JR_STAR SUPERCHAINA (CBSE) UT -05 ASSIGNMENT CHEMISTRY
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1. The IUPAC name of
1) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane 2) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
3) 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride 4) 3,4-dimethylpentanoylchloride
2. The number of isomeric alkenes with molecular formula C6 H12 are
1) 8 2) 10 3) 11 4) 13
3. Which of the following compounds will not exhibit cis-trans isomerism ?
1) 2)
3) 4)
4. In the hydrocarbon,
the state of hybridisation of carbons1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence
1) sp, sp 2 , sp 3 2) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 3) sp 2 , sp, sp 3 4) sp, sp 2 , sp 3
5. IUPAC name of
1) 2-methyl-3-ethyl-1-pentene 2) 3-ethyl-4-methyl-4-pentene
3) 3-ethyl-2-methyl-1-pentene 4) 3-methyl-2-ethyl-1-pentenes
6. Geometrical isomers differ in (PMET 2007)
1) position of functional group 2) position of atoms
3) spatial arrangement of atoms 4) length of carbon chain
7. A compound with molecular formula, C6 H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is
1) n-hexane 2) 2-methyl pentane
3) 2, 3-dimethyl butane 4) 2,3-dimethyl pentane
8. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
1) 2) 3) 4)
9. The total number of isomers of C4 H 7OH is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 6 4) 7
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10. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3- ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic
acid is
1) 2) 3) 4)
11. If 0.1 M of a weak acid is taken and its percentage of degree of ionization is 1.34%, then its
ionization constant will be
1) 0.8 10–5 2) 1.79 10–5 3) 0.182 10–5 4) 110–5
12. At 25oC the dissociation constant of a base, BOH, is 1.0 10–12 . The concentration of hydroxyl ions
in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be
1) 2.0 10 –6 mol L–1 2) 1.0 10–5 molL–1
3) 1.0 10 –6 mol L–1 4) 1.0 10–7 mol L–1
13. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 108 M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K K w 1014 is
1) 1.0 10–6 M 2) 1.0525 10–7 M 3) 9.525 10–8 M 4) 1.0 10–8 M .
14. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 N CH 3COOH is Kacid 1105
1) 105 2) 104 3) 103 4) 102
15. A weak acid, HA, has K a of 1.00 10 –5 . If 0.100 mole of this acid is dissolved in 1L of water, the
percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
1) 99.0% 2) 1.00% 3) 99.9% 4) 0.100%
10
16. Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25C that contains 110 M of hydronium ions, i.e., H 3O .
1) 4.000 2) 9.000 3) 1.000 4) 7.000
–8
17. The pH of 10 M HCl solution is
1) 8 2) more than 8 3) between 6 and 7 4) slightly more than 7
18. Which of the following is correct?
1) The pH of 1L solution containing 0.49 g of H 2 SO4 is 2.0.
2) The conjugate base H 2 S of S 2 is.
3) BF3 is a Lewis’s base.
4) Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium.
19. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion
concentration in the mixture?
1) 1.11104 M 2) 3.7 104 M 3) 3.7 103 M 4) 1.11103 M
20. Solubility product of a salt AB is 110–8 M 2 in a solution in which the concentration of A ions are
10–3 M . The salt will precipitate when the concentration of B – ions is kept
1) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M 2) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M
3) 10–5 M 4) < 10–8 M
21. The nucleus of an atom can be assumed to be spherical. The radius of the nucleus of mass number A
is given by 1.25 10–13 A1/3 cm. The radius of an atom is 1.0 Å. If the mass number is 64 then the
fraction of the atomic volume that is occupied by the nucleus is
1) 1.0 10–3 2) 5.0 10–5 3) 2.5 10–2 4) 1.25 10–13
22. For f-orbital, the values of m are
1) –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 2) –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
3) –1, 0, +1 4) 0, +1, +2, +3
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23. Which of the following is not a permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?
1 1
1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = – 2) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +
2 2
1 1
3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – 4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = –
2 2
24. A particle having a mass of 1.0 mg has a velocity of the 3600 km/h. Calculate the wavelength of the
particle. h 6.626 1027 erg s
1) 6.626 1028 cm 2) 6.626 1029 cm 3) 6.626 1030 cm 4) 6.626 1031 cm
25. The energies, E1, and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be
1
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 22 4) 1 42
2
26. When sodium compounds are heated in a Bunsen burner flame, they emit light at a wavelength of
5890 Å. If 1.0 10–4 moles of sodium atoms each emit a photon of this wavelength, how many
kilojoules of energy are emitted?
1) 2.0 10–2 kJ 2) 8.08 10–3 kJ 3) 6.20 10–2 kJ 4) 2.0310–3 kJ
27. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
h h h h
1) 25 2) 1.0 3) 10 4) 2.5
28.
The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He is
1) 0.0 2) 52.9 3) 26.5 4) 105.8
29. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z=37) is :
1 1 1 1
1) 5,1, 0 2) 5,1,1 3) 5, 0,1 4) 5, 0, 0
2 2 2 2
2+
30. The number of unpaired d-electrons retained in Fe (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is
1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
31. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid
CH3OH to a gas?
1) Dipole-dipole interaction 2) Covalent bonds
3) London dispersion force 4) Hydrogen bonding
32. The higher lattice energy corresponds to
1) MgO 2) CaO 3) SrO 4) BaO
33. The correct order of increasing bond length of C–H, C–O, C–C and C = C is
1) C H C C C O C C 2) C C C C C O C H
3) C O C H C C C 4) C H C O C C C C
34. Which of the following is polar molecule?
1) SiF4 2) XeF4 3) BF3 4) SF4
35. Which one of the following species has a planar triangular shape?
1) N 3 2) NO3 3) NO2 4) CO2
36. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?
1) Diamond, Silicon carbide 2) NH 3 , PH 3
3) XeF4 , XeO4 4) SiCl4 , PCl4
37. Which of the following species contains equal number of and - bonds?
1) CN 2 2) CH2 CN 2 3) HCO3 – 4) XeO4
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38. Consider the following species: CN , CN , NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond order?
1) CN 2) CN 3) NO 4) CN
39. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only bonds according to Molecular Orbital
Theory?
1) Be2 2) O2 3) N2 4) C2
40. Identify a molecule which does not exist
1) He2 2) Li2 3) C2 4) O2
CHEMITRY KEY
1. 3 2. 4 3. 2 4. 2 5. 1 6. 1 7. 3 8. 2 9. 1 10. 4
11. 2 12. 4 13. 2 14. 4 15. 2 16. 1 17. 3 18. 1 19. 2 20. 3
21. 4 22. 2 23. 1 24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 4 28. 3 29. 4 30. 3
31. 4 32. 1 33. 1 34. 4 35. 2 36. 3 37. 4 38. 1 39. 4 40. 1
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