14-07-2024

1016CMD303053240002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of constant force. If the distance covered in
the first 10 sec is x and that covered in first 20 sec is y then :-

(1) y = 2x
(2) y = 3x
(3) y = 4x
(4) y = x

2) A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passs through two points P
and Q separated by a distance with velocities 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The velocity of the
car midway between P and Q is :-

(1) 33.3 km/h

(2) km/h
(3) km/h
(4) 35 km/h

3) A body starts from rest with constant acceleration the ratio of the distance travelled by the body
during the 5th & 3rd second :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after 10s is :-

(1) 10 units
(2) 7 units
(3) units
8.5 units
(4)

5) A balloon starts rising from rest with an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2. After 20 sec a man released a
ball from it. Calculate displacement of ball after 3 sec of releasing (t = 0 at the time of releasing) it :-

(1) 30 m downward
(2) 30 m upward
(3) 45 m downward
(4) 45 m upward

6) A body is thrown upwards and reaches maximum height. At that position its :-

(1) Velocity is zero and acceleration is also zero

(2) Velocity is zero but acceleration is minimum
(3) Acceleration is minimum
(4) Velocity is zero and acceleration is equal to g

7)

A body thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity u reaches maximum height in 6 seconds.
The ratio of the distance travelled by the body in the first second and the seventh second is :- (g = 10
m/s2 )

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 11 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 11

8) A body is projected vertically upward from the ground then its speed time graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) For the velocity-time graph shown in figure below the distance covered by the body in last two
seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance covered by it in all the seven seconds :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following cannot be speed-time graph:-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

(1) (B) and (D)

(2) (C) and (E)
(3) (D) only
(4) (A) only

11) Four balls A, B, C and D are projected with equal speeds having angles of projection 75°, 30°,
45°, 60° respectively with the horizontal. The ball having the smallest range is :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

12) The point from where a ball is projected is taken as the origin of the co-ordinate axes. The x and
y components of its displacement are given by x = 6t and y = 8t – 5t2. What is the velocity of
projection ?

(1) 6 ms–1
(2) 8 ms–1
(3) 10ms–1
(4) 14 ms–1

13) If the initial velocity of a projectile be trippled, keeping the angle of projection same, the
maximum height reached by it will be :-

(1) Remains same

(2) Trippled
(3) Nine times

(4)
times

14) The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Maximum
(3) Minimum
(4) Equal to total energy

15) A projectile is thrown from ground to have maximum range of 100 m. Taking projection point as
origin, find coordinates of that point where speed is minimum.

(1) (100, 0)
(2) (100, 50)
(3) (50, 25)
(4) (100, 25)

16) A man is crossing a river flowing with velocity of 5 m/s. He reaches a point directly across at a
distance of 60 m in 5 sec. His velocity in still water should be

(1) 12 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

17) A man walks on a horizontal road in rain with a velocity of 5 km/hour. The raindrops strike him
at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The downward velocity of the raindrops will be.

(1) 5km/h
(2) 4 km/h
(3) 3 km/h
(4) 1 km/h

18) If two like charges of magnitude 1 × 10–9 coulomb and 9 × 10–9 coulomb are separated by a
distance of 1 metre, then the point on the line joining the charges, where the force experienced by a
charge placed at that point is zero, is :

(1) 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coulomb

(2) 0.75 m from the charge 9 × 10–9 coulomb
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) at all points on the line joining the charges

19) A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle θ with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge density σ of the sheet is proportional

to

(1) sin θ
(2) tan θ
(3) cos θ
(4) cot θ

20) Following figure shows for Gaussian surface S1, S2, S3 and S4.

Now, match the following columns and mark the correct code
given below.

Column-I Column-II
 (i) (p)

(ii) (q) 0

(iii) (r)

(iv) (s)

(1) (i)-(s), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)

(2) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)
(3) (i)-(q), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(p)
(4) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)

21) The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere of radius R as a function of the distance
from its centre is represented graphically by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) At a point 20 cm from the centre of a uniformly charged dielectric sphere of radius 10 cm, the
electric field is 100 V/m. The electric field at 3 cm from the centre of the sphere will be :-

(1) 150 V/m

(2) 125 V/m
(3) 120 V/m
(4) Zero

23) If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed surface is ϕ1 and ϕ2 respectively then electric
charge inside the surface will be :-
(1) (ϕ1 + ϕ2)ε0
(2) (ϕ2 – ϕ1)ε0

(3)

(4)

24) Force of attraction between two point electric charges placed at a distance d in a medium is F.
What distance apart should these be kept in the same medium, so that force between them becomes
F/3 ?

(1)
(2) 3d
(3) 9d
(4)

25) A body has –80 microcoulomb of charge. Number of additional electrons on it will be :

(1) 8 × 10–5
(2) 80 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1014
(4) 1.28 × 10–17

26) Charges 2q, –q and –q lie at the vertices of a equilateral triangle. The value of E and V at
the centroid of the triangle will be :

(1) E ≠ 0 and V ≠ 0
(2) E = 0 and V = 0
(3) E ≠ 0 and V = 0
(4) E = 0 and V ≠ 0

27) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net

electric potential at the centre of curvature is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28)

If 3 charges are placed at the vertices of equilateral triangle of charge q each. What is the net
potential energy, if the side of equilateral triangle is ℓ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and 6 cm are given charges of 80 μC and 40 μC respectively.
If they are connected by a fine wire, the amount of charge flowing from one to the other is

(1) 20μC from A to B

(2) 16μC from A to B
(3) 32μC from B to A
(4) 32μC from A to B

30) P is a nearby point; S is a far away point, . Find R (in terms of x1 & x2). Ring is uniformly

charged.

