Air Batch

Test Practice Assignments

(Physics)
1. If momentum (p), area (A) and time (T) are taken 7. When a metal block is hanged from a spring
to be fundamental quantities, then energy has the balance, it reads 5.00 ± 0.05 N. While in water, it
dimensional formula: reads 4.00 ± 0.05 N. The relative density would be
(1) [pA−1 T1 ] (2) [𝑝2 𝐴𝑇] quoted as:
1 1
(3) [pA−2 T] (4) [pA2 T −1 ] (1) 5.00 ± 0.05 (2) 5.00 ± 0.10
(3) 5.00 ± 11% (4) 5.00 ± 6%
𝑑𝑥 𝑥−𝑎
2. Given that ∫ = 𝑎𝑛 sin−1 ⁡ ( ) 8. A gas bubble formed from an explosion under
√2𝑎𝑥−𝑥 2 𝑎
where a = constant. Using dimensional analysis, water oscillates with a period T proportional to
the value of 𝑛 is- pa db E c, where p is pressure, 𝑑 is the density of
(1) 1 (2) –1 water and 𝐸 is the total energy of explosion. The
(3) 0 (4) None of the above values of a, b and c are
(1) a = 1, b = 1, c = 2
𝛼
3. Given: Force = . What are the (2) a = 1, b = 2, c = 1
density +𝛽3
5 1 1
dimensions of 𝛼 and 𝛽 ? (3) a = , b = , c =
6 2 3
1 5 1 1
(1) ML−2 T −2 , ML−3 (4) a = − 6 , b = 2 , c = 3
1
(2) M 2 L4 T −2 , M −3 L−1
1 9. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate 𝑓
(3) M 2 L−2 T −2 , M 3 L−1 through a distance 𝑆, then continues at constant
(4) M 2 L−2 T −2 , ML−3 speed for time 𝑡 and then decelerates as the rate
𝑓/2 to come to rest. If the total distance travelled
4. The speed of light c , gravitational constant G and is 15 S , then:
Planck's constant h are taken as fundamental 1
(1) 𝑆 = 𝑓𝑡 (2) 𝑆 = 6 𝑓𝑡 2
quantities in a system. The dimensions of time in
1 1
this new system should be: (3) 𝑆 = 72 𝑓𝑡 2 (4) 𝑆 = 4 𝑓𝑡 2
1 1 5 1 1 1
(1) [G 2 h2 c −2 ] (2) [G −2 h2 c 2 ]
1 1 3 1 1 1 10. A particle moving along 𝑋-axis has acceleration 𝑓,
(3) [G −2 h2 c −2 ] (4) [G −2 h2 c 2 ] 𝑡
at time t , given by f = 𝑓0 (1 − ), where f0 and t
𝑇
are constants between t = 0. The instant when f =
5. If 𝐸 = energy, 𝐺 = gravitational constant, 𝐼 =
GIM2
0, the particle's velocity (vx ) is:
impulse and M = mass, then dimensions of E2 (1) Zero (2) 𝑓0 𝑇
are same as that of 1 1
(3) 𝑓𝑇
4 0
(4) 𝑓𝑇
2 0
(1) Time (2) Mass
(3) Length (4) Force
11. Velocity of a particle changes with position
according to following curve. Acceleration of the
e2
6. The dimensions of 4𝜋𝜀 are (where e, 𝜀0 , h and c particle at 𝑆 = 1 m
0 hc
are electric charge, electric permittivity, Planck's
constant and velocity of light in vacuum
respectively):
(1) [M 0 L0 T 0 ] (2) [ML0 T 0 ]
0 0
(3) [M LT ] (4) [𝑀0 𝐿0 T]

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 24 m 2m
(1) s2
(2) s2
20 m
(3) s2
(4) 3 m/s2
(3)
12. A stone starts to fall under gravity. The distances
covered by it in first, second and third second are
in ratio:
(1) 1: 3: 5 (2) 1: 2: 3
(3) 1: 4: 9 (4) 1: 5: 9 (4)

