Model Paper of Programmer 2 (P1)

Q1. Consider the following transaction involving two bank accounts X and Y.
read(x); x:=x-50; write (x); read(y); y:=y+50; write(y)
The constraint that the sum of the accounts x and yshould remain constant is that of
A. Atomicity B. Consistency C. Isolation D. Durability

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a part of the ACID properties of database transactions?
A. Atomicity B. Consistency C. Isolation D. Deadlock-freedom

Q3. Consider the following partial S involving two transactions T1 and T2. Only the read and the write
operations have been shown. The read operatio on data item P is denoted by read(P) and the write
operation on data item P is denoted by write(P).

Suppose that the transaction T1 fails immediately after time instance 9. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. T2 must be aborted and then both T1 and T2 must be re-started to ensure transaction atomicity
B. Schedule S is non-recoverable and cannot ensure transaction atomicity
C. Only T2 must be aborted and then re-started to ensure transaction atomicity
D. Schedule S is recoverable and can ensure transaction atomicity and nothing else needs to be done

Q4. Consider the following four schedules due to three transactions (indicated by the subscript) using read
and write on a data item x, denoted by r(x) and w(x) respectively. Which one of them is conflict serializable?
A. r1(x);r2(x);w1(x);r3(x);w2(x) B. r2(x);r1(x);w2(x);r3(x);w1(x)
C. r3(x);r2(x);r1(x);w2(x);w1(x) D. r2(x);w2(x);r3(x);r1(x);w1(x)

Q5. Consider the following schedule for transactions T1, T2 and T3:

Which one of the schedules below is the correct serialization of the above?
A. T1 → T3 → T2 B. T2 → T1 → T3
C. T2 → T3 → T1 D. T3 → T1 → T2
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Q6. Consider the following schedules involving two transactions. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE?

A. Both S1 and S2 are conflict serializable.

B. S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not conflict serializable.
C. S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is conflict serializable.
D. Both S1 and S2 are not conflict serializable.

Q7. Two concurrent executing transactions T1 and T2 are allowed to update same stock item say ‘A’ in an
uncontrolled manner. In such a scenario, following problems may occur:
(a) Dirty read problem (b) Lost update problem
(c) Transaction failure (d) Inconsistent database state
Which of the following option is correct if database system has no concurrency module and allow concurrent
execution of above two transactions?
A. (a), (b) and (c) only B. (c) and (d) only
C. (a) and (b) only D. (a), (b) and (d) only

Q8. Which of the following query transformations (i.e., replacing the l.h.s. expression by the r.h.s expression)
is incorrect? R1 and R2 are relations, C1 and C2 are selection conditions and A1 and A2 are attributes of R1.

Q9. Given the relations

employee (name, salary, deptno) and
department (deptno, deptname,address)
Which of the following queries cannot be expressed using the basic relational algebra operations
?
A. Department address of every employee
B. Employees whose name is the same as their department name
C. The sum of all employees' salaries
D. All employees of a given department

Q10. Consider the relations r1(P, Q, R) and r2(R, S, T) with primary keys P and R respectively. The relation r1
contains 2000 tuples and r2 contains 2500 tuples. The maximum size of the join r1 ⋈ r2 is:
A. 2000 B. 2500 C. 4500 D. 5000

Q11. Let M and N be two entities in an E-R diagram with simple single value attributes.
R1 and R2 are two relationship between M and N, where as
R1 is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many.
The minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, R1 and R2 in the relational model are _____.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 3

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Q12. The E-R model is expressed in terms of:
(i) Entities
(ii) The relationship among entities
(iii) The attributes of the entities
Then
A. (i) and (iii) B. (i) and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iii) D. None of the above

Q13. The entity type on which the _______ type depends is called the identifying owner.
A. Strong entity B. Relationship
C. Weak entity D. E - R

Q14. Which of the following statements about the "DELETE" command is FALSE?
A. It removes tuples from a relation (table).
B. It reomves tuples as well as the relation (table).
C. A missing WHERE clause specifies that all tuples in the relation are to be deleted.
D. Depending on the number of tuples selected by the condition in the WHERE clause, Zeroc one or several
tuples can be deleted by a single DELETE command.

