08-09-2024

1016CMD303053240008 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor is 'V' when a current 'i' is flowing in it. If both
the radius and current are doubled, then drift velocity will be :

(1) V
(2) V/2
(3) V/4
(4) V/8

2) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 + 2t + 5. The charge flowing
through the cross-section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec. is

(1) 22 C
(2) 20 C
(3) 18 C
(4) 5 C

3) 62.5 × 1018 electrons per second are flowing through a wire of area of cross-section 0.1 m2, the
value of current flowing will be

(1) 1 A
(2) 0.1 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 0.11 A

4) A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific
resistance become respectively

(1) Both remain the same

(2) 1.1 times , 1.1 times
(3) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(4) 1.21 times, same

5) Consider a copper wire of length L, cross-sectional area A. It has n number of free electrons per
unit volume. Which of the following is the correct expression of drift velocity of the electrons when
the wire carries a steady current I :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Pieces of copper and of silicon are initially at room temperature. Both are heated to temperature
T. The conductivity of

(1) both increases

(2) both decreases
(3) copper increases and silicon decreases
(4) copper decreases and silicon increases

7) The radii of two metallic spheres are 5 cm and 10 cm and both carry equal charge of 75µC. If the
two spheres are shorted then charge will be transferred :-

(1) 25 µC from smaller to bigger

(2) 25 µC from bigger to smaller
(3) 50 µC from smaller to bigger
(4) 50 µC from bigger to smaller

8) A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V and disconnected from the
source of emf. A slab of dielectric is then inserted between the plates. Which of the following three
quantities change?
(i) The potential difference
(ii) The capacitance
(iii) The charge on the plates

(1) only (i) and (ii)

(2) only (i) and (iii)
(3) only (ii) and (iii)
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

9) What is the potential difference across 2µF capacitor in the circuit shown?

(1) 12 V
(2) 4 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 18 V

10) Two capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2µF and C2 = 3µF are connected as shown, to two batteries
A and B which have emf 6 V and 10 V respectively. Energies stored in the capacitors C1 and C2 are :-
(1) 36 µJ, 36 µJ
(2) 24 µJ, 24 µJ
(3) 24 µJ, 36 µJ
(4) 36 µJ, 24 µJ

11) Consider the following arrangement of four plates interconnected as follows. Each plate has the
area A and the plate separation is d. Here plates 1 and 3 are interconnected. Find the equivalent

capacitance between a and b :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Capacity of an isolated conducting sphere is increased n times when it is enclosed by an earthed
concentric conducting sphere. The ratio of their radii is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5
13) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 10 V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
capacitor plate is 1 μC, the force on each capacitor plate is

(1) 0.5 N
(2) 0.05 N
(3) 0.005 N
(4) None of the above

14) A stone falls freely from rest. The distance covered it in last second is equal to the distance
covered by it in the first 2 second. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is :-

(1) 2.5 sec

(2) 3.5 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 5 sec

15)

The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given
below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16)
Find out the average velocity of particle for interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec.

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 200 m/s
(3) 300 m/s
(4) 0 m/s

17) A particle is moving along a straight line with constant acceleration. At the end of tenth second
its velocity becomes 20 m/s and in tenth second it travels a distance of 10 m. Then the acceleration
of the particle will be :-

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s2

(3)

(4) 3.8 m/s2

18) To a man running at a speed of 5 m/sec,the rain drops appear to be falling at an angle of 45°
from the vertical. If the rain drops are actually falling vertically downwards, then velocity of rain
in m/sec is :-

(1) 5
(2)
(3)
(4) 4

19) If a man goes 10 m toward north and 20 m toward east, then his displacement is :-

(1) 22.5 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 25.5 m
(4) 30 m
20) 50 m long trains are crossing each other in opposite direction with velocity of 10 m/s and 15 m/s.
respectively Then time-taken by trains to cross each other will be-

(1) 2 sec.
(2) 4 sec.
(3) 6 sec.
(4) 8 sec.

21) A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms–1 at an angle of 30° with
the horizontal. If it hits the ground at a distance of 17.3 m from the bottom of the tower, the height
of the tower is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 5m
(2) 20m
(3) 15m
(4) 10m

22) A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance 180m. The speed with which he
throws the ball is :-

(1) 35 ms–1
(2) 30 ms–1
(3) 40 ms–1
(4) 42 ms–1

23) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. What is the maximum speed attained by the car, if it
remains in motion for 3 seconds ?

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

24) The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is y = x – . The time of flight of projectile
will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25)

The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

26) A block of 4 kg mass starts at rest and slides a distance d down on a friction less incline of angle
30° where it runs into a spring of negligible mass. The block slides an additional 25 cm before it is
brought to rest momentarily by compressing the spring. The force constant of the spring is 400 N/m.

The value of d is :-

(1) 25 cm
(2) 37.5 cm
(3) 62.5 cm
(4) None of these

27) A man of mass 50 kg is standing in an elevator. If elevator is moving up with an acceleration

then work done by normal reaction of elevator floor on man when elevator moves by a distance 12
m is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 2000 J
(2) 4000 J
(3) 6000 J
(4) 8000 J

28) A force is acting on a particle the work done by this force in displacing
the body from (1, 2, 3) m to (3, 6, 1) m :-

(1) –10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 1 J

29)

In the fig. shown, all surfaces are smooth. In first 2 seconds of motion total work done by tension on
both the blocks is :-

(1)
J

(2)
J

(3)
J
(4) Zero

30) A force of ( ) N acts on a body for 4 sec and produces a displacement of ( )

m. The power used is :-

(1) 4.5 W
(2) 6.5 W
(3) 7.5 W
(4) 9.5 W

31) A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure.

