Punjab Technical University

Maximum Marks: 90 Time: 90Mins.

Entrance Test for Enrollment in Ph.D Programme

Important Instructions
Fill all the information in various columns, in Capital letters, with blue/black point pen for
attempting the questions
Use of calculators is not allowed.
Make attempt by writing the answer in capital Letters in the box against each question
number.
All questions are compulsory. Each Question has only one right answer. No Negative marking
for wrong answers.
Questions attempted with two or more options/answers will not be evaluated.

Stream: ……Engineering………………………………..
Discipline …Electronic and Communication Engineering
Name …………………………………………………..
Fathers Name …………………………………………………..
Roll Number Date: 13-07-2014
Signature of Candidate: …………………………………………………..
Signature of Invigilator …………………………………………………..

1. For a transmission line open circuit and short circuit impedances are 20 Ω and 5 Ω. Then characteristic
impedance is

A. 100 Ω
B. 50 Ω
C. 25 Ω
D. 10 Ω
2. Z(c) for the network shown in the figure is

The value of C and R are, respectively

 A. 1/6 F and 4 Ω
B. 2/9 F and 9/2 Ω
C. 2/3 F and 1/2 Ω
D. 1/2 F and 1 Ω
3. A 1μF capacitor is connected to 12 V battery. The energy stored in the capacitor is

A. 12 x 10-6 J
B. 24 x 10-6 J
C. 48 x 10-6 J
D. 72 x 10-6 J
4. A coil has resistance R and inductance L. At ω = ∞ the phase angle between voltage and current is

A. 0°
B. 180°
C. 45°
D. 90°
5. Assertion (A): The output of a NOR gate is equal to the complement of OR of input variables.

Reason (R): A XOR gate is a universal gate.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true

6. Out of latch and flip flop, which has clock input?

A. Latch only
B. Flip flop only
C. Both latch and flip flop
D. None
7. In the given figure shows a 4 bit serial in parallel out right shift register. The initial contents as shown
are 0110. After 3 clock pulses the contents will be
 A. 0000
B. 0101
C. 1010
D. 1111
8. In digital circuits Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their

A. lower propagation delay

B. lower power dissipation
C. higher propagation delay
D. higher power dissipation
9. The first machine cycle of an instruction is always

A. a memory read cycle

B. a fetch cycle
C. a input/output read cycle
D. a memory write cycle
10. A 4 bit ripple counter starts in 0000 state. When the counter reads 0010 the number of clock pulses
which have occurred is

A. 2
B. 18
C. 2 or 18
D. 2 or 18 or 34

11. Which one of the following can be used as parallel to series converter?

A. Decoder
B. Digital counter
C. Multiplexer
D. Demultiplexer

12. In the given figure, Y =

A. (A + B)C + DE
 B. AB + C(D + E)
C. (A + B)C + D + E
D. none of the above
13. Assertion (A): In 8085 WR and RD signals are active high.

Reason (R): LOW WR means write operation and low RD means read operation.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct R is wrong
D. A is wrong R is correct

14. The signals in 8086 are classified into

A. minimum mode and maximum mode

B. decrement mode and increment mode
C. low mode and high mode
D. none of the above

15. Consider the following statements

1. A total of about 1 million bytes can be directly accessed by 8086 microprocessor.

2. The 8086 has thirteen 16 bit registers.
3. The 8086 has eight flags.
4. Compared to 8086, the 80286 provides a higher degree of memory protection.
Of the above statements
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
B. 1, 3, 4 are correct
C. 1, 2, 4 are correct
D. 1, 2, 3 are correct

16. In which group of 8085 instructions condition flags are not affected?

A. Data transfer group

B. Arithmetic group
C. Logical group
D. Both (a) and (c)

17. What is the addressing mode used in the instruction LDA 0345 H ?
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Implied
D. Immediate.
18. In 8085 which addressing mode is also called inherent addressing?