Q15. Consider the following relation sclhema R along wiht the tupels.
Employee(name, salary) = {<e1, 10000>,<e2, 50000>,<e3, 2500>,<e4, 7500>,<e5,8900>,>e6,9800>}
What is the output of following SQL query?
SELECT name, MAX(salary) FROM Employee WHERE salary<(SELECT MAX (salary) FROM Employee;
A. <e3,2500> B. <e5,8900>
C. <e6, 9800> D. <e1,10000>

Q16. Given two relations R1(A, B) and R2(C, D), the result of following query Select distinct A, B form R1, R2
is guaranteed to be same as R1 provided one of the followign condition is satisfied.
A. R1 has no duplicates and R2 is empty. B. R1 has no duplicates and R2 is non-empty.
C. Both R1 and R2 have no duplicates. D. R2 has no duplicates and R1 is non-empty.

Q17. Properties of ‘DELETE’ and ‘TRUNCATE’ commands indicate that

A. After the execution of ‘TRUNCATE’ operation, COMMIT and ROLLBACK statements cannot be performed
to retrieve the lost data, while ‘DELETE’ allow it.
B. After the execution of ‘DELETE’ and ‘TRUNCATE’ operation retrieval is easily possible for the lost data.
C. After the execution of ‘DELETE’ operation, COMMIT and ROLLBACK statements can be performed to
retrieve the lost data, while TRUNCATE do not allow it.
D. After the execution of ‘DELETE’ and ‘TRUNCATE’ operation no retrieval is possible for the lost data.

Q18. Emp (eid: integer, ename; string, age; integer, salary; real) Works (eid; integer, did; integer, pct time;
integer) Dept (did; integer, budget; real, managerid; integer) CREATE VIEW AvegSalaryByAge (age, avgSalary)
AS SELECT E.eid, AVG (E.salary) FROM Emp E GROUP By E age.
A. Teh above view cannot be updated automatically.
B. Teh above view on Emp can be updated automatically by updating Emp
C. The above view cannot be created automatically
D. None of the given options

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Q19. Consider the relation R(P, Q, S, T, X, Y, Z, W) with the following functional dependencies

Consider the decomposition of the relation R into the constituent relations according to the following two
decomposition schemes.

Which one of the following options is correct?

A. D1 is a lossless decomposition, but D2 is a lossy decomposition
B. D1 is a lossy decomposition, but D2 is a lossless decomposition
C. Both D1 and D2 are lossless decompositions
D. Both D1 and D2 are lossy decompositions

Q20. Consider a realation table R that is in 3NF, but not in BCNF. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. A cell in R holds a set instead of an atomic value.
B. R has a nontrivial functional dependency X → A, where x is not a superkey and A is a non-prime attributes
and X is not a proper subset of any key.
C. R has a nontrivial functional depencency X → A, where X is not a superkey and A is non-prime attribute
and X is a proper subset of some key.
D. R has a nontrivial functional dependency X → A, where X is not a superkey and A is a prime attribute.

Q21. R(A, B, C, D) is a relation. Which of the following does not have a lossless join, dependency preserving
BCNF decomposition?
A. A → B, B → CD B. A → B, B → C, C → D
C. AB → C, C → AD D. A → BCD

Q22. Consider a relation R (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H), Where each attribute is atomic, and following functional
dependencies exist.
CH → G
A → BC
B → CFH
E→A
F → EG
The relation R is _________.
A. in 1NF but not in 2NF B. in 2NF but not in 3NF
C. in 3NF but not in BCNF D. in BCNF

Q23. If every non-key attribute functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation will be in
A. First normal form B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form D. Fourth normal form