The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 8m is

(1) zero
(2) 80 J
(3) –40 J
(4) 40 J

32) A block of mass m is attached to two unstretched springs of spring constant k, each as shown.
The block is displaced towards right through a distance x and is released. The speed of the block as
it passes through the mean position will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce
to half of the initial value ? (Take g = 10 m s–2)

(1) 4m
(2) 2m
(3) 1m
(4) 0.4m

34) Two particles of mass 2kg and 1kg are placed at points (1, –2) and (–4, 3). Where should a third
particle of mass 5kg be placed so that centre of mass of three particle system lies at origin ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A system consists of mass M and m (<< M). The centre of mass of the system is :-

(1) at the middle

(2) nearer to M
(3) nearer to m
(4) at the position of larger mass

SECTION-B

1) Two wires that are made up of two different materials whose specific resistance are in the ratio 2
: 3, length 3 : 4 and area 4 : 5. The ratio of their resistances is

(1) 6 : 5
(2) 6 : 8
(3) 5 : 8
(4) 1 : 2

2) Find the temperature at which the resistance of a wire made of silver will be twice its resistance
at 20°C. Take 20°C as the reference temperature and temperature coefficient of resistance of silver
at 20°C = 4.0 × 10–3 K–1.

(1) 270° C
(2) 543° C
(3) 270 K
(4) 500 K

3) On placing a dielectric slab between the plates of a charged condenser its:-

Potential Energy
Capacity Charge
Difference stored

remains
(1) decreases decreases increases
unchanged

remains
(2) increases increases increases
unchanged

remains
(3) increases decreases decreases
unchanged

remains
(4) decreases increases decreases
unchanged
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In the circuit, shown in the figure, the effective capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 3 μF
(2) 2μF
(3) 4μF
(4) 8 μF

5) A dielectric plate is passed between the plates of a capacitor as shown in figure. Then current in
the outer circuit

(1) always flows from A to B

(2) always flows from B to A
(3) first flows from A to B and then from B to A
(4) first flows from B to A and then from A to B

6) A rocket is fired upward from the earth's surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6
m/sec2. If after 5 sec its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth's
surface would be (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 245 m
(2) 490 m
(3) 980 m
(4) 735 m

7) Two guns on a battleship simultaneously fires two shells with same speed at enemy ships. If the
shells follow the parabolic trajectories as shown, which ship will get hit first ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) both at same time
(4) need more information

8) A particle is projected from a point A with velocity at an angle of 45° with horizontal as
shown in fig. It strikes the plane BC at right angles. Time after which collision takes place is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Two trains are moving with equal speed in opposite directions along two parallel railway tracks. If
the wind is blowing with speed u along the track so that the relative velocities of the train with
respect to the wind are in the ratio 1 : 2, then the speed of each train must be :

(1) 3u
(2) 2u
(3) 5u
(4) 4u

10) A deliveryman moves 10 cartons from the sidewalk, along a 10 meter ramp to a loading dock,
which is 1.5 meters above the sidewalk. If each carton has a mass of 25 kg, what is the total work
done by the deliveryman on the cartons to move them to the loading dock ?

(1) 2500 J
(2) 3750 J
(3) 10000 J
(4) 25000 J

11) A ring of mass m is attached to a horizontal spring of spring constant k and natural length ℓ0 .
Other end of spring is fixed and ring can slide on a smooth horizontal rod as shown. Now the ring is
shifted to position B and released, speed of ring when spring attains it's natural length is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A car of mass m is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The
power delivered to the car is constant and equal to P. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then
after travelling how much distance it becomes double?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The relationship between the force F and position x of a body is as shown in figure. The work

done in displacing the body from x = 1 m to x = 5 m will be :-

(1) 30 J
(2) 15 J
(3) 25 J
(4) 20 J

14) Find the x coordinate of the centre of mass of the bricks, shown in figure : [Length of all bricks is

'ℓ']

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Two masses 2kg and 5kg are placed at point 'A' and 'B' as shown in figure such that
 ; Find the co-ordination of centre of mass
of both particle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which compound will show tautomerism ?

(1)

(2) H—CH=O

(3)

(4)

2) Which will not show tautomerism ?

(1)

(2)
(3) H–CH=O

(4)

3) Most stable enolic form of 2, 4-Pentanedione ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

4) 1-Butene Butane
Suitable reagent X is :

(1) H2/Pd
(2) NaOH + CaO
(3) Cu/Li
(4) Electrolysis

5) product is :

(1) Propane
(2) 2,3-Dimethyl butane
(3) Hexane
(4) Pentane

6) Major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) CH3—C≡C–H Major product :

(1) CH3–C≡C–C≡C–CH3
(2) CH4
(3) CH3–CH3
(4) CH3–C≡C–CH3

8) Major product is :

(1) Benzene
(2) Phenol
(3) Toluene
(4) Biphenyl

9) On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultra violet light, it forms only one
monochloro alkane. This alkane would be :

(1) Isopentane
(2) Neopentane
(3) Propane
(4) Pentane

10) + Major product :

(1) C2Cl6
(2) CH3–CH2–Cl

(3)

(4)

11) The compound with the highest Boiling point is :

(1) n-Hexane
(2) n-Pentane
(3) 2,2-Dimethyl propane
(4) Propane

12) Direct iodonation of methane is not practicable because :

(1) Iodine - Iodine bond is easily broken

(2) HI formed in the reaction reduces CH3I to CH4
(3) CH3I is explosive
(4) CH3I is formed with difficulty
13) How many moles of oxygen are required for the complete combustion of 1 mole alkane ?

