Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. A. extinction B. existence C. exhausted D. exactly

12. A. dealt B. dreamt C. scream D. swear
13. A. huddle B. hooch C. hoody D. hautboy
14. A. issue B. passion C. tissue D. vessel
15. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. garbage

Đáp án:
11.A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. A. equation B. deduction C. corruption D. depletion

12. A. swallow B. swordfish C. swollen D. sweetheart
13. A. bargain B. detain C. constrain D. complain
14. A. immitate B. activate C. delegate D. dominate
15. A. comb B. plumb C. climber D. disturb

ANSWER KEY

SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11.A 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.D

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. A. elaborate B. effect C. economy D. equal

12. A. worked B. stopped C. ploughed D. laughed
13. A. bury B. purchase C. surface D. curly
14. A. question B. quotient C. racquet D. acquaintance
15. A. exhibit B. exhale C. exotic D. example

ANSWER KEY

SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. D
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. B
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. A allegedly B confusedly C supposedly D wickedly

12. A youths B maps C cigarettes D months
13.A equation B television C mention D decision
14. A rise B rinse C browse D bruise
15. A substitute B muddled C shutter D substantial
Đáp án:
11.B 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. D
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION B: PHONOLOGY
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
11. A allegedly B confusedly C supposedly D wickedly
12. A youths B maps C cigarettes D months
13. A equation B television C mention D decision
14. A rise B rinse C browse D bruise
15. A substitute B muddled C shutter D substantial

Đáp án:
11.B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D
Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A. contribute B. tsunami C. tornado D. category
17. A. gasometer B. agriculture C. nostalgic D. enthronement
18. A. severe B. campsite C. pollute D. proceed
19. A. merchandise B. prosperous C. tolerant D. musician
20. A. summertime B. vigorous C. consensus D. populate

Đáp án:

16. D 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.

16. A. enclave B. engrave C. ensign D. entrant

17. A. oncoming B. onlooker C. outbuilding D. outspoken
18. A. offer B.observe C.report D.admire
19. A. subsequent B. undergo C. government D. enterprise
20. A. maliciously B. traditional C. instrumental D. continuous

ANSWER KEY

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16.B 17.D 18.A 19.B 20.C
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.

16. A. laborious B. geological C. identify D. experiment

17. A. immunize B. infamous C. astonish D. reference
18. A. anxiety B. reluctant C. temperate D. disruptive
19. A. addressee B. comprehend C. represent D. committee
20. A. magnificent B. industrialize C. generalize D. inedible

ANSWER KEY

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.

16 B
17 C
18 C
19 D
20 C
Nguyễn Thu Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A. postpone B. manage C. purpose D. practice
17. A. accident B. reference C. contribute D. formulate
18. A. significant B. ability C. political D. sympathetic
19. A. envelope B. amazing C. passenger D. reference
20. A. cultural B. admittance C. demanding D. domestic

Đáp án:

16. C 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A

Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A academic B amphibian C apartheid D aquarium
17. A tuberculosis B mathematician C inheritance D communication
18. A casualty B habitual C characterize D ignorance
19. A magnificent B memorial C tobacconist D humanism
20. A trigonometry B explanatory C immediately D democracy

Đáp án:

16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. A

Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. I usually buy my clothes ___________. It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. off the peg B. on the house C. in public D. on the shelf
22. My flat was not _______ furnished, because I never had any money to furnish it any
other way.
A. expensively B. expense C. inexpensive D. expensive
23. The covid-19 pandemic brought widespread _______ to the global supply chain.
A. disrupt B. disrupting C. disruptive D. disruptions
24. _____, the examinees knew it was time to stop.
A. Hearing the bell B. When heard the bell
C. To hear the bell D. To have been heard the bell
25. Having ______ the table, the girl called her parents and sister for dinner.
A. swept B. laid C. completed D. ordered
26. I couldn’t tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ______ of the clock.
A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers
27. Fish are the most ancient form of vertebrate life, and ______ all other vertebrates.
A. from them evolved B. evolved them
C. to evolve D. they are evolved
28. Rudy was ______ with emotion at seeing his team win the championship.
A. carried over B. carried forward C. carried out D. carried away
29. Some products are spread ______ and not through the television or radio.
A. down in the dumps B. by word of mouth C. out of the woods D. up in the air
30. number of land slides have ______ Nepal since the 7.8-magnitude earthquake on 25 th
April which killed more than 8,000 people and injured many more.
A. stroke B. caused C. hit D. blown
31. ______ that you should drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
A. Based on medical evidence, it suggests B. The medical evidence we suggest
C. Medically, we suggest evidence D. There is no medical evidence to suggest
32. I felt a bit ________ and seemed to have more aches and pains than usual.
A. out of sorts B. on the mend C. over the worst D. under the fevers
33. The woman accused of shoplifting was found not guilty and was ________.
A. excused B. liberated C. acquitted D. interned
34. She was shocked to see her living room painted pink, as she chose a very light shade of
green, so she told the workers to _______ the whole job ________.
A. do... over B. make ...out C. run ... off D. let... down
35. He promised me an Oxford dictionary, but to my great disappointment, he _____ his
words.
A. stood by B. stuck at C. went back on D. held onto

Đáp án:

21.A 22.A 23.D 24.A 25.B 26.A 27.A 28.D

29.B 30.C 31.D 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.C
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. This ticket __________you to a free meal in our new restaurant.
A. allows B.grants C.entitles D.credits
22. We all had a second __________ of pie because it was really delicious.
A. load B. helping C. pile D. sharing
23. At her trial in 1431, Joan of Arc was accused of being in _____ with the devil.
A. cooperation B. association C. league D. conjunction
24. In the 1820’s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and
Yale Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
25.Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and ________.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
26. The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to
questions.
A. attention B. attentive C. attentively D. attentiveness
27. There were a number of strong candidates for the post but Peter’s experience _____ the
scales in his favor.
A. weighted B. tipped C. balanced D. overturned
28.Some products are spread by word of ______ and not through the television or radio.
A. experience B. mouth C. tradition D. time
29.I've got a promotion at work, but all John did was make a joke about it. He has a real
chip on his _________. I think he is just jealous.
A. head B. shoulder C. nose D. mount
30.Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain
31. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
32. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
33.Could you possibly _____ me at the next committee meeting?
A. stand in for B. make up for C. fall back on D. keep in with
34. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
35.John ______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.
A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in
ANSWER KEY

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.

21. C 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A
31. C 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. C

21. This ticket __________you to a free meal in our new restaurant.

A. allows B.grants C.entitles:Cấp quyền D.credits
22. We all had a second __________ of pie because it was really delicious.
A. load B. helping: suất ăn thứ 2 ( ăn thêm ) C. pile D. sharing
23. At her trial in 1431, Joan of Arc was accused of being in _____ with the devil.
A. cooperation B. association
C. league Liên minh , bắt tay với D. conjunction
24. In the 1820’s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and
Yale Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
25.Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and ________.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D.
communicator
26. The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to
questions.
A. attention B.attentive C. attentively D. attentiveness
27. There were a number of strong candidates for the post but Peter’s experience _____ the
scales in his favor.
A. weighted B. tipped:Có ưu thế , làm lệch cán cân
C. balanced D. overturned
28.Some products are spread by word of ______ and not through the television or radio.
A. experience B. mouth: Truyền miệng C. tradition D. time
29.I've got a promotion at work, but all John did was make a joke about it. He has a real
chip on his _________. I think he is just jealous.
A. head B. shoulder: Khó chịu C. nose D. mount
30.Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled
effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain
31. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much C. so much the bettercòntốthơnnữaD. so
the much better
32. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
33.Could you possibly _____ me at the next committee meeting?
A. stand in forthay thế B. make up for C. fall back on D. keep in with
34. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
35John ______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.
A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away : Bỏ qua cơ hôi D. threw in
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. As a ______ parent, my main concern is balancing the needs of a small child with the
need to earn a living.
A. solo B. single C. sole D. solidarity
22. To begin studying chemistry at this level, you must already have proved your ability in a
related _______.
A. line B. discipline C. region D. rule
23. This sad song movingly conveys the _________ of the lover’s final parting.
A. ache B. argument C. anxiety D. anguish
24. In the larger communities special schools are provide for children who have physical or
developmental ___________.
A. inabilities B. disabilities C. incompetence D. immature
25. Two days passed during which we did not _____________a single word.
A. changed B. exchanged C. snapped D. converted
26. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable ________ because it seems
too good to be true.
A. suspicion B. doubt C. reservation D. disbelief
27. The brother and sisters were _____________ over who would get to inherit the beach
house.
A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end
28. Grandma says there wasn’t a _______ of truth in that story Granddad told last night
about being a war hero.
A. speck B. crumb C. dot D. grain
29. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ___________.
A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the grade
30. _________ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an
optical illusion.
A. The moon B. That the moon C. When the moon D. The moon which
31. Probably no man had more effect on the daily lives of most people in the United States
_____.
A. as Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
B. rather than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
C. than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
D. more than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
32. Suppose she _________ that outrageous story circulating around the office; she’d be
furious!”
A. has heard B. were heard C. would hear D. had heard
33. A new generation of performers, ____________ those who by now had become
household name, honed their skills before following the same path onto television.
A. no less talented than B. together with talented with
C. along with talented with D. having been more talented than
34. The love of life shone______the author’s book, giving me as much inspiration as I could
ever ask for.
A. through B. over C. into D. upon
35. The success of our project hinges _________ Mike’s ability persuade the locals to move
to the renewal quarter.
A. in B. on C. about D. over

ANSWER KEY

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. B
31 C
32 D
33 A
34 A
35 B
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to
the………….. wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
22. It is no use…………..over…………..milk.
A. crying / spilt B. to cry / spilling
C. crying / spilling D. crying / to spill
23.…………..of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things
would improve.
A. In the end B. At the height
C. On the top D. At the bottom
24.I was…………..in the book I was reading, and I didn’t hear the phone.
A. distracted B. submerged C. gripped D. engrossed
25. Our country has large areas of………….. beauty.
A. uninjured B. undamaged C. unharmed D. unspoilt
26. Some kinds of birds are on the…………..of extinction.
A. side B. end C. tip D. brink
27. I realized…………..that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later B. all along C. at the beginning D. eventually
28. They seemed to be…………..to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
29. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my ………
…………...
A. piece of cake. B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
30. I know you have been working very hard today. Let’s…………..and go home.
A. pull my leg B. call it a day
C. put your back up D. pull your finger out
31. When Mr. Benson ran out of money, he…………..his mother for help.
A. fell in with B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell back on
32. I’m not sure whether this new style of shoes will…………...
A. get on B. turn up C. catch on D. come up
33. If you would like to wait for a moment, Sir, I will just…………..your file on the
computer screen.
A. call up B. pull down C. bring in D. pick up
34………………, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. Despite his wealthy B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. In spite of his being wealth
35………………have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it is computers
Đáp án:

21.D 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.D 26.D 27.A 28.D

29.D 30.B 31.D 32.C 33.A 34.C 35.B
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. …… every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
22. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked …… and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
23. When the electricity failed, he …… a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
24. I usually buy my clothes ……. It‟s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
25. My father …… when he found out that I had damaged his car.
A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants
C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down
26. Your grandfather is rather tired so do not………….your visit. Let him have a rest.
A. prolong B. lengthen C. delay D. shorten
27. We were........... by the officers' decision to divert the whole traffic from the main route.
A. rambled B. baffled C. stumbled D. shuffled
28. The book says that the revolution was ............. off by the assassination of the state
governor.
A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted
29. The hijackers have demanded a ........... to be paid for releasing the civilian hostages
from the plane.
A. currency B. revenue C. deposit D. ransom
30. He‟s .............................. work and cannot possibly see you now.
A. up to his ears in B. very interested in
C. not involved with D. concerned with
31. He suddenly saw Sue........... the room. He pushed his way ................ the crowd of
people to get to her.
A. across/through B. over/through C. over/along D. across/across
32. She tried to.......................
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
33. My cousin obviously didn‟t ……… much of an impression on you if you can‟t
remember meeting her.
A. create B. do C. make D. build
34. She was kept awake for most of the night by the………… of a mosquito in her car.
A. whine B. moan C. groan D. screech
35. Her business must be going rather well ….by the car she drives.
A. deducing B. deciding C. inferring D. judging

Đáp án:

21.D 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.A 26.A 27.B 28.C

29.D 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.C 34.A 35.D
Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36
to 40.
WALT DISNEY
There is no one who has not heard of Walt Disney; he is without doubt one of the most
famous figures in the twentieth century and yet most people know hardly anything about
him.
(36) ..................... he became one of the most successful men in history, he left school at the
age of sixteen and then studied art for a short time. By the early years of this century, he had
already started to produce cartoons in Hollywood in (37) ..................... with his brother Roy,
who, is for some reason, never managed to become as famous as Walt. Disney is perhaps
most well known on (38) ..................... of his lovable cartoon character, Mickey mouse, who
first appeared in 1928 in a film called Steamboat Willie. One of the most popular cartoon
films of all time is Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs, which when it was
(39) ..................... in 1937, was the first full-length cartoon in the history of the cinema.
By the 1950s, Walt Disney had become one of the world's major producers of films
for cinema and television. As Disney Productions grew its founder retained complete artistic
control of the films and he also (40) ..................... to publish books for children and cartoon
strips in newspapers, featuring such characters as Donald duck and Pluto the dog.
36. A. Because B. In spite of C. Although D. Even
37. A. partnership B. friendship C. relationship D. membership
38. A. case B. account C. view D. regard
39. A. seen B. released C. circulated D. advertised
40. A. took in B. put on C. pushed up D. went on

Đáp án:

36.C 37.A 38.B 39.B 40.D

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36
to 40.

Stressful situations that emerge almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable. However,
we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which
may(36)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the
(37)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, deally, put a brave face on it
trying to bear the burden. Can you (38)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic
jam, say, this morning? Do you light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn
every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a different stance and make
good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful
moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose
a menu for your Sunday dinner. In fact, whatever way you (39)________ to the annoying
situation, you can exert no impact on it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due course.
Nevertheless, your reaction might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day.
The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and
sensibility adds much more strain to your life and in this way puts your well – being in
jeopardy. Surprisingly, it is seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run
double the risk of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies
however painful they may be. (40)_______that so many of those wretched stresses and
inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to avoid them or possibly make
radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
Question 36: A. befall B. arise C. occur D. happen
Question 37: A. post B. bottom C. wall D. roof
Question 38: A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
Question 39: A. deal B. challenge C. strike D. respond
Question 40: A. Hence B. As much C. Providing D. Given

ANSWER KEY

36 A
37 D
38 A
39 D
40 D
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36
to 40.

It only requires the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole
host of hereditary disease to be eradicated. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would
take until the beginning of the 21st century to be ___________ (36). At present, it is clear
that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to extremes to
help unravel the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope for
__________(37) mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis.
The progress in this incredible undertaking is conditioned by an accurate
interpretation of the information contained in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the
cells in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may _________(38)
implausible an assignment, but very considerable headway has already been made. What
will you know my now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some of which may
be diseased and ________ (39) to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from
parents to their children? Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last
for a few years more, notions like gene therapy or genetic engineering don't evoke much
surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been _________ (40) in the
effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The
hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies that humanity is plagued with at the present
might eventually cease to exist in the not too distant future.