Q24. Which of the component module of DBMS does rearrangement and possible ordering of operations,
eliminate redundancy in query and use efficient algorihms and indexes during the execution of a query?
A. query compiler B. query optimizer
C. Stored data manager D. Database processor

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Q25. __________ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analyzing large database to find useful
patterns.
A. Dataminig B. Data warehousing
C. DBMS D. Data mirroring

Q26. In RDBMS, different classes of relations are created using _____ technique to prevent modification
anomalies.
A. Functional Dependencies B. Data integrity
C. Referential integrity D. Normal forms

Q27. In RDBMS, Which type of Join returns all rows that satisfy the join condition?
A. Inner Join B. Outer Join
C. Semi Join D. Anti Join

Q28. The following functional dependencies hold true for the relational schema {V, W, X, Y, Z}:
V→W
VW → X
Y → VX
Y→Z
Which of the following is irreducible equivalent for this set of functional dependencies?
A. V→W
V→X
Y→V
Y→Z
B. V→W
W→X
Y→V
Y→Z
C. V→W
V→X
Y→V
Y→X
Y→Z
D. V→W
W→X
Y→V
Y→X
Y→Z

Q29. Consider the relation X(P, Q, R, S, T, U) with the following set of functional dependencies
F={
{P, R} → {S, T},
{P, S, U} → {Q, R}
}
Which of the following is the trivial functional dependency in F+ is closure of F?
A. {P,R} → {S,T} B. {P,R} → {R,T}
C. {P,S} → {S} D. {P,S,U} → {Q}
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Q30. Functional dependencies are a generalization of
A. Key dependencies B. Relation dependencies
C. Database Dependencies D. None to these

Q31. Integrity constraints ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not result into
loss of data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r.t. the examples of integrity
constraints?
(A) An instructor Id. No. connot be null, provided Instructor Id No. being primary key.
(B) No two citizen have same Adhar-Id.
(C) Budget of a company must be zero.
A. (A), (B) and (C) are true. B. (A) false, (B) and (C) are true.
C. (A) and (B) are true; (C) false. D. (A), (B) and (C) are false

Q32. A database trigger is

A. A statement that is executed by user when debugging an application program
B. A condition the system test for the validity of the database user
C. A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of modification on the database
D. A statement that enables to start any DBMS

Q33. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. The context diagram should be identified clearly at all levels of DFDs
II. Control information should not be represented in DFD
III. Control information should not be represented in DFD
IV. A data store can be connected either to another datastore or to an external entity.
A. II and IV B. II and III
C. I and III D. I, II and III

Q34. Which of the following scenarios may lead to an irrecoverable error in database system?
A. A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
B. A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
C. A transaction reads a data item after it is written by a committed transaction
D. A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted transaction

Q35. Armstrong's inference rule does not determine

A. Reflexivity B. Augmentation
C. Transitivity D. Mutual dependency

Q36. The relation scheme given below is used to store information about the employees of a company,
where empId is the key and deptId indicates the department to which the employee is assigned. Each
employee is assigned to exactly one department.
emp(empId, name, gender, salary, deptId)
Consider the following SQL query:
select deptId, count(*)
from emp
where gender = “female” and salary > (select avg(salary)from emp)
group by deptId;

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The above query gives, for each department in the company, the number of female employees whose salary
is greater than the average salary of
A. employees in the department B. employees in the company
C. female employees in the department D. female employees in the company

Q37. The database environment has all of the following components except
A. Users B. Separate files
C. Database D. Database administration

Q38. A schema describes:

A. data elements B. records and files
C. record relationship D. All of the above

Q39. Suppose a database system crashes again while recovering form a previous crash. Assume
checkpointion is not doen by the database either during the transactions or during recovery. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?
A. The same undo and redo list will be used while recoveting again.
B. The database will become inconsistent.
C. The system cannot recover any further.
D. All the transactions that are already undone and redone will not be recovered again.