(1) 2

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Statement-I :- Kolbe electrolytic method is used for the preparation of methane.
Statement-II :- Methane can be formed by decarboxylation process with soda lime.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

15) Match the column :

Name of reactions Reagents

(A) Clemmenson's reduction (P) Na/Dry ether

(B) Wolf kischner reduction (Q) NH2–NH2/OH⊖/Δ

(C) Decarboxylation (R) Zn-Hg + Conc. HCl

(D) Wurtz reaction (S) NaOH + CaO/Δ

(1) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P
(2) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(3) A–Q, B–P, C–R, D–S
(4) A–S, B–Q, C–P, D–R

16) A certain compound has the molecular formula X4O6. If 10 g of X4O6 has 5.72 g of X, atomic mass
of X is :

(1) 32 amu
(2) 37 amu
(3) 42 amu
(4) 98 amu

17) Equivalent weight of CaSO4 is :-

(1) 40
(2) 48
(3) 68
(4) 136
18) If 1.2 g of metal displace 1.12 litre hydrogen at normal temperature and pressure, equivalent
mass of metal would be :-

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 1.2 ¸ 11.2
(4) 1.2 × 11.2

19) Number of atom present in 50 amu of Hydrogen is:-

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 1
(4) None of these

20) A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4, contains 3.18 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number
of mole of oxygen atoms in the sample is :-

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

21) Irrespective of the source, pure sample of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and
11.11% mass of hydrogen. This explained by the law of :-

(1) Conservation of mass

(2) Constant volume
(3) Multiple proportions
(4) Constant composition

22) Air contains 20% O2 by volume. How much volume of air will be required for complete
combustion 200 cc of acetylene (C2H2) :-

(1) 500 cc
(2) 1064 cc
(3) 212.8 cc
(4) 2500 cc

23) On analysis a certain compound was found to contain 254 g of iodine (atomic mass = 127) and
80 g oxygen (atomic mass = 16). What is the formula of the compound :

(1) IO
(2) I2O
(3) I5O3
(4) I2O5
24) Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 and B2A. 0.05 moles of B2A3 weigh 9.0 g and 0.10
mole of B2A weigh 10 g. Atomic weight of A and B are:-

(1) 20 and 30
(2) 30 and 40
(3) 40 and 30
(4) 30 and 20

25) Addition of H+ and OH– ion's concentration in pure water at 90°C is :

(1) 10–14
(2) 10–12
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 2 × 10–7

26) An aqueous solution of HCl is 10–9 M HCl. The pH of the solution should be :

(1) 9
(2) Between 6 and 7
(3) 7
(4) Unpredictable

27) Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+
ion concentration in the mixture ?

(1) 3.7 × 10–4 M

(2) 3.7 × 10–3 M
(3) 1.11 × 10–3 M
(4) 1.11 × 10–4 M

28) In the following which one has highest degree of hydrolysis :

(1) 0.01 M NH4Cl

(2) 0.1 M NH4Cl
(3) 0.001 M NH4Cl
(4) Same

29) Ksp (BaSO4) is 1.1 × 10–10. In which case is BaSO4 precipitated.

100 mL, 4 × 10–4 M BaCl2 and

(1)
300 mL, 6 × 10–8 M Na2SO4
100 mL, 4 × 10–3 M BaCl2 and
(2)
300 mL, 6 × 10–4 M Na2SO4
300 mL, 4 × 10–4 M BaCl2 and
(3)
100 mL, 6 × 10–8 M Na2SO4
(4) In all cases

30) Which of the following is an acid salt :

(1) Na2CO3
(2) Na2HPO3
(3) NaHSO4
(4) NH4Cl

31) If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8 × 10–12 the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is

(1) 8 × 10–12 M
(2) 8 × 10–11 M
(3) 8 × 10–10 M
(4) 8 × 10–13 M

32) H+ ion concentration of water does not change by adding :

(1) CH3COONa
(2) NaNO3
(3) NaCN
(4) Na2CO3

33) Which of the following pair is not a conjugate acid –base

(1) HCl, Cl–

(2) HOH, OH–
–2
(3) SO4 , H2SO4
+
(4) NH3, NH4

34) pH of 10–4 molar H3PO2 solution will be if α is 1% :-

(1) 3
(2) 2.53
(3) 2
(4) 6

35) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) [H+] = [OH–] = for a neutral solution at all temperatures

(2) [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 for a neutral solution at all temperatures
(3) [H+] > and [OH–] < for an acidic solution
(4) [H+] < and [OH–] > for an alkaline solution
 SECTION-B

1) major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) CH3–CH2–Cl Major product is :

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH3
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3

3) Correct order of rate of FRSR ?

(1)

(2)

CH3–CH=CH2 >

(3)

(4) All of the above

4) Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is
called :

(1) Wolf kishner reduction

(2) Clemmenson's reduction
(3) De carboxylation
(4) Halogenation

5) An alkane containing at least _____ carbon atoms is converted into an aromatic hydrocarbon, when
heated in presence of Cr2O3 or Al2O3.