A. Direct
B. Register
 C. Implicit
D. Immediate
19. For the system in the given figure. The transfer function C(s)/R(s) is

A. G1 + G2 + 1
B. G1 G2 + 1
C. G1 G2 + G2 + 1
D. G1 G2 + G1 + 1
20. In control systems the magnitude of error voltage

A. is very small
B. is very large
C. neither small nor large
D. may be any value from 0 to 50 V
21. Assertion (A): The time response of the system with

will not have any overshoot for unit step input.

Reason (R): A critically damped system does not have any overshoot to a unit step input.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. R is correct but A is wrong
22. For underdamped second order systems the rise time is the time required for the response to rise from

A. 0% to 100% of its final value

B. 10% to 90% of its final value
C. 5% to 95% of its final value
D. either (a) or (b)

23. The static equation of a system is

The poles of this system are located at

A. -1, -9
B. -1, -20
C. -4, -5
D. -9, -20
24. In the given figure, the combinations of two non-touching loops is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

25. The given figure shows a control system. The maximum value of gain for which the system is stable is

A. √3
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

26. PN – junction is heavily doped in case of

A. PIN diodes
B. Tunnel diodes
C. Gunn Diodes
D. All of the Above

27. In the given figure, the curves 1, 2, 3 are respectively for

 A. all pass, minimum phase and non-minimum phase functions
B. minimum phase, all pass and non-minimum phase functions
C. non-minimum phase, all pass and minimum phase functions
D. minimum phase, non-minimum phase and all pass functions
28. Assertion (A): If points at infinity are included, G(s) has same number of poles and zeros.

Reason (R): The function

has a zero at s = - 2.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. R is correct but A is wrong
29. A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM is

A. 400 W
B. 512 W
C. 588 W
D. 650 W
30. To relay outdoor remotely located live programs, TV transmitter use

A. microwave links
B. coaxial cable link
C. open wire link
D. either (b) or (c)
31. The receiver of a pulsed RADAR can detect signal power in the order of

A. 1W
B. 0.1 W
C. 10-5 W
D. 10-12 W
32. Resonant circuits are used in
A. audio amplifiers
 B. RF amplifiers
C. both audio and RF amplifiers
D. none of the above

33. Which of the following statement is correct

A. FET and Junction Transistors both are unipolar
B. FET and Junction Transistors both are bipolar
C. FET is bipolar, while Junction Transistors are unipolar
D. FET is unipolar, while Junction Transistors are bipolar.

34. In a two tone AM system the two modulating frequencies are 2000 and 4000 π rad/sec. If carrier
frequency is 2π x 106 rad/sec, the frequencies of upper sidebands are

A. 1.002 MHz and 1.004 MHz

B. 1.001 MHz and 1.002 MHz
C. 1.001 MHz and 1.004 MHz
D. 1.002 MHz and 1.008 MHz
35. The resonant frequency of an RF amplifier is 1 MHz and its bandwidth is 10 kHz. The Q factor will be

A. 10
B. 100
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
36. An S/N ratio of 3 expressed in db is

A. 4.8 dB
B. 2.4 dB
C. 0.48 dB
D. 0.24 dB

37. The distance of a direct broadcasting satellite from earth's surface is about

A. 1000 km
B. 10000 km
C. 36000 km
D. 55000 km

38. The main advantage of TDM over FDM is that it

A. needs less power

B. needs less bandwidth
C. needs simple circuitry
D. gives better S/N ratio

39. The modulation index of an FM is changed from 0 to 1. How does the transmitted power change?

A. Gets halved
 B. Gets doubled
C. Gets increased by 50 percent
D. Remains unchanged
40. At a given probability of error, binary coherent FSK is inferior to binary coherent PSK by

A. 6 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 2 dB
D. 0 dB
41. Which of the following is an oscillator with best frequency stability?