(1) ( x2)1/2

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface the electric field will be due to :
(1) q2
(2) Only the positive charges
(3) All the charges
(4) +q1 and –q1

32) A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder
axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by :-

(1) 2πR2E
(2) πR2/E
(3) (πR2 – πR)/E
(4) Zero

33) Choose the incorrect statement :

(a) The electric lines of force entering into a Gaussian surface provide negative flux.
(b) A charge 'q' is placed at the centre of a cube. The flux through all the faces will be the same.
(c) In a uniform electric field net flux through a closed Gaussian surface containing no net charge, is
zero.
(d) When electric field is parallel to a Gaussian surface, it provides a finite non-zero flux.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) (c) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only

34) Two point charges + 3μC and +8μC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of –5μC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

35) A uniform electric field E = (8m/e) V/m is created between two parallel plates of length 1m as
shown in figure, (where m = mass of electron and e = charge of electron). An electron enters the
field symmetrically between the plates with a speed of 2m/s. The angle of the deviation (θ) of the
path of the electron as it comes out of the field will be ……….
(1) tan–1 (4)
(2) tan–1 (2)

(3)

(4) tan–1 (3)

SECTION-B

1) A body of mass 1 kg starts from origin with initial velocity of . If a constant force of

N acts on this find the coordinates of point it reaches in 3 s :-

(1) (18, –1.5)

(2) (9, 1.5)
(3) (18, 1.5)
(4) (9, –1.5)

2) A body thrown vertically upwards so as to reach its maximum height in t second. The total time
from the time of projection to reach a point at half of its maximum height while returning (in second)
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) An object is tossed vertically upward into the air with an initial velocity of 8 m/s. Using the sign
convention upwards as positive, how does the vertical component of the acceleration ay of the object
(after leaving the hand) vary during the flight of the object?

(1) On the way up ay > 0, on the way down ay > 0

(2) On the way up ay < 0, on the way down ay > 0
(3) On the way up ay > 0, on the way down ay < 0
(4) On the way up ay < 0, on the way down ay < 0

4) An engine of a vehicle can produce a maximum acceleration of 4 m/s2. Its breaks can produce a
maximum retardation of 6 m/s2. The minimum time in which it can cover a distance of 3km taking
initial and final velocity zero is :-

(1) 45 s
(2) 50 s
(3) 55 s
(4) 60 s

5) Figure shows the displacement-time curve of the particles P and Q. Which of the following

statement is correct ?

(1) Both P and Q move with constant and equal speed

(2) P is accelerated Q is retarded
(3) Both P and Q move with uniform speeds but the speed of P is more than the speed of Q
(4) Both P and Q move with uniform speeds but the speed of Q is more than the speed of P.

6) A train moves from one station to another in 2 hours time. Its speed-time graph during this motion
is shown in the figure. The maximum acceleration during the journey is :-

(1) 140 km h–2

(2) 160 km h–2
(3) 100 km h–2
(4) 120 km h–2

7) A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity u relative to the lift and the time of flight is found to
be ‘ t ‘. The acceleration with which the lift is moving up is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) Two trains one of length 100 m and another of length 125 m, are moving in mutually opposite
directions along parallel lines, meet each other, each with speed 10 m/s. If their acceleration are 0.3
m/s2 and 0.2 m/s2 respectively, then the time they take to pass each other will be :-

(1) 5 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 20 s

9) Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges 2q and 2q are placed in a uniform electric field E
and allowed to move for the same time. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

10) A solid metallic sphere has a charge +3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical
shell having charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b(b > a). What
is the electric field at a distance R(a < R < b) from the centre.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Five point charge each having magnitude 'q' are placed at the corner of hexagon as shown in
figure. Net electric field at the centre 'O' is . To get net electric field at 'O' be the , charge

placed on the remaining sixth corner should be :

(1) 6q
(2) –6q
(3) 5q
(4) –5q

12) Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side is 'a'. Work done in
removing a charge –Q from its centre to infinity is :
(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If a conducting sphere of radius R is charged. Then the electric field at a distance r(r > R) from
the centre of the sphere would be, (V = potential on the surface of the sphere)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The electric potential V at any point x, y, z (all in metres) in space is given by V = 3x3 volt. The
electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is :

(1) 9 along negative x-axis

(2) 9 along positive x-axis
(3) 36 along negative x-axis
(4) 18 along positive z-axis

15) The electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude . The charge contained
in a sphere of radius R0 centered at the origin is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) How many aliphatic carbonyl compounds are possible from C5H10O ? (Excluding stereo)
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 6

2) How many primary alcohols are possible from C5H12O (Excluding stereoisomers) ?

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

3) 1-Methoxy propane and 2-methoxypropane are :-

(1) Ring chain isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Functional group isomerism
(4) Chain isomerism

4) How many aliphatic ethers are possible from C6H14O ? (Excluding stereo)

(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 8

5) Correct designation is :-

(1) E
(2) Z
(3) Both
(4) Cis

6) Correct designation is :-

(1) 2E, 4Z, 6Z

(2) 3Z, 5Z, 7E
(3) 3Z, 5E, 7Z
(4) 2Z, 4E, 6Z

7) Which compound will show G.I. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Designation is :-

(1) R
(2) S
(3) Both
(4) Cis

9) Designation is ;-

(1) R
(2) S
(3) E
(4) Z

10) Correct relationship :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Identical
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Mesomers

11) How many optically active forms and optical isomers are possible from tartaric acid ?

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 2 and 2
(4) 3 and 3

12)

Total number of stereoisomers from following organic compound :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 2

13) Which form is erythro form ?

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

14) Which is a Meso form ?

(1)
(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

15) Which compound will show optical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

16) Statement-I :- Meso form is always an optically inactive form due to an internal compensation
phenomenon.
Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is an optically inactive mixture due to an external compensation
phenomenon.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

17) Assertion :- Trans form having always more melting point than cis form.
Reason :- Trans form having more packing efficiency than cis form.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

18) Total number of monochloro derivatives from n-pentane ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

19) Assertion : In Heisenberg uncertainty principle if Δx = ΔP than ΔV will be .