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

6) A, A is :

(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A B C C2H6
In the above reaction sequence (A) and (B) respectively are :

(1) CaC2, C2H2

(2) Al4C3, C2H6
(3) Al4C3, CH4
(4) CaC2, CH4

8) 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCL solution, the mass of sodium
hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

(1) 750 mg
(2) 250 mg
(3) Zero mg
(4) 200 mg

9) 2 g sample of Fe2O3 on strong heating leaves a residue weighing 1.16 g as per following reaction :-
(At. mass)Fe = 56
Fe2O3(s) → Fe3O4(s) + O2(g)
What is percentage purity of Fe2O3 sample

(1) 90 %
(2) 80 %
(3) 60 %
(4) 40 %

10) Assertion : The mass of the products formed in a reaction depends upon the limiting reagent.
Reason : Limiting reagent reacts completely in the reaction.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) What is the quantity of NaOH present in 250 cc of the solution, so that it gives a pH = 13 :

(1) 10–13g
(2) 10–1g
(3) 1.0 g
(4) 4.0 g

12)

CN– is -

(1) Weak acid

(2) Weak base
(3) Strong acid
(4) Strong base

13) Which of the following will show common ion effect :

(1) HCl + NaCl

(2) KOH + KCN
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4) HCN + NH4OH

14) In a solution of pH = 5, more acid is added in order to make the pH = 2. The increase in
hydrogen ion concentration is:

(1) 100 times

(2) 1000 times
(3) 3 times
(4) 5 times

15) The degree of dissociation of 0.04 M HA solution is 0.01. What would be the degree of
dissociation of 0.01 M solution of the acid at the same temperature ?

(1) 0.04
(2) 0.16
(3) 0.005
(4) 0.02

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Statement-I : M-phase is the most dramatic period of cell cycle.

Statement-II : Metaphase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct and Statement-I is incorrect.

2) Which is incorrect statement about telophase of mitosis :

(1) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle pole and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
(2) Nuclear envelope assemble around the chromosome cluster.
(3) Nucleolus, Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum reform.
(4) Spindle fibre attach to kinetochore of chromosome.

3) Select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Best stage to study

(a) morphology of (i) Telophase
chromosome.

Nuclear
membrane
(b) (ii) Metaphase
and Nucleous
reappear

The bivalent or
(c) tetrad align on (iii) Interkinesis
equatorial plate

Phase between
(d) (iv) Metaphase-I
meiosis I & II

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

 (4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Identify the given diagram - Which one is true for next stage of above diagram -

(1) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.

(2) Sister chromatids separate.
(3) Nuclear membrane reappear.
(4) Homologous chromosome separate.

5) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion (A) :- Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organisms whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
Reason (R) :- Meiosis is specialised kind of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by
half while fertilisation is fusion of haploid cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

6) In meiosis, exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes occur in :-

(1) Pachytene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

7) G0 phase is :

(1) Metabolically inactive phase

(2) Metabolically active phase
(3) Most dramatic phase
(4) Longest phase of m-phase
8) Which of the following phase of cell cycle is reverse of prophase :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Dikaryophase

9) M-phase of cell cycle includes :-

(1) Karyokinesis
(2) Cytokinesis
(3) Interphase
(4) Both (1) and (2) option are true

10) Which of the following is correct about interphase ?

(1) It is the phase present between two successive M-phase.

(2) It lasts for more than 95 percent in the duration of Cell cycle in Human cell.
(3) It is also known as resting phase.
(4) All the above

11) In the cell cycle, mitosis occurs between -

(1) G1 and S phase

(2) S and G1 phase
(3) S and G2 phase
(4) G2 and G1 phase

12) Read the statement carefully-

(A) The complete disintegration of nuclear membrane marks the start of metaphase.
(B) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
(C) During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite pole and Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER
reforms.
(D) Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
(E) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
How many of the given statement are correct for mitosis :-
Options-

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) B, C & E are correct
(3) C, D & E are correct
(4) All are correct

13) At which stage of meiosis, do these events occur ?

 Bivalents Formation of
Terminalisation
more synaptonemal
of chiasmata
clearly visible complex

(1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene

(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis

(3) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis

(4) Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (i) Lipid

(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ii) Cell secretion

(c) Golgi apparatus (iii) Protein

(d) Cytoskeleton (iv) Maintenance of cell shape

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

15) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given with: Components:

(i) Cristae of mitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii) Nuclear pore
The correct component are:

A B C D

(1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)

(2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)

(3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following statements is correct for microbodies ?

(1) Many, membrane bound minute vesicles.

(2) It contain various enzymes.
(3) These are found in both plant and animal cells.
(4) All of these

17) Assertion : Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organism.
Reason : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is incorrect explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

18) Fluidity of the cell membrane is measured :-

(1) On the amount of carbohydrates in membrane

(2) On the lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
(3) On the flip-flop movement of protein.
(4) On the amount of cholesterol and protein in membrane

19) Which of the following statement is not correct :

(1) Lysosome are single membrane bound structure

(2) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in golgi apparatus
(3) Enzymes of lysosome are active at basic pH
(4) Enzymes of lysosomes are commonly called hydrolases

20) Which of following cell organelle divides intracellular space into two distinct compartments i.e.
Luminal & extra-luminal compartments
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

21) The best material for the study of structure of cell membrane is :

(1) RBC of human beings

(2) Skin cell of frog
(3) Kidney cell
(4) Muscle cell

22) The number of chroloplast in each mesophyll is

(1) 100
(2) 100–1000
(3) 20–40
(4) 104

23) Which of the following is gradually diminished as the cell matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Middle lamella

24) All chromosomes have :-

(1) Centromere
(2) Secondary constriction
(3) Satellite
(4) All of above

25) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A,B,C,D and E and select the

right option about them.