13. A bird is tossing (flying to and fro) between two

cars moving towards each other on a straight road. 17. A car accelerates from rest at constant rate 𝛼 for
One car has speed of 27 km h−1 while the other some time & decelerates to rest at rate 𝛽. Find the
has the speed of 18 km h−1. The bird starts moving maximum velocity attained if total time of frovd is
from first car towards the other and is moving with 𝑡.
the speed of 36 km h−1 when the two cars were 𝛼𝛽 𝛽2
(1) 𝑣 = 𝑡 𝛼−𝛽 (2) 𝑣 = 𝑡 (𝛼−𝛽)
separated by 36 km . The total distance covered by
𝛼2 𝛼𝛽
the bird is: (3) 𝑣 = 𝑡 𝛼+𝛽 (4) v = t 𝛼+𝛽
(1) 28.8 km (2) 38.8 km
(3) 48.8 km (4) 58.8 km 18. If R and H represent horizontal range and
maximum height of the projectile, then the angle of
14. A particle is released from rest from a cover of projection with the horizontal is
height 3h. The ratio of the intervals of time to cover H 2𝐻
(1) tan−1 (R ) (2) tan−1 ( 𝑅 )
three equal heights h is:
4H 4R
(1) t1 : t2 : t3 = 3 : 2 : 1 (3) tan−1 ( R ) (4) tan−1 ⁡ ( H )
(2) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 : ( )(
3 −2 : 2− 5 ) 19. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a
(3) t1 : t 2 : t 3 3 : 2 :1 tower of height 8 m . It touches the ground at a
(4) t1 : t 2 : t 3 = 1: ( 2 −1 :)( 3− 2 ) distance of 90 m from the foot of the tower. The
initial velocity of the body is:
60 m 75 m
(1) (2)
s s
15. From a building two balls 𝐴 and 𝐵 are thrown such 69.75 m
that 𝐴 is thrown upwards and 𝐵 downwards with (3) (4) None
s
same velocity. vA &vB are the velocities on
reaching the ground then: 20. A stone is dropped from the window of a bus
(1) 𝑣𝐵 > 𝑣𝐴 moving at 80 km/h. If the window is 150 cm high,
(2) 𝑣𝐴 = 𝑣𝐵 find the distance along the track which the stone
(3) 𝑣𝐴 > 𝑣𝐵 moves before striking the ground.
(4) Velocity depends upon mass (1) 15.26 m (2) 13 m
(3) 14.16 m (4)12 m
16. Which one of the following represents the 𝑥 − 𝑡
graph of two objects A and B moving with zero 21. A particle is projected horizontally with a speed
relative speed? 20 m/s from the top of a tower. After what time
will the velocity of particle be at 45∘ angle from
the initial direction of projection? [Let g =
10 ms−2 ]
(1) (1) 2𝑠 (2) 5 s
(3) 4𝑠 (4) 7 s

22. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity

(2) √2gh from the top of a tower of height ℎ. It strikes
the level ground through the foot of the tower at a
distance 𝑥 from the tower. The value of 𝑥 is-

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 h 28. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall
(1) h (2)
2
2ℎ applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If
(3) 2 h (4) 3 the co-efficient of friction between the block and
the wall is 0.5 , the magnitude of the friction force
23. In the given figure the pulley is assumed massless acting on the block is
and frictionless. If the friction force on the object (1) 2.5 N (2) 0.98 N
of mass m is f , then its acceleration in terms of the (3) 4.9 N (4) 0.49 N
force F will be equal to
29. A string of negligible mass going over a clamped
pulley of mass m supports a block of mass M as
shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the
clamp is given by
F
𝑓 ( −f)
2
(1) (𝐹 − 𝑚) (2) m
𝐹
(3) 2𝑚
(4) None of these

24. A block of mass 𝑚 is placed on a surface with a

𝑥3
vertical cross-section given by 𝑦 = . If the
6
coefficient of friction is 0.5 . The maximum height
above the ground at which the block can be placed (1) √2Mg
without slipping is
1 2
(2) √2mg
(1) m (2) m
6 3 (3) 𝑔√(𝑀 + 𝑚)2 + 𝑚2
1 1
(3) m (4) m (4) 𝑔√(𝑀 + 𝑚)2 + 𝑀2
3 2

25. What is the maximum value of the force F such that 30. In the arrangement shown in the figure, the pulley
the block shown in the arrangement, does not has a mass 3 m . Neglecting friction on the contact
move? surface, the force exerted by the supporting rope
AB on the ceiling is

(1) 20 N (2) 10 N
(3) 12 N (4) 15 N

26. A block slides down an inclined plane of 45∘ with

the horizontal. Starting from rest it covers 10 m in (1) 6 mg (2) 3 mg
the first 3 seconds. Find the coefficient of kinetic (3) 4 mg (4) None of these
friction between the block and plane.
(1) 0.58 (2) 0.69 31. A system consists of three masses m1 , m2 and m3
(3) 0.74 (4) 0.61 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
mass 𝑚1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a
27. A block of mass 4 kg is placed on a rought rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction =
horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal 𝜇 ).
force F = kt acts on the block. Here k = 2Ns−1.
The frictional force between the block and plane at
time t = 2 s is (𝜇 = 0.2)
(1) 4 N (2) 12 N
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N