Reason : If Δx = 0 than ΔP will be ∞.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

20) The graph between and r (radius distance) is shown below. This represents:-

(1) 3s orbital
(2) 1s orbital
(3) 2p orbital
(4) 2s orbital

21)
Which rules are violated by this configuration :

(1) Only Aufbau

(2) Only Aufbau and Pauli
(3) Only Aufbau and Hunds
(4) Only Hunds

22) The specific charge is maximum for

(1) Na+
(2) Al+3
(3) H+
(4) Mg+2

23)
Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Angular nodes in 4d (p) 1

(2) Spherical nodes in 3p (q) 3

(3) Total nodes in 1s (r) 2

(4) (n + ℓ) for 2p (s) 0

(1) 1 → p, 2 → q, 3 → r, 4 → s
(2) 1 → r, 2 → p, 3 → s, 4 → q
(3) 1 → q, 2 → p, 3 → s, 4 → r
(4) 1 → r, 2 → s, 3 → q, 4 → p

24) Which is incorrect for any hydrogen like species :-

(1) E1 < E2 < E3 < E4

(2) KE1 > KE2 > KE3 > KE4
(3) (E2–E1) < (E3–E2) < (E4–E3)
(4) (E2–E1) < (E3–E1) < (E4–E​​1)

25) Which of the following statement is correct about electro magnetic wave?
(i) The electric field and magnetic field is parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
(ii) For propagation of electro magnetic wave do not required medium and can move in vacuum
(iii) All electromagnetic wave have same wavelength
(iv) In vacuum all types of electromagnetic radiation travel at the same speed (3 × 108 m/s)

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iv)

26) The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1, respectively.

The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties in their
positions?

(1) 2
(2) 0.25
(3) 4
(4) 1

27) Match the column-I and column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
 Energy can be emitted or absorbed in the form
(A) |Ψ|2 (i)
of packets.

It is impossible to determine simultaneously, the

(B) de-Broglie (ii) exact position and exact momentum (or velocity)
of an electron

The probability of finding an electron at a point

(C) Heisenberg (iii)
within an atom

(D) Plank (iv) Every object in motion has a wave character

(1) (A)-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), (D)-(ii)

28)

Which of the following representation/option is wrong according to Pauli's exclusion principle ?

Order of energy of subshell for multielectron species.

(1)
1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3d < 4s < 3p .............

(2)
For 7N

(3)
For 7N
(4) None

29) Which one of the following have largest number of atoms :

[Atomic weight : Cl = 35.5, Na = 23, Li = 7, H = 1]

(1) 1g Cl2(g)
(2) 1g Na(s)
(3) 1g Li(s)
(4) 1g H2(g)

30) Phosphine (PH3) is a poisonous gas which decompose to form molecular phosphorous (P4) and
hydrogen gas. If 200 mL of PH3 is decomposed then the observed change in volume is : (4PH3(g) →
P4(s) + 6H2(g)).

(1) 100 mL increase in volume

(2) 100 mL decrease in volume
(3) 200 mL increase in volume
(4) 200 mL decrease in volume

31) Correct relationship between molecular weight and vapour density is (H2 gas is it taken as
standard)
(1) Molecular weight = Vapour density

(2)
Molecular weight = Vapour density

(3)
Molecular weight = Vapour density

(4)
Molecular weight = Vapour density

32) Find out maximum number of moles of CO2 obtained by decomposition of 200 g sample of
CaCO3 (Mw = 100 g/mol) whose purity is 80%.

(1) 1 mol
(2) 1.6 mol
(3) 0.8 mol
(4) 1.2 mol

33) If 10 mL of uncombined O2 remain after exploding O2 with 4 mL of hydrogen, the number of

mL of O2 originally were -

(1) 12
(2) 2
(3) 10
(4) 4

34) An organic compound contains C = 40%, H = 6.7% and rest is oxygen will have the emperical
formula:-

(1) CH
(2) CH2O
(3) C3H6O
(4) C3H4O2

35) Two separate identical containers contain Gas A (40 g mol–1) and gas B (x g mol–1) in the mass
ratio 5 : 8 under similar conditions of temperature and pressure. The value of x is :-

(1) 60
(2) 64
(3) 70
(4) 72

SECTION-B

1) Maleic acid and fumaric acids are :-

(1) F.G.I
(2) R.C.I
(3) G.I.
(4) C.I.

2) Which will show optical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

3) Which is an optically active form ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Statement-I :- Chiral carbon is an essential condition for optical isomerism.

Statement-II :- Asymmetry is an essential condition for optical isomerism.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

5) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
 (A) (I) R

(B) (II) S

(C) (III) S, S

(D) (IV) Z

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

6) Assertion :- Three mono chloro derivatives are possible from n-butane.

Reason :- Three types of hydrogenatoms are present in n-butane.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

7) Match the column :-

Column-II
Column-I total no. of
stereo-isomers

(A) (I) 2

(B) CH3–CH=C=CH–C2H5 (II) 64

(C) (III) 8

(D) (IV) 4

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

8) Equal masses of O2 , H2 and CH4 are taken in a container. The respective mole ratio of these gases
in container is -

(1) 1 : 16 : 2
(2) 16 : 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 : 16
(4) 16 : 2 :1

9) Vapour density of CnH2n+2 is 29. The value of n is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

10) Statement–1 : During a chemical reaction, total moles remains constant.