A - PS - I; B - PS - II; C - Plastocyanine;
(1)
D - Cytochrome; E - CF1
A - PS - II; B - PS - I; C - Plastocyanine;
(2)
D - Cytochrome; E - CF1
 A - PS - II; B - Cytochrome; C - CF1;
(3)
D - PS - I; E - Plastocyanine
A - PS - II; B - Cytochrome; C - Plastocyanine;
(4)
D - PS - I; E - CF1

26) Read the following statements carefully and answer for given question.
(A) In plants photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation both are present.
(B) Krebs cycle is also called as calvin cycle & produce ATP.
(C) In fermentation, the NADH does not undergo ETS to produce ATP.
(D) There are total 10 steps in glycolysis.
Find out correct statements :-

(1) A,C,D
(2) D,C
(3) B,D
(4) A,B,C

27) Empirical equation representing the total process of photosynthesis is -

(1) 6CO2 + 6H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2

(2) 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

(3) CO2 + H2O [CH2O] + O2

(4) 2H2A + CO2 2A + CH2O + H2O

28) What is the function of accessory pigments in photosynthesis?

(1) Absorb light and transfer the energy to chlorophyll a

(2) Protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation
(3) Emit electron
(4) Both (1) & (2)

29) Assertion : Reaction centre of PSI is called P700.

Reason : Reaction centre of PSI absorbs only 700 nm wavelength of light.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are not correct.

30) Which of the following is major limiting factor in photosynthesis ?

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) Light
(4) Temperature
31) In which of the following step ATP is utilised ?

(1) Triose bisphosphate → Triose phosphate

(2) Phosphenol pyruvate → Pyruvic acid
(3) Fructose-6-Phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(4) Both (1) & (2)

32) How many redox equivalents are removed from PGAL and transferred to a molecule of NAD+ ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

33) Oxidation decarboxylation step of aerobic respiration is -

(1) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl CoA
(3) Pyruvic acid → Ethanol + CO2
(4) Both (1) & (2)

34) For each ATP produced in mitochondria how many H⊕ passes through F0 from perimitochondrial
space to matrix ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

35) Respiratory pathway has traditionally been considered as __X__ but it would be better to
considered as __Y__. X & Y are respectively-

(1) Amphibolic pathway, Anabolic pathway

(2) Anabolic pathway, Catabolic pathway
(3) Catabolic pathway, Amphibolic pathway
(4) Amphibolic pathway, Catabolic pathway

SECTION-B

1) With respect to anaphase, which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope take place

(2) Chromosome moves away from equatorial plate
(3) Centromeres split
(4) 2 and 3 both
2) In comparison to gamete of the same species, a somatic cell which has just completed s-phase has
:

(1) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
(2) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
(3) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA.
(4) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.

3) If the number of chromosomes is 24 in meiocytes then number of bivalents in metaphase 1 will be:

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 6

4) Which stage of meiosis is marked by terminalisation of Chiasmata ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

5) The begining of diplotene stage is recognized by :-

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Appearance of recombination nodules
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Chromosome duplication take place in -

(1) G1 - phase
(2) Anaphase
(3) S - phase
(4) G2 - phase

7) Read the following statement and choose the correct option :-

Statement (A) :- Nucleus as cell organalle was first described by Robert Brown in 1831.
Statement (B) :- Nuclear envelope forms a barrier between materials present inside the nucleus
and that of the cytoplasm.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct.
8) Axoneme are found in :-

(1) The core of centriole

(2) Core of cilia and flagella
(3) Filament of cytoskeleton
(4) Inner membrane of Mitochondria.

9) How many of the following organelle is bounded by single membrane and also part of
endomembrane system. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Lysosome, Golgi bodies, Vacuole,
Chloroplast, peroxisome

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

10) Proteins of cell membrane are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Structure of protein.

(2) Function of protein.
(3) Lateral movement of protein
(4) Ease of extraction

11) Head part and tail part of phospholipid molecule is respectively :-

(1) Polar and Polar

(2) Non-Polar and Polar
(3) Non-Polar and Non-Polar
(4) Polar and Non-Polar

12) The photochemical phase of photosynthesis include:

A. Oxygen release
B. Formation of NADPH
C. Use of ATP
D. Water splitting
E. Carboxylation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) A, B, C and D only
(4) C and E only

13) Assertion (A) : Reduction of the CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP is crucial, where CO2 is utilised
for the carboxylation of RuBP.
Reason (R) : RuBiSCO is most abundant enzyme in the world.
(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is incorrect explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

14) How many ATPs are required in regeneration step of C4 pathway to form PEP ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 12

15) Ubiquinone recieves reducing equivalents from -

(1) NADH2
(2) FADH2
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) ATP

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Two copper centres are found in-

(1) Cyt bc1 complex

(2) Cyt a and a3 complex
(3) Cyt c
(4) Cyt b6 f complex

2) Swelling of piece of wood when placed in water is :-

(1) Growth
(2) Differentiation
(3) Imbibition
(4) Metabolism

3) Which of the following is not a parameter of growth ?