A. Crystal oscillator
B. Clapp oscillator
C. Phase shift circuit
D. Multivibrator
42. BPSK stands for

A. Binary Phase Shifting Key

B. Broad Phase Shifting Key
C. Bit Phase Shifting Key
D. Binary Pulse Shifting Key
43. The block diagram of AM transmitter in which high level modulation is used as shown in figure. The
block X could be

A. audio power amplifier

B. buffer RF amplifier
C. compressor amplifier
D. none of the above

44. In a circular waveguide the dominant mode is

A. TE01
B. TE11
C. TE20
D. TE21

45. The AM, PM, and TV broadcast frequencies are

A. of the same order as microwave range

B. much lower than microwave range
 C. much higher than microwave range
D. either (a) or (c)

46. The function of a modulator is to

A. separate two frequencies

B. extract information from the carrier
C. amplify the audio frequency signal
D. impress the information on to a RF carrier

47. For FM, which of the following statement is not true?

A. The bandwidth increases as modulation index is increased

B. The total power remains constant with respect to modulation index
C. The carrier never becomes zero
D. All of the above
48. Which of following is digital modulation technique?

A. ASK
B. FSK
C. PSK
D. All
49. A half wave diode rectifier has a capacitance input filter. If input voltage is Vm sin ωt, PIV is

A. Vm
B. 2 Vm
C. 3 Vm
D. 4 Vm
50. The open loop gain of an amplifier is 200. If negative feedback with β = 0.2 is used, the closed loop gain
will be

A. 200
B. 40.12
C. 4.878
D. 2.2
51. Two CE stages, 1 and 2 are coupled through a capacitor. VCC is the same for both. Base resistances RB1
and RB2 are such that RB1 > RB2. Then

A. base currents for both stages are equal

B. base current of stage 1 is more than that of stage 2
C. base current of stage 2 is more than that of stage 1
D. either (b) or (c)

52. The circuit in the given figure is

 A. low pass filter
B. high pass filter
C. band Pass filter
D. band reject filter
53. Which configuration is suitable for impedance matching?

A. CB
B. CE
C. CC
D. CB and CE
54. A BJT is said to be operating in saturation region if

A. both junctions are reverse biased

B. both junctions are forward biased
C. base emitter junction is forward biased and base collector junction is reverse biased
D. base collector junction is forward biased and base emitter junction is reverse biased
55. In a power amplifier the collector current flows for 270° of the input cycle. The operations is

A. class A
B. class B
C. class AB
D. class C
56. When a transistor is connected in common emitter mode, it with have

A. negligible input resistance and high output resistance

B. high input resistance and low output resistance
C. medium input resistance and high output resistance
D. low input resistance as well as output resistance
57. A junction Field Effect Transistor can operate in

A. depletion mode only

B. enhancement mode only
C. depletion and enhancement modes
D. neither depletion nor enhancement modes

58. The circuit shown in figure will act as

 A. differentiator
B. adder
C. clipper
D. clamper
59. If transfer function of a system is H(z) = 6 + z-1 + z-2 then system is

A. minimun phase
B. maximum phase
C. mixed phase
D. none
60. What about the stability of system in

A. system is stable
B. unstable
C. stable at 0.4
D. cant say
61. If Laplace transform of f(t) is F(s), then £ f(t - a) u (t - a) is

A. eas F(s)

B. e-as F(s)

C. - eas F(s)

-as
D. -e F(s)

62.
The inverse Laplace transform of

A. eat

B. -eat

C. 1 - eat

D. -1 + eat

63. Which of the following is the correct Laplace transform of the signal shown in the given figure
 A.

B.

C.

D.

64. For the differential equation (D3 - D2 + D -1) [y(t)] = 0, the roots of auxiliary equation are
A. -j, j, 1
B. -j, j, 2
C. 1, 2, j
D. 1, 2, -j

65.

f(t) =

A.

B.

C.

D.