Statement–2 : During a chemical reaction, total mass remains constant.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

11) Consider the following statement and select the correct option :
Statement-I :- Law of conservation of mass is not followed by nuclear reactions.
Statement-II :- Law of definite proportion is not obeyed when the element exists in isotopic forms
as in H2O and D2O.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

12) Combustion of 10 moles of CH4 take place in presence of 21 moles of O2. The number of moles of
excess reactant that remains unreacted after the reaction :

(1) 1 mol O2
(2) 2 mol O2
(3) 1 mol CH4
(4) 2 mol CH4

13) 2 g metal oxide contains 1.8 g metal, then equivalent weight of metal is :-

(1) 36
(2) 72
(3) 48
(4) 32

14) To completly neutralise 12 gm NaOH, 9.8 gm of Tribasic acid is required, then molar weight of
acid is :

(1) 49 gm
(2) 98 gm
(3) 60 gm
(4) 72 gm

15) 0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m2 area. The number of silver
atoms deposited on plate are :-
[Given : Atomic mass of Ag = 108 amu, density = 10.8 g cm–3]

(1) 1.5 × 1024

(2) 1.5 × 1023
(3) 1.5 × 1018
(4) 1.5 × 1020

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Hormone, which causes stronger uterine contraction during child birth is :

(1) Oxytocin from foetus

(2) Oxytocin from mother
(3) Progesterone
(4) Inhibin

2) During pregnancy the level of thyroxin -

(1) Increase several folds in fetal blood

(2) Increase several folds in maternal blood
(3) Decrease several folds in fetal blood
(4) Decrease several folds in maternal blood

3) In human females the blastocyst :-

(1) Forms placenta even before implantation

(2) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
(3) Gets nutrition from myometrial secretion only after implantation
(4) Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast cells
4) Identify correct match of column I, II and III

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Sertoli Promote
(A) (a) H.C.G. (i)
cells Spermatogenesis

Leydig Maintenance
(B) (b) Some factors (ii)
cells of the endometrium

Help in the process

(C) Trophoblast (c) Testosterone (iii)
of spermiogenesis

Maintain the
(D) Ovary (d) Progesterone (iv)
corpus luteum
(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-a-iv, D-d-ii
(2) A-c-ii, B-b-i, C-d-iii, D-c-iv
(3) A-a-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-c-iii
(4) A-d-iv, B-c-iii, C-b-ii, D-a-i

5) These are some events associated with reproduction and embryonic development. Arrange these
from first to last and select the correct answer.
(a) Start formation of corpus luteum
(b) Cleavage
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation
(e) Implantation
(f) Formation of Graafian follicle
(g) Blastocyst
(h) Morula
(i) Zygote

(1) f, d, a, c, i, b, h, g, e
(2) f, d, i, c, a, b, h, g, e
(3) a, f, d, c, b, i, h, g, e
(4) i, h, g, f, d, c, b, e, a

6) Which of the following hormone's level is increased during pregnancy in the maternal blood ?
(a) FSH
(b) Progesterone
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Cortisol
(e) LH
(f) Estrogen

(1) a, b, e, f
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d, f
7) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only
a. The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of myometrium lining of uterus and its blood
vessels.
b. The secretion of acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane.
c. Scientifically it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the mother and not by
the father.
d. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and it gets
differentiated as the embryo

(1) Statements b, c and d

(2) Statements a, b
(3) Statements c, d
(4) Statements only b

8) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option given

correct identification together with number of cells present in it :- (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Developmental stage Number of cells

(1) (a) Zygote 2

(2) (b) Blastula 8

(3) (c) Gastrula 16

(4) (d) Blastocyst 32

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

 Column - I Column - II Column - III
Corpus Fallopian
(A) (a) (i) Estrogen
luteum tube
Granulosa Collection
(B) (b) Sperm (ii)
cells of ovum
Proximal Promote the
(C) (c) Ovary (iii)
centriole cleavage
Developing
(D) Fimbriae (d) (iv) Progesterone
follicle
(1) A → d → i; B → c → iv, C → b → iii, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → i; B → d → iii, C → d → ii, D → b → iv
(3) A → c → iv; B → d → i, C → b → iii, D → a → ii
(4) A → b → iv; B → c → iii, C → a → ii, D → d → i

10) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.
Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events :-

(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete oestrogen which
stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) LH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the development of corpus luteum which
secretes progesterone.
(iii) Reduced production of LH from anterior pituitary causes degeneration of corpus luteum,
thereby menustral flow starts.

(1) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly.
 (A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty
(1)
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Child hood
(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Child hood
(2)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(3)
(C) Puberty (D) Child hood (E) Foetal life
(A) Birth (B) Child hood (C) Foetal life
(4)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life

12) In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer), the fertilisation occurs

(1) inside fallopian tube

(2) outside female body
(3) inside uterus
(4) None of the above

13) Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :-

(1) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.

(2) ovaries are removed surgically.
(3) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(4) uterus is removed surgically.

14)

Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its implantation
into a woman and select the correct option for the two together :
 Site of
Contraceptive device
implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) CuT Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Artificial insemination means :-

(1) Indroduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

(2) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing of Ova
(3) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing Ova
(4) Artificialy introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina.

16)

Consider the statement given below regarding contraception and answering as directed there after
:-
(A) Medical termination of pregnancy MTP during first trimester is generally safe
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant maximum up to two
year.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptive
(D) Chances of fertilisation are very high during first 7 days of menstruation cycle.
Which two of above statements are correct ?

(1) A,C
(2) A,B
(3) B,C
(4) C,D

17)

Read carefully about test tube baby and give the answering the question given below
(A) Fertilization inside female genital tract and growth in test tube.
(B) Gestation period is same as a normal
(C) Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb of mother.
(D) Both fertilization and development are outside the female genital tract.

How many options are incorrect?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

18) Match the following :-

Makes the Uterus

Non-medicated Multiload
(A) (a) (i) unsuitable for
IUDs 375
implantation
Copper Phagocyte the
(B) (b) Non-Steroid (ii)
releasing IUDs sperms
Hormone Suppress sperm
(C) (c) Lippes loop (iii)
releasing IUDs motility
(D) Saheli (d) LNG-20 (iv) Weekly oral pill
(1) A–b–i, B–C–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv
(2) A–c–iv, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–d–ii
(3) A–c–ii, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–b–iv
(4) A–a–iii, B–c–ii, C–d–ii, D–b–iv

19) Which of the following infections can be transmitted by sharing of injection needles?

(1) HIV & Gonorrhoea

(2) Hepatitis-B and Chlamydiasis
(3) HIV & Hepatitis-B
(4) Trichomoniasis & Gonorrhoea

20) Select the incorrect statement for given figure:

(1) This is a permanent method of contraception in females

(2) Menstrual flow isn’t affected after using this method of contraception
(3) Maturation of Graffian follicles permanently ceases after applying this contraceptive method
(4) Reversibility of this technique is very poor

21) Different types of fertilization technique is given below.