(1) Cell number

(2) Weight
(3) Volume
(4) Density
4) Which of the following technique can be used to detect elongation zone ?

(1) Cross line technique

(2) Parallel line technique
(3) Auxenometry
(4) All of the above

5) Root elongation at constant rate examplify-

(1) Arithmetic growth

(2) Geometrical growth
(3) Sigmoid growth
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Which of the following hormone promote abscission and senescence of plant organ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin
(4) Both (1) & (2)

7) Which of the following hormone promote adventitions shoot formation ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Ethylene

8) Which of the following is one of the first discovered and most intensively studied form of
gibberellin?

(1) GA1
(2) GA2
(3) GA3
(4) GA4

9) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Each photosystem has all the pigment except one molecule of chlorophyll a.
(2) PS II is excited only when wavelength of 680 nm is provided.
(3) PS I & PS II are not excited simultaneously during photosynthesis in plants.
(4) All of the above

10) Enzymatic activity is destroyed at high temperature because :

(1) Enzymes are inorganic compounds.

(2) Proteins are denatured by heat.
(3) Enzyme becomes more active
(4) Enzyme permanently binds with substrate.

11) Fish like reptile (Icthyosaurs). Which go back into water from it's land ancestor evolved before
how many years :-

(1) 100 mya

(2) 200 mya
(3) 300 mya
(4) 150 mya

12) What is the main essence of darwinian theory of evolution :-

(1) Genetic variation

(2) Isolation
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Natural selection

13) Assertion : Homology is based on divergent evolution.

Reason : In homology, same structures develop along different directions due to adaptations to
different needs.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

14) Assertion :- Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicator.

Reason :- Lichens forces the moth to change as dark winged or white winged in industrial area.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15)

Picture showing below represents-

(1) Convergent evolution of mole and mouse
(2) Divergent evolution of mole and marsupial mole
(3) Adaptive radiation of wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(4) Convergent evolution of anteater and numbat

16) Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of :

(1) Co-evolution
(2) artificial selection
(3) mutation
(4) natural selection

17) How many statements are correct ?

(A) Wings of bat & butterfly are homologous.
(B) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita represent homology.
(C) Darwin's finches are example of adaptive radiation.
(D) Anthropogenic actions may also cause evolution.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Factors disturbing Hardy Weinberg principle does not include :

(1) Presence of gene flow

(2) Presence of genetic drift
(3) No mutation
(4) Presence of genetic recombination

19) Which of the followings are the examples of adaptive radiation?

(1) Darwin's finches

(2) Australian Marsupials
(3) Australian placental mammals
(4) All

20) Mark the correct order of evolution :

(A) Homo habilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Neanderthal
(D) Australopithecus
(E) Dryopithecus

(1) D → E → B → A → C
(2) E → D → B → A → C
(3) E → D → A → B → C
(4) A → E → D → C → B

21) Among the following how many components was observed by S.L. Miller in his experiment ?
Sugar, Nitrogen base, Pigments, Fats, Amino acids

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

22) For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively.
The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be:

(1) 42%
(2) 49%
(3) 9%
(4) 58%

23) Cranial capacity of Homo habilis and Neanderthal man is respectively :–

(1) 650 – 800 cc, 1400 cc

(2) 900 cc, 1400 cc
(3) 900 cc, 650 – 800 cc
(4) 650 – 800 cc, 900 cc

24) An isolated population of humans with approximately equal number of blue eyed and brown eyed
individuals was decimated by an earth quake. Only a few brown-eyed people remained in next
generation. This kind the change in the gene pool is called :-
(1) Hardy-weinberg equilibrium
(2) gene flow
(3) bottle neck effect
(4) Founder effect

25) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Invertebrate formed (i) 320 mya
(B) Jawless fish evolved (ii) 65 mya
(C) Extinction of dinosaurs (iii) 500 mya
(D) Sea weed plants (iv) 350 mya
(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

26) Statement-I : Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.

Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in the organisms.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

27) Statement-I : In 1938 a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a coelacanth which was
thought to be extinct.
Statement-II : The amphibian evolved into reptile. They lay thick shelled egg which do not dry up
in sun unlike those of amphibian.

(1) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II correct.
(3) Statement-I correct & Statement-II correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II incorrect.

28) Match the following :-

Change in frequency of allele

(a) (i) lifespan
in population

Total gene and their allele

(b) Genetic drift (ii)
in population

Rate of appearance of new forms

(c) (iii) Results in evolution
is linked to

(d) Gene pool (iv) By chance event

(1) a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i
(2) a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
(3) a-i b-iii c-ii d-iv
(4) a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii

29) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is mainly maintainted by which plasma protein ?

(1) Globulin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothombin

30)

Read the following properties of blood corpuscles:-

(a) They are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin
(b) They are non-nucleated
(c) They are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm–3 of blood
(d) They have long life span approx 120 days.
Out of these, which properties are not shown by leucocytes ?

Options :-
(1) 'a' and 'b'
(2) 'b' and 'c'
(3) 'b' and 'd'
(4) 'c' and 'd'

31) Which of the following representation is correct about blood transfusion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) Assertion (A) :- Platlets play an important role in blood clotting.
Reason (R) :- Platlets number decrease in dengue fever.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

33)

Select the correct order of events occurring in blood clotting.

