow
46.Which part of the pituitary gland is comprised of neural tissue?
a. the posterior pituitary
b. the pars intermedia
c. the adenohypophysis
d. the anterior pituitary
47.What does insulin do?
a. it lowers blood sugar level
b. it causes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose
c. it increases metabolic rate
d. it hydrolyses glucose into ATP
48.Which of the following formed elements of the blood is important in the
formation of clots?
A. erythrocytes
B. lymphocytes
C. monocytes
D. thrombocytes
49. Which of the following muscular valve controls the flow of digestive juice from the
hepatopancreatic duct to duodenum?
a. Sphincter of Oddi
b. Semilunar valve
c. Ileocaecal valve
d. Pyloric sphincter
50. Which of the following describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each
nephron in the kidney?
a. Afferent arteriole
b. Glomerulus
c. Loop of Henle
d. Renal pelvis
51. The worm like structure which connect the two cerebellar hemisphere is…….
a. Corpus callosum
b. Vermis
c. Falx cerebri
d. Falx cerebeli
52. Wrist is the type of…………. Joint
a. Ball and socket joint
b. Condyloid joint
c. Plane joint
d. Hinge joint
53. In adult the blood cells are formation from the
a. Epiphysis of the long bone
b. Metaphysis of the long bone
c. Diaphysis of the long bone
d. Epiphyseal growth plate
54. How many circulation of blood is present in the human body?
a. Single circulation
b. Double circulation
c. Triple circulation
d. All of the above
55. Quenching is related to the
a. CT SCAN
b. MRI
c. General x-ray
d. Mammography
56. Which of following radiological procedure is done in the case of blockage of uterine
tube?
a. T-tube cholangiography
b. HSG
c. IVU
d. Angiography
57. Which of following is the longest part of gastrointestinal tract?
a. Esophagus
b. Small intestine
c. Large intestine
d. Stomach
58. The cranial nerve which play major role in the autonomic nervous system
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Vestibulocochlear nerve
d. Abducent nerve
59. The center point for the AP view of elbow joint is
a. In between the radius head and ulna
b. 1inch above the epicondyle of humerus
c. 1 inch below the epicondyle of humerus
d. 1 inch lateral to the elbow joint
60. What is the name of structure where CSF is circulate from third ventricle to fourth
ventricle?
a. Foramen of monro
b. Cerebral aqueduct
c. Interventricular foramen
d. Foramen of luschka
Civil service hospital: - Radiography based model
questions
Written questions:-
Section-A
1. Explain photoelectric absorption and Compton Effect. List the significance of
photoelectric and Compton scattering in diagnostic radiology.(6+4=10)
2. Explain the routine view of Paranasal sinuses. Discuss the radiographic projections of
cervical vertebrae in the case of severe trauma.(5+5=10)
3. List out the name of organs in digestive system. Write the difference between small
intestine and large intestine. Explain the circle of Willis.(2+3+5=10)
4. Write the difference between the chest radiography PA view and AP view. Explain the
radiographic projection used in acute abdomen.(5+5=10)
5. Mention the lead equivalent materials used in radiology department. Explain the
biological effect of x-ray radiation. Discuss principle of radiation protection.(2+3+5=10)
Section-B
6. Describe the Barium meal and barium enema procedures including indications and
preparation of patient.(6+4=10)
7. What is grid lattice? Explain the construction, types and importance of grid used in
radiology department. Explain the anode heel effect. (2+1+2+1+5=10)
8. Define shock. Explain the different types of shock. Discuss role of radiographer in the
case of patient care.(2+3+5=10)
9. Explain the principle of computed radiography. Describe the advantage of CR system
over manual film processing. Briefly explain principle of CT Scan and MRI.(4+2+4=10)
10. What is characteristics curve? Explain the different region of characteristics curve and
mention its significance. Explain the different types of x-ray film used in diagnostic
radiology.(2+4+4=10)