Q40. Consider the following statements S1 and S2 about the relational data model:
S1: A relation scheme can have at most one foreign key.
S2: A foreign key in a relation schema R cannot be used to refer to tuples of R.
Which one of the following choices is correct?
A. S1 is false and S2 is true. B. Both S1 and S2 are false.
C. Both S1 and S2 are true. D. S1 is true and S2 is false.

Q41. A super key of for an entity consists of

A. one attribute only B. At least two attributes
C. At most two arttributes D. One or more attributes

Q42. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing?

A. The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2.
B. The mask needs to be included in the address to difine the block.
C. The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block.
D. All of the above

Q43. The default subnet mask for a class B network can be

A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.192.0 D. 255.255.0.0

Q44. If a class B network is subnetted such that there are at least 20 subnets, what is the minimum number
of bits that need to be used for the subnet mask?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 3 D. 5

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Q45. Given Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111 in binary, what
is the address in hexadecimal notation?
A. 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 B. 51:81:EA:81:AA:08
C. 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F D. 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

Q46. Which type of Bridge would be used to connect an Ethernet Segment with a token ring Segment?
A. Transparent Bridge B. Source-Route Bridge
C. Translation Bridge D. None of these

Q47. The number of bits used for addressing in Gigabit Ethernet is _________.
A. 32 bit B. 48 bit C. 64 bit D. 128 bit

Q48. In a fully-connected mesh network with 10 computers, total _____ number of cable are required and
_____ number of ports are required for each device.\
A. 40,9 B. 45,10 C. 45,9 D. 50,10

Q49. ______ do not take their decisions on measurements or estimates of the current traffic and topology.
A. Static algorithms B. Adaptive algorithms
C. Non - adaptive algorithms D. Recursive algorithms

Q50. Mesh analysis is applicable to only

A. non-pianar network B. planar network
C. circuits containing voltage sources D. circuits containing current sources

Q51. For which one of the followign reasons does internet protocol (IP) use the time-to-live (TTL) field in the
IP datagram header?
A. Ensure packets reach destination within that time
B. Discard packets that reach late than that time
C. Prevent packtes from looping indefinitely
D. Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Q52. In IPv4 header, the ______ field is needed to allow the destination host to determine which datagram a
newly arrived fragments belongs to.
A. identification B. fragment offset
c. time to live D. header checksum

Q53. Project 802 defines standards for which layers of the OSI models?
A. Application and Presentation layers B. Physical and Data Link layers
C. Network and Data Link layers D. Transport and Network layers

Q54. In OSI model, data compression is carried out by

A. Network layer B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer D. Presentation layer

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Q55. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about the OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) routing
protocol used in the Internet?
A. OSPF implements Bellman-Ford algorithm to find shortest paths.
B. OSPF uses Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm to implement least-cost path routing.
C. OSPF is used as an intra-domain routing protocol.
D. OSPF implements hierarchical routing.

Q56. Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in:
A. TCP, but not UDP B. TCP and UDP
C. UDP, but not TCP D. Neither TCP nor UDP

Q57. What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?

A. Distance vector B. Flooding
C. Path Vector D. Link state

Q58. Dynamic routing protocol enable routers to

A. Dynamically discover and maintain rutes
B. Distribute routing updates to othere routers
C. Reach agreement with other routers about the network topology
D. All of the above

Q59. Host 130.37.56.201 is on a class Network.

