022-001 Pitot and Static Systems (17 Questions)

1. A pitot head is used to measure:

a) Static pressure
b) Dynamic minus static pressure
c) Static plus dynamic pressure
d) Dynamic pressure

1. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

a) Position, manoeuvre induced
b) Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
c) Position, manoeuvre induced, density
d) Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature

2. A static vent is used to measure:

a) Pitot excess pressure
b) Dynamic pressure
c) Atmospheric pressure
d) Dynamic pressure minus pitot excess

3. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, and is yawed to starboard. The

starboard static vent becomes blocked. Subsequently:
a) the altimeter will read correctly
b) the altimeter will overread
c) the true altitude will increase
d) the true altitude will decrease

4. Complete the following statement: "Turbulence around a pressure head can cause
upto .................of position error. A static vent will ..................... this error by upto
..................... ."
a) 95% . . . . . increase . . . . . 95%
b) 95% . . . . . reduce . . . . . . 90%
c) 90% . . . . . reduce . . . . . . 95%
d) 90% . . . . . increase . . . . . 95%

5. Density varies:
a) Directly with pressure and inversely with temperature
b) Inversely with temperature and pressure
c) Inversely with pressure and directly with temperature
d) Directly with temperature and pressure

6. Dynamic pressure is:

a) pitot pressure plus static pressure
b) density and static pressure
c) static pressure minus pitot pressure
d) pitot pressure minus static pressure

7. If the static vent becomes blocked, on an unpressurised a/c, what could you do?:
a) compute altitude mathematically
b) break the VSI glass
c) Select standby pitot source
 d) open the window

8. In high speed flight at high altitude the static source will suffer:
a) Lag
b) Postition error
c) Temperature error
d) Barometric error

9. In the International Standard Atmosphere, the mean sea level pressure is............,
the lapse rate of temperature...........between MSL and ............ and is isothermal up
to ........... The numbers missing are:
a) 1013 .25 HPa . . . . . 1.98° per 1000 ft . . . . . 36,090 ft . . . . . 104,987 ft
b) 1225 HPa . . . . . . . . . . 2° per 1000 ft . . . . . .37,000 ft . . . . . 66,000 ft
c) 1225 HPa . . . . . . . . 1.98° per 1000 ft . . . . . 36,090 ft . . . . . 104,987 ft
d) 1013.25 HPa . . . . . 1.98° per 1000 ft . . . . . 36,090 ft . . . . . 65,617 ft

10. Manoeuvre induced error:

a) Is likely to be greatest when yawing after engine failure
b) Is combined with instrument and position error on a correction card
c) Lasts only for a short time at high altitude
d) Is caused by pressure changes at static vents

11. Position error

a) Will usually decrease with an excess in altitude
b) May be reduced by the fitting of static vents
c) Will usually decrease as the aircraft approaches the speed of sound
d) Will depend solely on the attitude of the aircraft

12. Pressure heads supply data to the following instruments

a) Standby instruments only, when air data computers fitted
b) All of the above plus air driven gyros
c) Air data computers, altimeters, ASI's & air driven gyros
d) Altimeters, ASI`s, VSI`s, machmeters, air data computers

13. Static vents are usually fitted to both sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will:
a) Enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted
b) Reduce the position error
c) Require a calibration card for each static vent
d) Balance out errors caused by side slipping or yawing

14. Turbulent flow around a pressure head may cause:

a) up to 95% in error due to manoeuvre induced error
b) an increase in dynamic pressure
c) up to 95% in error due to position error
d) an increase in density error

15. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed

(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
a) remain constant
b) increase at a linear rate
c) decrease
 d) increase at an exponential rate

16. Where an alternate static source is fitted, use of this source ususally leads to:
a) A temporary increase in lag error
b) An increase in position error
c) A lower pressure error than with normal sources
d) No change in position error

17. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static pressure
a) Airspeed indicator and altimeter
b) Airspeed indicator and machmeter
c) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
d) Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator

022-002 Altimeter (29 Questions)

18. A servo-assisted altimeter is more often fitted in large aircraft because of:
1. increased sensitivity
2. increased lag
3. a variable datum
4. no friction
5. more power to drive dials
6. more accurate at height

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3 & 6
b) 2, 4 & 6
c) 1, 5 & 6
d) 2, 3 & 5

19. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:

a) hysterysis
b) friction
c) pressure error
d) lag

20. An aircraft flies at an altitude of 3,500 feet from A, elevation 700 feet & QNH 1015
mb, to B, elevation 1,120 feet & QNH 992 mb. Assuming the altimeter sub-scale is
not changed, the aircraft will arrive over B at a height of: (assume 1mb=30ft)
a) 2,670 feet
b) 3,500 feet
c) 2,810 feet
d) 1,690 feet