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The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The 36. A system of two blocks 𝐴 and 𝐵 of masses 20 kg
downward acceleration of mass 𝑚1 is and 10 kg are connected by a string which hangs
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m ) over a frictionless massless pulley. What will be
𝑔(1−2𝜇) 2𝑔𝜇 the acceleration of the centre of mass?
(1) 9
(2) 3 1.09 m 2m
𝑔(1−2𝜇) 𝑔(1−2𝜇) (1) s2
(2) s2
(3) 3
(4) 2 0.3 m 0.9 m
(3) (4)
s2 s2
32. A force of 10 N acts on a 10 kg body initially at
rest. The work done by the force during the first 5 37. A system consists of two identical particles. One
seconds and 5th second of motion of body is. (in particle is at rest and other particle has an
joule) acceleration a. The centre of mass of the system has
(1) 3,1.5 (2) 9,4 an acceleration of
a
(3) 11.5,5 (4) 125,45 (1) 2 a (2)
2
2𝑎
(3) a (4) 3
33. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass
𝑚 by a distance d with constant downward
g 38. The velocities of three particles of masses
acceleration 4. Work done by the cord on the block
20 g, 30 g, and 50 g are 10Î, 10ĵ and 10k̂
is respectively. The velocity of the centre of mass of
3 3
(1) 4
𝑚𝑔𝑑 (2) − 4 𝑚𝑔𝑑 the three particles is
(3) 𝑚𝑔𝑑 (4)
𝑚𝑔𝑑 (1) 2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 5𝑘ˆ (2) −𝑖ˆ − 3𝑗ˆ − 2𝑘ˆ
4
(3) −𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ (4) −𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ − 2𝑘ˆ
34. If 𝐹⃗ = 2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 4𝑘ˆ acts on a body and displaces
39. Two identical particles move towards each other
it by 𝑆⃗ = 3𝑖ˆ + 2𝑗ˆ + 5𝑘ˆ then the work done by the
with velocities 2 v and v respectively. What is the
force is
velocity of centre of mass ?
(1) 12 J (2) 20 3𝑣
(1) 2𝑣 (2) 2
(3) √𝛽32 J (4) 64 J 𝑣
(3) 𝑣 (4)
2
35. A force 𝐹⃗ = (6̂ − 8𝑗ˆ)𝑁, acts on a particle and
displaces it over 4 m along the X -axis and then 40. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of
displaces it over 6 m along the Y -axis. The total radius 6 cm . If the distance between their centers
work done during the two displacements is is 3.2 cm , wha is the shift in the centre of mass of
(1) 72 J (2) 24 J the disc?
(3) -24 J (4) Zero (1) 0.4 m (2) 2.4 cm
(3) 1.8 cm (4) 1.2 cm

(Chemistry)
41. Angular momentum of an electron moving in 5th (1) n = 3,  = 2, m = 0, s = +1/2
orbit is:
(2) n = 3,  = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
10h 5h
(1) (2) (3) n = 3,  = 1, m = 2, s = +1/2
 
2.5h h (4) n = 3,  = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) (4)
 2
44. Orbital angular momentum of electron in 5dz2
42. How many spectral lines are produced in the orbital
spectrum of hydrogen atom from 5th energy level? (1) 5ℏ (2) 6ℏ
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 2ℏ (4) Zero
(3) 15 (4) 4
45. Which among the following is an electron deficient
43. The correct set of four quantum numbers of a 3d- compound?
electron is (1) NH3 (2) PH3

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 (3) BH3 (4) AsH3 (3) 24g of C2 (4) 1.0 g of H2

46. The correct order of C – O bond length among CO, 54. The volume of CO2 evolved at STP on heating 50 g
CO32− , CO2 is CaCO3: (Gram atomic mass of Ca = 40 g, C = 12 g
(1) CO < CO2 < CO32− and O = 16 g)

(2) CO2 < CO32− < CO CaCO3(s) ⎯⎯ → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) CO < CO32− < CO2 (1) 11.2 litre (2) 22.4 litre
(3) 5.6 litre (4) 24.4 litre
(4) CO32− < CO2 < CO

55. How many grams of H2 are required to consume 2

47. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond mol of CO?
angles of the following hydrides is: CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(g)
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (1) 2 g (2) 4 g
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) 8 g (4) 16 g
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
56. What is the molality of a solution containing 2
moles of a solute dissolved in 500g of a solvent?
48. During change of O2 to O−
2
ion, the electron adds (1) 3 (2) 2
on which of the following orbitals? (3) 1 (4) 4
(1) * orbital (2)  orbital
(3) * orbital (4)  orbital 57. Gases with their Henry’s constant values are given.
The gas having maximum solubility will be
49. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be
Gas A KH = 21.2 k bar
placed in the periodic table in the Gas B KH = 11.2 k bar
(1) 1st group (2) 3rd group Gas C KH = 5.6 k bar
(3) 15th group (4) 17th group Gas D KH = 2.4 k bar
(1) A (2) B
50. Which of the following has largest radius?
(3) C (4) D
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2
(2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1 58. Find boiling point of deci molal aqueous solution
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 of glucose. (Kb = 0.52 K kg/mole)
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 (1) 373.052 (2) 473.052
(3) 573.052 (4) 273.052
51. In a given shell the order of screening effect is
(1) s > p > d > f (2) s > p > f > d 59. Equivalent weight of N2 in the change
(3) f > d > p > s (4) s < p < d < f N2 → NH3 is
28
52. Minimum first ionization energy is shown by (1) (2) 28
6
which electronic configuration: 28 28
(3) (4)
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p5 2 3
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 60. The average oxidation state of chlorine in
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 bleaching powder is:
(1) –1 (2) +1
(3) zero (4) –2 as well as +2
53. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecules as in
(1) 16 g of CO (2) 28 g of N2