(I) Formation of fibrin polymer
(II) Formation of clot
(III) Thromboplastin formation
(IV) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Choose the correct option.

(1) III, IV, II and I

(2) III, II, I and IV
(3) III, IV, I and II
(4) IV, I, III and II

34) Donor blood transfusion has not lead to RBC agglutination :-

(1) Father AB+ and Mother AB–

(2) Father A+ and Mother A–
(3) Father B– and Mother B+
(4) Father O+ and Mother O–

35) Which of the following WBCs are phagocytic cells.

(a) Monocytes (b) Neutrophils
(c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

SECTION-B

1) Development is sum total of two processes, which are-

(1) Growth and reproduction

(2) Reproduction and differentiation
(3) Growth and differentiation
(4) Seed germination and growth
2) Assertion : Plant growth is unique.
Reason : Plant retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are not correct.

3) Which of the following is more poximal to phase of elongation ?

(1) Meristematic zone

(2) Maturation zone
(3) Root cap
(4) Both (1) & (3)

4) Assertion : Decapitation is widely applied in tea plantation.

Reason : The growing apical bud inhibit the growth of the lateral (axillary) bud, called apical
dominance.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are not correct.

5) Which of the following is correct about Km constant?

(1) It is propotional to the affinity of enzyme for substrate.

(2) It is temperature where velocity of reaction is Vmax/2.
(3) It is substrate concentration where velocity of reaction is Vmax/2
(4) It is competitive inhibitor constant

6) How many statements are correct about the diagram given below?

(A) Australian marsupials

(B) Shows Homology
(C) Example of divergent evolution
(D) All are examples of adaptive radiation

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A, B, C, D All correct

7)

Observe the given diagram and select the correct option :-

(A) Tyrannosaurus rex had huge fearsome dagger like teeth

(B) Archeopteryx is missing link.
(C) Pteranodon was largest Dinosaur
(D) Above diagram shown a family tree of Dinosaur and their living modern day counterpart
organisms like crocodiles.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) Only D
8)

Following are the two statements regarding the evolution:

(a) The evolution of life forms has driven by use and disuse of organs.
(b) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory.

Which one of the following option is correct regarding the above statements?
(1) Statement (a) is true but (b) is false
(2) Statement (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) Both statements (a) and (b) are true
(4) Both statements (a) and (b) are false

9) Arrange the following in correct evolutionary sequence :

(A) Tracheophyte ancestors
(B) Rhynia type plants
(C) Chlorophyte ancestors
(D) Psilophyton

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → A → B → D
(3) C → B → D → A
(4) D → B → C → A

10) In the snail population described above, 20 of the snails are yellow (b/b) and 80 are black (B/B or
B/b). Of the 80 black snails, 30 are homozygous and 50 are heterozygous. Frequency of B-allele is :-

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.9
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.11

11) An palaeontologist found a reptile fossil in a rock. In that rock the amount of radioactive element
and non-radioactive element is respectively 575 gm and 4025 gm. Calculate the age of fossil, if half
life period of radioactive element is 3000 years.

(1) 9000 years

(2) 6000 years
(3) 12000 years
(4) 8000 years

12) In a species, the height of person ranges from 4 to 6 feet. 97% of person with an average height
between 4.5 to 5.5 feet survive where 99% of the person with height 5.5 to 6 feet or 4 to 4.5 feet die.
Which type of selection process is taking place ?

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilizing selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Cyclical selection

13) Read the statement I and II and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Mutations are pre-adaptive.
Statement-II : Pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected will result in observation of new
phenotypes.

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) II is correct but I is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

14) Statement-I : Seed ferns evolved from progymnosperms.

Statement-II : Rhynia-type plants evolved from psilophyton.
Read the above statements and select the correct option from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect

15)

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) The RBCs of human are oval and Biconcave.

(2) Blood clotting factors are present in plasma.
(3) Human RBCs lack nuclei but have mitochondria.
(4) In adults erythropoiesis occurs in the bone marrow.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 4 3 1 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 2 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 2 1 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 3 2 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 4 1 2 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 1 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 3 4 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

I = 3t2 + 2t + 5

3)

= 10 A.

4)

For stretched wire

R ∝ ℓ2 ⇒
R2 = 1.21 R1
ρ → Same, because it is independent from the dimension.

5)

6)

As value of temperature coefficient of resistance has positive value for copper but it is negative for
semiconductor silicon.

9)

Net emf in the circuit here,

E = E2 – E1 = 16 – 6 = 10V
While the equivalent capacity

C= µF
Charge on each capacitor

q = CV = × 10 = 12µC
∴ Potential difference across 2 µF capacitor,

V1 = = 6V

12)

Charge on C1 before joining with C2 is 100μC and on C2 is zero. After joining C1 and C2, the charges
will remain as it is due to mutal attraction.
C1 = 4πR2

and C2 =
Given that C2 = nC1

13)
F = 0.05N

14)

n = 2.5 sec

15) V = 20 – 2x

a = 4x – 40
a – x graph is straight line with slope = 4
intercept = – 40
 16)
Average Velocity from t = 0 to t = 4 s.
= Slope of line AB
=0
Option (4)

17)

v = u + at
20 = u + a × 10 .....(1)

.....(2)
on solving (i) and (ii)
a = 20 m/s2

18)