36. A. accomplished B. discharged C. dismantled D. exterminated

37. A. liberating B. surviving C. insulating D. averting
38. A. sound B. hear C. voice D. perceive
39. A. amiable B. conceivable C. evocative D. conducive
40. A. examined B. inquired C. accounted D. corroborated

ANSWER KEY

36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36
to 40.
Word-of-mouth success – what publishers dream of
“Word of mouth”, a phrase (36) first appeared in Shakespeare’s play Twelfth
Night, is the kind of publicity all publishers want for their books. Positive reviews are useful,
but it’s only when lots of people start talking about a book that it really makes it sales-
wise.Word of mouth is what lay behind the initial success of JK Rowling’s Harry Potter
books, for example.
Some publishers will go to (37) lengths to stimulate the phenomenon. Years ago,
one company paid its own staff to read books published by the company whenever they
travelled on public transport. The thinking was that the bright yellow covers would stand out
and become the subject of casual conversations among passengers, which would in turn
boost sales.
With the (38) of social networking, creating word of mouth has almost
become a science. (39) , despite Twitter, Facebook and the rest, publishers still find it
as difficult as ever to generate that (40) thing, a viral conversation about a new book that
persuades lots of people to buy it. It still seems to be unclear what the key to achieving word
of mouth is.
(Adapted from exam essentials practice test –
CAE 2)

Question 36: A. that B. when C. where D. why

Question 37: A. few B. any C. several D. much
Question 38: A. opening B. outset C. entrance D. advent
Question 39: A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Additionally
Question 40: A. elusive B. remote C. hidden D. isolated

Đáp án:

36. A 37.C 38. D 39. A 40. A

Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36
to 40.
Most people associate learning with formal education at school, college, university etc. We are
all told, from an early age, that we should get a good education'.
It is true that a formal education and the resulting qualifications are important. Education may
maximize our (36) _______ to find better, more satisfying jobs, earn more and perhaps, become
more successful in our chosen career.
However, 'schooling' is only one type of learning. There are many (37) _______ opportunities
to further your knowledge and develop the skills you need throughout life. Knowledge can be (38)
_______ and skill sets developed anywhere - learning is unavoidable and happens all the time.
However, lifelong learning is about creating and maintaining a positive attitude to learning both for
personal and professional development.
Lifelong learning can enhance our understanding of the world around us, provide us with more
and better opportunities and improve our quality of life. Lifelong learners are people (39) _______
are self- motivated to learn and develop because they want to.
There is a common view that continuous learning and having an active mind throughout life
may delay or halt the progress of some forms of dementia. Keeping the brain active has advantages
(40) _______ advantages learning can prevent you from becoming bored and thus enable a more
fulfilling life at any age.
36. A. achievement B. foundation C. background D. potential
37. A. another B. every C. other D. others
38. A. denied B. tested C. required D. acquired
39. A. when B. who C. which D. what
40. A. although B. but C. so D. because

Đáp án:

36.D 37.C 38.D 39.B 40.D

Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
41 to 45.

Tourism, the activities of persons traveling to and staying in places outside their
usual environment for not more than one consecutive year for leisure, business, and other
purposes, is a major source of income for many countries. (41) _____, tourism plays a
crucial role in the economy of many regions. With numerous tourist destinations,
attractions, and experiences, planning a trip could become overwhelming for individuals.
Hence, travel advisors can step in (42) _____.
Moreover, understanding tourism also helps individuals appreciate the diversity and
richness of different cultures and natural beauty. Once individuals are guided to explore
various tourist destinations and the experiences they offer, they can develop strategies to
make the most of their trips. Thus, individuals are more likely to (43) _____.
In addition, providing information about tourism is the professional service that must
be provided by travel agencies. (44) ______ individuals often rely on online reviews,
leading to a limited understanding of the destination. As a result, the importance of
professional travel advice must not be overlooked.
To sum up, with the rapid changes in global travel trends, though planning a trip has
become more complex, (45)______.
41: A. Consequently B. Primarily C. Evidently D. Positively
42: A. to help individuals plan their trips effectively
B. to provide unbiased assessments of different tourist destinations
C. to encourage individuals to visit the most popular tourist spots
D. to use their expertise to guide individuals on their travel journey
43: A. face challenges in their travel planning
B. be assigned tasks irrelevant to their travel plans
C. navigate potential challenges in their travel
D. plan trips that meet their needs and interests
44: A. Where formal travel advice is not easily accessible
B. While travel advisors provide insights into travel trends
C. Though chances of finding a suitable travel advisor are quite small
D. If travel agencies raise awareness and understanding of tourism
45: A. travel advice empowers individuals to make informed decisions about their trips
B. numerous individuals struggle with travel confusion, finding themselves not
reaching their potential
C. travel advice might be needed to clear the confusion and distractions along the
way
D. travelers may feel comfortable discussing their travel challenges with travel
advisors

Đáp án:

41.A 42.A 43.D 44.B 45.A

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the
correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.
Walt Disney was an American animator, film producer, and entrepreneur. He was born on
December 5, 1901, in Chicago, Illinois. As a child, (41) ________. He began drawing cartoons for his
school newspaper and later created his first animation, "Alice's Wonderland," in 1923.
In 1928, Disney created the character of Mickey Mouse, (42) ________. Over the next few years,
Disney produced a series of successful animated shorts, including "Steamboat Willie" and "The Three
Little Pigs."
In the 1930s, (43) ________, Disney created his first full-length animated feature, "Snow White
and the Seven Dwarfs." The film was a huge success and established Disney as a major force in the
entertainment industry.
Over the next few decades, (44) ________, including "Pinocchio," "Dumbo," "Bambi," and
"Cinderella." He also expanded his empire to include theme parks, television, and live-action films.
Disney passed away on December 15, 1966, (45) ________. He is remembered as a pioneer of
animation and a visionary entrepreneur who brought joy and entertainment to millions of people
around the world. His company, the Walt Disney Company, continues to produce popular films,
television shows, and theme park attractions.
(Adapted fromhttps://en.wikipedia.org.)
41: A. he read many books about communist and achievements
B. learning about poem and poetry was his hobby
C. Disney was fascinated by drawing and animation
D. battle and military was Disney’s field of interest
42:
A. who became an instant success
B. that turned into an instant success
C. which was being his greatest success
D. whose success was the instant
43:
A. while they are developing the animation industry
B. while the animation industry was developing
C. when the animation industry developed
D. when they focused on developing animation industry
44:
A. many classic animated films were being produced by Disney
B. Disney was producing many classic animated films
C. many classic animated films was produced by Disney
D. Disney produced many classic animated films
45:
A. so his legacy lived on B. therefore the legacy of his lives on
C. but his legacy lives on D. however his legacy continues

ANSWER KEY

41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the
correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.
41: C. Disney was fascinated by drawing and animation
Dựavàonghĩađểchọn:
A. ông ấy đọc nhiều sách về cộng sản và những thành tựu
B. học về thơ và thơ là sở thích của ông ấy
C. Disney bị mê hoặc bởi hội họa và hoạt hình
D. chiến đấu và quân sự là lĩnh vực được Disney quan tâm
Walt Disney was an American animator, film producer, and entrepreneur. He was born on December
5, 1901, in Chicago, Illinois. As a child, Disney was fascinated by drawing and animation. He began
drawing cartoons for his school newspaper and later created his first animation, “Alice’s
Wonderland,” in 1923.
=>Walt Disney là một nhà làm phim hoạt hình, nhà sản xuất phim và doanh nhân người Mỹ. Ông
sinh ngày 5 tháng 12 năm 1901 tại Chicago, Illinois. Khi còn nhỏ, Disney rất thích vẽ và hoạt hình.
Ông bắt đầu vẽ tranh hoạt hình cho tờ báo của trường và sau đó tạo ra phim hoạt hình đầu tiên của
mình, “Xứ sở thần tiên của Alice” vào năm 1923.
42:A. who became an instant success
B. that turned into an instant success (saivìsaudấuphẩykhôngdùng “that”)
C.which was being his greatest success(saingữpháp, khôngdùng “was being”)
D. whose success was the instant (“the character of Mickey Mouse” – nhânvật Mickey Mouse
=>khôngdùngđạitừ “whose” được =>sai)
43:A. while they are developing the animation industry
B. while the animation industry was developing
C. when the animation industry developed
D. when they focused on developing animation industry
Hànhđộngđangxảyrathìhànhđộngkhác xen vào: “In the 1930s, while the animation industry was
developing, Disney created his first full-length animated feature…”
=>Vào những năm 1930, khi ngành công nghiệp hoạt hình đang phát triển, Disney đã tạo ra bộ phim
hoạt hình dài tập đầu tiên của mình…
44: A. many classic animated films were being produced by Disney
B. Disney was producing many classic animated films
C. many classic animated films was produced by Disney
D. Disney produced many classic animated films
“Over the next few decades” =>dùngthì QKĐ =>loại A và B; C saivì films phảidùng “were”
45: A. so his legacy lived on B. therefore the legacy of his lives on
C. but his legacy lives on D. however his legacy continues
Theo nghĩacủacâu, 2 vếmang ý nghĩatươngphản =>chọn C (D saicáchdùngcủa however)
Disney passed away on December 15, 1966, but his legacy lives on. (Disney qua đờivàongày 15
tháng 12 năm 1966, nhưng di sảncủaôngvẫncòntồntại.)

Tạmdịch:
Walt Disney là một nhà làm phim hoạt hình, nhà sản xuất phim và doanh nhân người
Mỹ. Ông sinh ngày 5 tháng 12 năm 1901 tại Chicago, Illinois. Khi còn nhỏ, Disney rất thích vẽ và
hoạt hình. Ông bắt đầu vẽ tranh hoạt hình cho tờ báo của trường và sau đó tạo ra phim hoạt hình đầu
tiên của mình, "Xứ sở thần tiên của Alice" vào năm 1923.
Năm 1928, Disney đã tạo ra nhân vật chuột Mickey và nhân vật này đã thành công ngay
lập tức. Trong vài năm tiếp theo, Disney đã sản xuất một loạt phim hoạt hình ngắn thành công, bao
gồm "Steamboat Willie" và "The Three Little Pigs".
Vào những năm 1930, khi ngành công nghiệp hoạt hình đang phát triển, Disney đã tạo
ra bộ phim hoạt hình dài tập đầu tiên của mình, "Bạch Tuyết và bảy chú lùn". Bộ phim đã thành công
rực rỡ và đưa Disney trở thành một thế lực lớn trong ngành giải trí.
 Trong vài thập kỷ tiếp theo, Disney đã sản xuất nhiều bộ phim hoạt hình kinh điển, bao
gồm “Pinocchio”, “Dumbo”, “Bambi” và “Cinderella”. Ông cũng mở rộng đế chế của mình sang bao
gồm các công viên giải trí, truyền hình và phim người thật đóng.
Disney qua đời vào ngày 15 tháng 12 năm 1966, nhưng di sản của ông vẫn còn tồn tại.
Ông được nhớ đến như người tiên phong trong lĩnh vực hoạt hình và là một doanh nhân có tầm nhìn,
người đã mang lại niềm vui và sự giải trí cho hàng triệu người trên khắp thế giới. Công ty của ông,
Công ty Walt Disney, tiếp tục sản xuất các bộ phim, chương trình truyền hình nổi tiếng và các điểm
tham quan trong công viên giải trí.
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
41 to 45.
The issues for emerging economies are a little more straightforward. The desire to build on
undeveloped land _____(41)____, but is a result of the relentless march of progress. Cheap
labour and a relatively highly-skilled workforce make these countries highly competitive
and there is a flood of inward investment, particularly from multinationals looking to take
advantage of the low wages before the cost and standard of living begin to rise.
______(42)______ are making many Asian economies extremely attractive when viewed as
investment opportunities at the moment. Similarly, in Africa, the relative abundance of
precious metals and natural resources tends to attract a lot of exploration companies and a
whole sub-industry develops around and is completely dependent on this foreign-direct
investment. It is understandable that countries that are the focus of this sort of attention can
______(43)_____the environmental implications of large-scale industrial development, and
this can have devastating consequences for the natural world. And it is a vicious cycle
because the more industrially active a nation becomes, the greater the demand for and
harvesting of natural resources. For some, the environmental issues, though they can hardly
be ignored, are viewed as a peripheral concern. Indeed, having an environmental conscience
or taking environmental matters into consideration_____(44)_____ whether or not to build
rubber-tree plantations or grow biofuel crops would be quite prohibitive in. For those
involved in such schemes it is a pretty black-and-white issue. And, for vast tracts of land in
Latin America, for example, it is clear that the welfare of the rainforests _____(45)_____ to
local government when vast sums of money can be made from cultivating the land.
(Adapted from IELTSMerterial.com)
41. A. is not born out of desperation or necessity
B. is developed from hardness and desperation
C. hardly causes poverty or hardness
C. is not independent of desperation and poverty

42. A. It is factors that B. It is factors such as these that

C. The factors that D. There are factors that

43. A. lose sight of B. make use of

C. result in D. get over

44. A. when we manage to run on B. when it comes to decisions on

C. when we try to take over C. when we bring it under control over

45. A. matters little B. makes difference

C. causes troubles D. facilitates anything

ANSWER KEY

41 A 42 B 43 A 44 B 45 A
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
41 to 45.
(41) ______ in the way people's lives are affected by IT. Twenty years ago, few
people had access to a computer while today most people use them at work, home or school
and use of e-mail and the Internet is an everyday event.
(42) ______. E-mail makes communication much easier and more immediate. This
has numerous benefits for business, commerce, and education. The World Wide Web means
that information on every conceivable subject is now available to us. Clearly, for many
people this has (43) ______and more convenient.
However, not all the effects of the new technology have been beneficial. Many
people feel that the widespread use of e-mail is destroying traditional forms of
communication such as letter writing, telephone and face-to-face conversation. With ever
increasing use of information technology (44) ______ are likely to increase in the future.
In addition, the huge size of the Web means it is almost impossible to control and
regulate. This has led to these negative elements. Yet perhaps the biggest threat to IT in
years to come will be the computer virus -more sophisticated or more destructive strains are
almost inevitable.
In conclusion, developments in IT have brought many benefits, yet I believe (45)
______ in the future are likely to produce many negative effects that will need to be
addressed very carefully.
Question 41:
A. The last two decades have seen enormous changes
B. Many enormous changes were seen in the last two decades
C. People saw enormous changes in the last two decades
D. In the last two decades, we had to experience enormous changes
Question 42:
A. A lot of advantages we have received so far
B. People have received so many breakthroughs so far
C. These developments have brought many benefits to our lives
D. Many benefits are being brought for our lives
Question 43:
A. made much easier life B. made life much easier
C. to make life much easier D. to make much easier life
Question 44:
A. many concerns that children accessing unsuitable websites
B. regarding many concerns children accessing unsuitable websites
C. many concerns regarding children accessing unsuitable websites
D. accessing unsuitable websites of many concerns regarding children
Question 45:
A. the new technology development B. relating to new technological developments
C. to new technological developments D. developments relating to new technology

Đáp án:

41.A 42.C 43.B 44. B 45.D

Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
41 to 45.

