08-08-2025

5401CMD303033250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two equal point charges are fixed at x = –a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is
placed at the origin. The resultant electrical force on Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x
along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to :-

(1) x
(2) x2
(3) x3

(4)

2) The diagram shows a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius R. It has volume charge density ρ.
If the electric field at a point 2R distance above its center is E then what is the electric field at the

point which is 2R below its center?

(1) ρR/6ε0 + E
(2) ρR/12ε0 – E
(3) –ρR/6ε0 + E
(4) ρR/24ε0 + E

3) A charged particle q is shot from infinity towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a
speed v. It approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the

closest distance of approach would be :-

(1) r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

4) At the centre of uniform positively charged thin ring :

(1) E ≠ 0, V = 0
(2) E = 0, V = 0
(3) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
(4) E = 0, V ≠ 0

5) Three point charges are lying as shown. Surface shown is imaginary gaussian surface then find

correct option :

(1) Field at each point of gaussian surface is zero

(2) Field is due to q2 only
(3) Field is due to all three charges
(4) Field is uniform at the gaussian surface

6) Two identical electric point dipoles have dipole moments and and are held on the
x axis at distance 'a' from each other. When released, they move along the x-axis with the direction
of their dipole moments remaining unchanged. If the mass of each dipole is 'm', their speed when
they arc infinitely far apart is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Choose the incorrect statement among the following

(A) Quantisation of electric charge is a basic law of nature. There is no analogous law on
quantisation of mass.
(B) The electric field due to a charge configuration with total charge zero may not be zero.

(1) (A) only

(2) (B) only
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)

8) A point charge q1 = 9.1 μC is held fixed at origin. A second point charge q2 = - 0.42 μC and mass
m = 3.2 x 10-4 kg is placed on x-axis at x = 0.96 m from origin. The second point charge is released
at rest. What is its speed when it is 0.24 m from the origin?

(1) 26 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 38 m/s
(4) 42 m/s

9) Two long straight wires A and B having linear charge density λA = 2 C/cm and λB = 4 C/cm
respectively are placed parallel to each other at a separation of 20 cm as shown in the figure. At

what distance from wire ‘A’, a test charge will not experience any force?

(1)

(2)

(3) 10 cm
(4) 15 cm

10) Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is

(1) Q = –q

(2)

(3) Q = q

(4)

11) N identical drops of mercury are charged simultaneously to 10 volt. When combined to form one
large drop, the potential is found to be 40 volt, evaluate N.

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 4

12) For a dipole and d = 0.01 m. If , then calculate the maximum

torque for this dipole.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. What will be the effect of its potential?

(1) More on the bigger sphere

(2) More on the smaller sphere
(3) Equal on both the spheres
(4) Depend on the nature of the materials of the spheres

14)

ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner. What will be the electric
intensity at O?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

15) A given charge is placed at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end-on position
experiences a force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, how much force is acting on the
charge?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 F

16) If q1 + q2 = q, then estimate the value of the ratio , for which the force between q1 and q2 is
maximum.
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) 1

17)

Choose the correct option:

The direction of electric field intensity at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole of

dipole moment is

(1) Along the equatorial line away from the dipole

(2) Along the equatorial line towards the dipole
(3) Perpendicular to the equatorial line and opposite to
(4) Perpendicular to the equatorial line and parallel to

18) The following figure shows, an uncharged sphere of metal is kept in between two charged plates.
The lines of force look like which of the following?

(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A

19) Figure shows concentric metallic shells having charges 2Q, 3Q, 4Q respectively and charge Q is

kept at their common centre. What is charge flown through 'S', after
it is closed?

(1) 10Q from A to B

(2) 4Q from A to B
(3) 10Q from B to A
(4) 4Q from B to A

20) A charge moves with a speed v in a circular path of radius r around a long uniformly charged
conductor :-

(1) v ∝ r

(2)

(3)
0
(4) v ∝ r

21) For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure. The potentials at points A, B, C and D are
VA, VB, VC and VD respectively. Then -

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

22) A conducting spherical shell having inner radius a and outer radius b carries a net charge Q. If a
point charge q is placed at the centre of this shell, then the surface charge density on the outer
surface of the shell is given as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

23)

Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate is :

(1) x = –2Q, x' = 0

(2) x = +2Q, x' = 0
(3) x = –2Q, x' = +4Q
(4) x = –4Q, x' = +2Q

24)

The position vector of a particle is given as . The time after which the
velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-

(1) 1 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3) 1.5 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

25) The displacement of a particle moving along a straight line as a function of time t is given by x =
t3 + 2t2 + 3t + 4 :-

(1) The particle starts from origin

(2) The initial velocity of the particle is 4 ms–1
(3) The acceleration of the particle is constant
(4) The particle starts with an acceleration of 4 ms–2.

26) A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of 2 m/s2 for 10s. After that, it travels for 30
sec. with constant speed and then undergoes a retardation of 4 m/s2 and comes back to rest. The
total distance covered by the particle is-

(1) 650 m
(2) 750 m
(3) 700 m
(4) 800 m

27) A packet is dropped from a ballon which is going upward with a velocity 12 m/sec. The velocity
of the packet after 2 seconds will be- (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) –7.6 m/sec

(2) 7.6 m/sec
(3) 12 m/sec
(4) –12 m/sec

28) A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line . Its velocities at A & B are
respectively 7 m/s & 17 m/s . M is mid point of AB . If t1 is the time taken to go from A to M and t2

the time taken to go from M to B, the ratio is equal to :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

29) From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The
ratio of the distances covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd second of the motion is (Take g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 5 : 7
(2) 7 : 5
(3) 3 : 5
(4) 5 : 3

30) A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 ms–1. It reaches the maximum
vertical height h in time t. In time t/2, the height covered is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A train 200 m long crosses a bridge 300 m long. It enters the bridge with a speed of 30 ms–1 and
leaves it with a speed of 50 ms–1. What is the time taken to cross the bridge ?

(1) 2.5s
(2) 7.5s
(3) 12.5s
(4) 15.0s

32) Fig. shows the displacement time graph of a particle moving on the X-axis.

(1) the particle is continuously going in positive x direction

(2) the particle is at rest
(3) the velocity increases up to a time to, and then becomes constant.
(4) the particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time to, and then stops.

33) A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force, if the distance covered
in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then :

(1) S2 = S1
(2) S2 = 2S1
(3) S2 = 3S1
(4) S2 = 4S1

34) Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is :

(1) 4/5
(2) 5/4
(3) 12/5
(4) 5/12

35) Choose the wrong statement :-

(1) Zero velocity of a particle does not necessarily mean that its acceleration is zero
(2) Zero acceleration of a particle does not necessarily mean that its velocity is zero
(3) If speed of a particle is constant, its acceleration must be zero
(4) None of the above

36) A particle is thrown up vertically with speed 'v1' in air. It takes time 't1' in up & t2 in downward
journey & returns to starting point with a speed v2. If t1 ≠ t2 then :-

(1) v1 = v2
(2) v1 > v2
(3) v2 > v1
(4) None

37) A particle moves with a uniform velocity. Which of the following statements about the motion of
particle is correct ?