Relative to Man figure:–

∴ x/5 = tan45° = 1 ⇒ x = 5 m/s

19)

20)

21)
Here, θ = 30°, u = 10 ms–1
R = 17.3 m, g = 10 m–2
For horizontal motion, R = u cos θt

t=

For vertical motion, h = u sinθ t –

= 10 sin 30° × 2 – × 10 × 22
= 10 – 20 = –10m ; Height of tower = 10 m

22)

23) vmax = a1 t1 = a2 t2

t1 = ⇒ t1 = 2t2
t1 + t2 = 3
2t2 + t2 = 3
t2 = 1 second and t1 = 2 second

Now, vmax = 2 × 2 = 4 m/s

24)

Comparing with, y = x tan θ

tanθ = 1, R=2

θ = 45°

25) at x = x2, F = 0

(for stable equilibrium)

26) mgsinθ(d + x)

mgsinθ (d + x) =
 d=

d=

d=

27)

For the motion of person

N – Mg = Ma

⇒N=
work done by normal reaction
= N × displacement

=
= 8000 J

Hence option (4)

28)

= [9 – 1] + [12 – 4] + [1 – 27]
= 8 + 8 – 26 = 16 – 26 = – 10 J

29) For the whole system Tension act as internal force so net work done by tension is always
zero.

30)

= = 9.5 Watt
 31)

Work done = Area under F-x graph with proper algebraic sign

32) kx2 + kx2 = mv2

33)

Initial kinetic energy of the body

=
Let at height h, the kinetic energy reduces to half, i.e., it becomes 4m. It is also equal to potential
energy. Hence,

mgh = 4m or h = = 0.4 m

34)

0=
5x + 2 – 4 = 0

5x =2⇒x=

0=

5y – 4 + 3 = 0 ⇒

35)

COM lies near the heavy mass.

36)

ρ1 = 2ρ ; ρ2 = 3ρ ; l1 = 3l ; l2 = 4l
A1 = 4A ; A2 = 5A

37)

R = R0 [1 + α (T – T0)]
R = 2 R0 [Given]
2R0 = R0 [1 + α (T – T0)]
On solving (हल करने पर)
T = T0 + 250
T = 270°C or 543 K

38) Cm = KCair

Em =

Vm =

41) (v)t = 5 sec = 19.6 × 5 = 98 m/s

(H)t = 5 sec = = 245 m/s

further height achieved after engine is switched off

=
Total height achieved = 490 m + 245 m = 735 m

42)

Time of flight depends upon maximum height and maximum height for A is large in comparision to
B.

43)

Let v be the velocity at the time of collision.

Then, cos 45° = v sin 60°

∴
Substituting the proper values in,
vy = uy + ayt,
we get
– v cos 60° = ( sin 45°) – gt

Solving we get,

44)

Let the speed of each train is x Relative velocities of trains are Train 1, Vr = x – u (wind is along the
direction of track)
Train 2, Vr = x + u (wind is in opposite direction)
According to the question
 ⇒ 2x–2u = x+u ⇒ x = 3u

45) Wext = ΔKE + ΔPE

= 0 + mgh
=10(25)(10)(1.5)
= 3750 J

46)

cos 53° =

from

47)

P = Fv =

⇒ ⇒

48)

Work done = area under F-x graph

= area of rectangle ABCD + area of rectangle LCEF
+ area of rectangle GFIH + area of triangle IJK
= (2–1) × (10–0) + (3–2)(5–0) + (4–2)

(–5–0) + (5–4)(10–0) = 15 J

49)

50)

CHEMISTRY

67)

69)

Atomic weight of H atom = 1 amu.

So number of H atom in 50 amu is 50

81)

8 × 10–12 = (2s' + 0.1)2 s'

or s' = 8 × 10–10 M

85)

Kw changes with temperature

93) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

Given ⇒ 1g (0.75 M, 25 ml)

moles of NaOH = mol = 0.025 mol

moles of HCl = mol

now find the L.R. ⇒ Value =

NaOH ; HCl
 >
So, L.R will be HCl
Unreacted moles of NaOH = 0.025 – 0.01875
= 0.00625 mol
Unreacted mass = 0.00625 × 40 g
= 0.25 g
= 250 mg

97) H CN is weak acid

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123,124,127

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

111)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122,124,128

113)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 126

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95,98

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

122) NCERT-XI, Pg # 98

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

124) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 141

 126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142,157,158

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 150

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158,159

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 161

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 162

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

142)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

143)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

146)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 93

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 144

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 170

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 174

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138, 139

 160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116

161)

NCERT Pg# 140

163)

NCERT (XII) Pg#130/141(H) para 7.2

164)

NCERT Pg. # 131-132

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 134, Fig. 7.7

167) NCERT Pg. No. 131

168)

NCERT XII Page No. 121

169)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 133, Para - 7.4

170)

NCERT Pg # 140/141 Para. # 7.9

171)

NCERT Pg.#140

173)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 141

175)

NCERT Pg. # 138

176) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 116

177)

NCERT XII Page No. # 122

184)
NCERT- Pg# 281, para-18.1.32

186) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 166

187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

188) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 169

189) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 175

190)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116

191)

NCERT-XII Pg# 133, Figure-7.6

194)

NCERT, Pg. # 122

195) NCERT Pg. # 136, 137

197)

NCERT Pg.#120

198) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 121

199)

NCERT Pg. # 138