21. An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH at A of 1019 mb set on the altimeter subscale
throughout the flight. Assuming all other errors are zero, when overhead B, QNH
1013 mbs, the altimeter will be: (assume 1mb=30ft)
a) Over indicating by 180 feet
b) Over indicating by 120 feet
c) Under indicating by 180 feet
d) Indicating true altitude
22. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air temperature is
-30°C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
a) 15,200 ft
b) 18,600 ft
c) 16,200 ft
d) 13,500 ft

23. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over an airmass that is warmer than
ISA. The altimeter reading will be:
a) greater than the real altitude less than the real altitude
b) correct
c) oscillating around the correct altitude
d) less than the real altitude

24. An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent when the static line becomes blocked.
The altimeter then reads:
a) more than 6,500 ft
b) zero
c) 6,500 ft
d) less than 6,500 ft

25. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and FL is flying from a warm air mass into a
colder air mass.
The effect of the change of temperature on the TAS and true altitude will be:
a) TAS will increase and true altitude will decrease
b) TAS will decrease and true altitude will increase
c) TAS will decrease and true altitude will decrease
d) TAS will increase and true altitude will increase

26. An aircraft taking off from an airfield, with QNH set on the altimeter, has both static
vents blocked by ice.
As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:
a) Read the height of the aircraft above the airfiled
b) Read the airfield elevation
c) Show only a very small increase in height
d) Indicate the aircraft height amsl

27. An altimeter may be fitted with a "knocking" device in order to:

a) reduce barometric error
b) overcome friction
c) increase accuracy
d) reduce lag

28. An altimeter with ............ set on the subscale will indicate............., but with...........set,
the altimeter will show............
a) QFE; height above airfield datum; 1013; height amsl
b) QNH; height above touch down; 1013; pressure altitude
c) 1013; pressure altitude; QNH; height above mean sea level
d) QNE; pressure altitude; QNH; height above airfield datum
29. An altimeter:

1. is calibrated to ISA at mean sea level only

2. is most accurate at low altitude
3. has static pressure in the capsule
4. has total pressure in the case
5. has ambient pressure in the case

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 5

30. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:
a) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred
b) gradually return to zero
c) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument
became blocked
d) over-read

31. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent, the instrument:
a) Continues to show the height at which the blockage occurred
b) Pointer will return to indicate a height equivalent to the sub-scale setting
c) Will overread by a constant amount
d) Will progressively underread

32. On board an a/c, true altitude is shown from:

a) density altitude
b) pressure altitude
c) temperature altitude
d) standard atmosphere

33. Pressure altitude may be defined as:

a) altitude indicated with 1013 set on the altimeter
b) altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter
c) lowest forecast regional pressure
d) altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeter

34. QNH is defined as:

a) the setting that will give zero indication on the airfield
b) the setting that will indicate airfield height
c) the airfield barometric pressure
d) the pressure at the airfield corrected to MSL in accordance with the ISA
atmosphere

35. Temperature error in the altimeter is due to:

a) Inaccurate calibration of the temperature compensating device
b) Ram rise
c) The difference between the actual pressure setting and 1013.2 mb
 d) The difference between the actual mean temperature below the aircraft and the
mean temperature that would be found in ISA

36. The calibration of the altimeter assumes which of the following:

1. Mean sea level pressure of 1013.25 hPa

2. From mean sea level to 12km, temperature falls by 10°C / 1,000ft
3. From 20km to 30km temperature rises by 10°C / 1,000ft
4. From mean sea level to 11km, temperature falls by 6.5°C / km
5. Mean sea level pressure 1225 gm/m³
6. From 11km to 20km temperature constant at -56.5°C

a) 1, 2, 4 and 6
b) 3, 5, and 6
c) 1, 4 and 6
d) All of the above

37. The errors of the altimeter include:

a) lag, temperature error and position error
b) temperature error, density error and instrument error
c) compressibility error, barometric error and temperature error
d) lag, density error and manoeuvre induced error

38. The QNH is

a) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the
location for which it is given
b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given
c) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground
at the location for which it is provided
d) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft

39. The servo altimeter is superior to the sensitive altimeter because:

a) It reduces high altitude error
b) It reduces temperature error
c) It reduces barometric error
d) All of the above are correct

40. The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:
a) logarithmic scale
b) temperature compensated spring
c) electromagnetic pick-off
d) multiple pointers