(1) Its acceleration is zero

(2) Its speed is zero
(3) Its speed may be variable
(4) Its acceleration is opposite to the velocity

38) If the velocity of particle is given by m/s, then its acceleration will be :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) –8 m/s2
(4) –4 m/s2

39) A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. An object of finite mass is
dropped from the balloon when it was at a height of 75 m from the ground level. The height of the
balloon from the ground when object strikes the ground was around : (takes the value of g as 10
m/s2)
(1) 300 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 250 m

40) From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in 6 s. A
second ball thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed reaches the
ground in 1.5 s. A third ball released, from the rest from the same location, will reach the ground in
________ s.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

41) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3.The speed of
the particle at time t is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The acceleration versus time graph of a particle is shown in figure. The respective v-t graph of

the particle is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at t = 0. Let Sn be the

distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n–1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A body moves along the curved path of semicircle. The ratio of distance to displacement is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The
displacement and distance travelled by the body in 6 sec are respectively :-

(1) 8 m, 16 m
(2) 16 m, 8 m
(3) 16 m, 16 m
(4) 8 m, 8 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following sets of quantum number belong to highest energy :-

(1)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(4)
n = 4, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +

2) Which of the following matter waves will have the shortest wavelength, if travelling with same
kinetic energy ?

(1) Electron
(2) Alpha particle
(3) Neutron
(4) Proton

3) In which transition minimum energy is emitted :-

(1)
(2) 2 → 1
(3) 3 → 2
(4) n → (n – 1) (n 4)

4) If the velocity of e– in 1st shell of H atom is x, then velocity in 2nd shell of H is :-

(1)

(2) 2x
(3) x

(4)

5) If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x pm, then the radius of the third orbit would be :-

(1) (3 × x) pm
(2) (6 × x) pm

(3)
pm
(4) (9 × x) pm
6) The wave motion of an electron in a Bohr's orbit of hydrogen is as shown adjacent. Its potential

energy is :-

(1) – 3.4 eV
(2) + 3.4 eV
(3) – 3.02 eV
(4) – 1.51 eV

7) Density of ozone relative to oxygen is under the same temperature and pressure

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.5

8) 20 moles of A and 14 moles of B are mixed and allowed to react according to the equation
A + 2B → 3C
What is the maximum number of moles of C which could be prepared :-

(1) 14
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 21

9) Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be :

(1) 13.88
(2) 1.388
(3) 0.138
(4) 0.0138

10) The volume of air required in litre to burn 8L of C2H2 is:

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

11) Calculate molarity of nitric acid in moles per litre having density 1.41 g ml–1 and has mass
percentage of 69%?

(1) 18.4 M
(2) 15.4 M
(3) 14.1 M
(4) 6.9 M

12) Number of neutrons present in 3.4 g of NH3(g) :-

(1) 2NA

(2)

(3)

(4) NA × 20 × 7

13) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction :

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 25
(2) 49
(3) 59
(4) 98

14) If the atomic mass unit (u) were defined to be one fifth of the mass of C-12, what would be the
atomic weight of N in amu on new scale :-

(1) 33.6
(2) 5.83
(3) 11.67
(4) 2.80

15) 3O2 + 2N2 → 2N2O3

9 mol O2 and 14 mol N2 are allowed to react. When 3 mol O2 remains unreacted, then how many
moles of N2O3 would have been produced?

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 12

16) and are :

(1) F.I.
(2) P.I
(3) C.I.
(4) G.I.
17) are related as :-

(1) Functional group Isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Position Isomers
(4) Chain isomers

18) and
are related as :-

(1) chain isomers

(2) position isomers
(3) homologous
(4) optical isomers

19) Isomerism shown by the following compounds

is.

(1) Functional group isomerism

(2) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Position isomerism

20) CH3—S—CH2—CH3 and CH3—CH2—S—CH3 are –

(1) Ring-chain Isomers

(2) Chain Isomers
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Identical

21) Find out the degree of unsaturation in Anthracene :-

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 10
22) Find correct relationship :

(1)
& : Functional group isomers
(2) CH3 – NH – CH2CH3 & CH3CH2CH2NH2 Metamers

(3)
& Ring chain isomers

(4)
& Position isomers

23) are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Functional group isomers

24) Correct stability order of conformers of n-butane is :

(1) Anti > Gauche > Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Anti > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Anti > Gauche

25) Which is most stable form of conformer of succinic acid in basic medium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Rotational angle require to get maximum stable conformer from minimum stable conformer in n-
butane is :

(1) 360°
(2) 180°
(3) 120°
(4) 240°

27) Assertion : Staggered conformation of ethane is most stable while eclipsed conformation is
least stable.
Reason : Staggered form has the least torsional strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum
torsional strain

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reasion is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

28) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) In ethane, energy barrier is 1-20 kJ/mole

(2) Eclipse form has more torsional & steric strain
(3) During conformer, dihedral angle changes
(4) All of above

29) Which conformer of cyclohexane has maximum energy?

(1) Chair
(2) Half chair
(3) Boat
(4) Twist boat

30)

The common name of given compound is :-

(1) Vinyl Acrylate

(2) Ethyl Acrylate
(3) Ethyl Crotonate
(4) Ethyl Propionate

31) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

32) Ionisation energy varies as:

(1) H– < He < Li+ < Be+2

(2) Mg+2 > O–2 > F– > Na+
(3) P–3 < Ca+2 < S–2 < Ti+4
(4) O+2 > O–2 > O+ > O–

33) The ionisation energy for ‘Se’, ‘Y’ and ‘La’ are x, y and z kcal/mole respectively. Choose the
correct relationship between them

(1) z > x < y

(2) x > y > z
(3) x > z < y
(4) x < y > z

34) For an element, the successive ionization energy values (in eV atom–1) are given as follows 12.32,
26.84, 44.56, 65.73, 203.9, 251.12, 308.4
The element that satisfies the above values is

(1) Si
(2) Ca
(3) Al
(4) S

35) Electron gain enthalpy will be positive when:

(1) O2– is formed from O–

(2) O– is formed from O
(3) S– is formed from S
(4) Na– is formed from Na

36) Select the correct statement :-

(1) Cl2O7 is the acidic oxide

(2) Non-metallic character decreases in a period
(3) BeO is a basic oxide
(4) All are correct

37) Successive I.P. of an element 'x' are given below (in Kcal)
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of 'x' is ?

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p2

(2) 1s2, 2s1
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p2
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2

38) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals

39) If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

40) Find exothermic reaction :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4) O +
(g)

41) Which of the following is an example of expanded octet ?

(1) PF5
(2) CO2
–
(3) NO3
(4) All of the above

42) Born Haber cycle may be used to calculate

I. ΔegH
II. Mass number
III. Electronegativity
IV. Lattice energy
(1) I
(2) I, III
(3) II, III
(4) I, IV

43) Which of the following is not isomorphous to others?