(a) ZIFT
(b) IUT
(c) ICSI
(d) GIFT
(e) AI
Select correct classification :-

(1) Invitro → d, b, c; Invivo → a, e

(2) Invitro → a, b, c; Invivo → d, e
(3) Invitro → d, e; Invivo → a, b, c
(4) Invitro → a, c, e; Invivo → b, d

22) Statement-I:- Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test based on chromosomal pattern
having statutory ban in india for sex determination
Statement-II:- Periodic abstinence is one of the natural method in which couple avoid the coitus
from 18-28 day of menstrual cycle.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

23) Identify above contraceptive :-

(1) Saheli
(2) Injection
(3) IUD
(4) Implants

24) A lady is 15 weeks pregnant various tests confirm that if her child was born to a serious
handicap. What is the best suggested option to this case as per the medical termination of
pregnancy (Amendment)-2017?

(1) MTP can't be performed

(2) MTP can be easily performed
(3) MTP can be performed only if two registered medical practitioners agree to it
(4) MTP can be performed only after determination of sex of the baby.

25) Assertion (A):- Artificial inseminaton is a technique of in-vivo fertilisation.

Reason (R):- In AI, the semen collected either from husband or healthy donor artificially introduced
either into vagina or uterus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) A 25 years old female goes to doctor that after 4 days there is due date of her menses and she
want to postpone bleeding for some days as she will be engaged in some official work during those
days. Which hormone will the doctor advise her to take?

(1) FSH & LH

(2) LH & Progesterone
(3) Progesterone only
(4) LH only

27) Suppose a pregnant lady is not able to produce enough labour for delivery. What do you think
the doctor inject to induce delivery ?

(1) Prolactin
(2) Estrogen
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Relaxin

28) Identify the label D in the given diagram:

(1) Sperm
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corona radiata
(4) Perivitalline space

29) When people are healthy they are ?

(a) More efficient at work
(b) Decreases productivity
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(d) Increases longevity of people
(e) Increases infant and maternal mortality
How many statements are correct about healthy people :-
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are correct

30) Fill in the blanks :-

a-neural system, b-endocrine system,

(1)
c-immune system
b-neural system, c-endocrine system,
(2)
a-immune system
a- neural system, c-endocrine system,
(3)
b-immune system
c-neural system, b-endocrine system,
(4)
a-immune system

31) Which of the following is not a step of phagocytosis?

(1) Increased diameter of blood vessels due to histamine

(2) Accumulation of leucocytes at the periphery of blood vessels due to decreased blood flow
(3) Migration of leucocytes from blood vessel into ECF by diapedesis
(4) Movement of pathogen towards leucocytes by chemotactic movement

32) Assertion : Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason : Interferons are the proteins secreted by virus infected cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Which of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro organism in human
body ?
(A) Epithelium of Respiratory tract
(B) Monocyte
(C) Tear
(D) Skin
(E) Saliva (F) Acid in stomach
(G) N-K-cell

(1) E, F, G
(2) B, C, E
(3) C, E, F
(4) A, B, D

34) Identify correct match from column-I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) 2nd line of defence (a) Mucous membrane

(ii) 1st line of defence (b) Macrophage

(iii) 3rd line of defence (c) Interferon

(d) Antibody

(e) Skin
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-e, (iii)-d
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-e, (iii)-a
(3) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-d
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b

35) Who disproved "Good humor hypothesis" ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Bowditch
(3) William Harvey
(4) Metchnikoff

SECTION-B

1) How many of the following hormones are released by human placenta ?

Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH, LH, Relaxin, CRH, Oxytocin, Prolactin, HCG, HPL, GnRH

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

2) Extra embryonic membranes are present in –

(1) Mammals but not in birds and reptiles.

(2) Mammals and birds, but not in reptiles
(3) Mammals, birds and reptiles
(4) Mammals and amphibians but not in birds

3) Weekly oral pills for females are :-

(1) Mala D
(2) Mala N
(3) Saheli
(4) Gossypol

4) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced
either into the vagina or into the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which two of the above statements are correct :

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

5) In test tube baby programme, the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred to uterus,
this is called as:

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) IUT
(4) ICSI

6) Read the following four statement (A-D)

(A) Medical termination of pregnancy (M. T. P.) is safe during 14th to 15th week of pregnancy.
(B) In Test-tube baby technique 32 cell stage embryo transfer into uterus.
(C) Saheli is a steroid pill which check the ovulation.
(D) ZIFT is a in-vivo technique in which
zygote of 8-cell stage transfer into fallopian tube.
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

7) Statement-I : Condoms are disposable, can be self inserted and thereby gives privacy to the
user.
Statement-II : Progesterone alone or in combination with estrogen can be used by females as
injection or implant under the skin.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

8) If a couple is failed to fertilize even when AI technique is already done then which advance
technique will be preferred next ?

(1) ET
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IUT

9) Assertion :- Medical termination pregnancy (MTP) is termination of pregnancy before full term
or induced abortion.
Reason :- MTP is done due to unwanted pregnancies either due to unprotected coitus or failure of
contraceptive during coitus or rapes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Assertion :- The last part of fallopian tube is isthmus which is close to uterus and have a narrow
lumen than infundibulum.
Reason :-Infundibulum is closer to ovary and it is funnel shaped structure.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) A female of 24 years age attained puberty at the age of 14 years. She has two children born by
normal delivery. How many polar bodies are formed in her body till date (each M.C. is of 30 days) :-

(1) 90
(2) 96
(3) 92
(4) 88

12) A 51-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms such as hot flashes, sexual dysfunction, poor
sleep, mood changes, irritability, and depression. Her gynecologist recommended that she undergo
some blood tests, and upon receiving the results, informed her that she is suffering from post-
menopausal syndrome. What would you expect on the blood test and how would you manage this
patient?