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 (Botany)
61. Which of the following is a non-membrane- (1) An organelle involved in transport
bound organelle in the cytoplasm? (2) A barrier for exchange of ions
(1) Mitochondria (3) A protective and adhesive covering
(2) Lysosome (4) A site of ribosomal attachment
(3) Nucleolus
70. What is common between the outer membrane
(4) Golgi apparatus
of chloroplasts and mitochondria?
62. Prokaryotic cells lack which of the following (1) They both contain ribosomes
features? (2) They are both permeable to large molecules
(1) Cell wall (3) They both contain photosynthetic pigments
(2) Double membrane-bound nucleus (4) They both facilitate ATP synthesis
(3) DNA
71. Tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds:
(4) Plasma membrane
(1) Mitochondria
63. What is the primary function of smooth (2) Golgi apparatus
endoplasmic reticulum (SER)? (3) Central vacuole
(1) Protein synthesis (4) Nucleus
(2) Lipid synthesis
72. Which organelle shows polymorphism,
(3) DNA replication
changing its structure according to function?
(4) ATP production
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
64. Which of the following cytoskeletal elements is (2) Mitochondria
involved in muscle contraction? (3) Lysosomes
(1) Microtubules (4) Ribosomes
(2) Actin filaments
73. The cell wall of fungi is composed of:
(3) Intermediate filaments
(1) Cellulose
(4) Keratin
(2) Chitin
65. Which of the following structures is absent in a (3) Peptidoglycan
eukaryotic plant cell? (4) Hemicellulose
(1) Mitochondria
74. The nuclear membrane remains absent in
(2) Centrioles
which phase of the cell cycle?
(3) Plastids
(1) Prophase
(4) Ribosomes
(2) Metaphase
66. Mesosome, a characteristic feature of (3) Anaphase
prokaryotic cells, functions in: (4) Interphase
(1) ATP production
75. Which characteristic is common to both
(2) DNA replication and distribution to daughter
mitochondria and prokaryotes?
cells
(1) Presence of circular DNA
(3) Photosynthesis
(2) Presence of histones
(4) Protein synthesis
(3) Diploid genome
67. The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded (4) Multiple linear chromosomes
into structures called cristae to:
76. In which of the following cell types is the
(1) Increase surface area for chemical reactions
nucleoid region found?
(2) Protect the mitochondrial DNA
(1) Animal cells
(3) Prevent leakage of ATP
(2) Plant cells
(4) Synthesize chlorophyll
(3) Bacteria
68. The plasmodesmata in plant cells are (4) Fungal cells
functionally similar to:
77. Which ribosomes are found in mitochondria
(1) Desmosomes
and chloroplasts?
(2) Gap junctions
(1) 70S
(3) Tight junctions
(2) 80S
(4) Cell walls
(3) 50S
69. Glycocalyx, present on prokaryotic cells, acts (4) 60S
as:
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78. At which checkpoint is the integrity of DNA (3) Separase
checked before entering the S-phase? (4) Ligase
(1) G1/S checkpoint
87. Which of the following is a result of mitosis?
(2) G2/M checkpoint
(1) Formation of gametes
(3) Spindle checkpoint
(2) Increase in chromosome number
(4) Cytokinesis checkpoint
(3) Formation of identical daughter cells
79. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA (4) Crossing over
replication occur?
88. Cytokinesis in plant cells occurs through:
(1) G1 phase
(1) Cleavage furrow formation
(2) S phase
(2) Cell plate formation
(3) G2 phase
(3) Budding
(4) M phase
(4) Apoptosis
80. The spindle fibers attach to which part of the
89. A zygote divides by which process?
chromosome?
(1) Meiosis
(1) Centromere
(2) Amitosis
(2) Telomere
(3) Binary fission
(3) Chromatid
(4) Mitosis
(4) Kinetochores
90. The M-phase checkpoint ensures that:
81. In meiosis, the stage where homologous
(1) DNA replication is completed
chromosomes undergo synapsis is:
(2) Chromosomes are aligned properly on the
(1) Prophase I
spindle
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Cytokinesis occurs properly
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Cells exit the G0 phase
(4) Telophase I
91. In meiosis, how many haploid cells are formed
82. What is the significance of crossing over in
from one diploid cell?
meiosis?
(1) 1
(1) Production of identical offspring
(2) 2
(2) Increase in genetic variation
(3) 3
(3) Maintenance of chromosome number
(4) 4
(4) Reduction in genetic variability
92. Which stage is the longest in the cell cycle?
83. Which of the following is a characteristic of the
(1) Prophase
G0 phase?
(2) Metaphase
(1) Active DNA replication
(3) Interphase
(2) Cell division
(4) Anaphase
(3) Differentiation without division
(4) Preparation for mitosis 93. Which of the following represents a dihybrid
cross?
84. How many chromosomes are present in a
(1) AA x aa
human gamete after meiosis?
(2) AaBb x AaBb
(1) 46
(3) Aa x Aa
(2) 92
(4) AABb x aabb
(3) 23
(4) 12 94. Which type of inheritance is shown by ABO
blood groups?
85. Which of the following is absent during
(1) Polygenic inheritance
interphase?
(2) Pleiotropy
(1) Chromosome condensation
(3) Codominance
(2) DNA synthesis
(4) Incomplete dominance
(3) Organelle duplication
(4) Cell growth 95. Mendel's law of segregation is based on which
phase of meiosis?
86. The enzyme involved in separating sister
(1) Metaphase I
chromatids during anaphase is:
(2) Anaphase I
(1) DNA polymerase
(3) Telophase II
(2) Topoisomerase
(4) Prophase II
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96. The condition where a gene has more than two (3) Linkage
alleles is known as: (4) Codominance
(1) Epistasis
104. Which chromosomal condition leads to Turner
(2) Multiple alleles
syndrome?
(3) Incomplete dominance
(1) Trisomy 21
(4) Codominance
(2) XO
97. Which of the following is an example of (3) XXY
polygenic inheritance? (4) XYY
(1) Blood group
105. Which cross results in a 1:1 phenotypic ratio in
(2) Skin color
the offspring?
(3) Color blindness
(1) Monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes
(4) Hemophilia
(2) Cross between a heterozygote and a
98. What is the phenotypic ratio in a typical homozygous recessive
dihybrid cross? (3) Dihybrid cross between heterozygotes
(1) 9:3:3:1 (4) Test cross
(2) 3:1
106. If two parents with blood types AB and O mate,
(3) 1:2:1
what are the possible blood groups of their
(4) 1:1:1:1
children?
99. Which disorder is caused by a single gene (1) A and B
mutation? (2) AB and O
(1) Down syndrome (3) Only O
(2) Turner syndrome (4) Only AB
(3) Cystic fibrosis
107. Which disorder is an example of autosomal
(4) Klinefelter syndrome
recessive inheritance?
100. The presence of Barr bodies indicates: (1) Hemophilia
(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Cystic fibrosis
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Turner syndrome
(3) Polyploidy (4) Down syndrome
(4) Autosomal aneuploidy
108. The phenomenon of one gene influencing
101. Which of the following represents a sex-linked multiple phenotypic traits is called:
trait? (1) Epistasis
(1) Skin color (2) Codominance
(2) Blood groups (3) Pleiotropy
(3) Hemophilia (4) Incomplete dominance
(4) Height
109. What is the cause of Klinefelter syndrome?
102. In a cross between two heterozygous tall pea (1) Trisomy 21
plants (Tt × Tt), what is the genotypic ratio? (2) XO genotype
(1) 3:1 (3) XXY genotype
(2) 1:2:1 (4) Monosomy of X
(3) 9:3:3:1
110. A typical phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 is seen in
(4) 2:1:1
the F2 generation of which cross?
103. Which of the following violates Mendel's (1) Monohybrid cross
principle of independent assortment? (2) Dihybrid cross
(1) Polygenic inheritance (3) Test cross
(2) Multiple alleles (4) Back cross