(1) MgSO4.7H2O
(2) ZnSO4.7H2O
(3) FeSO4.7H2O
(4) CuSO4.5H2O

44) Correct order of lattice energy :-

(1) Na2O > MgO

(2) KBr > LiF
(3) NaCl > Na2O
(4) KF > RbF

45) The lattice energy of the lithium halide is in the following order :

(1) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI

(2) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI
(3) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
(4) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

BIOLOGY

1) Yeast cell cycle prolongs for

(1) 50 min
(2) 60 min
(3) 70 min
(4) 90 min

2) Centrioles duplication occurs in

(1) G-1 phase

(2) S phase
(3) Prophase
(4) G-2 phase

3) Longest and thinnest chromosome found in

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

4) What will be the number of chromatids in Anaphase-II if number of bivalents are 10 in zygotene.

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 60

5) Transition to metaphase

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Diplotene

6) Segregation of homologous chromosome occurs in

(1) Anaphase- I
(2) Anaphase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-II

7) Separation of sister chromatids occurs in

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metapase-I
(3) Anapahse-I
(4) Anaphase-II

8) In Anaphase-I, each chromosome composed of :-

(1) One chromatid

(2) Two chromatid
(3) Four chromatids
(4) No chromatid

9) Cytokinesis in plant cell occur by :-

(1) Cell plate formation in centripetal manner

(2) Cell plate formation in centrifugal manner
(3) Cell farrow formation in centripetal manner
(4) Cell furrow formation in centrifugal manner
10) The following figure represents :

(1) Metaphase
(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

11) With respect to anaphase, which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope take place

(2) Chromosome moves away from equatorial plate
(3) Centromeres split
(4) 2 and 3 both

12) X-shape structure (Chiasmata) is a characteristic feature observed during :

(1) Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage

(2) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex in diplotene stage
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata in diakinesis stage
(4) Nucleolus disappears in diakinesis stage

13) Which is incorrect statement about Meiosis ?

Meiosis involves two sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II
(1)
but only a single cycle of DNA replication
(2) Meiosis-I is initiated after DNA replication at 'S' phase
Meiosis involve pairing of non-homologous and recombination between non-sister chromatids of
(3)
non-homologous chromosome
In meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half result in the production of four haploid
(4)
daughter cells

14)

Action of recombinase takes place in which stage :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

15) Which is incorrect statement about telophase of mitosis :

(1) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle pole and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
(2) Nuclear envelope assemble around the chromosome cluster.
(3) Nucleolus, Golgi body and endoplasmic reticulum reform.
(4) Spindle fibre attach to kinetochore of chromosome.

16) Which of the following is correct about interphase ?

(1) It is the phase present between two successive M-phase.

(2) It lasts for more than 95 percent in the duration of Cell cycle in Human cell.
(3) It is also known as resting phase.
(4) All the above

17) Select the correct statement :-

(A) During metaphase, spindle fibre attaches to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(B) During Telophase, Nucleolus, Golgi complex & ER reforms
(C) Tetrad formation is seen during leptotene
(D) Meiosis involves pairing of non-homologous chromosome.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) A and D only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) C and D only

18) Read the statement carefully-

(A) The complete disintegration of nuclear membrane marks the start of metaphase.
(B) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
(C) During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite pole and Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER
reforms.
(D) Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
(E) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
How many of the given statement are correct for mitosis :-
Options-

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) B, C & E are correct
(3) C, D & E are correct
(4) All are correct

19) Select the incorrect statement with respect to mitosis

(A) Mitosis is usually restricted to diploid cells only in both plant and animals.
(B) The growth of multicellular organism is due to mitosis.
(C) Mitosis ensures productions of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organism
whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
(D) Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Options :

(1) Only (A) & (C) are incorrect

(2) Only (C) & (D) are incorrect
(3) Only (A) & (B) are incorrect
(4) All are incorrect

20) Read the statement carefully-

(A) Cell division is a progressive process and clear-cut lines cannot be drawn between various
stages.
(B) During M-phase, a major reorganisation of virtually all components of cell occur.
(C) During telophase-I, the nuclear membrane & nucleolus disappear.
(D) Recombination between homologous chromosome is completed by the end of the zygotene.
Select the option which includes all the correct statement :-

(1) Only A & B are correct

(2) Only A & C are correct
(3) Only C & D are correct
(4) Only B & C are correct

21) Select the correct statement -

(A) Bivalent or tetrad become clearly visible in pachytene.
(B) Diakinesis is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
(C) In anaphase-I splitting of centromere take place.
(D) In animal cells, cytokinesis occur by the formation of furrow in the plasma membrane.
Select the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) A and C only

(2) A, B & D only
(3) C & D only
(4) B, C & D only

22) Prophase is marked by the initiation of-

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Decondensation of chromosomal material
(3) Condensation of chromosomal material
(4) Centriole duplication

23) The inactive stage of cell cycle is :-

(1) Quiescent stage

(2) G1 phase
(3) S-phase
(4) G2 phase.

24) Division of centromere during mitosis occurs in ;-

(1) Anaphase
(2) S phase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophage

25) 'X' ensures the production of 'Y' phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms
whereas fertilization restores the 'Z' phase. Identify X, Y and Z.

(1) X- Mitosis, Y - haploid, Z - haploid

(2) X- Mitosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
(3) X- Meiosis, Y - haploid, Z - diploid
(4) X- Meiosis, Y - diploid, Z – diploid

26) What would be the number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in each haploid gamete of
diploid organism if gamete mother cell (2n) has 40 pg DNA and 20 chromosome in its G2 phase ?

(1) 5 chromosome and 10 pg DNA

(2) 5 chromosome and 5 pg DNA
(3) 20 chromosome and 20 pg DNA
(4) 10 chromosome and 10 pg DNA

27) Which one of the belong to family Anacardiaceae

(1) Wheat
(2) Mango
(3) Petunia
(4) Maize

28) In Mangifera indica Linn, the specific epithet is :

(1) Mangifera
(2) indica
(3) Linn
(4) Both (1) and (2)

29) Phylogenetic classification system based on :-

(1) Only natural affinities among the organisms.

(2) Only gross superficial morphological characters.
(3) evolutionary relationship between the various organisms.
(4) Only cytological information

30) Species is :

(1) group of organisms.

(2) group of organisms with fundamental similarities
(3) group of organisms with fundamental dissimilarities
(4) different kinds of organisms.
31) In which of the following all listed specific epithets to the same genus :-

(1) tigris, leo, nigrum

(2) nigrum, melongena, sapiens
(3) melongena, nigrum, tuberosum
(4) aestivum, nigrum, tuberosum

32) Panthera genus differs from another genus ______ which includes cats.

(1) Solanum
(2) Felis
(3) Homo
(4) Diptera

33) Founder of Binomial nomenclature is :

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) R.H. Whittaker
(4) Lamarck

34) Sexual classification of plants was given by :-

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) Theophrastus

35) Modern taxonomy involves :-

(1) External and internal structure

(2) Cell structure and development process
(3) Ecological information
(4) All of the above

36) Who coined the term systematics ?

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Aristotle
(3) Whittaker
(4) Carl Woese

37) Which of the following is true for cytotaxonomy ?