66. Which of the following expressions is in the sum-of-products (SOP) form?

A. (A + B)(C + D)
B. (A)B(CD)
C. AB(CD)
D. AB + CD

67. A stationary process has

 A. all statistical properties independent of time
B. all statistical properties dependent of time
C. zero variance
D. ensemble average equal to time average

68. The total area under the probability distribution curve is

A. 1
B. 0
C. depend upon curve equation
D. ∞

69. In which of these is reverse recovery time nearly zero?

A. Zener diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Schottky diode
D. PIN diode
70. A potential of 7 V is applied to a silicon diode. A resistance of 1 K ohm is also in series with the diode.
The current is

A. 7 mA
B. 6.3 mA
C. 0.7 mA
D. 0
71. Which of the following is used for generating time varying wave forms?

A. MOSFET
B. PIN diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. UJT

72. In an n channel MOSFET, the substrate is connected

A. to negative terminal of battery
B. to positive terminal of battery
C. to either positive or negative terminal of battery
D. none of the above

73. In a varactor diode the increase in width of depletion layer results in

A. decrease in capacitance
B. increase in capacitance
C. no change in capacitance
D. either (a) or (b)

74. In given figure a silicon diode is carrying a constant current of 1 mA. When the temperature of the
 diode is 20°C, VD is found to be 700 mV. If the temperature rises to 40°C, VD becomes approximately
equal to

A. 747 mV
B. 660 mV
C. 680 mV
D. 700 mV
75. A JFET operates in ohmic region when

A. VGS = 0
B. VGS is less than pinch off voltage
C. VGS = is Positive
D. VGS = VDS
76. Which quantity controls the effectiveness of LED in emitting light?

A. Applied voltage
B. Current
C. Extent of doping
D. Temperature
77. Peak inverse voltage will be highest for

A. half wave rectifier

B. full wave rectifier
C. bridge rectifier
D. three phase full wave rectifier
78. A silicon diode is forward biased and total applied voltage is 5 V. The voltage across p-n junction is

A. 5V
B. Slightly less than 5 V
C. 0.7 V
D. 0
79. Poynting vector is associated with which of the following?

A. Power flow in electromagnetic

B. Flux in magnetic field
C. Charge in electrostatic field
D. Current in electrostatic field
80. Maximum effective aperture of an antenna which is operating at a wavelength of 3 meters and has a
 directivity of 100

A. 71.68 m2

B. 716 m2

C. 7.16 m2

D. 71.6 m2

81. A transmission line has characteristics impedance of (75 + j 0.01) Ω and is terminated in a load
impedance of (70 + j 50) Ω. The transmission coefficient will be

A. 1.70 - j 2.97
B. 0.08 + j 0.32
C. 1.32 + j 1.38
D. 1.08 + j 0.32
82. The distance between maxima and minima of a standing wave is

A. λ/4
B. λ/2
C. λ
D. 2λ
83. In a line VSWR of a load is 6 dB. The reflection coefficient will be

A. 0.033
B. 0.33
C. 0.66
D. 3.3
84. The equation ∇ . J = 0 is called

A. Poisson's equation
B. Kirchoff's node equation
C. Continuity equation for static currents
D. Continuity equation for sampling currents
85. The attenuation in waveguide above cut off frequency is

A. very high
B. very low
C. zero
D. infinite
86. For TE or TM modes of propagation in bounded media, the phase velocity

A. is independent of frequency
B. is a linear function of frequency
C. is a non-linear function of frequency
D. can be frequency dependent or frequency independent on the source
87. The attenuation constant in case of a transmission line is
 A.

B.

C.

D.

88. Which of the following laws of electromagnetic theory is associated with the force experienced by two
loops of a wire carrying currents?

A. Maxwell's law
B. Coulomb's law
C. Ampere's law
D. Laplace's law
89. The rms value of wave in figure is

A. about 95 V
B. about 80 V
C. about 50 V
D. about 25 V
90. An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of R

A. has to be increased
B. has to be decreased
C. has to be increased to infinity
D. has to be reduced to zero