Blood test report

Management
FSH LH Estrogen Progesterone
 Give Synthetic
(1) Low Low High High
FSH & LH
Give synthetic
(2) Low Low Low Low Estrogen &
Progesterone
Give Estrogen
and
(3) High High High High
Progesterone
inhibitors
Give synthetic
(4) High High Low Low Estrogen &
Progesterone
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from
the eyes, belong?

(1) Cytokine
(2) Cellular
(3) Physiological
(4) Physical

14) Which of the following immunity is feature of both plants and animals :-

(1) Innate
(2) Non specific
(3) Congenital
(4) All of these

15) The figure below shows steps of phagocytosis select the option giving correct identification.

(1) C - Shows diapedesis movement of RBC from dilated vessel

(2) A - Shows vasoconstriction due to effect of histamine
(3) D - Shows chemotactic movement of bacteria to WBC
(4) B - Shows adhesion of monocyte
 BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Which statement is not true ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by mitosis

(2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but DNA Replication occurs only once.
(3) In Animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell
(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are always genetically similar

2) Cell cycle involves :

(1) Genome duplication

(2) Synthesis of cell constituents
(3) Cell division
(4) All of the above

3) Chromosomes can be best studied at which phase ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

4) Poleward separation of homologous chromosome without centromere division occurs in :-

(1) Metaphse I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Metaphse II

5) During mitosis, anaphase differs from metaphase in having ?

(1) Same number of chromosomes and double number of chromatids.

(2) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids.
(3) Double number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids.
(4) Double number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

6) Which of following marks the phase of DNA replication and chromosome duplication ?

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase-II
(3) G2-phase
(4) S-phase

7)

Appearance of chaismata is the feature of-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diakinesis

8) During quiescent stage (G0), cells:

(1) remain metabolically active but do not divide.

(2) remain metabolically inactive and do not divide.
(3) remain metabolically active and divide.
(4) remain metabolically inactive but divide.

9) Given below is diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cell from one cell.

Mark the correct one for the events of this cell cycle :-

(1) A G0 Cells is metabolically inactive

(2) B S Amount of DNA per cell doubles but chromosome number remain same

(3) C G2 Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication where cell continuously grows

(4) D G1 Shortest phase of cell cycle in which most of the organelles duplicate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Some events of mitotic cell division are given below in unordered manner -
(i) Condensation of chromatin is completed
(ii) Chromosome lose their identity as discrete elements
(iii) Sister chromatid separate
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle between pair of centrioles
The correct order for steps of cell division is :-

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) iv → i → iii → ii
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iv → iii → i → ii

11) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

Terminalisation of
(A) Pachytene (i)
chiasmata

Synaptonemal
(B) Diplotene (ii)
complex dissolution

Recombination
(C) Zygotene (iii)
nodules appearance

(D) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i

12) If the pollen grain of a plant has 40 pg of DNA in its nucleus then how much DNA would a cell of
the same organism have in metaphase-I of meiosis ?

(1) 40 pg
(2) 120 pg
(3) 160 pg
(4) 80 pg

13) Assertion : Crossing over results into genetic variability into organisms.
Reason : Crossing over is the exchange of genetic materials between two homologous
chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion : Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organisms.
Reason : In meiosis chromosome no. reduces to half whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase
in sexually reproducing organisms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
15) Select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Best stage to study

(a) morphology of (i) Telophase
chromosome.

Nuclear
membrane
(b) (ii) Metaphase
and Nucleous
reappear

The bivalent or
(c) tetrad align on (iii) Interkinesis
equatorial plate

Phase between
(d) (iv) Metaphase-I
meiosis I & II

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Statement-I : Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed at the beginning

of third phase of prophase-I.
Statement-II : Diplotene begins with dissolution of synaptomemal complex and the tendency of
recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other throughout its
length.

(1) I is true; II is false

(2) Both are true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Both are false

17) A stage of cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct

identification of the stage with its characteristics:

(1) Metaphase - Homologous chromosome separate from each other
(2) Anaphase - Chromosomes moves towards opposite pole
(3) Metaphase-I - Chromatids of chromosomes separate from each other
(4) Metaphase-I - Bivalent arrange on equator of cell to form metaphase plate

18) You are given with various categories of classification of housefly. Arrange them in correct
sequence of taxonomic hierarchy starting from the lowest category:
(a) Muscidae
(b) insecta
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Musca
(e) Diptera
(f) Animalia

(1) d→b→a→e→c→f
(2) d→a→b→c→e→f
(3) d→a→e→b→c→f
(4) d→b→c→a→e→f

19) Equal weightage to both vegetative and reproductive characters is given in -

(1) Artificial system of classification

(2) Natural system of classification
(3) Numerical system of classification
(4) Both (1) & (3)

20) Statement I : Higher the taxa, the more are the characteristics that member within the taxon
share.
Statement II : Lower the category, the greater the difficulty of determining the relationship with
other taxa at the same level.

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

(2) Statement II is true but statement I is false.
(3) Both I & II statements are true.
(4) Both I & II statement are false.

21) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Classification system have under gone several changes over a period of time.
Reason (R) :- The criteria for classification get changed gradually.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
22)

Find the incorrect from the following statements.

(1) To know about diversity and relationship of organism is known as systematics

The scope of systematics was later enlarged to include identification, nomenclature and
(2)
classification of organisms
(3) Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationships among organisms
(4) The earliest classifications of organisms were based on evolutionary relationships in organisms

23) In Binomial system when name of any plant is hand written then it should be :-

(1) Italicized
(2) Underlined cummulatively
(3) Underlined separately
(4) Closed in bracket

24) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International Code of Biological Nomenclature

(2) International Code of Bacterial Nomenclature
(3) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(4) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

25) Choose the correct sequence of taxonomial categories :-

(1) Species → Genus → Kingdom → Division

(2) Genus → Species → Kingdom → Division
(3) Species → Genus → Family → Order
(4) Species → Family → Genus → Order

26) Cat and Dog are present in the same class but not in the same family. They belong to same :-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Variety
(4) Order

27) Systema Naturae was written by :-

(1) Lamarck
(2) Cuvier
(3) Aristotle
(4) Linnaeus

28) Which of the following organisms are responsible for biogas production?
(1) Halophiles
(2) Methanogens
(3) Thermoacidophile
(4) Mesophytes

29) Mesosomes are :-

(1) Invaginations of cell wall

(2) Infoldings of slime layer
(3) Extension of plasma membrane
(4) A copy of plasmid

30) Which group show most extensive metabolic diversity :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Algae
(4) Protista

31) Which of the following character is similar in cyanobacteria and green plants ?