(1) Nucleic acid and proteins are used

(2) Chromosomal structure and number is used
(3) Phytochemicals are used
(4) 1 and 2 both are correct

38) In numerical classification :

(1) All observable characters are used

(2) More importance is given to reproductive characters
(3) Only few characters are used
(4) All of the above

39) Recognise the following flow diagram and find the correct option according to taxonomic
hierarchy.

(a) 1––Polymoniales, 2 –– Sapindales, 3–– Poales, 4–– Dicotyledonae, 5–– Monocotyledonae, 6 ––

(1)
Angiospermae
1––Solanaceae, 2 –– Anacardiaceae, 3–– Poaceae 4––Polymoniales, 5–– Poales, 6 ––
(2)
Angiospermae
1––Solanum, 2 –– Mangifera, 3–– Triticum, 4–– Dicotyledonae, 5–– Monocotyledonae, 6 ––
(3)
Plantae
1––Polymoniales, 2 –– Sapindales, 3–– Poales, 4–– Angiospermae, 5–– Monocotyledonae, 6 ––
(4)
Plantae

40) The common taxonomic category shared by both wheat and brinjal is

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Division
(4) Family

41) "Darwin of 20th Century" proposed.

(1) Typological concept of species

(2) Biological concept of species
(3) Natural concept of classification
(4) Numerical concept of classification

42) Chemotaxonomy is based on.

(1) Chemical constituents

(2) Chromosome structure
(3) Chromosome behaviour
(4) All of these

43) A is the branch of science which deals with diversity of organisms and the B relationship
amongst them.
Complete the above statements why choosing correct option for A and B.

(1) A – Taxonomy, B – Reproductive

(2) A – Systematics, B – Evolutionary
(3) A – Classification, B – Evolutionary
(4) A – Identification, B – Evolutionary

44) The order of cats and dogs is :

(1) Carnivora
(2) Mammalia
(3) Rodenta
(4) Primata

45) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Biological Name) (Family)

I. Panthera leo a. Poaceae

II. Mangifera indica b. Felidae

III. Triticum aestivum c. Anacardiaceae

IV. Musca domestica d. Muscidae

(1) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(2) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(4) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c

46) Which of the following is incorrect for epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularised
(3) It provides a covering or a lining for some parts of the body
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption

47) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

48) Tendon is an example of :-

(1) Dense regular connective tissue connecting muscle to skin

(2) Dense regular connective tissue connecting bone to bone
(3) Dense regular connective tissue connecting muscle to bone
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue connecting muscle to bone

49)

Cartilage present at tip of nose :-

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) White fibrous cartilage

50) Main site for production of blood cells in bone :-

(1) Yellow bone marrow

(2) Bone marrow cavity
(3) Red bone marrow
(4) Diaphysis

51) Following diagram represent which type of example ?

(1) Tendon
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Areolar connective tissue
(4) True vocal cords

52) Cells of squamous epithelium are :

(1) Tall with elongated nucleus

(2) Columnar or cuboidal in shape
(3) Flat cells with irregular boundary
(4) Cube like

53) Stratified squamous epithelium is found in :-

(1) Trachea
(2) Epidermis
(3) Heart
(4) Lining of blood vessels

54) Adult frog is :-

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Guanotelic

55) In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum known as :-

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Mesovarium
(3) Urinogenital duct
(4) Mesorchium

56) Neck is absent in frog. This helps frog in :-

(1) catching prey

(2) respiration
(3) swimming in water
(4) jumping on ground

57) In frog during aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Gills
(4) Buccal cavity

58) During hibernation and aestivation frog respire through ?

(1) Lung
(2) Skin
(3) Buccal Cavity
(4) Tympanum

59) How many statement are not correct about frog.

1. Frog is a poikilotherms.
2. Frog do not show sexual dimorphisim.
3. External ear is absent in frog.
4. Forelimbs and hindlimbs of frog have 5 digit and 4 digits respectively.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Four

60) Mark the false statement with respect to frog -

(1) Frog is ureotelic

(2) Bidder's canal is present in kidney and transport sperms.
(3) In female frog the ovaries are structurally and functionally associated with kidneys.
(4) Fertilisation is external.

61) Assertion :- Amphibians are cold blooded animal.

Reason :- Amphibians shows hibernation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Assertion (A) : Frogs maintain ecological balance

Reason (R) : These serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

63) Assertion (A) : The system for control and coordination is highly evolved in the frog.
Reason (R) : Sensory papillae ; taste buds and nasal epithelium are cellular aggregations around
nerve endings

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

64) Assertion : Frog is a limbless amphibia.

Reason : Frog is uricotelic.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

65) Statement-I :- Frog is an Ureotelic amphibian.

Statement-II :- In frog, pinna is absent only tympanum is present.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is correct but - II is incorrect.
(4) Statement - II is correct but I is incorrect.

66) Statement - I :- In male frogs, the Ureters act as Urinogenital duct which opens into cloaca.
Statement - II :- 12 pair cranial nerves arise from brain of frog.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both Statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is correct But II incorrect.
(4) Statement - II is correct but I incorrect.

67) Assertion :- The mid brain of frog is characterised by a pair of optic lobes.
Reason :- The medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues into spinal
cord.

(1) Both Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is corret explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason is are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

68) Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference to frog :-

(1) They eat insects and protect the crop.

(2) Frogs maintain ecological balance.
(3) In some countries muscular legs of frog are used as food by man.
(4) Fertilisation and development are internal.

69) Assertion- In frog digestion of food take place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted
from the wall of stomach.
Reason - Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

70) Choose the incorrect statement about frog -

(1) Vasa efferentia = 10 – 12.

(2) Testes present ϕ at upper part of kidneys.
(3) Vasa efferentia open in urinogenital duct.
(4) Urinogenital duct open into cloaca.

71) Read the following four statement about Rana Tigrina.

1. Eyes and External ears are well organised structure and the Rest are cellular aggregations around
nerve endings.
2. In Male frog ureters act as urinogenital duct which open separately in the cloaca.
3. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink coloured sac like structures present in the Mid part of the
trunk (Thorax)
4. Fore brain includes paired cerebral hemisphere, paired olfactory lobe and paired diencephalon.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

72)

Identify the correct statements:-

(A) Frogs are beneficial for mankind because they eat insects and protect the crop.
(B) In frogs there are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
(C) External ear is absent in frog.
(D) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number arising from testes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) A, B, D only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C only

73) Assertion (A) :- Alimentary canal of frogs is short.

Reason (R) :- Frogs are carnivores.

(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) is false

74) Assertion : Excretion in cockroach occurs by malpighian tubules.

Reason : Each malpighian tubules is lined by non ciliated coloumnar cells

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

75) Assertion: In cockroaches, respiratory gases directly comes in contact with various organs of
the body through tracheal system.
Reason: Cockroaches do not have respiratory pigment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Assertion : A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic caeca is present at the junction of foregut
and midgut.
Reason : It secrete digestive juice to help in digestion of food.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

77) Assertion: Cockroach undergoes many moulting in their development stages.

Reason: Cockroach exhibits gradual metamorphosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

78) Assertion : Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open type.