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 (Zoology)
111. Read the following statements : 116. Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and
I. The cells in epithelial tissue are compactly neuroglial cells. Point out which of the following
packed with little intercellular matrix. statements about these two cells is false.
II. Cell junctions hold smooth muscles together (1) Neuroglia make up more than one-half the
and thus they are bundled together in a volume of neural tissue in our body.
connective tissue sheath. (2) Neuroglia protect and support neurons.
III. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium of (3) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an
intestine help in absorption of food. electrical disturbance is generated which
IV. Saliva is an exocrine secretion. swiftly travels along its cytosol.
Select the correct statements. (4) This disturbance at the neuron endings
(1) II and III (2) I, II and IV triggers stimulation or inhibition of adjacent
(3) Only II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV neurons or other cells.

112. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. Periplaneta 117. Tissue which attaches one bone to another, is
americana. (1) Tendon
(1) 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles are (2) Dense regular connective tissue
present on the dorsal side of the body (3) Areolar tissue
(2) Each malpighian tubule is lined by non- (4) Dense irregular connective tissue
ciliated glandular cells
(3) Exchange of gases occurs at tracheoles by 118. Read the following statements.
diffusion Statement A : In cockroach mosaic vision is
(4) Excretory functions are mainly performed by present.
fat body, nephrocytes and urecose glands. Statement B : Mosaic vision has more sensitivity
but less resolution.
Choose the correct option.
113. The correct set of cells, their characters and (1) Statement A is correct
locations is (2) Statement B is incorrect
(1) Adipocytes Diapedesis Matrix of (3) Both statements are correct
supportive (4) Both statements are incorrect
connective
tissue 119. The kind of tissue present in outer ear joints is also
(2) Fibroblasts Ingest White fibrous found -
fibres and connective (1) In nasal chamber
cell debris tissue (2) Between adjacent vertebrae
(3) In skin
(3) Mast cells Secrete Areolar tissue (4) In pancreatic duct
histamine
120. Cardiac muscle is similar to smooth muscle in
(4) Osteoclasts Bone Cartilage and feature __A__ , differs from skeletal muscle in
forming cartilaginous feature __B__, similar to skeletal muscle in feature
bones __C__
(1) A = Striations , B = shape of cell, C =
114. Select the odd one w.r.t. location of non-striated communication junctions
muscles. (2) A = Being involuntary , B = location, C =
(1) Wall of blood vessels fusiform shape
(2) Arms (3) A = Shape of cell , B = striations, C = location
(3) Wall of stomach (4) A = Involuntary , B = presence of intercalated
(4) Wall of intestine disc, C = cylindrical shape

115. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone. 121. Which of the following are correct with reference
(1) The red bone marrow in some bones is the site to amino acids?
of production of blood cells. a. Are monomer units of proteins.
(2) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called b. Are substituted methane molecules.
lacunae. c. Serine is an alcoholic amino acid.
(3) Bone is solid and pliable and resists d. Amino acids never exist in zwitterionic form
compression. at any stage in living cells.
(4) Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen e. A dipeptide comprises of two peptide bonds
fibres. between amino acids.
(1) a, b, c (2) a, d, e
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d, e

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122 Mark the incorrect match.
(1) Ribozymes – Nucleic acids with catalytic
power
(2) Tertiary structure of protein – provides 2-d
view of the protein
(3) Haemoglobin – Protein with 4 sub-units
(4) Inulin – Polymer of fructose

123. Proteins such as trypsin and GLUT-4 are

(1) Heteropolymers of amino acids
(2) Homopolymers of amino acids
(3) Heteropolymers of fatty acid and alcohol
(4) Heteropolymers of monosaccharides (1) The ES complex formation is not a transient
phenomenon
124. ________ nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (2) Product eventually bring down this energy
(NAD) and NADP contain the vitamin niacin barrier making the transition of ‘S’ to ‘P’ more
(1) Prosthetic groups (2) Holoenzyme easy.
(3) Apoenzyme (4) Co-enzyme (3) The difference in average energy content of
‘S’ from that of this transition state is called
125. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. animal listed in ‘activation energy’.
column A and features exhibited in column B (4) Activation energy with enzyme is high as
Column-A Column-B compared to activation energy without
enzyme
(Organism) (Features)
129. Assertion: Lipids are present in acid insoluble
(1) Psittacula Homeothermy, pneumatic fraction
bones Reason: Lipids are biomacromolecules
(1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is the correct
(2) Panthera tigris Viviparity, 4 chambered
explanation of 𝐴.
heart
(2) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true, but 𝑅 is not the correct
(3) Bufo Body divided into head and explanation of 𝐴.
trunk (3) A is true, but 𝑅 is false.
(4) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are false.
(4) Pristis Presence of operculum,
Absence of air bladder 130. Phospholipid is:
(1) One fatty acid one glycerol and one
phosphoric acid
126. Select the incorrect statement. (2) Phosphoric acid, two fatty acids and one
(1) Dietary proteins are the source of essential glycerol
amino-acids. (3) Phosphoric acid, one fatty acid and three
(2) Concanavalin A is a lectin and is considered a glycerol
secondary metabolite (4) Phosphoric acid, three fatty acids and one
(3) Cellulose, inulin, starch and glycogen are glycerol
homopolymers of glucose
(4) For nucleic acids, the building block is a 131. Identify the below given diagram of mechanism of
nucleotide breathing with labelled structures/process and
select the correct answer.
127. Select odd one w.r.t substances and their
categories/functions.
(1) Trypsin – Enzyme
(2) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport into cells
(3) Alkaloid – Codeine
(4) Pigment – Cellulose

128. According to this diagram

(1) P showing the contracted condition of
diaphragm during expiration
(2) R indicating increased volume of thorax
during inspiration
(3) S is present on mid ventral line of thorax
(4) Process T occurs only in forceful inspiration