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) 80s ribosome
(3) Chlorophyll 'a'
(4) Nature of cell wall

32) In Whittaker's system of classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were brought together in a
kingdom with which one of the following group of members ?

(1) Spirogyra and Ulothrix

(2) Paramoecium and Amoeba
(3) Rhizobium and Spirulina
(4) Riccia and Mangifera

33) Assertion : According to five kingdom system of classification bacteria were placed in monera.
Reason : They have prokaryotic cell organisation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34) Given below is a characteristics of the four kingdoms with four blanks (A-D), identify the blanks
:-

Monera Protista Fungi Plantae

Cell Present in Present
Peptidoglycan B
wall some (cellulose)
Nuclear
A Present Present Present
membrane
Body
Cellular Cellular NWticellular D
organisation
Mode of Autotrophic,
C Heterotrophic Autotrophic
nutrition heterotrophic

(1) A-Absent, B-Cellulose, C-Autotrophic, D-Tissue/organ

(2) A-Present, B-Non-cellulosic, C-Heterotrophic, D-Cellular
(3) A-Absent, B-Chitin, C-Autotrophic and heterotrophic,(D)-Tissue/organ
(4) A-Present, B-Peptidoglycan, C-Heterotrophic, D-Cellular

35) Whittaker, an American taxonomist has proposed five kingdom of classification on the following
basis except one, which is :

(1) Cell Structure

(2) Type of pigments
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Reproduction

SECTION-B

1) How many of the following statement (s) is/are true ?

(A) Hominidae and Felidae are included in order Carnivora
(B) Species is the smallest obligate taxonomic category
(C) As we move from species to kingdom, number of individuals are gradually decreased.
(D) Species is a group of individuals with fundamental similarity.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

2) All categories of overall taxonomic arrangment together constitute the:

(1) Taxonomic hierarchy

(2) Taxonomic category
(3) Systematics
(4) Taxon

3) How many taxa are present in given below list :-

Dog, Cat, Genus, Sapindales, Class, Poales, Species, Phylum, Family, Wheat

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8

4) Assertion : Animals like fishes, amphibians reptile and birds along with mammals constitute
higher category called phylum.
Reason : Phylum chordata includes animals with notochord and dorsal hollow neural system.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Assertion : Systematics take into account evolutionary relationship among organism.

Reason : The scope of systematics was enlarged to include. Identification, nomenclature and
classification.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Group of individual organism with fundamental similarities

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Family
(4) Order

7) Select the odd one w. r. t the taxa belonging to the same category.

(1) Solanum, Panthera, Felidae

(2) Canidae, Muscidae, Poaceae
(3) Mango, Wheat, Cat
(4) Moncotyledonae. Mammalia, Insecta

8) How many chromosomes will the diploid cell of a plant contain at G1, after S and
Anaphase respectively if the haploid cell of that plant has 7 chromosomes?

(1) 7, 7, 14
(2) 7, 14, 14
(3) 14,14,28
(4) 7,7,7

9) Select an incorrect statement w.r.t metaphase in mitosis :

Spindle fibres are attached to small disc shaped structures at the surface of centromeres called
(1)
kinetochores
(2) Nuclear membrane start to degenerate
(3) Chromosome appears to be made up of two sister chromatids
(4) The morphology of chromosomes can be studied in this phase

10) Phragmoplast is formed by golgi complex and grows:

(1) Centripetally to form cell plate

(2) Centrifugally to form cell plate
(3) Centripetally to produce a cleavage furrow
(4) Centrifugally to form a cleavage furrow

11) What is the significance of mitosis ?

(1) For growth of multicellular organisms

(2) For cell repair
(3) To restore nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio
(4) All of these

12) A loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres can be observed in :-

(1) Late prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Interphase nucleus

13) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

(1) Axoneme
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Bivalent

14) In which phase of mitosis, individuality of chromosomes is being lost :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

15) If a sexually reproducing organism wants to conserve specific chromosome number across
generations and at the same time wants to produce progenies with some variations, then which of
the following types of cell division can help this organism ?

Division in which number of chromosomes become half in progeny cells as compare to mother
(1)
cell
Division in which number of chromosomes remain same in progeny cells as compare to mother
(2)
cell
 Division in which replication of DNA occurs but replicated DNA do not get separated from each
(3)
other
(4) Division in which only division of nucleus occurs without division of cytoplasm
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 2 4 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 4 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) St : S2t = 1 : 4 ⇒ y = 4X

2)
V2 – 900 = 350

3) u = 0 Snth = u+ (2n–1)

S3rd = (2 × 3–1) =

S5th =

4)

= +
=
So speed = units

5) v = u + at
v = 0 + 1.5 (20)
v = 30 m/s

S = 30 (3) – (10) (32)

S = 45 m upward

6) At highest point v = 0, acceleration = g

7) S1 = S12 ⇒ S1
st th st
upward = S6
th
downward

S7 = S1 downward
th st

So,

8)
velocity first ↓ then
become zero and
there will be a
change in direction at highest point finally it will till hit

9)

10)

At a particular time two values of speed is not possible.