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Q60. The subnet mask 255.255.255.192

A. Extends the network portion to 16 bits
B. Extends the network portion to 26 bits
C. Extends the network portion to 36 bits
D. Has no effect on the network portion of an IP address

Q61. In a classful addressing, the IP addresses with 0 (zero) as network number:

A. refers to the current network B. refers to broadcast on the local network
C. Refers to loopback testing D. None of the above

Q62. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to the _____ field in the IPv4 header.
A. TOS field B. Fragmentation field
C. Fast Switching D. Option field

Q63. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?
A. unicast addressign B. multicast addressing
C. broadcast addressing D. anycast addressing

Q64. Another name of IEEE 802.11a is:

A. WECA B. Fast Ethernet
C. Wi-Fi 5 D. 802.11g

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Q65. A device is sending out data at the rate of 2000 bps. How long does it take to send a file of 100000
characters?
A. 50 B. 200 C. 400 D. 800

Q66. A file is downloaded in a home computer using a 56 kbps MODem connected to an Internet Service
Provider. If the download of file completes in 2 minutes, what is the maximum size of data downloaded?\
A. 112 Mbits B. 6.72 Mbits C. 67.20 Mbits D. 672 Mbits

Q67. An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How many data elements are
carried by each signal element?
A. 0.336 bits/baud B. 3 bits/baud
C. 120,00,000 bits/baud D. None of the above

Q68. The structure or format of dat is called:

A. Syntax B. Struct
C. Semantic D. None of the above

Q69. DHCP protocol is NOT used for which of the following?

A. Assign IP address B. Discover the default router
C. Discover the DNS server D. Discover the path to the destination

Q70. A noiseless 3 kHz channel transmits bits with binary level signals. What is the maximum data rate?
A. 3 kbps B. 6 kbps C. 12 kbps D. 24 kbps

Q71. The period of a signal is 100ms. What is its frequency in kilohertz?

A. 10-1 kHz B. 10 -2kHz C. 10-3kHz D. 10-4kHz

Q72. In networking terminology UTP means

A. Unshielded twisted pair B. Ubiquitous Teflon port
C. Uniformly Terminating port D. Unshielded T-connector port

Q73. Assertion(A): Twisted pairs are widely used as transmission medium.

Reasoning(R): Twisted pairs have adequate performance and low cost.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q74. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository taht can be
accessed from any machine?
A. POP3 B. IMAP C. SMTP D. DMSP

Q75. Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0

A. Push and Pull Model B. Interface to a storage device
C. Multimedia messaging D. Hashing

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Q76. For a channel of 3 KHz bandwidth and signal to noise ratio of 30 dB, the maximum date rate is:
A. 3000 bps B. 6000 bps C. 15000 bps D. 30000 bps

Q77. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge?\

A. Bridge is a layer 2 device
B. Bridge reduces collision domain
C. Bridge used to connect two or more LAN segments
D. Bridge reduces broadcast domain

Q78. Assume that source S and destination D are connected through two intermediate routers labeled R.
Determine how many times each packet has to visit the network layer and the data link layer during a
transmission from S to D.

A. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 4 times

B. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 3 times
C. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 6 times
D. Network layer – 2 times and Data link layer – 6 times

Q79. If an IP address starts with a bit sequence of 11110, it is a class _____ address.
A. B B. c C. D D. E

Q80. An organization has a Class B network and wishes to form subnets for 60 departments. The subnet
mask would be:
A. 255.255.64.0 B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.255.0

Q81.If the period of a signal is 1000ms, then what is its frequency in kilohertz?
A. 10 -1Khz B. 1 KHz C. 10 -3Khz D. 10 -2Khz

Q82. 1.who is minister of Ayurved medical of rajasthan? jktLFkku ds vk;qosZfnd ea=h dkSu gS\
1. xtsUnz [kholj Gajendra Khinvsar 2. fdjksZMh yky eh.kk Kirodi Lal Meena
3. izse pUn cSjok Prem Chand Bairva 4. fn;k dqekjh Diya Kumari

Q83. çèkkuea=h lw;ksZn; ;kstuk ds rgr igys pj.k esa jktLFkku ds dkSu ls rhu ftys 'kkfey fd, x, gSa\
Which three districts of Rajasthan have been included in the first phase under Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya
Yojana?
1. vtesj mn;iqj tks/kiqj Ajmer Udaipur Jodhpur 2. t;iqj tks/kiqj lhdj Jaipur Jodhpur Sikar
3. lhdj >q>
a quw tks/kiqj Sikar Jhunjhunu Jodhpur 4. ikyh] chdkusj] t;iqj Pali, Bikaner, Jaipur