Reason : Blood vessels are poorly developed and open into haemocoel.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) The primary structure of protein is made by :-

(1) Ionic bond

(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) None of these
(4) Peptide bond

80) The exoskeleton of arthropods is a homopolymer of

(1) N-acetyl galactosamine

(2) N-acetyl glucosamine
(3) N-acetyl muramic acid
(4) Glucuronic acid

81) Find out the incorrect match with respect to secondary metabolites–

(1) Pigments – Carotenoids, anthocyanins

(2) Lectins – Vinblastin, curcumin
(3) Terpenoids – Monoterpenes, diterpenes
(4) Toxin – Ricin, abrin

82) Find out the odd one with respect to amino acids–

(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Serine
(4) Adenine

83) Normally in a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by–

(1) Hydrogen bonds

(2) Peptide bonds
(3) Glycosidic bonds
(4) Hydrophobic bonds

84) Which is a false statement?

(1) Living tissue is grind with Cl3CCOOH

(2) Molecules in acid soluble pool are in the range of 18–800 daltons
(3) Water constitute 5–7% of total cellular mass.
(4) Rubber is a secondary metabolite, a polymeric substance.

85) Which one is correct for starch?

(1) Starch is homopolysaccharide

(2) Starch can given to blue in colour with iodine
(3) Starch as store house of energy in plant tissue
(4) All of above

86) Which bond is responsible for α helix of protein

(1) Peptide bond

(2) Ionic bond
(3) Hydrogen bonding
(4) disulphide bond

87) Which one of the following is a false statement?

(1) Living tissue is grinded with Cl3CCOOH.

(2) Molecules in acid soluble pool are in the range of 18–800 daltons.
(3) Proteins constitute 5–7% of total cellular mass.
(4) Rubber is a secondary metabolite, a polymeric substance.
88)

Some amino acids are known as non-essential amino acids because:

(1) They are synthesized in body

(2) They are not necessary for normal body reaction
(3) Instead of those another amino acid are obtained through diet
(4) They are not synthesized in body.

89) Correct sequence of abundance of compounds in the cell is :-

(1) Water > Lipid > carbohydrate > Protein > Ions
(2) Lipid > Nucleic acid > Protein > Carbohydrate > Ions
(3) Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Ions
(4) Ions > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > lipid

90) Which of the following element is present in negligible amount in human body :-

(1) N
(2) O
(3) Si
(4) H
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 1 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 1 1 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For very small x << a as given in question.

=
Since a2 – b2 (a – b) (a + b)

for x < < a.

2)

Field due to complete sphere at B will be

Field due to half sphere at B will be E

∴ Net field at

3) Asking about: A charged particle q is projected from infinity toward a fixed charge Q with
speed v reaching a closest distance r. If initial speed is doubled to 2v we are to find the new
closest distance.

Concept: Conservation of energy.

Solution:
Formula used:
Total mechanical energy conservation:
Initial KE = Potential energy at closest approach

For doubled speed

Calculation:
Original case:

...(1)
New case (speed = 2v):

...(2)
Now divide equation (1) by equation (2)

So:

Answer is option (4).

4) (1) Asking About: Electric field (E) and electric potential (V) at the center of a uniformly
positively charged thin ring.
(2) Concept: Superposition principle for electric field (vector sum) and electric potential
(scalar sum) due to individual charge elements.
(3) Formula:

Electric field due to a point charge: E =

Electric potential due to a point charge: V =

(4) Calculation / Explanation:
Electric Field (E): Consider any two diametrically opposite small charge elements on the
ring. The electric field vectors due to these elements at the center will have equal magnitude
and opposite directions, thus canceling each other out. This holds true for all such pairs of
charge elements. Therefore, the net electric field at the center is zero.
Electric Potential (V): The electric potential at the center due to each small positive charge

element on the ring is positive (V = , where R is the radius of the ring). Since potential is
R' a scalar quantity, the total potential at the center is the scalar sum of the potentials due to
all charge elements, which will be a non-zero positive value.
(5) Final answer: E = 0, V≠ 0

5)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the nature of the electric field on an imaginary
closed surface called a Gaussian surface, which encloses some of the given point charges. It
wants to know which charges contribute to the electric field at points on this surface.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on Gauss's law, which relates the net electric flux
through a closed surface to the total charge enclosed inside that surface. However, it also
highlights the concept of superposition of electric fields, meaning the electric field at any point
is the vector sum of fields due to all charges, not just those enclosed by the surface.
Relevant Formulas: \[ \Phi = \oint \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{S} =
\frac{q_{\text{inside}}}{\varepsilon_0} \] Where is the net electric flux, is the electric
field, is an infinitesimal surface element vector, is the total enclosed charge, and
is the permittivity of free space.

Tips and Tricks: Keep in mind the difference between electric flux (a scalar quantity related
to enclosed charge) and electric field (a vector quantity influenced by all charges).

Common Mistakes: Assuming that only enclosed charges produce electric fields on the
Gaussian surface is a common error. Another mistake is thinking the field is zero everywhere
on the surface if net enclosed charge is zero.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: (a) Incorrect because zero net flux doesn't mean zero
field at all points. (b) Incorrect because charges outside the surface also affect the field. (d)
Incorrect because uniform electric field requires special symmetrical conditions not present
here.

6) Using energy conservation:

KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf

7) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.46

8)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.66

9) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 38

10)
Let a be the side of the square ABCD.

Potential at the centre O due to given charge configuration is

or Q = –q

11) Mercury = N × volume of smaller drop or

.....(i)
Charge is conserved. Hence Q = Nq
Capacity of bigger drop =
Capacity of smaller drop =

4 R = Nr or .....(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get

12) Here, maximum torque,

13) As we know,
Potential on smaller sphere will be more.

14)

This is described by following diagram.

15)
16)

17)

The direction of electric field intensity at a point on the equatorial line of electric dipole of

dipole moment is perpendicular to equatorial line and opposite to .

18) The electric lines of force never Intersect the conductor. They are perpendicular and
slightly curved near the surface of conductor.

19) Since, outer conductor is earthed.

Q flown to earth = Q + 2Q + 3Q + 4Q = 10Q

20)

0
v∝r

21)

Theoritical

22) The total charge on the outer surface will be Q+q.

So charge density will be

23)

Question Explanation :
Charge on both surface of the middle plate after induction = ?

Concept :
This question is based on Induction of electric charge.

Solution :

Charge on left surface of middle plate ⇒ x = – 2Q

Charge on right surface of middle plate ⇒ x' = 0

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

24)

4t – 8 + 4t = 0
t = 1 sec

25)

x = t3 + 2t2 + 3t + 4
at t = 0, x = 4m

∴v= = 3t2 + 4t + 3
at t = 0, v = 3 m/s
∴a= = 6t + 4
at t = 0, a = 4 m/s2

26)

Distance =
= 750 m

27)

v = u + at
v = 12 + (– 9.8)2
= –7.6 m/s

28)
∴ vm = 13 m/s

∵x=

&

∴ 10t1 = 15t2, ∴

29)

30)

∵ sy = uyt + ayt2

∴ h1 = 10 × – × 10 ×

=5–
∴ h1 =

31)

t = 12.5 s

32) upto time to slope of x–t curve is const. and beyond to slope is zero

33)

34)

Time taken by a body to fall a height h to reach the ground is,

35)

In uniform circular motion speed of particle remains constant but its acceleration is not zero.