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132. Rate of diffusion of O2 at alveoli and tissue is 137. Complete the analogy w.r.t. ratio of respiratory
independent of: volume.
(1) Partial pressure Tidal volume :ERV : : 1 :
(2) Solubility (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) Thickness of diffusion membrane (3) 3 (4) 7
(4) Rate of diffusion of CO2
138. Match the following items in column-I with those
133. Choose the odd one w.r.t. granulocytes. of column-II and choose the option with only
(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils correct match.
(3) Eosinophils (4) Lymphocytes Column-I Column-II

134. How many statements are correct ? When heart is not

(A) During each cardiac cycle two prominent pumping enough blood
a. Heart failure (i)
sounds are produced to meet the needs of the
(B) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with body
the opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid
When heart muscle is
valves
b. Cardiac arrest (ii) suddenly damaged by
(C) Heart sounds can be easily heard through a
inadequate blood supply
stethoscope
(D) These sounds are of no clinical diagnostic When the heart stops
significance. c. Heart attack (iii)
beating
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
135. Match the items given in Column-I with those in
Column-II and select the correct option given 139. Read the given statements
below. Statement A: Individuals with blood group AB are
Column-I Column-II called universal acceptors.
Statement B: Such individuals harbour anti-A, B
Between right atrium
a Mitral valve (i)
and right ventricle
antibodies in their plasma.
Choose the correct option.
b Tricuspid valve (ii)
Between left ventricle (1) Both statements A & B are incorrect
and aorta (2) Statement B explains statement A
Between end of
(3) Statement B is correct but does not explain
ventricular systole to statement A
c Semilunar valve (iii) (4) Statement A is correct
initiation of auricular
systole
140. Which of the following statements is incorrect
Between left atrium and w.r.t. gaseous transport?
d Joint diastole (iv)
left ventricle (1) The capacity of 1 gm of haemoglobin is to
combine with approximately 1.34 ml O2
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) In a normal person, haemoglobin binds to
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 23% O2 in blood
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) About 15 ml O2 is released to tissues from 100
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) ml oxygenated blood during intense physical
exercise
136. Identify the statements as True (T) or False (F) and (4) About 7% CO2 is transported through plasma
choose the correct option. in dissolved form
A. Amphibians can respire through lungs in their
adult stage. 141. Identify the correct match
(1) Pneumotaxic centre in pons region -
B. Earthworms exhibit cutaneous respiration.
Moderates respiratory rhythm centre
C. Fishes use gills for respiration. (2) Respiratory rhythm centre in hypothalamus -
A B C Activated by increase in H+
(3) Chemosensitive area - Inactivated by increase
(1) T T F in CO2
(2) T F T (4) All are incorrect.

(3) T T T
142. "Human heart is myogenic". Which of the
(4) F T T following statements supports the above mentioned
fact?