Q84.who is minister of IT of rajasthan jktLFkku ds lwpuk iz|ksfxdh ea=h dkSu gS\

1. jkT; o/kZu flag jkBksj Rajy vardhan singh Rathor 2. tksjk jke Jora Ram
3. izse pan cSjok Prem Chand Bairva 4. fn;k dqekjh Diya Kumari

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Q85. dsæa ljdkj us jktLFkku esa feyus okys fdl [kfut inkFkZ dks [kfut dh Js.kh ls la'kksèku dj fØfVdy feujy dh Js.kh esa
'kkfey fd;k gS – Which mineral substance found in Rajasthan has been amended from the category of
mineral to the category of critical mineral –
1. iksVk’k Potash 2. ftIle Gypsum
3. tSLij Jasper 4. jkWd QkLQsV Rock Phosphate
Q86. Hkkjr ds igys osVySaM 'kgj ds fy, ;wusLdks dks Hksts x, rhu ukfer 'kgjksa esa jktLFkku dk dkSu lk 'kgj 'kkfey gS –
Which city of Rajasthan is included in the three named cities sent to UNESCO for India's first wetland city?
1. dksVk Kota 2. >kykokM+ Jhalawar
3. mn;iqj Udaipur 4. Hkjriqj Bharatpur

Q87. 16 oÈ jktLFkku foèkkulHkk esa çeq[k foi{kh ny Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dkaxzsl us fdldks usrk çfri{k euksuhr fd;k
Who was nominated as the Leader of Opposition by the main opposition party Indian National Congress in
the 16th Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
1. tksxkjke iVsy Jogaram Patel 2. Vhdkjke twyh Tikaram Julie
3. 'kkafr /kkjhoky Shanti Dhariwal 4. xksfoan flag MksVkljk Govind Singh Dotasara

Q88. Recently, which ministry launched implementation Manual of Tobacco Free Educational Institutions
(ToFEI) on World No Tobacco Day, 2024?
gky gh esa] fdl ea=ky; us foÜo rackdw fu"ksèk fnol] 2024 ij rackdw eqä 'kS{kf.kd laLFkkuksa ¼ToFEI½ dk dk;kZUo;u eSuqvy y‚Up
fd;k\
A. Ministry of Education f'k{kk ea=ky;
B. MInistry of Health and Family Welfare LokLF; vkSj ifjokj dY;k.k ea=ky;
C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change i;kZoj.k] ou vkSj tyok;q ifjorZu ea=ky;
D. Ministry of Agriculture —f"k ea=ky;

Q89. Recently, the “None of the Above” (NOTA) option emerged as the runner-up in which constituency of
Madhya Pradesh?
gky gh esa] Þmijksä esa ls dksà ugÈÞ ¼NOTA½ fodYi eè; çns'k ds fdl fuokZpu {ks= esa mifotsrk ds :i esa mHkjk\
A. Gwalior Xokfy;j B. Indore bankSj
C. Khajuraho [ktqjkgks D. Jabalpur tcyiqj

Q90. Recently, Chandrababu Naidu became the Chief Minister of which state?
gky gh esa paæckcw uk;Mw fdl jkT; ds eq[;ea=h cus gSa\
A. Andhra Pradesh vkaèkz çns'k B. Karnataka dukZVd
C. Tamil Nadu rfeyukMq D. Odisha vksfM'kk

Q91. What is the name of the internet ransomware virus, regarding which CERT-In issued an advisory?
baVjusV jSaleos;j ok;jl dk uke D;k gS] ftlds ckjs esa lhÃvkjVh&bu us ,Mokbtjh tkjh dh gS\
A. Agata vxkrk B. Akira vdhjk
C. Aira ,sjk D. Alima vyhek