Different relationships affect teenagers in various ways. Friends impact teenagers (41)
_______ .Teenagers go to their friends for help or to ask questions that they could not ask
their parents about. Most of the time their friends give them good advice. In most cases they
tell their friends how to dress and act (42)_______ .Love relationships just make it even
harder for a teenager to get a good education. Some start to fail in school (43)
_______ .Parents have a big influence on teenagers because their children look up to them
and the majority of them grow up to act and (44) _______ things just like their parents did
with them. Children (45) _______may have lower achievements than children brought up in
an intact family.As previously stated, teenagers are affected by many relationships which
involve their friends, family, and their love relationships. The relationships affect them so
much that most people teenagers their ideas about how they should live their lives in a
different way and to change their future goals. They should be influenced to help themselves
or to help others.
41. A. almost the same amount as their parents
B. most the amount as their parents
C. same amount as their parents
D. more all of their parents as
42. A. that around certain people.
B. around certain people.
C. when being around certain people.
D. which is around certain people.
43. A. although they are hanging out with their boyfriend or girlfriend instead of doing their
work.
B. because they are hanging out with their boyfriend or girlfriend instead of doing their
work.
C. they are hanging in with their boyfriend or girlfriend instead of doing their work.
D. and they are hanging out for their boyfriend or girlfriend instead of doing their work.

44. A. to be done B. do C. being done D. doing

45.A. who will experience a family break-up

B. who have experienced a family break-up
C. whom have experienced a family break-up
D. who has experienced a family break-up

Đáp án:

41.A 42.C 43.B 44.B 45.B

Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phrase or to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.

Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the
ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say
that it is simply something a person is born with. (46) ____________ that the potential for
great achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere (47)____________.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will
increase a child’s ability to do well. (48)________. As one psychologist says, “to have a fast
car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of
identical twins that were separated shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They
found that achievement was (49)______, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received
(50)__________, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by
extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities.
That twin, though (51)_________ as the other, performed even better.
(52)____________. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence
and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and
socioeconomic level of a child’s family. (53)__________, it does not matter how poor or
how rich a family is, as this does not affect the intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them.
One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years
earlier than ordinary performers, (54)_________. These musicians then (55)_______ the
level they were capable of attaining.
Adapted from IELTSMerterial.com
46. A. Moreover, most people disagree B. Therefore, people often deny
C. Whereas, some admit D. However, others argue
47. A. through the way we live B. during our different life processes.
C. between these two extremes. D. in reality
48. A. Hence, assessment of intelligence is one of the essential criteria for the
identification of gifted and talented students.
B. Moreover, an individual can continue to experience well-being at an older age.
C. Therefore, it is possible to notice the correlation between intellectual abilities and
upbringing.
D. This ability, however, will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and
opportunities.
49. A. kept off the record B. based on intelligence
C. put on the line D. nurtured by nature
50. A. a normal upbringing B. upbringing normally
C. an ordinary rearing D. rearing ordinarily
51. A. starting out with the same degree of intelligence
B. suffering from emotional or behavioral problems
C. growing up together
 D. looking at more specific abilities
52. A. It is suggested that the correlations between parenting and intellectual abilities
differed in boys and girls.
B. This shows a significant relation between ability and genes.
C. This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability.
D. It is shown that parenting influences the development of children in various ways.
53. A. For instance B. In other words C. On the contrary D. To some extent
54. A. often because their parents had recognized their ability
B. when assessing their intellectual abilities and developmental problems
C. as parenting influenced the development of children in various ways.
D. since parents continued to have a strong influence on children
55. A. played a greater importance to determine
B. spent a considerable amount of time on
C. needed at least ten years’ hard work and training to reach
D. required an unlimited time to complete

Đáp án:

46. D 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. A 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phraseor to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.
With the proliferation of the coronavirus escalating alarmingly _____(46) ______, many of
us are contemplating methods to engage socially without leaving our abodes. Although this
scenario may appear ______(47) _____ to numerous individuals, there exist thousands who
continuously establish enduring and profound connections from the comfort of their homes
via online gaming. Virtually all contemporary video games possess dedicated gaming
communities where players can engage socially, and these elements are profoundly
_____(48)______ by the majority of gamers. These aspects serve as the primary _____(49)
______ for engagement, particularly in games that accommodate vast numbers of players
interacting on the same expansive server, termed "massively multiplayer online games."
Over the last three decades, gaming has evolved to become more social, and numerous
players have _____(50) ______ with individuals they encounter online. A remarkable
observation is the narrowing gender _____(51) ______ among gamers, with 46%
identifying as female (average age 34) and 54% as male (average age 32). Another
significant finding is that 63% of gamers engage with others, and many players derive social
_____(52) ______ from their gaming communities. Furthermore, other research suggests
that there appears to be no substantial _____(53) ______ in the quality of friendships
between gamers and non-gamers.
Gaming frequently attracts negative media attention, focusing on the minority ____(54)
______, a phenomenon known as "gaming disorders." _____(55)_____. Hence, if you find
yourself among those sequestered during lockdown, engaging online and connecting with
innumerable individuals in the gaming community might be the ideal approach to
maintaining social tiessolution you are seeking.
46.
A. reaching critical levels B. becoming a serious threat
C. posing significant risks D. turning into a global crisis
47.
A. unprecedented in our lifetime B. unlike anything seen before
C. entirely new to many people D. a novel experience for most
48.
A. deeply valued and appreciated B. held in high regard
C. considered extremely important D. seen as crucial for engagement
49.
A. reasons why people play B. motivations behind participation
C. driving forces for involvement D. key factors for engagement
50.
A. built long-lasting friendships B. formed enduring connections
C. developed meaningful relationships D. established strong bonds
51.
A. gap is decreasing rapidly B. divide is becoming smaller
C. disparity is reducing significantly D. difference is shrinking notably
52.
A. support and encouragement B. validation and affirmation
C. reinforcement and comfort D. backing and assistance
53.
A. difference in relationship quality B. gap in friendship satisfaction
C. disparity in the depth of connections D. divergence in the strength of bonds
54.
A. who play occasionally for fun
B. who engage excessively to the detriment of their personal lives
C. who enjoy balanced and healthy gaming habits
D. who rarely play games and lack interest in them
55.
A. Despite the drawbacks, it is important to recognize that gaming can be harmful
B. However, it is crucial to acknowledge that millions of gamers partake daily, valuing the
myriad positives it provides
C. While some may argue against it, gaming is seen as a waste of time by many
D. Nevertheless, it is vital to remember that not everyone finds gaming beneficial

ANSWER KEY

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phraseor to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.

46. A 47. A 48. A 49. A 50. B 51. A 52. A 53. A 54. B 55.B
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phraseor to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.
____(46)____think that their dream job is too hard and competitive to achieve, and
believe that it is all ___(47)_____. All this is true actually, but why should that stop
anyone from trying to get the job they really want? A really determined person will always
succeed and, in many ways, needs other people to give up trying so that he or she can
succeed.
Many job seekers ___(48)_____ made at college or university. They may think that
because they studied marketing, all they can ever do is work in marketing. All the evidence
shows that, in fact, employers are less interested in acquired knowledge than the ability to
think and learn. It is also very difficult to predict the needs of society. The needs of
employers and the economy can change very quickly, and often unexpectedly.
Of course, ___(49)____, it is hard to find employment straight after university, but it is
by no means impossible. It might take several months longer to find a job after graduating,
but ______50____. Never think about the other people going for the same jobs. It
____(51)____ to compare your progress to your peers, but perhaps the best advice would
be to try not to. Be focused on what you want and how you are going to get it. After all, it
may appear that a friend who has a really well-paid job is doing well, but how do you
know what their job is actually like? They may ____(52)____, have an unreasonable boss,
or be stressed out trying to meet unrealistic targets.
Have a plan in place, ____(53)_____. Have both short-term and long-term aims. Always
think that with hard work, dedication, a willingness to put youself out and a bit of luck, you
could get your dream job. A really key piece of advice is never to get downhearted by
rejection because there will probably be a lot. You can achieve your dream job, whatever it
is. You must never give up. Prepared to work hard and for long hours _____(54)_____.
There is a lot to be said for lecqcarning your 'trade' from the bottom up. At the start, there
will probably be little money, but it will be worth it in the end. The best jobs are not
supposed to be easy- that is what makes them challenging. And if you like a challenge, just
____(55)____ and go for it.
(Adapted from Objective by Felicity O'Dell and Annie Broadhead)

46. A. What people may think B. Many people believing

C. A majority of people think D. There is a group of people who think

47. A. a problem of luck B. a matter of luck

C. a stroke of luck D. about luck

48. A. feel limited by the choices they B. think limited choices were
C. are in two minds about choices they D. choose to do what they

49. A. unless a tough time economically exists

B. if it is a very tough time economically
C. economically tough period is synonymous with the fact that
D. providing that an economically tough moment is happening
50. A. there is work out there B. out there is work
C. work is out there D. your work is out there

51. A. is human nature B. boils down to human instict

C. may be human nature D. is naturally humane

52. A. be working 12-hour days B. be 12-hour working days

C. work 12 hours day to day D. be 12 hours of day work

53. A. although it is a sketchy one B. even if it is a sketchy one

C. however sketchy it is D. regardless of being sketchy

54. A. to prepare for the upcoming career ladder

B. with a view to upstairing the career ladder
C. without necessarily climbing up the career ladder
D. before moving to the next career ladder

55. A. make up your mind B. keep your head down

C. keep your head above water D. keep calm

ANSWER KEY

46C 47B 48A 49B 50A 51C 52A 53B 54C 55B
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Câu hỏi:

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phrase or to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.
(46)___________, particularly frogs and toads, are becoming extinct faster than scientists
can determine the causes. At the Third World Congress of Herpetology, held in Prague in
August, (47)___________. Serious declines and several probable extinctions have been
reported from the Pacific North West of America, from Central America and from Western
Australia. While most amphibian declines around the world are attributable to habitat
destruction (48)_________, some species (but not all) have declined rapidly in nature
reserves, national parks and other areas (49) ___________.
Karen Lips, of the Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute in Panama, has found large
numbers of dead and (50)___________. The disease which has killed them seems to be
moving southwards through the mountains of Central America. One symptom is a
thickening of the skin, (51) _________. This appears to be caused by a protozoan parasite. A
similar organism may also be responsible for the deaths of thousands of frogs in the
mountains of Queensland, Australia. Urgent research is under way (52) _______.
Typically, herpetologists have had to respond to these declines (53)_______. Now, recent
work by Ross Alford, of James Cook University, Australia, has suggested one way to detect
(54)_____________; measure a frog’s limbs. His study has shown that fluctuating
asymmetry (random variation in the size of paired structures on the left and right side of the
body) increases in the limbs of frogs (55) _____.
(Adapted from exam essentials practice test – CAE 2)
Question 46
A. Many of the world’s amphibians B. Many of world amphibians
C. Much of the world’s amphibians D. Many of the world amphision
Question 47
A. it became clear that the phenomenon is not a global one
B. it became clear that the phenomenon is a global one
C. it became clearly that the phenomenon is not a global one
D. it became clear that phenomenon is not a global one
Question 48: A. all in these three areas B. all in three these areas
C. in all three these areas D. in all these three areas
Question 49: A. to set aside for the protection of biodiversity
B. set aside for the protection of biodiversity
C. setting aside for the protection of biodiversity
D. are set aside for the protection of biodiversity
Question 50 A. dying frogs along streams
B. died frogs along streams
C. frogs was died along streams
D. Along stream frogs
Question 51: A. to smother the frog effectively
B. this effectively smothers the frog
C. which effectively smothers the frog
D. effectively smothered the frog
 Question 52: A. to determine if this is indeed the case
B. as to determining if this indeed is the case.
C. and determine if it is indeed the case
D. to determine if it indeed is the case
Question 53: A. when it occurred B. just as they occur
C. after they have occurred D. as soon as this occurred
Question 54:
A. early on decline B. declining on early
C. decrease on declining D. a decline early on
Question 55:
A. so their population size declines
B. as well as the declination in their size
C. in spite of the declination in their size
D. as their population size declines

Đáp án:

46. A 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. A 51. C 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. B
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct phrase or to complete each of the numbered blanks from 46 to
55.
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to
the most parched deserts, (46)_________ and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals
and insects which we see all around us, (47)________ include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as
woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn’t forget
the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened.
(48)____________, including breathing and reproduction. (49)____________, a good number of
thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and
returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. (50)_______________, on the way to
extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and
dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the
full marine habits of their remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still
breathe air, (51)______________ to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the
sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air.
(52)_____________, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs,
for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
(53)_____________ all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived
before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and
Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, (54)_____________ to the ancestry of all
modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in
water, especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian
contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they
surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. (55)____________ is by
measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
46. A. took the blood with their own seawater
B. taking their own private seawater with them in blood
C. and took their own blood with seawater
D. where they took their own private seawater in blood

47. A. the groups that have succeeded in moving out of water

B. the successful groups that have moved out of water
C. some groups that have been successfully out of water
D. other groups that have succeeded out of water

48. A. Many aspects of life have been involved in moving to land

B. Various kinds of land lives have resulted from moving from water to land
C. Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life
D. Moving out of water has made various kinds of life

49. A. Nevertheless B. In other way

C. After a time D. When coming to land

50. A. They might have showed us what they are

B. They show us what the intermediates might have been like
C. They immediately show us what they have been like
 D. They show us the class they may belong to

51. A. some parts of their body have developed

B. they have something suitable
C. having never developed anything equivalent
D. which has been developed

52. A. However B. Surely C. Eventually D. lately

53. A. In terms of evolution, B. The fact that

C. Scientists have said that D. There is evidence that

54. A. closely in relating B. which appear to be close

C. when things seem closed D. coming back

55. A. One way to tell B. How the facts only known

C. What to do D. Obviously, it

46 B
47 D
48 C
49 A
50 B
51 C
52 A
53 D
54 B
55 A
Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live
in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient
cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned
urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure,
potential water crises, and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can
only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas
continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how
well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets,
infrastructure, and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will
have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.

Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic,

cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective,
enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate
of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more
environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people
can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid
urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the
prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But
rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if
planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result
may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's
urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and
creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting
challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate
change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be
managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
46. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
47. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
58. What does the author mean by stating: “But rapidly increasing population density
can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to
cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
 widespread poverty.”
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization causes the problem of overpopulation in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can lead to more unemployment.
59. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
60. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design

Đáp án:

56.D 57. A 58. A 59.A 60.B

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Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
Mickey Mouse was not Walt Disney’s first successful cartoon creation, but he is certainly
his famous one. It was on a cross-country train trip from New York to California in 1927
that Disney first drew the mouse with the big ears. Supposedly, he took his inspiration
from the tame field mice that used to scamper into his old studio in Kansas City. No one is
quite sure why he dressed the mouse in the now-familiar shorts with two buttons and gave
him the yellow shoes. But we do know that Disney had intended to call him Mortimer until
his wife Lillian intervened and christened him Mickey Mouse.
Capitalizing on the interest in Charles Lindsborg, Disney planned Mickey’s debut in the
short cartoon Plane Crazy, with Minnie as a co-star. In the third short cartoon, Steamboat
Willie, Mickey was whistling and singing through the miracle of the modern soundtrack.
By the 1930s Mickey’s image had circled the globe. He was a superstar at the height of his
career.
Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his lifetime, most notably the
addition of white gloves and the alterations to achieve the rounder forms of a more childish
body, he has remained true to his nature since those first cartoons. Mickey is appealing
because he is nice. He may get into trouble, but he takes it on the chin with a grin. He is
both good-natured and resourceful. Perhaps that was Disney’s own image of himself. Why
else would he have insisted on doing Mickey’s voice in all the cartoons for twenty years?
When interviewed, he would say: “There is a lot of the mouse in me.” And that mouse
has remained one of the most pervasive images in American popular culture.
(Source: English Test, Problems’ Center, 2009)
56. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The image ofMickeyMouse B. The life of WaltDisney
C. The historyofcartoons D. The definition of Americanculture
57. What distinguished Steamboat Willie from earlier cartoons?
A.Better color B. A soundtrack
C. Minnie Mouseasco-star D. The longer format
58. What did Disney mean when he said, “There is a lot of mouse in me”?
A. He was proud of the mouse that hecreated.
B. He knew that the mouse would be a famouscreation.
C. He created the mouse with many of his ownqualities.
D. He had worked very hard to create themouse.
59. The first image of Mickey Mouse is described as all of the following EXCEPT
A. He was dressed in shorts withtwobuttons. B. He had bigears.
C. He woreyellowshoes. D. He was wearing whitegloves.
60. The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses
A. the historyofcartoons B. other images of popularculture
C. WaltDisney’schildhood D. the voices of cartooncharacters
ANSWER KEY
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

56. A 57. B 58. C 59. D 60. D

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830's, was a powerful agent
of mass communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in length,
written for the mass taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the conservative
press, with its emphasis on political and literary topics. The new papers were brief and cheap,
emphasizing sensational reports of police courts and juicy scandals as well as human interest
stories. Twentieth-century journalism was already foreshadowed in the penny press of the
1830's.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was
followed two years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long
after, Horace Greeley issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most
influential paper in America. Greeley gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American
people before the Civil War — abolitionism, temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative
settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the Tribune, with 100,000
subscribers, had a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An English
observer enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in Great Britain
was enough to reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly; Pennsylvania in that same
year had a newspaper circulation which reached one out of every four inhabitants weekly. Statistics
seemed to justify the common belief that Americans were devoted to periodicals. Newspapers in the
United States increased from 1,200 in 1833 to 3,000 by the early 1860' s, on the eve of the Civil
War. This far exceeded the number and circulation of newspapers in England and France.

56. What is the author's main point in the first paragraph?

A. The penny press was modeled on earlier papers.
B. The press in the nineteenth century reached only a small proportion of the population.
C. The penny press became an important way of disseminating information in the first half of the
nineteenth century.
D. The penny press focused mainly on analysis of politics.
57. What does the author mean by stating ‘Twentieth-century journalism was already
oreshadowed in the penny press of the 1830's?’
A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.
B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.
C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century newspapers.
D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.
58. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?
A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importance
D. A story about land being given away in the West
59. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant because they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
C. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War
D. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
60. It can be inferred that penny-press newspapers were all of the following EXCEPT
A. inexpensive B. informal C. profitable D. thorough
ANSWER KEY
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

56 C
57 D
58 C
59 D
60 D
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as they cannot
utilize free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems, nitrogen must be
combined with oxygen or hydrogen to form compounds such as ammonia or nitrates that
plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process
involving high pressure and high temperature. This process is called nitrogen fixation.
Martinus Willem Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a considerable amount of
energy. There are three processes that are responsible for most of the nitrogen fixation in the
biosphere. They are atmospheric fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation.
Atmospheric fixation occurs through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where
energy breaks down nitrogen molecules and enables then atoms to combine with oxygen in
the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy in rain, forming nitrates, that are then
carried to earth.
In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of microorganisms.
Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial enzymes called nitrogenase.
More than 90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-
fixing microorganisms: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria.
Microorganisms that fix nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy
source if they are non-photosynthetic. However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize
light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply little fixed nitrogen to agricultural crops,
whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacterias live close to plant roots and can obtain
energy materials from the plants.
The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hairs of plants. Here they multiply
the formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells and bacteria in close
proximity. Within the nodules, die bacteria convert the free nitrogen to nitrates, which the
plant makes use of for its development.
To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of legumes
(beans, clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated, particularly in poor soils where
bacteria is lacking. This system is the most important for agriculture as manv legumes
are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing
nitrogen to the farming system or as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are
also a significant source of protein primarily for the developing world.
Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this method,
atmospheric nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form ammonia, which in turn can be
used directly as a fertilizer. It was during the early 19 th century that the importance of fixed
nitrogen to growing plants was understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture,
demand arose for nitrogen compounds to augment the natural supply present in the soil.
Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make gunpowder. This led
to a global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen compound. Toward the end of the 19 th
century, it was realized that Chilean imports would not meet future demands, and, in the
event of a major war, without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would
not be possible. Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with
nitrogen, the reaction of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct combination of
nitrogen with hydrogen. Combining oxygen and nitrogen was inefficient in its use of energy.
Both were costly and the process was abandoned. However, the Haber-Bosch process which
created ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is the most cost-effective nitrogen fixation
process known. It is named after Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch, who determined that nitrogen
from the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously high pressures and fairly
high temperatures in the presence of an active mechanism to produce an extremely high
quantity of ammonia.
Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a rapid expansion
of the construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries. This method is now one of the
leading processes of the chemical industry throughout the world.
(Adapted from Vstep Collection, 20 mock tests)
Question 56: According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living
organisms?
A. They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
B. They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate.
C. They must be absorbed by the plant to furnish its nitrogen.
D. They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen.
Question 57: The phrase breaks down in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. destroys B. discontinues C. Ceases D. decomposes
Question 58: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen
fixation?
A. Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
B. It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
C. The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
D. Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.
Question 59: Why does the author mention diazotrophs in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
B. To show how a plants roots are important for this process
C. To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
D. To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism
Question 60: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence This system is the most important for agriculture as manv
legumes are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions,
contributing nitrogen to the farming system or as green manure included in the
soil?
A. The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
B. Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
C. The farming system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground.
D. Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.
Đáp án:

56.D 57.D 58.B 59. C 60.C

Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

While many nineteenth–century reformers hoped to bring about reform through education or
by eliminating specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and remark society
by founding ideal, cooperative communities. The United States seemed to them a spacious
and unencumbered country where models of a perfect society could succeed. These
communitarian thinkers hoped their success would lead to imitation, until communities free
of crime, poverty, and other social ills would cover the land. A number of religious groups,
notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the main impetus to found model
communities came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers. Among the communitarian
philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier, and
John Humphrey Noyes. Owen, famous for his humanitarian policies as owner of several
thriving textile mills in Scotland, believed that faulty environment was to blame for human
problems and that these problems could be eliminated in a rationally planned society. In
1825, he put his principles into practice at New Harmony, Indiana. The community failed
economically after a few years but not before achieving a number of social successes.
Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never visited the United States. However, his
theories of cooperative living influenced many American through the writings of Albert
Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourierism and its self-sufficient
associations or “phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was organized in very
Northern state. The most famous were Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook Farm,
Massachusetts. An early member of the latter was the author Nathaniel Hawthorne. Noyes
founded the most enduring and probably the oddest of the utopian communities, the Oneida
Community of upstate New York. Needless to say, none of these experiments had any
lasting effects on the patterns of American society.

56. The main topic of the passage is……..

A. nineteen-century schools. B. American reformers
C. the philosophy of Fourierism D. model communities in the nineteenth.
57. Which of the following is not given in the passage as one of the general goals of
communitarian philosophers?
A. To remake society
B. To spread their ideas throughout the United State
C. To establish ideal communities
D. To create opportunities through education.
58. The Shakers are mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of…….
A. a communal religious group B. radical reformers
C. rationalistic thinkers D. an influential group of writers.
59. Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne in paragraph two?
A. He founded Brook Farm in Massachusetts.
B. He was a critic of Charles Fourier.
C. He wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities.
D. He was at one time a member of the Brook Farm community.
60. To which of the following is the sentence “Among the communitarian philosophers,
three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier, and John Humphrey
Noyes”.: in the last paragraph closest in meaning?
A. They were the people who had the greatest influence on communist
B. They were the people who were inhumanitarian policies
C. They were the people who had no influence on communist
D. They were blame for faulty enviroment problem

Đáp án:

56.D 57. C 58. A 59.D 60.A

Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live
in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient
cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned
urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure,
potential water crises, and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can
only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas
continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how
well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets,
infrastructure, and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will
have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.

Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic,

cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective,
enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate
of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more
environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people
can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid
urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the
prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But
rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if
planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result
may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's
urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and
creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting
challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate
change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be
managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
46. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
47. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
58. What does the author mean by stating: “But rapidly increasing population density
can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to
cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
 widespread poverty.”
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization causes the problem of overpopulation in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can lead to more unemployment.
59. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
60. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design

Đáp án:

56.D 57. A 58. A 59.A 60.B

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
Mickey Mouse was not Walt Disney’s first successful cartoon creation, but he is certainly
his famous one. It was on a cross-country train trip from New York to California in 1927
that Disney first drew the mouse with the big ears. Supposedly, he took his inspiration
from the tame field mice that used to scamper into his old studio in Kansas City. No one is
quite sure why he dressed the mouse in the now-familiar shorts with two buttons and gave
him the yellow shoes. But we do know that Disney had intended to call him Mortimer until
his wife Lillian intervened and christened him Mickey Mouse.
Capitalizing on the interest in Charles Lindsborg, Disney planned Mickey’s debut in the
short cartoon Plane Crazy, with Minnie as a co-star. In the third short cartoon, Steamboat
Willie, Mickey was whistling and singing through the miracle of the modern soundtrack.
By the 1930s Mickey’s image had circled the globe. He was a superstar at the height of his
career.
Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his lifetime, most notably the
addition of white gloves and the alterations to achieve the rounder forms of a more childish
body, he has remained true to his nature since those first cartoons. Mickey is appealing
because he is nice. He may get into trouble, but he takes it on the chin with a grin. He is
both good-natured and resourceful. Perhaps that was Disney’s own image of himself. Why
else would he have insisted on doing Mickey’s voice in all the cartoons for twenty years?
When interviewed, he would say: “There is a lot of the mouse in me.” And that mouse
has remained one of the most pervasive images in American popular culture.
(Source: English Test, Problems’ Center, 2009)
56. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The image ofMickeyMouse B. The life of WaltDisney
C. The historyofcartoons D. The definition of Americanculture
57. What distinguished Steamboat Willie from earlier cartoons?
A.Better color B. A soundtrack
C. Minnie Mouseasco-star D. The longer format
58. What did Disney mean when he said, “There is a lot of mouse in me”?
A. He was proud of the mouse that hecreated.
B. He knew that the mouse would be a famouscreation.
C. He created the mouse with many of his ownqualities.
D. He had worked very hard to create themouse.
59. The first image of Mickey Mouse is described as all of the following EXCEPT
A. He was dressed in shorts withtwobuttons. B. He had bigears.
C. He woreyellowshoes. D. He was wearing whitegloves.
60. The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses
A. the historyofcartoons B. other images of popularculture
C. WaltDisney’schildhood D. the voices of cartooncharacters
ANSWER KEY
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

56. A 57. B 58. C 59. D 60. D

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830's, was a powerful agent
of mass communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in length,
written for the mass taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the conservative
press, with its emphasis on political and literary topics. The new papers were brief and cheap,
emphasizing sensational reports of police courts and juicy scandals as well as human interest
stories. Twentieth-century journalism was already foreshadowed in the penny press of the
1830's.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was
followed two years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long
after, Horace Greeley issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most
influential paper in America. Greeley gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American
people before the Civil War — abolitionism, temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative
settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the Tribune, with 100,000
subscribers, had a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An English
observer enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in Great Britain
was enough to reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly; Pennsylvania in that same
year had a newspaper circulation which reached one out of every four inhabitants weekly. Statistics
seemed to justify the common belief that Americans were devoted to periodicals. Newspapers in the
United States increased from 1,200 in 1833 to 3,000 by the early 1860' s, on the eve of the Civil
War. This far exceeded the number and circulation of newspapers in England and France.

56. What is the author's main point in the first paragraph?

A. The penny press was modeled on earlier papers.
B. The press in the nineteenth century reached only a small proportion of the population.
C. The penny press became an important way of disseminating information in the first half of the
nineteenth century.
D. The penny press focused mainly on analysis of politics.
57. What does the author mean by stating ‘Twentieth-century journalism was already
oreshadowed in the penny press of the 1830's?’
A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.
B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.
C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century newspapers.
D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.
58. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?
A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importance
D. A story about land being given away in the West
59. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant because they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
C. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War
D. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
60. It can be inferred that penny-press newspapers were all of the following EXCEPT
A. inexpensive B. informal C. profitable D. thorough
ANSWER KEY
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

56 C
57 D
58 C
59 D
60 D
Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as they cannot
utilize free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems, nitrogen must be
combined with oxygen or hydrogen to form compounds such as ammonia or nitrates that
plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process
involving high pressure and high temperature. This process is called nitrogen fixation.
Martinus Willem Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a considerable amount of
energy. There are three processes that are responsible for most of the nitrogen fixation in the
biosphere. They are atmospheric fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation.
Atmospheric fixation occurs through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where
energy breaks down nitrogen molecules and enables then atoms to combine with oxygen in
the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy in rain, forming nitrates, that are then
carried to earth.
In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of microorganisms.
Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial enzymes called nitrogenase.
More than 90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-
fixing microorganisms: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria.
Microorganisms that fix nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy
source if they are non-photosynthetic. However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize
light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply little fixed nitrogen to agricultural crops,
whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacterias live close to plant roots and can obtain
energy materials from the plants.
The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hairs of plants. Here they multiply
the formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells and bacteria in close
proximity. Within the nodules, die bacteria convert the free nitrogen to nitrates, which the
plant makes use of for its development.
To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of legumes
(beans, clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated, particularly in poor soils where
bacteria is lacking. This system is the most important for agriculture as manv legumes
are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing
nitrogen to the farming system or as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are
also a significant source of protein primarily for the developing world.
Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this method,
atmospheric nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form ammonia, which in turn can be
used directly as a fertilizer. It was during the early 19 th century that the importance of fixed
nitrogen to growing plants was understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture,
demand arose for nitrogen compounds to augment the natural supply present in the soil.
Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make gunpowder. This led
to a global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen compound. Toward the end of the 19 th
century, it was realized that Chilean imports would not meet future demands, and, in the
event of a major war, without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would
not be possible. Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with
nitrogen, the reaction of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct combination of
nitrogen with hydrogen. Combining oxygen and nitrogen was inefficient in its use of energy.
Both were costly and the process was abandoned. However, the Haber-Bosch process which
created ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is the most cost-effective nitrogen fixation
process known. It is named after Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch, who determined that nitrogen
from the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously high pressures and fairly
high temperatures in the presence of an active mechanism to produce an extremely high
quantity of ammonia.
Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a rapid expansion
of the construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries. This method is now one of the
leading processes of the chemical industry throughout the world.
(Adapted from Vstep Collection, 20 mock tests)
Question 56: According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living
organisms?
A. They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
B. They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate.
C. They must be absorbed by the plant to furnish its nitrogen.
D. They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen.
Question 57: The phrase breaks down in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. destroys B. discontinues C. Ceases D. decomposes
Question 58: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen
fixation?
A. Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
B. It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
C. The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
D. Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.
Question 59: Why does the author mention diazotrophs in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
B. To show how a plants roots are important for this process
C. To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
D. To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism
Question 60: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence This system is the most important for agriculture as manv
legumes are then able to grow vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions,
contributing nitrogen to the farming system or as green manure included in the
soil?
A. The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
B. Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
C. The farming system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground.
D. Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.
Đáp án:

56.D 57.D 58.B 59. C 60.C

Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.