11)

θ ⇒ 75° ⇒ sin(150°) ⇒ → Minimum

θ ⇒ 30° ⇒ sin(60°) ⇒
θ ⇒ 45° ⇒ sin(90°) ⇒ 1 → Maximum

θ ⇒ 60° ⇒ sin(120°) ⇒

12)

at t = 0
vy = 8 m/s
So velocity of projection

13)
 14) At highest point speed in minimum, so KE will be minimum

15)

coordinates of uppermost point

16) For crossing the river directly

vmr sinθ = vr = 5
vmr sinθ = 5.

vmrcosθ = 12
So,
vmr = 13 m/s

17)

18)

q1 : q2 = 1 : 9, L = 1 metre

So the required point is at a distance of 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coul or 0.75 m from the
–9
charge 9 × 10 coul.

19)

Tsinθ = qE
and T cosθ = mg

⇒ tanθ = ⇒ σ ∝ tanθ

20)

The net flux through each closed surface is determined by the net charge inside
 =0

21)

Einside = r (r < R)

Eoutside = (r ≥ R)
i.e., inside the uniformly charged sphere field varies linearly (E ∝ r) with distance and outside varies

according to E ∝

22)

Electric field outside of the sphere Eout = ...(i)

Electric field inside the dielectric sphere Ein =

From (i) and (ii), Ein = Eout × ...(ii)

⇒ At 3 cm, E = 100 × = 120 V/m

23)

ϕ=
qin = (ϕ2–ϕ1) × ε0

24) Let q1 and q2 be the two point charges. Then, force between the charges, when kept at a
distance d apart,

Suppose that force between the two charges becomes F/3, when the charges are kept at a
distance x apart. Then

or
or x =

25)
q = ne
80 × 10–6 = n × 1.6 × 10–19

26)

E≠0

27)

28)

29)

from A to B

30)

EP = ES
R3 =
R=

31)

Electric field is due to all charges that are present inside and outside the Gaussian surface

32)

Flux through surface A ϕA = E × πR2 and ϕB = –E × πR2

Flux through curved surface

∴ Total flux through cylinder = ϕA + ϕB + ϕC = 0

33)

Since

θ = 90° ∴ϕ=0

34)

New charges will be –2μC and +3μC.

In first case;

In second case ; F =

∴
or F = –10 N

35)
sx = uxt
1=2×t

sec
vy = uy + ayt

vy = 0 +
vy = 4 m/s

36)

Initial velocity along X-axis and Y-axis are 3 and 4 ms–1 respectively. Acceleration along

X and Y-axes = and or 2 and –3 respectively.

sx = ut + at2 = 3 × 3 + × 2 × 9 = 18m

sy = ut + at2 = 4 × 3 + × –3 × 9 = 12 – 13.5 = –1.5 m

So required x and y-coordinate = (18, –1.5)

37)

Total time
 38)

39)

Area of v-t curve = 3 km

vm = 120 sec.
t1 + t2 = 50 sec.

40) Slope of x – t graph gives velocity

41)

Maximum acceleration is maximum slope of v-t curve

a = 160 km h–2

42) We have, हम जानते ह , Srel = urelt + arel t2

⇒ 0 = ut – (a + g) t2 ⇒ a = –g= .

43)

Srel = urelt + arelt2

100 + 125 = (10 + 10) t + (0.3 + 0.2) t2

or 4 × (225 = 20t + (0.5)t2)

900 = 80 t + t2
⇒ t2 + 90 t – 10 t – 900 = 0
t = – 90, t = 10 sec

44)
a1 = and a2 =
∴ a1= 2a2

K1 =

K2 =

45)

Electric field at a distance R is only due to sphere because electric field due to shell inside it is

always zero. Hence electric field =

46) To obtained net field 6E at centre O, the charge to be placed at remaining sixth corner is
–5q. (see following figure)

47)

W = –Q(V∞ – Vcenter)
V∞ = 0

48)
 49)

V = 3x3

50)

CHEMISTRY

51)

4 + 3 → ketones ⇒ 7
Aldehyde

77)

NCERT Pg. # 50-51

Fact

79)

NCERT 2023-24 Pg.# 28

Number of atoms = × atomicity

1g Cl2 :

1g Na :

1g Li :

1g H2 :

80)

4PH3(g) → P4(s) + 6H2(g)

4 mol volume 6 mol
will not 6 volume
4 volume be considered 300 mL
200 mL as it is solid
Change in volume = 300 – 200
= 100 mL(increased)
 97)

NCERT Pg.# 20 (2019)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
10 mol 21mol
0 1 mol

100)

Volume of silver coating = 0.05 cm × 0.05 × 104 cm2

= 25 cm3
Mass of Ag deposited = 25 cm3 × 10.8 g cm–3
= 25 × 10.8 g

nAg =
Number of Ag atoms = 2.5 × 6.02 × 1023
= 15.05 × 1023
= 1.5 × 1024

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT (XIIth)(E) Pg. # 54, para-3

102) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37, para–2.5(E),

Pg. # 40, para–2.5(H)

106) NCERT, Pg. # 37

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 48

116) NCERT Pg. No. 44

119)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 63, Para-3 (E)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 70, Para-3 (H)

121)

NCERT Page # 64, para. II,III

122)

NCERT Pg.#58

123)
NCERT - XII Pg.# 61

125)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 64

126)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 51

127)

NCERT-XI Pg.#38

128)

NCERT, Pg # 51

129) NCERT Pg # 130

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg#151 (E), Para-8.2.1

NCERT-XII, Pg#162 (H), Para-8.2.1

140)

NCERT(XII) Page#64/71(H) Para:4.5

142)

NCERT XII Pg # 60, 61

144)

NCERT XII, Page # 62

145)

NCERT XII, Page # 46

147)

NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 50

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

152)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 120

153)

NCERT, Pg. # 123

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123,124

161)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126,127

In pollengrain DNA = C
In metaphase I DNA = 4C

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128

165) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123, 126

166) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

 167) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

168) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 23, 24

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

171)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 10

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 4

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 4

175)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

176) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 7

177) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

181) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

182)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12
 183)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11

184)

NCERT XI Pg.# 11

185)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11

186) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6, 7

187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

188)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6, 7

189)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 7, 8

190)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

191)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 7

192) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 7

193) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121, 122, 123

194) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

195) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

196)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

197)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

 199)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

200)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128