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 (1) Neural signals through ANS can increase or (4) Glomerular filtration, Reabsorption and
decrease the rate of heart beat secretion
(2) The cardiac output can be increased through
adrenal medullary hormones 150. Blood filtered by kidneys/minute is roughly
(3) Specialised nodal musculature has the ability (1) One-fifth of the cardiac output
to generate action potentials without any
(2) 1100 – 1200 mL
external stimulus (autoexcitable)
(3) One fifth of the blood pumped by each
(4) Neural centres in medulla oblongata can
moderate the cardiac functions through ANS ventricle in a minute
(4) All are correct
143. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the 151. Identify A to D in the following diagrammatic
mid thoracic cavity which divides at the level section of kidney and choose the correct option
of fifth thoracic vertebra into a right and left accordingly.
primary bronchi
(2) Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas
reptiles, birds and mammals respire through
lungs.
(3) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a
forceful expiration is functional residual
capacity
(4) Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissues occurs by simple diffusion. A B C D
Renal Renal Medullary
(1) Calyx
144. Select the option having correct statements. column pelvis pyramid
a. ABO grouping is based on the presence or (2)
Renal Renal
Calyx
Medullary
absence of two surface antigens in the plasma pelvis column pyramid
b. RBCs of individuals contain two natural Medull
antibodies Renal ary
(3) Calyx Renal pelvis
c. Group ‘O’ blood can be donated to persons column pyrami
with any other blood group d
(1) b and c (2) a, b & c Medull
(3) b only (4) c only ary Renal
(4) Calyx Renal pelvis
pyrami column
145. End systolic volume and end diastolic volume of a d
person are 60𝑚𝑙 and 120⁡𝑚𝑙 respectively.
Calculate the cardiac output if heart rate is 70/min. 152. Choose the incorrect statement.
5.3⁡𝐿 4.2⁡𝐿 (1) Water and electrolyte balance of the body is
(1) (2) termed osmoregulation
𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑖𝑛
2.4⁡𝐿 5.7⁡𝐿 (2) JGA is a part of Renin-angiotensin
(3) (4)
𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑖𝑛 mechanism to reduce blood pressure
(3) Cortical portion of kidney projecting in
146. Which of the following is not a function of between medullary pyramids is called
Nephridia? columns of Bertini
(1) Removal of nitrogenous wastes (4) A loop of capillary running parallel to loop of
(2) Maintain fluid balance Henle is called vasa recta, in juxtamedullary
(3) Participate in gaseous exchange nephron
(4) Maintain ionic balance
153. Find the incorrect feature w.r.t. juxtamedullary
nephrons.
147. Renal tubule begins with (1) Long loop of Henle
(1) Glomerulus (2) Bowman's capsule (2) Associated with vasa recta
(3) PCT (4) Loop of Henle (3) Work when water is in short supply
(4) More in number than cortical nephrons
148. Loop of Henle is too short in:
(1) Cortical nephrons 154. Vasa recta is branch of:
(2) Juxtamedullary nephron (1) Afferent arteriole
(3) All nephrons (2) Loop of Henle
(4) All renal tubules (3) Collecting duct
(4) Peritubular capillary network
149. Three interrelated processes of urine formation in
human's kidneys are: 155. Amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per
(1) Tubular filtration, reabsorption, excretion minute is called:
(2) Secretion, reabsorption, micturition (1) Renal blood flow
(3) Excretion, storage, micturition (2) Renal plasma flow
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 (3) Filtration fraction
(4) Glomerular filtration rate 158. Urine leaving collecting duct is nearly_
concentrated as blood plasma in humans.
156. In the following paragraph, which of the following (1) 3 times (2) 2 times
two blanks correctly fill with same word? (3) 6 times (4) 4 times
Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to
accumulation of urea in blood, a condition called 159. In which of the following conditions, hemodialysis
a . In such patient urea can be removed by a is used as treatment?
process called (1) Uremia (2) Anaemia
b . During the process of c , the blood (3) Renal calculi (4) Glycosuria
drained from a convenient artery is pumped into a
dialysing unit called d . 160. Read the following statements I and II and choose
(1) a and b (2) b and c the correct option.
(3) a and c (4) a and d Statement-I: The principal nitrogenous waste in
humans is synthesized in the liver.
157. Select the incorrect statement. Statement-II: During summer when body looses
(1) A healthy adult human excretes, on an lots of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is
average. 25-30 gm of urea per day supressed.
(2) An adult human excretes, on an average, 1-1.5 (1) Both statements are correct
litres of urine per day (2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Dialysing fluid contains all the constituents as (3) Only statement I is correct
in plasma except nitrogen containing protein (4) Only statement II is correct
(4) Ascending limb of loop Henle is impermeable
to water, whereas the descending limb is
permeable to it

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 Answer Key

1. (4) 33. (2) 65 (2) 97 (2) 129. (3)

2. (3) 34. (3) 66 (2) 98 (1) 130. (2)
3. (3) 35. (3) 67 (1) 99 (3) 131. (3)
4. (1) 36. (1) 68 (2) 100 (2) 132. (4)
5. (1) 37. (2) 69 (3) 101 (3) 133. (4)
6. (1) 38. (1) 70 (1) 102 (2) 134. (2)
7. (2) 39. (4) 71 (3) 103 (3) 135. (3)
8. (4) 40. (1) 72 (3) 104 (2) 136. (3)
9. (3) 41. (3) 73 (2) 105 (2) 137. (1)
10. (4) 42. (2) 74 (2) 106 (1) 138. (2)
11. (1) 43. (1) 75 (1) 107 (2) 139. (4)
12. (1) 44. (2) 76 (3) 108 (3) 140. (2)
13. (1) 45. (3) 77 (1) 109 (3) 141. (1)
14. (4) 46. (1) 78 (1) 110 (2) 142. (3)
15. (2) 47. (1) 79 (2) 111. (2) 143. (3)
16. (2) 48. (1) 80 (4) 112. (3) 144. (4)
17. (4) 49. (3) 81 (1) 113. (3) 145. (2)
18. (3) 50. (1) 82 (2) 114. (2) 146. (3)
19. (3) 51. (1) 83. (3) 115. (3) 147. (2)
20. (4) 52. (3) 84. (3) 116. (3) 148. (1)
21. (1) 53. (4) 85. (1) 117. (2) 149. (4)
22. (3) 54. (1) 86. (3) 118. (3) 150. (4)
23. (2) 55. (3) 87. (3) 119. (2) 151. (3)
24. (1) 56. (4) 88 (2) 120. (4) 152. (2)
25. (1) 57. (4) 89 (4) 121. (1) 153. (4)
26. (3) 58. (1) 90 (2) 122. (2) 154. (4)
27. (1) 59. (1) 91 (4) 123. (1) 155. (4)
28. (2) 60. (3) 92 (3) 124. (4) 156. (2)
29. (4) 61. (3) 93 (2) 125. (4) 157. (3)
30. (4) 62. (2) 94 (3) 126. (3) 158. (4)
31. (3) 63 (2) 95 (2) 127. (4) 159. (1)
32. (4) 64 (2) 96 (2) 128. (3) 160. (3)

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