While many nineteenth–century reformers hoped to bring about reform through education or
by eliminating specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and remark society
by founding ideal, cooperative communities. The United States seemed to them a spacious
and unencumbered country where models of a perfect society could succeed. These
communitarian thinkers hoped their success would lead to imitation, until communities free
of crime, poverty, and other social ills would cover the land. A number of religious groups,
notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the main impetus to found model
communities came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers. Among the communitarian
philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier, and
John Humphrey Noyes. Owen, famous for his humanitarian policies as owner of several
thriving textile mills in Scotland, believed that faulty environment was to blame for human
problems and that these problems could be eliminated in a rationally planned society. In
1825, he put his principles into practice at New Harmony, Indiana. The community failed
economically after a few years but not before achieving a number of social successes.
Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never visited the United States. However, his
theories of cooperative living influenced many American through the writings of Albert
Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourierism and its self-sufficient
associations or “phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was organized in very
Northern state. The most famous were Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook Farm,
Massachusetts. An early member of the latter was the author Nathaniel Hawthorne. Noyes
founded the most enduring and probably the oddest of the utopian communities, the Oneida
Community of upstate New York. Needless to say, none of these experiments had any
lasting effects on the patterns of American society.

56. The main topic of the passage is……..

A. nineteen-century schools. B. American reformers
C. the philosophy of Fourierism D. model communities in the nineteenth.
57. Which of the following is not given in the passage as one of the general goals of
communitarian philosophers?
A. To remake society
B. To spread their ideas throughout the United State
C. To establish ideal communities
D. To create opportunities through education.
58. The Shakers are mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of…….
A. a communal religious group B. radical reformers
C. rationalistic thinkers D. an influential group of writers.
59. Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne in paragraph two?
A. He founded Brook Farm in Massachusetts.
B. He was a critic of Charles Fourier.
C. He wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities.
D. He was at one time a member of the Brook Farm community.
60. To which of the following is the sentence “Among the communitarian philosophers,
three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier, and John Humphrey
Noyes”.: in the last paragraph closest in meaning?
A. They were the people who had the greatest influence on communist
B. They were the people who were inhumanitarian policies
C. They were the people who had no influence on communist
D. They were blame for faulty enviroment problem

Đáp án:

56.D 57. C 58. A 59.D 60.A

Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.

E-books in future
Over the past decade, e-books have revolutionized the way people consume written
formation. It will probably come as no surprise the total global sales number continues to
rise each year. There are several reasons why readers are buying more e-books. For starters,
reading a lengths e-book in front of your computer isn't the most comfortable thing to do.
But since tablet sales have exploded, readers can now relax and read their favourite e-books
in bed from the beach. Many e-books are often sold at lower prices than traditional books.
Since there is almost zero cost for producing e-books, some authors are offering their novels
at lower prices. Another factor is convenience. In the past, keeping a large book collection
meant setting aside a lot of extra space in one's home. With e-books, it is now possible for
readers to carry a portable library, which contains thousands of books. To really understand
e-book market though, it is important to keep up with national trends.
Recent data suggests that the e-book market in the US and the UK have matured. In both of
these countries, e-book sales account for roughly 20 percent of overall book sales.
Although that percentage continues to increase, it is going up at a slower rate than in the
past.
The popularity of e-books has exploded in Russia. In one poll, 70 percent of Russians claim
to have read at least one e-book. However, publishers are not too pleased with this new
because approximately 92 percent of e-books in Russia are acquired illegally.
In France, consumers don't appear to be loo keen on e-books at this time. Although in 2012,
e-book sales comprised about 3 percent of the market, it is predicted that this number will
increase at a very slow pace. Some French people believe that reading e-books on small
screens is uncomfortable. Others say that the French are a cultural exception, as they
like the feeling of holding a dusty old physical book. This demonstrates that no matter
how popular e- books get, it is unlikely that traditional books will disappear any time
soon.
61. This year, e-book sales in the US and the UK will probably ____
A. stay the same B. start to decline
C. increase drastically D. keep going up
62. Which of the following is NOT a reason why e-books became popular worldwide?
A. People can now store more books easily.
B. Most popular novels are only offered as e-books.
C. Reading e-books recently became more comfortable.
D. A new type of reading device was invented.
63. The phrase “account for" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____
A. form the total of B. are the explanation of
C. are a particular part of D. know what has happened
64. All of the following are the reasons why the French are not fond of e-books very much
EXCEPT that ___.
A. the French may want to keep their traditional reading habit
B. it is considered that reading e-books on small screens is not comfortable
C. the French have a trend of reading traditional books
D. the French are an exception, not using any mobile devices.
65. To which of the following is the sentence: “Some French people believe that reading
e-books on small screens is uncomfortable. Others say that the French are a cultural
exception, as they like the feeling of holding a dusty old physical book. This
demonstrates that no matter how popular e- books get, it is unlikely that traditional
books will disappear any time soon.” in the last paragraph closest in meaning?
A. French people will change their minds about e-books.
B. Some people will continue to read traditional books.
C. It is just a matter of time before e-books disappear.
D. E-books won’t get popular in France until screens get bigger.

Đáp án:
61. B 62. B 63. A 64. D 65. D
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
During the five days of Diwali, every home and temple was decorated, inside and
outside, with lovely clay lamps and colourful candles. After dark, the whole neighbourhood
glittered with thousands of tiny lights, as though in a fairy tale. Excited children set off
firecrackers, and at first, I was frightened by the loud bangs, but the spectacular display was
so fascinating that I soon joined in the spirit of the celebration.
Last autumn I was in India during Diwali, the "Festival of Lights" which takes place
every year to celebrate the victory of good over evil. This festival lasts for five days and is
held at the end of October or in the first week of November.
Diwali is a deeply moving festival. I am very grateful I had the chance to share in this
celebration of peace and harmony. I have fond memories of the experience, and in particular
I will never forget how friendly and generous the people were.
Preparations began weeks before the event. People cleaned their homes and painted
wonderful designs called rangolis on the walls and floors. They bought beautiful new
clothes and jewelry to wear during the festival, and women made delicious sweets which
were better than any others I have ever tasted.
(Adapted from “Reading and Writing Target” by Virginia
Evans)
61: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A New Year’s Eve to remember. B. Preparations before the event.
C. Activities during the ceremony. D. A great party.
62: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 4 as preparations before the
event?
A. People decorated their houses.
B. People bought new clothes and jewelry.
C. Women made tasty candies.
D. Women went to pagodas to pray for health.
63: According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be true about the "Festival of
Lights”?
A. It takes place annually.
B. Its aim is to celebrate the victory of evil over good.
C. It lasts for 2 weeks.
D. It takes place in the second week of November.
64: The word glittered in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. sparkled B. lighted C. pressed D. rubbed
65: The word others in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. people B. women C. sweets D. clothes

ANSWER KEY

61. A 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. C

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
The end of the 19th century and the early years of the 20th century were marked by the
development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral
and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic
one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural
forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberated
distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the
iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau
glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed ‘art
glass’. Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully
chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
Trance produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among
the most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort
Tiffany (1843-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of
glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized
today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese,
and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 to 1915,
although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920s. It was eventually to be
overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been present since
the beginning of the 20th century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of
architects and designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers
after the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement that function should determine
form - was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: form should be
simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This
new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions
of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau
types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrasts,
stark outline and complex textural surfaces.
61.Paragraph 1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to ______ of
ancient buried glass.
A. the distortion of the glass B. the appearance of the glass surface
C. the shapes of the glass objects D. the size of the glass objects
62.The word ‘prized’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. valued B. universal C. uncommon D. preserved
63.By stating that ‘function should determine form’ the author means that ______.
A. a useful object should not be attractive
B. the purpose of an object should influence its form
C. the design of an object is considered more significant than its function
D. the form of an object should not include decorative elements
64.It can be inferred from the passage that one reason functionalism became popular was
that it ______.
A. clearly distinguished between art and design
B. appealed to people who like complex painted designs
C. reflected a common desire to break from the past
D. was easily interpreted by the general public
65.According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely
include ______.
A. a flowered design B. bright colors
C. modern symbols D. a textured surface

61 B
62 A
63 B
64 C
65 A
Nguyễn Thu Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.

THE BALANCE IN THE OCEANS

The oceans’ predators come in all shapes and sizes. For example, one of the less infamous
ones is the colorful starfish, which feeds on plant life, coral, or other shellfish such as mussels for
sustenance. A more bloodcurdling example, especially to human beings and most other species of
fish, is the shark, though most scientists agree that only ten per cent of the 450 plus species of
sharks have been documented as actually attacking a human. Still, there is another predator lurking
invisibly in the bodies of water of the world, one which poses one of the greatest threats to all
species of ocean life - bacteria. Though many types of fish are continually stalking and evading
one another for survival, they all band together in an attempt to keep bacteria levels at bay in
order to allow their own existence to continue.
Bacteria play a dual role in the ecotystems of the oceans. On the one hand, they are
beneficial as they stimulate plant life through food decomposition, which releases the necessary
chemicals for the growth of plant life. This is called nutrient recycling and helps keep the oceans
alive. But, on the other hand, bacteria are a major predator for all fish because they attack fragile,
weaker individuals. If they are allowed to run rampant and not kept in check, they could virtually
suffocate the oceans. In water, bacteria prove to be an even greater threat than on land because, as
they proliferate, they reduced the oxygen levels necessary for organisms in the oceans to live.
Further, when fish populations become depleted due to factors like overfishing, microbes such as
algae expand and threaten the fragile ecosystems of the ocean. Therefore, ocean predators play a
critical role by thwarting bacteria growth and maintaining the oceans’ equilibrium by reducing
vulnerable links in the food chain.
In many ways, the balance within the oceans’ ecosystems mirrors the human body. That is,
all of their components must work in harmony for them to stay healthy, efficient, and alive. If one
of them is missing or deficient, an entire system can be placed in jeopardy. In both the human body
and the ocean, bacteria play a vital role because, at manageable levels, they aid in protecting and
cleaning each system of foreign agents that can be of harm. On the other hand, if bacteria levels
increase and become out of control, they can take hold of a system, overrun, it, and become
debilitating. Therefore, both oceans and the human body have a kind of custodian that maintains
bacteria levels. In the human body, it is called a phagocyte. Phagocytes eat up sick, old, or dying
cells, which are more prone to bacterial invasion, and thus keep the body healthy. Like in the human
body, bacteria can prove fatal to the living organisms in the ocean.
Like phagocytes in the human body ocean predators work as antibacterial custodians of the
seas. In essence, they are the immune system and a vital link in the food chain because they remove
small, injured, or sickly fish from the ocean environment before bacteria can become too
comfortable and multiply. By ridding the ocean of weaker fish, predators allow the stronger ones to
multiply, making their species stronger and more resilient. Without their services and with their
declining numbers, bacteria will blossom to levels that will eventually overpower and kill even the
strongest species of fish, because of the depletion of their number one source of life, all important
oxygen.
While the greatest battle in the ocean may seem on the surface to be the survival of the
fittest fish, a closer look reveals something completely different: fish versus microorganisms.
Clearly, most living organisms in the oceans are hunters by nature, but this way of life does not
merely provide a food source for a dominant species. It also maintains a heạlthy level of bacteria in
an ocean’s ecosystem, thus ensuring the continuation of all species of life within. Major predators
are necessary, like the antibacterial cells of the human body, to keep this delicate balance in synch.
If their numbers continue to decline and humans ignore their vital role in the ocean, dire
consequences will definitely result.
61. The word lurking in the passage is closest in meaning to …………...
A. attacking B. increasing C. waiting D. approaching
62. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of ocean predators?
A. The shark is the deadliest one for all other kinds of life in the oceans.
B. One of the most threatening to all fish populations is bacteria.
C. Starfish do little damage to the population of mussels and shellfish.
D. Most of the killers that hide in the oceans are unknown to humans.
63. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about bacteria?
A. They can be extremely detrimental to fish if their numbers increase.
B. They are able to feed off themselves when other food sources are limited.
C. They stimulate plant life, which in turn releases oxygen into the water.
D. They present themselves in numerous shapes and forms as well as colors.
64. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the sentence in bold
(“Though... continue”)?
A. Evasion tactics help fish escape from the threats posed by an increasing number of bacteria.
B. Various species of fish prey upon one another in order to lower bacteria levels in the ocean.
C. High bacteria levels in the ocean help most species of fish tq survive by providing them with
food.
D. Rivals or not, all fish help one another survive by preventing bacteria from proliferating.
65. The author discusses nutrient recycling in paragraph 2 in order to…………...
A. show how bacteria act similarly in the ocean and the human body
B. explain the different roles of nutrients and oxygen for species of fish
C. indicate that bacteria do have a positive impact in the oceans
D. note how chemicals from bacteria are able to stimulate plant growth

Đáp án:
61. C 62. B 63. A 64. D 65.D
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
Australia has a well-organized and well-structured education system. The education starts at
the age of five or six, but it may differ by a narrow margin between states. It starts with the
preschool education which is not compulsory and can be offered within a school or
separately. The primary and secondary school encompasses the compulsory education for
Australians. There are a large number of primary and high school across the country with
most of them being public schools. It is estimated that public schools amount to 60% of
scholars as opposed to 40% in private settings. All these education providers must be
licensed by the government and must fulfill certain requirements including infrastructure
and teaching. Universities, on the other hand, are mainly public institutions.
The Australian education system has established a standard curriculum so all scholars will
be given the same quality of education. Despite there may be some states at which this
curriculum is modified a bit, but the change is not that significant. The actual curriculum set
out in Australia education system is based on important abilities one must have in his life:
Literacy, Numeracy, Information and communication technology, Critical and creative
thinking, personal and social capability, ethical understanding, intercultural understanding.
Vocational and Technical schools prepare students that want to skip the university and want
to move directly to the job market. Actually, here it stands the difference between
universities and colleges: the Vocational and Technical Schools are more oriented in
teaching practical skills while university courses are mainly theory-based to lead
students to different academic careers. There are hundreds of other schools out there that
provide technical and further education (TAFE) and vocational education and training
(VET). These schools offer short courses, certificates I through IV, diplomas, and advanced
diplomas. They focus on training their students in a particular vocation or just to help their
students get out into the workplace. These schools offer a wide variety of courses
and qualifications attained by these courses can lead to different career pathways to follow
afterward.
Australian higher education modernity and reputation relies on a huge number of
educational providers including universities and different training organizations. Currently,
there are 43 universities across the country.
The vast majority of universities are public except two private universities. The world-class
teaching offered is surely undisputed. Seven Australian universities are traditionally found
at the top 100 best universities in the world which is a sufficient indicator to highlight their
quality.
Besides universities, more than 5,000 training organizations are registered and accredited.
Actual figures show that the number of enrolled students is around 3.8 million with
international students sharing more than half a million. There are also 3 self-accrediting
higher education institutions. Furthermore, dozens of smaller schools do not grant any
degrees or have an accreditation – these are private schools that focus on theology, business,
information technology, natural therapies, hospitality, health, law, and accounting.
Question 61: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The levels of education in Australia
B. The curriculum of schools in Australia
C The position of Australian schools in the world
D. The Australian education system
Question 62. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is TRUE about the
education in Australia?
A. Children must start schools when they are five years old.
B. Pre-school education is not optional for Australian children.
C. There are more students attending public schools than private schools.
D. Every education provider can start up their school without any requirements.
Question 63. According to paragraph 3, the main difference between universities and
Vocational and Technical
schools is that _______ .
A. the Vocational and Technical schools pay more attention to academic careers than the
other.
B. the Vocational and Technical schools provide more courses for students to choose than
the other.
C. universities provide practical skills for students to take part in the workforce while
Vocational and Technical
schools only help them with theory.
D. universities emphasize theoretical courses whereas the Vocational and Technical schools
tend to develop
practical skills.
Question 64. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. There are more and more international students choosing Australian universities to
attend.
B. Because of the fame in the world, more universities and training organizations are
established each year.
C. Australia is an ideal place for not only Australian students but also international ones to
study
D. Students in Australia prefer Vocational and Technical schools than others.
65. To which of the following is the sentence: “Actually, here it stands the difference
between universities and colleges: the Vocational and Technical Schools are more
oriented in teaching practical skills while university courses are mainly theory-based
to lead students to different academic careers..” in the last paragraph closest in meaning?
A. Vocational and technical schools do not teach theory
B. Universities and Colleges have their own characteristics
C. Vocational and technical schools are only oriented in teaching practical skills
D. University courses are only theory-based to lead students to different academic careers..”