36) If t1 ≠ t2 (Air resistance is present)

⇒ t1 < t2
∴ v1 > v2

37) Uniform velocity means no acceleration.

38)

39)
Object is projected as shown so as per motion under gravity
 ⇒ t = 5 sec
Object takes t = 5 s to fall on ground
Height of balloon from ground
H = 75 + ut
= 75 + 10 × 5 = 125 m

40)

Let height of tower be h and speed of projection in first two cases be u.

For case-I : 2nd equation,

h = – 6u + 18 g …. (i)

For case-II :

… (ii)
Multiplying equation (ii) by 4 we get
4h = 6u + 4.5 g …. (iii)
equation (i) + equation (iii), we get 5h = 22.5g
⇒ h = 4.5g … (iv)
For case-III :

… (v)
Using equation (iv) & equation (v)

t2 = 9 ⇒ t = 3 s
or
= 3 seconds

41)

So, speed =
 42) From 0 to t1, acceleration is increasing linearly with time; hence, v-t graph should be
parabolic upwards.
From t1 to t2, acceleration is decreasing linearly with time; hence, the v – t graph should be
parabolic downwards.

43) Sn = Distance in nth sec. i.e t = n–1 to t = n

Sn–1 = Distance in (n–1)th sec. i.e t = n – 2 to t = n–1
Sn+1 = Distance in (n + 1)th sec. i.e t = n to t = n + 1
So as we know

44)

45) Displacement = Summation of all the area with sign = (A1) + (–A2) + (A3) = (2 × 4) + (–2 ×
2) + (2 × 2)

∴ Displacement = 8m
Distance = Summation of all the areas without sign
= |A1|+ |–A2| + |A3| = |8| + |–4| + |4| = 8 + 4 + 4
∴ Distance = 16 m

CHEMISTRY

46) represents the energy.

47) λ ∝

48)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which electronic transition in a hydrogen-like atom
releases the least amount of energy. Various transitions between energy levels (from very high
to low) are given, and the goal is to find the one with the minimum energy emission.

Underlying Concept: When an electron in a hydrogen-like atom moves from a higher energy
level (n₂) to a lower energy level (n₁), it emits energy equal to the difference between those
levels. The energy emitted corresponds to the difference in the inverse squares of the principal
quantum numbers. The farther apart the levels, the more energy is released; transitions
between adjacent levels at high quantum numbers emit less energy.

Relevant Formulas: The energy emitted during a transition is given by \[ \Delta E = 13.6 \
\text{eV} \times Z^2 \times \left( \frac{1}{n_1^2} - \frac{1}{n_2^2} \right) \] where - =
energy emitted, - = atomic number (Z=1 for hydrogen), - = lower energy level, - =
higher energy level.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Calculate for each transition (assuming ):

1. : \[ |\Delta E| = 13.6 \times \left(1 - 0\right) = 13.6 \ \text{eV} \]
2. : \[ |\Delta E| = 13.6 \times \left(1 - \frac{1}{4}\right) = 13.6 \times 0.75 = 10.2 \
\text{eV} \]
3. : \[ |\Delta E| = 13.6 \times \left(\frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{9}\right) = 13.6 \times 0.1389
\approx 1.89 \ \text{eV} \]
4. for : \[ |\Delta E| = 13.6 \times \left(\frac{1}{(n-1)^2} -
\frac{1}{n^2}\right) \]
The difference is smaller for higher ; for example, : \[ 13.6 \times \left(\frac{1}{9} -
\frac{1}{16}\right) = 13.6 \times 0.0694 \approx 0.94 \ \text{eV} \] (The original solution
approximates this as 0.66 eV, likely rounding differently.)
Thus, the smallest energy emitted is for transitions between adjacent high-energy levels.

Tips and Tricks: Use the formula and plug in values carefully. Notice the pattern that energy
differences are larger when levels are far apart and smaller when levels are close.

Common Mistakes: Confusing energy emitted with energy absorbed, or mixing up which
level is higher or lower. Also, assuming all transitions emit the same energy without
calculating the difference.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving large jumps (like or )
emit much larger energy because energy levels differ greatly. Transition emits less
energy but still more than transitions between adjacent high levels.

49) V1 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

Here, n = 1; Velocity (V) = x

V1 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

x = 2.18 × 108 Z cm/sec

Now, V2 = 2.18 × 108 cm/sec

V2 =
 Answer ⇒ V2 =

50)

2πr = nλ ⇒ 2π x × 32 = 3λ

51) Explanation:
The question asks for the potential energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of hydrogen given its
wave motion. The wave motion depicted shows three complete wavelength fitting into the
circumstances of the orbit. This implies that the electron is in the third Bohr orbit (μ-3). We
need to find the potential energy associated with this orbit in a hydrogen atom.

Concept:
The total energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by

The potential energy U3 is then:

U3 - 2E3 - 2 × (-1.51eV) - 3.02eV
Final Ans 3

52) = 1.5

53) A. Question Explanation:

The question involves a stoichiometry problem where we need to determine the limiting
reactant to calculate the maximum amount of product C that can be formed.

B. Given Data:

A. 20 moles of A
B. 14 moles of B
C. Reaction: A + 2B → 3C

C. Concept: Limiting Reagent (L.R.)

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of B needed to react with 20 moles of A: From the balanced equation, 1 mole of A
reacts with 2 moles of B. So, 20 moles of A would require 20 moles A × (2 moles B / 1 mole A)
= 40 moles of B.
B. Moles of A needed to react with 14 moles of B: From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B
react with 1 mole of A. So, 14 moles of B would require 14 moles B × (1 mole A / 2 moles B) =
7 moles of A.
C. Identifying the Limiting Reactant: We have 20 moles of A, and we only need 7 to react
completely with all the available B. We have 14 moles of B, but we need 40 to react completely
with all the available A. Therefore, B is the limiting reactant
D. Calculating Moles of C: Since B is the limiting reactant, we use its moles to determine the
 moles of C formed. From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B produce 3 moles of C. Therefore,
14 moles of B will produce 14 moles B × (3 moles C / 2 moles B) = 21 moles of C.

E. Final Answer:
The maximum number of moles of C that can be prepared is 21. So, the correct option is 4

54)

A. Question Explanation:
We're given the mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution and need to calculate the
molality of the solution. Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of
solvent. 1

B. Given Data:

A. Mole fraction of solute (xsolute) = 0.2

B. Solvent is water (aqueous solution)

C. Concept:

A. Mole fraction

B. Molality

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of solute: Assume we have 1 mole of solution. Then, moles of solute = xsolute ×
total moles = 0.2 × 1 = 0.2 moles.

B. Moles of solvent: Moles of solvent = 1 - xsolute = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 moles.

C. Mass of solvent: The solvent is water. The molar mass of water is approximately 18
g/mol. Mass of water = moles of water × molar mass of water = 0.8 moles × 18 g/mol =
14.4 g = 0.0144 kg.