Q92. Which technology company introduced “About this image” fact-check tool?
fdl çkS|ksfxdh daiuh us ÞAbout this imageÞ rF;&tkap midj.k is'k fd;k\
a. Google xwxy b. Amazon vest+Wu
c. Apple ,Iiy d. Yahoo ;kgw

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Q93. fueufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh la[;k nh xbZ J`a[kyk esa iz’u fpUg ¼\½ ds LFkku ij vk,xh\
Which of the following will replace the question mark (?) in the given number series?
600, 120, 30, 10, ?
A. 1 B. 15 C. 5 D. 12

Q94. ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks rhljs 'kCn ls mlh çdkj lEcfUèkr gS ftl çdkj nwljk 'kCn igys 'kCn ls lEcfUèkr gSA ¼'kCnksa
dks vFkZiw.kZ 'kCnksa ds :i esa ekuuk gS vkSj mUgsa 'kCn esa v{kjks@
a O;atuks@
a Lojksa dh la[;k ds vkèkkj ij ,d&nwljs ls lEcfUèkr ugÈ djuk
gSA½ Choose the alternative which is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is
related to the first word. (Words are to be treated as meaningful words and not to relate them to each other
on the basis of the number of letters/consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cricket : Bat :: Badminton : ? fØdsV % cSV %% cSMfe.Vu % \
A. ball xsna B. player f[kykM+h
C. Stick fLVd D. Racket jSdsV

Q95.: nh xà v{kj J`a[kyk ds [kkyh LFkkuksa ij Øe ls j[kus ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk v{kj lewg mls iwjk djsxk\
Which of the following letter set will complete it if arranged at the blank spaces of the given letter series?
a_aaababa_ab
A. abaaa B. abaaba C. aababa D. ababaa

Q96. v:.k] bfy;kl ls rst nkSMrk gS] fdUrq fnus'k ftruk rst ugÈA fnus'k] pUnj ls rst nkSMrk gS] fdUrq foØe ftruk rst ugÈA
lcls rst dkSu nkSMrk gS\
Arun runs faster than Ilyas but not as fast as Dinesh. Dinesh runs faster than Chander but not as fast as
Vikram. Who runs the fastest?
A. v:.k Arun B. foØe Vikram C. pUnj Chander D. fnus'k Dinesh

Q97. ,d iafä esa cSBs ,d iSuy ds Ng lnL;ksa esa ls X]Y ds ckà vkSj gS fdUrq P ds nkb± vkSj gSA Y]Q ds nkà vksj gS fdUrq Z ds ckb±
vksj gSZA Z,R ds ckb± vksj gSA Nksjksa ij dkSu ls lnL; gS\
Out of six members of a panel sitting in a row, X is to the left of Y but to the right of P. Y is to the right of Q
but to the left of Z. Z is to the left of R. Which members are at the ends?
A. QZ B. XZ C. PR D. QY

Q98. lqjs'k ,d vkneh dk ifjp; bl :i esa nsrk gS] og ml L=h dk iq= gS tks esjh ekrk ds ifr dh ekrk gSA** lqj's k dk ml vkneh
ls D;k lEcUèk gS\
Suresh introduces a man as, "He is the son of a woman who is the mother of my mother's husband." How is
Suresh related to that man?
A. paternal uncle pkpk B. son iq=
C. The son of a paternal uncle ppsjk Hkkà D. grandson ikS=

Q99. Find the missing number from the given series.

nh xbZ J`a[kyk ls yqIr la[;k Kkr dhft,
70, 40, 50, 90, 200, ?
(A) 525 (B) 500 (C) 425 (D) 520

Q100. If x means ÷, – means x, ÷ means + , and + means -, then

;fn x dk vFkZ ÷, – dk vFkZ x gS] ÷ dk vFkZ + gS] vkSj + dk vFkZ – gS] rks
(3- 15 + 19) x 8 + 6 =?
(a) -1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
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