Đáp án:
61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B
Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.

The tide means the rising and falling of ocean levels that are affected by the moon, the
sun, and the earth’s own rotation. Although the sun gives about 200 times the gravitational
force on the earth as the moon does, the moon exerts more than twice the tidal force. As the
closer astronomical body, the moon has greater influence on the earth’s tides. Although
other factors do affect the tide, the positions of these two bodies have by far the greatest
determinant roles.
It is easy to imagine that the ocean level closest to the moon bulges upward. However, a
bulge occurs on the opposite side of the earth as well. [A] As the moon’s tidal force
counteracts the earth’s gravitational force, water bulges on both sides. Because there are
two major oceanic bulges, there are two high tides in a daily cycle. [B] A lunar day, not a
solar day, must be used in this calculation. It takes the earth 24 hours and 48 minutes to
make one rotation. As with a solar day, the earth rotates once in 24 hours. [C] Thus, high
tides generally occur every 12 hours and 24 minutes, an interval of half a lunar day. [D]
Exact intervals will vary depending on local land features.
The sun has a similar but less visible effect on water levels. Oceanic bulges occur on
the sides of the earth. While these bulges resulting from the sun’s tidal forces are smaller
than the greatest swells caused by the moon, they can amplify the moon’s effect.
Furthermore, the bulges in water levels caused by the sun can make predicting the tides
tricky, since both the sun and the moon must be taken into consideration.
When the moon and the sun are aligned – that is, when both are on the same side of the
earth or on opposite sides of the earth – the oceanic bulges are at their greatest size. Known
as spring tide, this powerful phenomenon results in abnormally high tides, abnormally low
tides, and abnormally strong tidal currents. In general, seven days after the spring tide
comes, the neap tide comes. The results are weaker tidal currents and less variation in
water levels between high tide and low tide.
Because the moon and the sun are major factors in tide formation, researchers have
tried to investigate these factors under assumptions of the earth with no land masses, smooth
ocean floors, constant distances from the moon and the sun, and an unchanging
environment. Even under these simplified imaginary conditions, it has been difficult to
construct complete and conclusive models of tidal phenomena. With the additional factors
of huge land masses, wildly variable underwater terrain, the elliptical orbits of the moon and
the earth, and climate change, tidal analysis become increasingly more complex.
Land masses block tidal ebbs and flows, affecting the timing, volume, and strength of
the tides. Submarine terrain also has great effects on tides and their movements and
variation. As for the principal astronomical bodies, one must remember that the moon’s
orbit around the earth and the earth’s orbit around the sun are elliptical. Therefore, tidal
forces vary with changing relative distances between the earth and the moon and between
the earth and the sun. Finally, weather and climate change always pose challenges to tidal
prediction. Now, with global warming, rising ocean levels, and weather phenomena, study
of the tides is becoming more challenging than ever before.
66. According to the passage, all of the following are true of tides EXCEPT
A. The earth’s rotation affects water depth.
B. Solar gravitational force is the biggest influence on tidal flow.
C. The moon is a more important factor than the sun.
D. Tidal force is related to distance from the earth.
67. The word “counteracts” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stops B. intensifies C. offsets D. resists
68. Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage.
However, the moon is constantly moving around the earth, so an additional 48 minutes is
required for the moon to complete the rotation.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square where the sentence should be added
to the passage.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
69. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. bulges B. forces C. swells D. bodies
70. The word “abnormally” has been repeated three times in order to ___________.
A. emphasize the power of spring tides
B. accentuate unpredictability of tidal movement
C. note how infrequently spring tides occur
D. highlight the complexities of tidal formation
71. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
paragraph 4?
A. Neap tide features weaker water currents and less difference between high and low tide
levels.
B. Lower current speeds result in little change in water levels between high tide and low
tide.
C. As a result, neap tide is difficult to detect due to little tidal variation and slow-moving tidal
currents.
D. The effects of these tidal bulges are less water movement between tides.
72. In the passage, what does the author say about simplified conditions?
A. They are unnecessary for a complex understanding of tides.
B. They have been inadequate factors in tidal models.
C. Even they have not helped scientists make models of tides.
D. They were created to study major factors in tidal behavior.
73. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as something that complicates
study of the tides?
A. Land formations change the way tidal waters move.
 B. Underwater land formations affect changes in tidal levels.
C. The orbit between the sun and the earth affects tidal phenomena.
D. Increasing water depths may be causing unusual weather.
74. The word “volume” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. duration B. sound C. size D. direction
75. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below.
“Several factors make the tide a complicated phenomenon.”
Which of the following DOES NOT belong in the summary?
A. The moon is the major cause of high and low tides.
B. The sun exerts much more gravitational force than the moon does.
C. The moon and the sun create conditions for spring tide and neap tide.
D. Land formations, orbital irregularities, and climate change complicate tidal study.

66. B 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. A

71. A 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. B
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
The Evolution of Renewable Energy Technologies
The quest for sustainable energy solutions has led to significant advancements in renewable
energy technologies over the past few decades. These innovations are crucial in addressing
the global challenges of climate change, energy security, and environmental degradation.
Renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, hydro, and geothermal power have become
increasingly viable alternatives to traditional fossil fuels.
Solar energy, harnessed through photovoltaic cells, is one of the most prominent renewable
energy technologies. Early solar panels were inefficient and expensive, but recent
developments have drastically improved their efficiency and affordability. Innovations in
materials science, such as the development of perovskite solar cells, have the potential
to further increase the efficiency of solar panels while reducing production costs.
Moreover, advances in energy storage technologies, like lithium-ion batteries, have
enhanced the reliability and practicality of solar power by addressing the issue of
intermittent energy supply.
Wind power is another rapidly growing renewable energy source. Modern wind turbines are
more efficient and can generate power even at lower wind speeds. Offshore wind farms,
which take advantage of stronger and more consistent winds over the ocean, have expanded
the potential for wind energy generation. Additionally, new designs and materials have
improved the durability and lifespan of wind turbines, making wind power a more reliable
and cost-effective option.
Hydropower has long been a major source of renewable energy, accounting for a significant
portion of global electricity generation. Traditional hydropower involves large dams and
reservoirs, which can have substantial environmental and social impacts. However,
innovative approaches such as run-of-the-river systems and small-scale hydropower projects
are gaining traction. These methods minimize environmental disruption while providing
clean and renewable energy.
Geothermal energy, which utilizes the Earth’s internal heat, is another promising renewable
energy source. Geothermal power plants can provide a constant and reliable supply of
electricity, unlike some other renewable sources that are dependent on weather conditions.
Advances in drilling technology and enhanced geothermal systems (EGS) are expanding
the potential for geothermal energy exploitation, making it accessible in regions where it
was previously not feasible.
Despite these advancements, the widespread adoption of renewable energy technologies
faces several challenges. High initial costs, regulatory barriers, and the need for supportive
infrastructure can hinder the deployment of renewable energy systems. Additionally,
integrating renewable energy into existing power grids requires sophisticated management
to balance supply and demand and ensure grid stability.
In conclusion, renewable energy technologies have made remarkable progress, offering
promising solutions to the pressing issues of climate change and energy sustainability.
Continued innovation and supportive policies are essential to overcome the challenges and
fully realize the potential of renewable energy in creating a sustainable future.

66. What is the main idea of the passage?

 A. Renewable energy technologies have not progressed significantly.
B. Innovations in renewable energy technologies offer solutions to global
challenges but face some obstacles.
C. Traditional fossil fuels remain the best option for energy generation.
D. Renewable energy sources are too expensive to be viable.
67. In paragraph 2, the phrase "addressing the issue of intermittent energy supply" most
closely means:
A. Creating new problems with energy distribution
B. Handling the problem of energy supply that is not constant
C. Ignoring the challenges of energy reliability
D. Increasing the frequency of energy supply interruptions
68. In paragraph 4, the sentence "Traditional hydropower involves large dams and
reservoirs, which can have substantial environmental and social impacts" suggests that
traditional hydropower:
A. Has minimal effects on the environment and society
B. Is preferred because it avoids large structures
C. Can significantly affect ecosystems and communities
D. Is not a viable source of renewable energy
69. In paragraph 5, the term "enhanced geothermal systems (EGS)" refers to:
A. Basic geothermal energy technologies
B. Advanced methods that improve geothermal energy extraction
C. Traditional approaches to using Earth's heat
D. Ineffective geothermal energy solutions
70. According to the passage, one benefit of offshore wind farms is:
A. Reduced production costs
B. Stronger and more consistent winds over the ocean
C. Minimal environmental impact
D. Unlimited availability of wind resources
71. It can be inferred from the passage that one challenge in integrating renewable energy
into existing power grids is:
A. The lack of technology for energy storage
B. The need for advanced management to balance supply and demand
C. The incompatibility of renewable energy with current grid systems
D. The overabundance of renewable energy sources
72. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as benefits of renewable energy
technologies EXCEPT:
A. Reducing production costs of solar panels
B. Providing a reliable supply of electricity
C. Minimizing environmental disruption in hydropower
D. Completely eliminating the need for energy storage
73. Why does the author discuss the challenges associated with renewable energy
technologies in the passage?
A. To argue that renewable energy is not a feasible solution
B. To highlight the obstacles that need to be addressed for wider adoption
C. To suggest that traditional energy sources are superior
D. To indicate that renewable energy technologies have no benefits
74. Where would the following sentence best fit in the passage?
"These improvements have made wind energy more competitive with conventional
energy sources."
 A. After sentence 1 in paragraph 3[A]
B. After sentence 2 in paragraph 4[B]
C. After sentence 3 in paragraph 5[C]
D. After sentence 1 in paragraph 6[D]
75. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold and
underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
"Innovations in materials science, such as the development of perovskite solar cells,
have the potential to further increase the efficiency of solar panels while reducing
production costs."
A. Perovskite solar cells are the only type of solar cells that can be efficient.
B. Advances in materials science can make solar panels both more efficient and cheaper.
C. Solar panels are currently very efficient and inexpensive.
D. Production costs of solar panels are not affected by material science innovations.

ANSWER KEY

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
Answer Key
B. B
C. B
D. C
E. B
F. B
G. B
H. D
I. B
J. A
K. B
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.

WATER IN DESERT
Desert areas of the world are not completely void of precipitation, but rainfall in these
regions is known to vary greatly. Typically, scientists use an annual rainfall amount of four
inches as the dividing line between desert and non-desert areas. While these arid regions
may receive a similar amount of rainfall each year, how that rainfall affects surface water
and groundwater resources is largely dependent upon the area’s topographical
characteristics. For example, landforms such as flats and depressions common to deserts
are known to collect water, but these features constitute only a small percentage of the
desert landscape.
It is interesting to note that these arid lands in fact contain some of the earth’s largest
systems of rivers. In the cases of these river systems, the sources of the rivers lie outside the
arid region itself, and hence they are known as “exogenous” rivers and systems. These
exogenous systems play a critical role in nourishing life in the world’s most parched egions.
For example, annual flooding of the Nile, Tigris, and Euphrates rivers has long supplied
residents with water and brought in fertile silt to help agriculture. With the advent of
modern technology, however, this flooding is largely managed by human hands, which
has required more governmental cooperation among nations in crafting treaties and
agreements regulating the use of these river basins.
In addition to human intervention, the flow of exogenous rivers is impacted by the
season. Ironically, it sometimes takes a number of months for the effect of a rainy season
outside a desert area to be felt within it, so by the time the peak flow finally arrives, it may
in fact be the driest time of the year. While this additional water does aid the irrigation for
agriculture, weather changes during the dry season like higher temperatures and lower
humidity may make the cultivation of some crops even more challenging than it is during
the normal growing season. In contrast to exogenous rivers, those identified as
“endogenous” systems begin and end within the arid region. Water in these systems
generally comes from groundwater springs, but many of these rivers are fed by water
coming from limestone massifs, such as the Atlas Mountains in Morocco. Rivers of this
variety tend not to reach the sea, but instead end up draining into inland basins, where most
of it is simply lost to evaporation or disappears into the ground.
Though rivers and lakes are present in desert areas, groundwater makes up a much
larger percentage of the total water in these regions. However, only a small portion of these
underground deposits ever reach the hydrologic cycle; i.e., it never enters the constant
movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the earth that characterizes most of
the planet’s other water resources. ■ A) The groundwater that does enter into this cycle
usually does so by feeding the flow of streams or by maintaining water levels in lakes.
Water taken in this way from groundwater stores is then refilled by surface flows and
rainwater. ■ B) International organizations such as the United Nations and the World Bank
have both funded efforts to survey existing groundwater in arid lands and to create effective
methods to draw usable water from these sources. ■ C) These efforts are particularly
ecessary due to the lack of clear understanding in these regions about just how much
groundwater exists. ■ D) What is known, however, is that these groundwater deposits are
very unevenly distributed, and that much of this water can be found deep beneath the earth’s
surface.
These groundwater deposits are found underground in open spaces between, inside, and
among rocks and sediment. These water-laden layers of earth are known as “aquifers.” In
general, limestone and sandstone aquifers tend to be deep and large, which contributes to
their relatively high concentration of minerals. They are usually not replenished because
they became saturated more than 10,000 years ago and do not need to be. These deep
aquifers are sometimes called “fossil waters” to denote the fact that this water has been
present for so long. On the other hand, shallow aquifers found in sand or gravel are much
less extensive, but they can quickly be replenished.