D. Molality: Molality (m) = moles of solute / mass of solvent (in kg) = 0.2 moles / 0.0144 kg
≈ 13.88 mol/kg

E. Final Answer:
The molality of the solution is approximately 13.88 m. So, option 1 is correct.
55) C2H2 + O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

8L of C2H2 reacts with 8 × = 20 L of O2

Volume of air = volume of O2 × 5 = 100

56) M =

= = 15.4 M

57) mole of NH3 = = 0.2 mol

no. of neutrons = 0.2 × NA × 7 = 1.4 NA

58)

V.f. of H3PO4 in the reaction is 1 as it loses only 1H+ in the acid base reaction.

59)

1u= × Mass of C-12 atom

1 u = ×12 nucleons

Mass of 1 nucleons = u

In Nitrogen atom 14 nucleons are present atomic mass of N = = 5.83 u = 5.83amu

60)

3O2 + 2N2 → 2N2O3

9 mol 14 mol
after reaction
(9 – 6) (14 – 4) 4 mol
= 3 mol = 10 mol

61)

Because they have same molecular formula but different F-G.

62)

Functional group is different.

Earlier is ether and Later is phenol.
 63) and
principal carbon chain (PCC) is different ∴ chain isomers.

64)
Different group/substituent attached to polyvalent functional group :- Metamerism.

65) Explaining the question - Find the relation between given compound.

Concept - Structural isomerism.

Solution -
CH3—S—CH2—CH3 CH3—CH2—S—CH3

mol formula : C3H8S

A. Both compound have same mol. formula.

B. Same connectivity of atoms.
C. Same IUPAC name.
D. so these are Identical

Final Answer - option 4

66) D.U = Total π bond + total ring

= 7 + 3 = 10

67)

1. Functional group isomers

2. Functional group isomers
3. Chain isomers
4. Chain isomers

68)

Arrangment of Hydrocarbon group is change so both are metamers of each other.

69)

General order of stability of conformers is:-

ANTI > GAUCHE > PARTIALLY ECLIPSED > FULLY ELLIPIED.
70) in basic medium more stable form

71) Answer = 180°

72)

Fact

73)

Fact from conformational isomerism

74) Half chair > Boat > Twist boat > chair

75)

76)

Acidic strength order

HF < HCl < HBr < HI

77) Ionisation energy ∝ +ve charge/–ve charge

78)
 79)

Si :- [Ne]3s23p2
After removing 4 electrons from outermost shell it will achieve stable noble gas configuration
so removing e– from it well require higher I.E.

80)

Explanation:
The question asks you to identify the process where adding an electron to an atom or ion
requires energy input, resulting in a positive electron gain enthalpy.

Concept: (Electron gain enthalpy & required energy)

A. Electron gain enthalpy is typically negative (energy released) when adding an electron to a
neutral atom.
B. However, adding an electron to a negatively charged ion requires overcoming electron
repulsion, making it endothermic (positive enthalpy).
C. Forming O2– from O– involves adding an electron to a negative ion, thus requiring energy.
D. The other options involve adding an electron to a neutral atom, which releases energy.

Final Answer : Option (1)

81)

Ans - option (1)

Explanation - In this question we have to select the Correct Statement
Concept - Non metal oxides are acidic in nature

82)

Sudden jump is between IP2 & IP3

So V-e– are 2

83) Question Explanation: Given at. no. 10, 18, 35, 54 and 86 fall in which of the options.
Concept : Apply magic no. to arrive at the given atomic no's.
Solution :
 Thus we can conclude that the given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.
Final Answer : option (2).

84) Asking for: If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

Concept: Electronic configuration, block elements, transition metals.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the relationship between electronic configuration and block
placement
Solution/Explanation:
1. M+3 Configuration: The given configuration [Ar]3d10 indicates that the M+3 ion has a
completely filled 3d subshell.
2. Neutral M: To determine the block of the neutral atom M, we need to add back the three
electrons that were removed to form the M+3 ion.
3. Adding Electrons:
° [Ar] 3d10 represents a configuration where the 4s and 4p orbitals are empty.
° Adding three electrons would result in the following possible scenarios:
0
• 4s1 3d10 4p (d-block)
0
• 4s2 3d10 4p (d-block)
• 4s2 3d10 4p1 (d-block)
If M+3 has a 3d10 configuration, then M must have electrons in 4s and 4p orbitals.
4. p-block
° The most likely case is that the neutral atom M had a configuration ending in 4s2 3d10 4p1,
which corresponds to a p-block element
° For example, consider the element Gallium (Ga), Ga has the configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p1. If
Ga loses 3 electrons, it forms Ga with the configuration [Ar] 3d10.
° If M is Gallium (Ga) then it is a p-block element
Answer:
Option: 2

85) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To identify the exothermic reaction, we need to consider the energy changes
associated with electron gain (electron affinity). A reaction is exothermic if energy is released
when electrons are added to an atom or ion.
Concept - F(g)- → F(g) + e- :

A. This reaction represents the removal of an electron from F-F-F-, which is the reverse of
electron affinity.
B. It is highly endothermic because fluorine already has a stable F-F-F- ion, and removing an
electron requires a significant amount of energy.

Be(g) + e- → Be(g):

A. Beryllium is an alkaline earth metal with a stable electron configuration. Adding an electron to
form Be-Be-Be- is endothermic because it disrupts the stable configuration.

O(g) + e → O(g):

A. Oxygen has a high electron affinity because it is in Group 16. Adding one electron to form O
releases energy. This reaction is exothermic.
O(g) + 2e- O(g)2-

A. Adding the first electron to oxygen is exothermic, but adding a second electron to the
negatively charge O- ion is endothermic because of electron-electron repulsion.

86) PF5

Total = 10e–
NCERT-XI, 4.1.5

87) According to Born Habor equation

S.E. + E + (BDE) + (–ΔHeg) + (–L.E.) = –ΔH

88) Isomorphous crystals must have same general formula and water of crystallisation.

89) L.E. ∝

90)

Lattice energy ∝

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Page No. # 166

92)

NCERT Page No. # 166

93)

NCERT Page No. # 166

94)

NCERT Page No. # 166

95)

NCERT Page No. # 166

96)

NCERT Page No. # 166

97)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

98)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

99)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

100) NCERT Pg. # 124

101) NCERT-XI Pg.#166

102) NCERT-XI Pg.#168

103) NCERT XII Pg # 167

104)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

105) NCERT Page No. # 166

106) NCERT-Pg. # 121

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123-126

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125, 126, 127

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122, 126, 127

111) Explanation :- The question presents four statements related to cell division and asks
to identify the correct ones.
Concept :- This question is based on Meiosis I and II
Solution :- Statement A: Bivalent or tetrad become clearly visible in pachytene.--True.
During the pachytene stage of prophase I in meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up to
form bivalents or tetrads, which become clearly visible.
Statement B: Diakinesis is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.--True.
Diakinesis is the final stage of prophase I in meiosis, characterized by the terminalization of
chiasmata, where homologous chromosomes become fully condensed and aligned.
Statement D: In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by the formation of furrow in the plasma
membrane.--True.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved through the formation of a cleavage furrow that
pinches the cell into two daughter cells.
Answer :- 2

112) Ncert page 164.

113) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 122

114) Explanation

A. The centromere divides during anaphase, allowing the sister chromatids to separate and
move toward opposite poles of the cell.

B. This division ensures that each daughter cell will receive an identical set of
chromosomes.

Correct Answer ✔ 1. Anaphase

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

116) NCERT XI Pg # 124, 125

117) NCERT XI, Pg. # 11

118) NCERT-XI Pg.#4

119) NCERT XI, Pg. # 24

120) NCERT, Pg. # 6

121) NCERT, Pg. # 6, 7

122) NCERT, Pg. # 7

123)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

124) NCERT Pg. # 23

125) NCERT Pg. # 5

126) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 05

127) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 24

128) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 24

129)

NCERT-XI Pg.#168

131)

NCERT, Pg. # 2

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 24

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

134) NCERT XI, Pg # 7

135) NCERT Pg. # 8

136)
NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

137)

Explain Question : Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in ?

Concept : This question is based on Type of Epithelium

Solution : Cuboidal epithelial with microvilli are present in PCT of Nephron.

Final Answer : option (1)

138) NCERT XI Pg # 103

139)

The correct answer is 1. Elastic cartilage.

• Elastic cartilage is flexible and resilient, making it ideal for structures that need to bend
and recover their shape, like the tip of the nose, the external ear, and the epiglottis.

140)

Red bone marrow is the crucial tissue within bones where blood cell formation takes place. It's
a highly active tissue responsible for replenishing the body's blood supply.

141) NCERT XII, Pg # 103

142)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify the shape and characteristics of cells that
make up the squamous epithelium tissue.

Underlying Concept: Squamous epithelium consists of cells that are thin and flat, forming a
smooth, irregular boundary. These cells help in protection and diffusion processes,
distinguishing them from other epithelial cell types like cuboidal and columnar cells.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the word 'squamous' is derived from Latin meaning 'scale,' which
can help recall that these cells are scale-like and flat.

Common Mistakes: Confusing squamous cells with cuboidal or columnar cells that are more
cube-shaped or tall respectively.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Tall with elongated nucleus and columnar or cuboidal in
shape refer to other epithelial cell types, not squamous. Cube like cells are characteristic of
cuboidal epithelium, not squamous.
143)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks where stratified squamous epithelium is found by
providing options such as Pneumocyte, Epidermis of skin, Podocyte, and Inner lining of blood
vessels.

Underlying Concept: Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of tissue made up of several

layers of flat cells. It serves primarily as a protective barrier against mechanical stress,
dehydration, and microbial invasion. This tissue type is commonly found in areas subjected to
wear and tear, such as the skin's outer layer (epidermis).

Tips and Tricks: Remember that 'stratified' means multiple layers and 'squamous' means flat
cells-such tissues are generally located where protection is needed, such as the skin's surface.

Common Mistakes: Confusing cell types like pneumocytes and podocytes as epithelial
tissues; assuming all linings in the body are made of stratified squamous epithelium.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Pneumocytes are cells lining the alveoli in the lungs and
are simple squamous epithelium, not stratified. Podocytes are specialized cells in the kidney's
glomerulus and not epithelial tissue. Inner lining of blood vessels is made of simple squamous
epithelium (endothelium), not stratified squamous.

144) NCERT Pg # 118

145) Pg. No. 120 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

146)

This streamlined body shape reduces drag and increases efficiency when moving through
water. Additional: it helps them to propel themselves powerfully when jumping on land. ans-4

147) NCERT Page-118

148)

NCERT Pg # 118

149) NCERT-XI Pg. # 116

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 83
151) NCERT Pg # 116

152)

Page No. 84

153) NCERT, Page No. 83

154)

Both Assertion and Reason are false.

155)

NCERT Pg.#118, 119

156)

NCERT Pg.#118

157)

NCERT Pg.#119

158) NCERT Pg.# 84

159) NCERT Pg.# 82

160) NCERT Pg. # 119

161) NCERT Page # 118,119

162) NCERT Pg. No. # 119, 120

163) NCERT Pg. # 81

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg#114, IInd PARA

165) NCERT-XII Page No. 113

 166) NCERT Pg. # 113

167) NCERT-XII Page No 115

168) NCERT Pg. # 113

169)

Concept:

A. Primary structure: The linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.Peptide

bond: A covalent bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the
amino group of another.

Explanation:

A. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that link amino acids together in a linear chain.

Final Answer: 4 : Peptide

170)

Explanation :- The question is asking about the exoskeleton of arthropods

Concept :- Carbohydrates

Solution :- The exoskeleton of arthropods is made of chitin, which is a homopolymer of N-

acetyl glucosamine units linked by b-1,4-glycosidic bonds.

Answer :- Final answer -1

171)

Secondary metabolites are biologically active compounds that are not directly involved in
growth and development but play a role in defense, signaling, and ecological interactions.

2 Lectins – Vinblastine, Curcumin (Incorrect match) :

A. Lectins are proteins that bind to carbohydrates and play a role in cell recognition (e.g.,
Concanavalin A).

B. Vinblastine is an alkaloid, used in cancer treatment.

172)
Concept:

A. Glycine, Alanine, and Serine are all amino acids with distinct side chains (R-groups).

B. Adenine, however, is not an amino acid but a purine base found in nucleotides like ATP
and DNA/RNA, not a part of protein structures.

Explanation:
The odd one is Adenine because it is a purine base, while the others (Glycine, Alanine, Serine)
are amino acids that are used in protein synthesis.

173)

Concept:

A. Peptide bonds are the primary covalent bonds that link amino acids together in a
polypeptide or protein.

Explanation:
Amino acids in a protein or polypeptide are linked by peptide bonds, which form between the
amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another.

Answer : 2

174)

Concept:

A. Water typically constitutes 70-90% of total cellular mass, not 5-7%.

Explanation:
The statement that water constitutes 5–7% of total cellular mass is false. In reality, water
makes up a much larger portion (70–90%) of the total cellular mass.

175)

Concept:

A. Starch is a homopolysaccharide made entirely of glucose units.

B. It gives a blue color with iodine due to its helical structure.

 C. Starch acts as the primary energy storage molecule in plants.

Explanation:
All the given statements about starch are correct

Final Answer: Option (4). All of above

176)

Solution/Explanation:
Hydrogen bonding: Hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen of one amino acid and the
amino hydrogen of an amino acid four residues down the chain stabilize the α-helix.

The correct answer is option 3. Hydrogen bond.

177)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking about false statement.

Concept :
This question is based on Biomolecule.

Solution :
Proteins actually constitute a 10-15% proportion of cellular mass.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Proteins constitute 5–7% of total cellular mass.

178)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking about non-essential amino acids..

Concept :
This question is based on Protein.

Solution :
Non-essential amino acids are synthesized in the human body.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : They are synthesized in body.

179)

Question Explanation : Cell composition-abundance

Concept : This question is based on Cell composition analysis.

Solution : Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Ions.

Final Answer : option (3)

180)

Question Explanation : Negligible amount - Human body

Concept : This question is based on Ash analysis

Solution : Silicon

Final Answer : option (3) Si