51. According to paragraph 1, what do scientists use to determine whether or not an area is
labeled a desert?
A. The amount of annual rainfall
B. The lack of groundwater resources
C. Topographical characteristics
D. The absence of flats and depressions in the landscape
52. The word “depressions” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. rifts B. Dunes C. Ranges D. basins
53. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave
out essential information.
A. Government involvement in the creation of treaties and agreements enhances flood-
controlling modern technology of river basins.
B. Technology has allowed for better human management of floods, making river basin
regulation agreements largely unnecessary.
C. Humans have been able to use technology to control flooding, which has made
international cooperation on the use of river basins more necessary.
D. More modern technology will lead to better flood management because
intergovernmental treaties regarding river basins allow for cooperation.
54. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following about the flow of exogenous
rivers EXCEPT:
A. The impact of the flow is often felt in the driest seasons.
B. The flow can be an aid in the cultivation of crops.
C. The effects of the flow are not felt immediately.
D. The flow is unaffected by the season of the year.
55. According to paragraph 4, what distinguishes an endogenous river from an exogenous
river?
A. An endogenous river flows into a limestone massif.
B. The source of an endogenous river is within the desert region.
C. The endogenous river does not reach the sea.
D. Endogenous rivers have a higher saline content than exogenous rivers.
56. The word “stores” in line 39 is closest in meaning to
A. locations B. accumulations C. caves D. discoveries
57. Why does the passage mention in paragraph 5 the fact that the exact extent of
groundwater resources is still unknown?
A. To highlight the lack of scientific research being done in desert areas.
B. To illustrate the importance of freshwater to the inhabitants of deserts.
 C. To explain why the recent actions of the United Nations and others are needed.
D. To show how groundwater can affect the flow of exogenous rivers.
58. The word “replenished” in line 51 is closest in meaning to
A. refilled B. Rejuvenated C. reinvigorated D. rescinded
59. What can be inferred in paragraph 7 about shallow aquifers?
A. They tend to have less mineral content than deeper ones.
B. They can quickly be replenished because they were saturated as limestone aquifers
once were.
C. The water from shallow aquifers is unusable because of its proximity to gravel.
D. They are more extensive than limestone aquifers.
60. Look at the four squares [ ■] that indicate where the following sentence could be
added to the passage.
In fact, these water deposits have recently become the focus of increased attention as a
source of freshwater for the inhabitants of desert areas.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A B C D

ANSWER KEY

66. A 67.D 68.C 69.D 70. B 71.B 72.C 73.A 74.A 75.B
Nguyễn Thu Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
GEOLOGY AND LANDSCAPE
1. Most people consider the landscape to be unchanging, but Earth is a dynamic body, and
its surface is continually altering—slowly on the human time scale, but relatively rapidly
when compared to the great age of Earth (about 4.5 billion years). There are two principal
influences that shape the terrain: constructive processes such as uplift, which create new
landscape features, and destructive forces such as erosion, which gradually wear away
exposed landforms.
2. Hills and mountains are often regarded as the epitome of permanence, successfully
resisting the destructive forces of nature, but in fact they tend to be relatively short-lived
in geological terms. As a general rule, the higher a mountain is, the more recently it was
formed; for example, the high mountains of the Himalayas are only about 50 million years
old. Lower mountains tend to be older, and are often the eroded relics of much higher
mountain chains. About 400 million years ago, when the present-day continents of North
America and Europe were joined, the Caledonian mountain chain was the same size as the
modern Himalayas. Today, however, the relics of the Caledonian orogeny (mountain-
building period) exist as the comparatively low mountains of Greenland, the northern
Appalachians in the United States, the Scottish Highlands, and the Norwegian coastal
plateau.
3. The Earth’s crust is thought to be divided into huge, movable segments, called plates,
which float on a soft plastic layer of rock. Some mountains were formed as a result of these
plates crashing into each other and forcing up the rock at the plate margins. In this process,
sedimentary rocks that originally formed on the seabed may be folded upwards to altitudes
of more than 26,000 feet. Other mountains may be raised by earthquakes, which fracture the
Earth’s crust and can displace enough rock to produce block mountains. A third type of
mountain may be formed as a result of volcanic activity which occurs in regions of active
fold mountain belts, such as in the Cascade Range of western North America. The
Cascades are made up of lavas and volcanic materials. Many of the peaks are extinct
volcanoes.
4. Whatever the reason for mountain formation, as soon as land rises above sea level it is
subjected to destructive forces. The exposed rocks are attacked by the various weather
processes and gradually broken down into fragments, which are then carried away and later
deposited as sediments. Thus, any landscape represents only a temporary stage in the
continuous battle between the forces of uplift and those of erosion.
5. The weather, in its many forms, is the main agent of erosion. Rain washes away loose soil
and penetrates cracks in the rocks. Carbon dioxide in the air reacts with the rainwater,
forming a weak acid (carbonic acid) that may chemically attack the rocks. The rain seeps
underground and the water may reappear later as springs. These springs are the sources of
streams and rivers, which cut through the rocks and carry away debris from the mountains
to the lowlands.
6. Under very cold conditions, rocks can be shattered by ice and frost. Glaciers may form in
permanently cold areas, and these slowly moving masses of ice cut out valleys, carrying
with them huge quantities of eroded rock debris. [A] ■ In dry areas the wind is the
principal agent of erosion.
[B] ■ It carries fine particles of sand, which bombard exposed rock surfaces, thereby
wearing them into yet more sand. [C] ■ Even living things contribute to the formation of
landscapes. [D] ■ Tree roots force their way into cracks in rocks and, in so doing, speed
their splitting. In contrast, the roots of grasses and other small plants may help to hold loose
soil fragments together, thereby helping to prevent erosion by the wind.

66. According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements is true of

changes in Earth’s landscape?
A. They occur more often by uplift than by erosion.
B. They occur only at special times.
C. They occur less frequently now than they once did.
D. They occur quickly in geological terms.
67. The word “ relatively ” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. unusually B. comparatively
C. occasionally D. naturally
68. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave
out essential information.
A. When they are relatively young, hills and mountains successfully resist the
destructive forces of nature.
B. Although they seem permanent, hills and mountains exist for a relatively short
period of geological time.
C. Hills and mountains successfully resist the destructive forces of nature, but only
for a short time.
D. Hills and mountains resist the destructive forces of nature better than other
types of landforms.
69. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about the
mountains of the Himalayas?
A. Their current height is not an indication of their age.
B. At present, they are much higher than the mountains of the Caledonian range.
C. They were a uniform height about 400 million years ago.
D. They are not as high as the Caledonian mountains were 400 million years ago.
70. The word “ relics ” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. resemblances B. Regions C. remains D. restorations
71. According to paragraph 3, one cause of mountain formation is the
A. effect of climatic change on sea level
B. slowing down of volcanic activity
C. force of Earth’s crustal plates hitting each other
D. replacement of sedimentary rock with volcanic rock
72. Why does the author mention “ carbon dioxide ” in the passage?
A. To explain the origin of a chemical that can erode rocks
B. To contrast carbon dioxide with carbonic acid
C. To give an example of how rainwater penetrates soil
D. To argue for the desirability of preventing erosion
73. The word “ seeps ” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. dries gradually B. flows slowly
C. freezes quickly D. warms slightly
74. The word “ them ” in the passage refers to
A. cold areas B. masses of ice C. valleys D. rock debris
75. Look at the four squares ■ in paragraph 6 that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage.
Under different climatic conditions, another type of destructive force contributes to
erosion.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] ■First square B. [B] ■Second square
C. [C] ■Third square D. [D] ■Four square

66.D 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. C

71. C 72.A 73. B 74. B 75. D
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
The Atlantic Cod Fishery
Off the northeastern shore of North America, from the island of Newfoundland in Canada south
to New England in the United States, there is a series of shallow areas called banks. Several large
banks off Newfoundland are together called Grand Banks, huge shoals on the edge of the North
American continental shelf, where the warm waters of the Gulf Stream meet the cold waters of the
Labrador Current. As the currents brush each other, they stir up minerals from the ocean floor,
providing nutrients for plankton and tiny shrimp-like creatures called krill, which feed on the
plankton. Herring and other small fish rise to the surface to eat the krill. Groundfish, such as the
Atlantic cod, live in the ocean’s bottom layer, congregating in the shallow waters where they prey
on krill and small fish. This rich environment has produced cod by the millions and once had a
greater density of cod than anywhere else on Earth.
Beginning in the eleventh century, boats from the ports of northwestern Europe arrived to fish
the Grand Banks. For the next eight centuries, the entire Newfoundland economy was based on
Europeans arriving, catching fish for a few months in the summer, and then taking fish back to
European markets. Cod laid out to dry on wooden “flakes” was a common sight in the fishing
villages dotting the coast. Settlers in the region used to think the only sea creature worth talking
about was cod, and in the local speech the word “fish” became synonymous with cod.
Newfoundland’s national dish was a pudding whose main ingredient was cod.
By the nineteenth century, the Newfoundland fishery was largely controlled by merchants based
in the capital at St.John’s. They marketed the catch supplied by the fishers working out of more
than 600 villages around the long coastline. In return, the merchants provided fishing equipment,
clothing, and all the food that could not be grown in the island’s thin, rocky soil. This system kept
the fishers in a continuous state of debt and dependence on the merchants.
Until the twentieth century, fishers believed in the cod’s ability to replenish itself and thought
that overfishing was impossible. However, Newfoundland’s cod fishery began to show signs of
trouble during the 1930s, when cod failed to support the fishers and thousands were unemployed.
The slump lasted for the next few decades. Then, when an international agreement in 1977
established the 200-mile offshore fishing limit, the Canadian government decided to build up the
modern Grand Banks fleet and make fishing a viable economic base for Newfoundland again. All of
Newfoundland’s seafood companies were merged into one conglomerate. By the 1980s, the
conglomerate was prospering, and cod were commanding excellent prices in the market.
Consequently, there was a significant increase in the number of fishers and fish-processing plant
workers.
However, while the offshore fishery was prospering, the inshore fishermen found their catches
dropping off. In 1922 the Canadian government responded by closing the Grand Banks to
groundfishing. Newfoundland’s cod fishing and processing industries were shut down in a bid to let
the vanishing stocks recover. The moratorium was extended in 1994, when all of the Atlantic cod
fisheries in Canada were closed, except for one in Nova Scotia, and strict quotas were placed on
other species of groundfish. Canada’s cod fishing industry collapsed, and around 40,000 fishers and
other industry workers were put out of work.
Atlantic cod stocks had once been so plentiful that early explorers joked about walking on the
backs of teeming fish. By 2008, cod stocks were still a historically low levels and showed no signs
of imminent recovery, even after drastic conservation measures and severely limited fishing. Some
fishermen blamed the disminished stocks on seals, which prey on cod and other species, but
scientists believe that decades of overfishing are to blame. There have been occasional signs of
hope. For example, studies on fish populations show that cod disappeared from Newfoundland at
the same time that stocks started rebuilding in Norway, raising the possibility that the cod had
simply migrated to a different region. Still, in the early twenty-first century, it remains uncertain
whether or when the cod will return to Grand Banks or the moratorium will end.

66. The word shoals in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. shallow B. currents C. mountains D. islands
67. What physical process occurs in the region of the Grand Banks?
A. Underwater hot springs heat the water. B. Warm and cold currents come together.
C. Nutrient-rich water flows in from rivers. D. Tides transport plankton and small fish
68. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 1? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Millions of cod come to the Grand Banks every year to feed on the abundant supplies of
herring and other small fish.
B. The Grand Banks used to have the world’s largest concentration of cod because of favorable
natural conditions.
C. The Grand Banks is the only place on Earth where cod are known to come together in
extremely large groups.
D. The environmental resources of the Grand Banks have made many people wealthy from cod
fishing.
69. The square brackets indicate A, B, C, D, respectively in paragraph 5. Where could the following
sentence could be added to the paragraph ?
‘They suspected this was because the offshore draggers were taking so many cod that the fish did
not have a chance to migrate inshore to reproduce.’
However, while the offshore fishery was prospering, the inshore fishermen found their catches
dropping off. [A] In 1922 the Canadian government responded by closing the Grand Banks to
groundfishing. [B] Newfoundland’s cod fishing and processing industries were shut down in a bid
to let the vanishing stocks recover. [C] The moratorium was extended in 1994, when all of the
Atlantic cod fisheries in Canada were closed, except for one in Nova Scotia, and strict quotas were
placed on other species of groundfish. [D] Canada’s cod fishing industry collapsed, and around
40,000 fishers and other industry workers were put out of work.
A. [D] B. [B] C. [C] D. [A]
70. Why does the author mention Newfoundland’s national dish in paragraph 2?
A. To encourage the development of tourism in Newfoundland
B. To describe the daily life of people in Newfoundland
C. To stress the economic and cultural significance of cod
D. To show that Newfoundland used to be a separate country
71. All of the following statements characterized Newfoundland’s cod fishery in the past EXCEPT:
A. Fishers were dependent on merchants in the capital.
B. Cod were the foundation of the island’s economy.
C. Fishers competed with farmers for natural resources.
D. Cod were placed on wooden “flakes” for drying.
72. The word replenish in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. defend B. repair C. reproduce D. improve
73. What event first signaled the overfishing of the Atlantic cod?
A. The failure of cod to support thousands of fishers in the 1930s
B. The merging of seafood companies into one huge conglomerate
C. An increase in the number of fishers and fish-processing plants
D. The government moratorium on cod fishing during the 1990s
74. Why did the Canadian government decide to build up the Grand Banks fishing fleet?
A. The 200-mile limit was seen as an economic opportunity.
B. There had not been enough boats to handle all the fish.
C. The shipbuilding sector of the economy was in a slump.
D. Canada faced stiff competition from other fishing nations.
75. It can be inferred from paragraph 6 that the author most likely believes which of the following
about the future of the Atlantic cod fishery?
A. The fishery will improve if the government lifts the fishing ban.
B. It may be a long time before cod stocks recover from overfishing.
C. The center of the Atlantic cod fishery will shift to Norway.
D. The cod will return to the Grand Banks if seal hunting is allowed.

ANSWER KEY

66 A
67 B
68 B
69 D
70 C
71 C
72 C
73 A
74 A
75 B
Vũ Thị Nhung – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.

Question 76.
a. After stirring the rice and the eggs for about one minute, you can add the green onion and
some seasonings like salt or soy sauce.
b. Egg fried rice is such a quick and easy dish that you can use anything left in the fridge to
make it.
c. Finally, when the rice is seasoned well, you should close the lid and cook it for one more
minute, then you can enjoy your egg fried rice.
d. The first step to cook this dish is to heat the oil until it is hot, then pour in the beaten
eggs.
e. Secondly, you need to add the rice when the eggs are nearly cooked so that you can stir
them together.
A. b – d – e – a – c B. a – b – d – e – c C. d – e – c – a – b D. d – e – a –
c–b

Question 77
a. Next, could you inform me if SGV Vocational school offers any discounts for students
who are financially disadvantaged.
b. Finally, I would like to enquire about the daily wage for the apprenticeship provided by
SGV Vocational School. It would be great if you could provide me with more information.
c. Dear Sir
I am writing to ask more information about applying for the tour guide training courses
offered by SGV Vocational School.
d. Firstly, lease let me know if there are any particular requirements for admittance, such as
passing a test, in order to join in the tour guide training courses.
e. I look forward to hearing from you.
Yours faithfully,
A. c-b-a-d-e B. c-d-b-a-e C. d-b-a-c-e D. c-d-a-b-e

Question 78
a. Sounds good! Now let’s decide on a social issue. Is the top problem facing teens today
peer pressure, body shaming, or bullying?
c. Hmm. I think this time we should focus on a problem teens struggle with every day
because this won't be a big campaign. However, we'll try to use your ideas for another
project, Mai.
b. Well, bullying, peer pressure, and body shaming, for instance, are major problems among
teenagers today although many people don’t feel comfortable talking about them.
d. I agree with you. Hmm... so Mark, what do you think? Should we focus our campaign on
a general social issue or one affecting mainly teens?
e. Can you give us some examples?
f. I think it’s bullying because it’s very common today, and ...
A. b-e-d-a-c-f B. e-b-d-c-a-f C. f-d-a-e-b-c D. b-d-e-a-f-c

Question 79:
a. Furthermore, it opens up opportunities to connect with people from different
backgrounds, fostering friendships and expanding social networks.
b. In addition to career benefits, learning a foreign language has positive effects on brain
health such as such as enhancing cognitive flexibility and increasing creativity.
c. The benefits of learning a foreign language are multifaceted and extend beyond
communication.
d. To begin with, learning a foreign language opens up numerous job opportunities in
today's globalized world.
e. Lastly, it allows for deeper cultural understanding and greater appreciation of different
cultures.
A. c-a-b-d-e B. c-d-b-a-e C. d-a-b-e-c D. d-b-a-c-e

Question 80:
a. Regular physical activity is essential for maintaining good health.
b. Additionally, it improves mental well-being by reducing stress and anxiety.
c. First, it not only helps in weight management but boosts our immune system as well.
d. Dear Jane, I was thinking about our conversation on staying fit and wanted to share some
thoughts on exercise.
e. Take care.
f. Exercise can also be a fun social activity, whether it's a team sport or a group fitness class.
A. d-c-f-a-b-e B. d-c-a-b-f-e C. d-f-a-c-b-e D. d-a-c-b-f-e

Đáp án:
76.A 77. D 78.B 79. B 80. D
Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.
Question 76:
a. It provides a calm environment where students are encouraged to deepen their
understanding of various subjects. With shelves stocked with books ranging from classic
literature to modern scientific research, it supports the curriculum and enhances students’
knowledge base.
b. Here, students learn to research, analyze information critically, and develop a lifelong
passion for reading.
c. The school library serves as a central hub for learning and exploration, essential for
academic success.
d. Regular activities such as book clubs and reading sessions promote a community of
readers and learners.
e. The guidance of knowledgeable librarians ensures that students find materials that are
both challenging and enriching.
f. The library also offers digital resources like e-books and online journals, making learning
accessible and interactive.
g. All things mentioned above make the school library not just a place for academic study
but a haven for personal growth and discovery.
A. c-f-d-a-b-e-g B. c-b-f-d-a-e-g C. c-d-b-a-f-e-f D. c-a-f-d-b-e-g
Question 77:
a. Additionally, it instills resilience, empowering students to persevere in the face of
setbacks.
b. It encourages a proactive attitude towards learning, where students actively engage with
their studies, participate in discussions, and seek clarifications when needed.
c. Ultimately, the practice of discipline equips students with the skills and mindset necessary
for success in academia and beyond, laying the groundwork for a prosperous future.
d. Besides, this disciplined mindset fosters a culture of continuous learning and intellectual
curiosity, essential for excelling in competitive exams and higher education.
e. In educational systems, disciplines play a pivotal role in shaping a student’s academic
journey. It is not merely about adhering to school rules but extends to self-regulation,
effective planning, and setting academic goals.
f. A disciplined approach to studies enables students to prioritize their tasks, focus on their
goals, and navigate the challenges of a rigorous curriculum.
A.b-d-f-a-c-e B.b-d-a-c-e-f C.e-f-b-d-a-c D.f-b-e-c-d-a
Question 78:
a. Firstly, these devices serve educational purposes, enabling students to access the internet
for research and study, saving money and time on traditional books.
b. The use of modern technology tools, such as smartphones and tablets, enhances study
results through a variety of learning applications like dictionaries, spelling, translation, and
pronunciation apps.
c. Moreover, students can study anytime, anywhere with internet connectivity on their
devices.
d. Digital devices are integral to teenagers' lives today, and I firmly believe that parents
should avoid strict limitations on their children's screen time.
e. In conclusion, personal electronic devices offer more benefits than drawbacks for
students, and I recommend that teachers encourage their use in both classroom and
independent learning.
f. These apps engage students with colorful designs, fun methods, and appealing content.
A. d-a-b-f-c-e B. d-b-a-c-f-e C. d-c-a-b-f-e D. d-f-a-b-c-e
Question 79:
a. Despite these differences, both environments aim to nurture well-rounded individuals.
b. In cities, students have access to advanced educational facilities, such as well-equipped
schools, libraries, and technology, enhancing their learning experience.
c. City life and rural life offer contrasting experiences, especially in terms of academic
endeavors.
d. Students in rural areas often learn practical skills and traditional knowledge alongside
their formal education.
e. The key lies in leveraging the unique opportunities each setting offers to foster academic
growth and personal development.
f. Conversely, rural areas may have limited educational resources, but they provide a serene
environment conducive to focused studies.
A. c-f-d-a-b-e B. c-b-f-d-a-e C. c-d-b-a-f-e D. c-a-f-d-b-e
Question 80:
a. Sounds good! Now let’s decide on a social issue. Is the top problem facing teens today
peer pressure, body shaming, or bullying?
c. Hmm. I think this time we should focus on a problem teens struggle with every day
because this won't be a big campaign. However, we'll try to use your ideas for another
project, Mai.
b. Well, bullying, peer pressure, and body shaming, for instance, are major problems among
teenagers today although many people don’t feel comfortable talking about them.
d. I agree with you. Hmm... so Mark, what do you think? Should we focus our campaign on
a general social issue or one affecting mainly teens?
e. Can you give us some examples?
f. I think it’s bullying because it’s very common today, and ...
A. b-e-d-a-c-f B. e-b-d-c-a-f C. f-d-a-e-b-c D. b-d-e-a-f-c

ANSWER KEY

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.

76. D 77. C 78. A 79. B 80. B

Phạm Văn Tuấn – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.
76.
a. At one time, the cliff stood much further out and, at low tide, the sea water did not touch
the base of the rock.
b. The diagram shows the changes that took place in a cliff face as a result of coastal
erosion.
c. Conversely, at high tide, the waves sometimes reached half-way up the cliff wall, beating
on it with some force.
d. This meant that stones and boulders fell into the sea, and the cliff slowly retreated,
exposing previously buried rock at low tide.
e. Eventually, the power of these waves loosened and wore away the rock.
A. b – a – c – e – d B. b – d – a – e – c
C. b – a – d – e – c D. b – d – c – a – e
77.
a. Scientists hypothesised that this is due to the position of the adjectives in a phrase or sentence
and the challenges this presents.
b. Children learn many words quite quickly, but their ability to learn colour words takes
longer than expected.
c. While objects consist of a number of features that can be used to recognise other similar
objects, the meaning of a colour cannot be developed using the same approach.
d. In fact, despite training trials, many four-year-olds still struggle to arrange objects into
colour categories.
e. As a consequence, the way colour words tend to be used in English may be unhelpful to
children.
A. a – c – d – b – e B. b – a – c – d – e
C. a – b – d – c – e D. b – d – a – c – e
78.
a. Although some group members may experience friction between them, it rarely disrupts
the creative process as long as members are professional, as opposed to those who take
things personally.
b. Teamwork is an integral part of how companies in the creative arts such as advertising,
software programming and gaming operate.
c. For one thing, it takes a group of creative minds to sort out the myriad of details involved
in developing a new product.
d. On the whole, these functions represent the basic workings of a group.
e. What is more, members of a group can confront and refute ideas that will not work to the
product’s best interest.
A. a – b – c – e – d B. b – c – e – d – a
C. a – c – e – d – b D. b – c – a – e – d
79.
a. It is only logical to think that if some choices are good, more is better; people who care
about having infinite options will benefit from them, and those who do not can always just
ignore the 273 versions of cereal they have never tried.
b. Although some choices are undoubtedly better than none, more is not always better than
less.
c. Americans today choose among more options in more parts of life than has ever been
possible before.
d. To an extent, the opportunity to choose enhances our lives.
e. Yet recent research strongly suggests that, psychologically, this assumption is wrong,
with 5% lower percentage announcing they are happy.
A. c – d – a – e – b B. a – d – e – b – c
C. c – a – d – e – b D. b – c – a – d – e
80.
a. The infrastructure of a country determines how pleasant or otherwise your daily commute
is going to be.
b. That was how commuting began, and the train is certainly still a good way of avoiding
congestion on our roads.
c. However, many people commute long distances by car each day, and it is not uncommon
for drivers to have to sit in queues of traffic for hours.
d. When we think of commuters, we often imagine people walking to the station in a leafy
suburb and taking the train into the city.
e. Ring roads or bypasses all help, as do good rail links, but roadworks, accidents, traffic
lights and busy junctions can all cause delays and add to the journey time.
A. d – a – e – b – c B. a – d – b – e – c
C. d – b – c – a – e D. a – e – d – b – c

ANSWER KEY

76. A 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. C

Nguyễn Thu Thủy– Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:
SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.
Question 76:
a. Disney began his career as a cartoonist and worked for several animation studios before
starting his own company in 1923.
b. After several successes in cartoon, he opened the first Disney theme park, Disneyland, in
California in 1955 and Walt Disney World in Florida in 1971.
c. Walt Disney was a famous American animator, film producer, and entrepreneur. He was
born in 1901 in Chicago, Illinois.
d. His first successful cartoon was Steamboat Willie, which featured Mickey Mouse and
was the first global cartoon to use synchronized sound.
e. Unfortunately, in 1966, Walt Disney passed away due to a lethal lung cancer.
A. a-b-d-e-c B. c-a-d-b-e C. c-e-b-d-a D. a-d-b-c-e
Question 77:
b. Dear Sir/Madam,
a. I am writing to ask for information about the upcoming field trip to General Vo Nguyen
Giap's Tomb.
f. I am interested in learning more about the details of the trip such as the date, time, and
transportation arrangements.
c. Additionally, could you please provide me with specific requirements or guidelines that
we need to follow during the visit?
e. Thank you for your time and consideration. I look forward to hearing back from you
soon.
d. Sincerely,
A. b-a-f-c-e-d B. b-e-b-f-a-d C. a-e-b-f-b-d D. b-f-c-a-e-d
Question 78
a. Moreover, the area is famous for its magnificent landscape of limestone mountain tops
surrounded by valleys and steep rocks.
b. First, the most outstanding feature of Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is its cultural
value with a long-lasting history dating back almost 30,000 years.
c. The natural beauty of the place with its geological value is another outstanding feature.
d. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is famous for its cultural value, natural beauty and
preservation of heritage.
e. Finally, Trang An Heritage is well-preserved and protected as the site is home to more
than 800 species of flora and fauna.
A. b-c-a-d-e B. b-c-a-e-d C. d-b-c-a-e D. d-b-a-c-e
Question 79:
a. Do I have to take a university entrance exam?
b. In addition, what type of accommodation is available for international students?
c. Dear Kevin, I am writing to ask for some information and advice on higher education in
your country.
d. First, what are the university entry requirements for international students in the UK?
e. What is the rent for each type of accommodation? Is it monthly or weekly paid?
f. I look forward to hearing from you soon. Best regards.
A. c-d-e-b-a-f B. c-d-a-b-e-f C. c-e-b-d-a-f D. c-a-d-b-e-f
Question 80.
a. Firstly, volunteering is often associated with physical activities and outdoor events,
promoting a healthier lifestyle. In addition, volunteering can increase cultural awareness.
b. So, what are the pros and cons of doing volunteer work when you are at school age?
c. On the other hand, if a teenager is dealing with physical or mental health issues, taking
on additional responsibilities through volunteer work may not be advisable.
d. Joining a volunteer program: should or should not?
e. In conclusion, the decision to engage in volunteer work should be based on the
individual teenager's circumstances, interests, and personal well-being.
f. Nowadays, many students participate in volunteer programs in the local community.
A. d – f – b – a – c – e B. b – d – c – a – e - f
C. a – b – c – d – f - e D. e – f- b – a – c – d

Đáp án:
76.B 77. A 78.D 79. B 80. A
Nguyễn Thị Thủy – Trường THPT Tiên Lãng

Câu hỏi:

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions from
76 to 80.

Question 76.
a. Another possible way is that we could join local community education programs or attend
workshops and seminars in our area to learn new skills or hobbies.
b. Ultimately, we can start a book club or discussion group where we can read and discuss
books on various topics to expand our knowledge and perspectives.
c. Dear Rossia, I am very happy to know that you are doing well lately! Now I am writing to
share with you some thoughts on how we can pursue lifelong learning together.
d. To begin with, we can explore online courses and platforms like Coursera or Khan
Academy, which offer a wide range of subjects and are accessible from anywhere with an
internet connection.
e. Warm regards.
f. By actively seeking out opportunities for learning and growth, we can continue to enrich
our lives and deepen our understanding of the world around us. I'm looking forward to
embarking on this journey of lifelong learning with you!
A. b-c-a-e-d-f B. b-d-e-a-c-f C. c-d-a-b-f-e D. c-e-d-a-b-f

Question 77
a. In addition to the two above-mentioned merits, ecological systems provide a vast array of
natural resources, including timber, food, medicinal plants, and minerals, which are
essential for human survival, economic development, and cultural practices.
b. Overall, the ecological system plays a crucial role in supporting human livelihoods,
ensuring a sustainable future for generations to come.
c. In terms of climate, ecological systems, such as forests and oceans, help regulate the
Earth's climate by absorbing carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases, thus mitigating the
impacts of climate change and stabilizing global temperatures.
d. Besides, forests and coastal ecosystems serve as natural buffers against floods and
erosion by absorbing excess water and stabilizing soil, thus protecting human settlements
and infrastructure.
e. There is no doubt that humans receive numerous benefits from the ecological system that
sustains life on Earth.
A. e-c-d-a-b B. e-a-c-b-d C. c-a-b-d-e D. c-e-a-b-d

Question 78
56. This process supports food production for various animals and humans.
57. For example, bees pollinate plants, which helps in the reproduction of many crops.
58. However, some argue that human intervention can replace natural roles.
59. The role of a species in an ecosystem is crucial for maintaining balance.
60. Nevertheless, each species contributes uniquely to its environment, ensuring diversity
and resilience.
61. Furthermore, predators like wolves keep prey populations in check, preventing
overgrazing.
62. Thus, protecting every species is essential for a healthy ecosystem.
A. d-a-c-f-g-b-e B. c-a-g-f-e-f-b
C. d-b-a-f-c-e-g D. f-d-a-b-g-c-e

Question 79:
a. I heard about this opportunity in a public announcement last Monday.
b. I am interested in your community development projects because I really care about the
life of people in the community and want to offer my services to you.
c. I am writing to apply for a volunteer position at the local center for community
development.
d. Currently, all my Sunday afternoons are free, and I will be able to help at the center if I
am chosen.
e. I look forward to hearing from you.
f. I am always available for an interview on any weekday after 4.30 p.m. or at weekends.
A. c-b-a-d-e-f B. c-a-b-d-f-e
C. b-a-c-d-f-e D. b-c-f-d-a-e

Question 80:
48. I intend to invite about 10 people, so it will be a small gathering.
49. Dear Jane, As the school year is coming to an end, I'm giving a farewell party before
we go away for holiday
50. I will order some pizzas and buy snacks and fruits. There will be dancing and
karaoke competition, so there will be a lot of fun.
51. Would you like to come?
52. It will be held at my home at 7 p.m this coming Sunday.
53. Please let me know if you can come. Just leave me a message on the phone if you
can't catch me at home.Your friend,

A. b-d-e-a-c-f B. b-c-a-e-d-f
C. b-e-d-a-c-f D. b-a-d-e-c-f

Đáp án:
76.C 77. A 78.C 79. B 80. A