41. What is density altitude:

a) pressure corrected altitude
b) altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the ISA density is equal to the
ambient density in the current atmosphere
c) pressure altitude corrected for QNH
d) temperature altitude
42. What is the effect on an altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to
the pressure source?
a) a change in the compressibility error
b) a change in the instrument error
c) a change in hysterysis error
d) a change in the position error

43. What is the true altitude if 40 at ISA +10

a) 4,150 ft
b) 40,050 ft
c) 3,880 ft
d) 5,200 ft

44. What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than
standard?
a) readings will fluctuate
b) read lower than the real altitude
c) read higher then the real altitude
d) read the correct altitude

45. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:
a) show the actual height above ground
b) be just as correct as before
c) over read
d) under read

46. When flying from low pressure to high pressure, the barometric error of an altimeter
will cause the instrument to:
a) Indicate a higher altitude than the correct one
b) Overread the true altitude of the aircraft
c) Underread the true altitude of the aircraft
d) Read the true altitude, providing a correction is made for temperature

022-003 Airspeed (38 Questions)

47. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:
a) over-read
b) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent
c) under-read
d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent

48. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open
causes the airspeed indicator to:
a) react like an altimeter
b) read a little high
c) freeze at zero
d) read a little low
49. An aircraft flying at a constant FL and maintaining a constant CAS flies into an area
of warmer air.
The air density is..................causing the TAS to ................
a) Increasing..............increase
b) Decreasing.............decrease
c) Increasing..............decrease
d) Decreasing.............increase

50. An aircraft is flying at a constant CAS. If the ambient temperature ............., the TAS
will .............. due to.................
The words to complete the above statement are:
a) Falls............fall............decreasing density
b) Rises...........rise...........decreasing density
c) Falls............rise............decreasing pressure
d) Rises...........fall............increasing density

51. An aircraft is flying at FL390, with a CAS of 250kts. The temperature is JSA +8.
What will the TAS be?
a) 485 kts
b) 458 kts
c) 466 kts
d) 439 kts

52. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into
warmer air.
The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be:
a) CAS will increase
b) EAS will increase
c) TAS will increase
d) TAS will decrease

53. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors.

The Pitot Probe measures:
a) total pressure & static pressure
b) dynamic pressure
c) static pressure
d) total pressure

54. At sea level, in ISA conditions, TAS:

a) Is less than CAS
b) Is greater than CAS
c) Will depend upon the density altitude
d) Equals CAS

55. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a) position and instrument error
b) relative density only
c) compressibility
d) instrument, pressure and density error
56. Compressibility error is caused by a false ............... of ..................pressure, requiring
a .................. correction to the CAS to obtain EAS.
The words to correctly complete the sentence above are:
a) Decrease dynamic positive
b) Increase dynamic negative
c) Increase static negative
d) Decrease pitot positive

57. Compressibility error

a) Causes overreading of the ASI at all densities whenever TAS exceeds 300kt
b) Is calibrated out of the ASI at MSL ISA conditions and is only worth correcting
when TAS exceeds 300 kt
c) Is calibrated out of the ASI at MSL ISA conditions and is only worth correcting
when CAS exceeds 300 kt
d) Causes overreading of the ASI at all densities whenever CAS exceeds 300 kt

58. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway the total pressure probe of
the airspeed indicator is blocked.
The pilot finds that indicated airspeed:
a) increases abruptly towards VNE
b) decreases abruptly towards zero
c) increases steadily
d) decreases steadily

59. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is:

a) TAS corrected for compressibility
b) TAS obtained from indicated Mach No corrected for pressure and instrument
error
c) CAS corrected for compressibility
d) IAS corrected for compressibility

60. Excluding blockages, the full list of errors of the ASI is:
a) Instrument error, position error, density error, compressibility error, maoeuvre
induced error
b) Instrument error, position error, temperature error, compressibility error,
manoeuvre error
c) Instrument error, position error, density error, manoeuvre induced error
d) Instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error, manoeuvre
induced error

61. If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI
will:
a) show zero
b) over read
c) read constant airspeed
d) under read

62. If the pitot line becomes blocked in the descent, the ASI will indicate:
a) Zero
b) A steady CAS
c) An increasing CAS
 d) A decreasing CAS

63. If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:
a) Decrease, no matter what the actual airspeed is
b) Increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is
c) Progressively under indicate the value of the airspeed
d) Stick at the airspeed showing the moment of blockage

64. If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot drain is blocked) in a non-pressurised a/c, the
ASI will:
a) over-read
b) under-read
c) over-read in the climb, under-read in the descent
d) under-read in the climb, over-read in the descent

65. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a long descent, a dangerous
situation could arise due to the ASI:
a) overreading, this indicates speed falsely showing the aircraft to be further from
the stalling speed than it actually is
b) Overreading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps
and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds
c) underrreading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operatiuon of flaps
and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds
d) Underreading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be closer to the
stalling speed than it actually is

66. If the static source is blocked, an airspeed indicator (ASI):

a) will under read in the climb
b) will under read in the descent
c) will read correctly
d) will over read in a steady climb

67. TAS is defined as:

a) CAS corrected for compressibility and instrument error
b) CAS corrected for compressibility and density error
c) EAS corrected for compressibility and position error
d) IAS corrected for density and instrument error

68. The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors.

69. The pitot tube directly supplies the:
a) dynamic pressure
b) static pressure
c) total pressure
d) total pressure and the static pressure

70. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:

a) ISA at mean sea level
b) The full ISA
c) ISA at 35,000 ft
d) ISA at the height the aircraft is flying
71. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS):
a) an antenna and compressibility correction
b) an instrument and density correction
c) an instrument and position/pressure error correction
d) a compressibility and density correction

72. The colours on the dial of an ASI may be shown as:

1. a blue line for VSO and a red line for VNE

2. a white arc for flap operating range & a yellow arc for caution range
3. a red line for VNO & and white line for VFE
4. top of the green arc for VNO and bottom of the white arc for VSO
5. top of the green arc for VNE and top of the white arc for VFE
6. green line for VLE and a yellow line for VNO
7. white arc for normal operations and a red arc for cautionary range

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 4
b) 1 & 5
c) 5 & 7
d) 4 & 6

73. The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range:
a) VS1 to VFE
b) VS1 to VLO
c) VS1 to VNO
d) VSO to VNO

74. The speed at the lower end of the Green arc on the ASI is:
a) VNE
b) VS1
c) VMC
d) VNO

75. The white arc on the ASI indicates:

a) VS1 at the lower end and VLO at the upper end
b) VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end
c) VS1 at the lower end and VLE at the upper end
d) VF0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end

76. VFE is the maximum speed that:

a) the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration
b) the flaps can be operated or extended
c) the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration
d) the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration

77. VLE and VYSE are defined as:

a) maximum speed to extend the landing gear, single engine climb speed
b) maximum speed to extend landing gear, single engine stalling speed
 c) maximum speed for flight with landing gear down, best rate of climb, with one
engine failed
d) maximum speed for flight with leading edge flap extended, one engine out climb
speed

78. VLO is defined as:

a) the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
b) the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
c) the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
d) the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended

79. VLO is the maximum:

a) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
b) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution
c) flight speed with landing gear down
d) speed with flaps extended in a given position

80. VNE is defined as:

a) the speed which must not be exceeded in still air, or without caution
b) the maximum speed for normal flap extension to be selected
c) the speed above which the landing gear may not be extended
d) the speed which must never be exceeded

81. VNO is the max. speed which:

a) should never be exceeded
b) the pilot can fully deflect the controls
c) should only be exceeded in still air and with caution
d) must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension

82. What are the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI?
a) lower limit VNO and upper limit VNE
b) lower limit VLE and upper limit VNE
c) lower limit VLO and upper limit VLE
d) lower limit VLO and upper limit VNE

83. What determines the "barbers pole" speed on a combined Mach/ASI meter?:
a) VMO versus altitude,
b) Autothrottle control speed versus temperature
c) Autothrottle control speed versus altitude,
d) VMO versus temperature,

84. What does the blue line on an ASI of a twin piston engined aircraft indicate?
a) VMCA
b) VNO
c) VFE
d) VYSE

85. What will be the TAS if cruising altitude is 39,000 ft, temperature is ISA +5 and CAS
200 kt:
a) 370 kt
b) 388 kt
 c) 364 kt
d) 382 kt

022-004 Machmeter (47 Questions)

86. A machmeter measures the ratio of;

a) pitot pressure times static pressure
b) pitot pressure to (static pressure times pitot pressure)
c) (pitot pressure minus static pressure) to static pressure
d) pitot pressure to static pressure

87. A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:

a) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed
sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure
b) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static
pressure
c) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic
pressure
d) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed
sensor subjected to a static pressure

88. An aeroplane is in a steady climb.

The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number.
If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,
increases if higher
d) remains constant

89. An aeroplane is in steady climb.

The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.
If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number:
a) remains constant
b) increases
c) decreases
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature

90. An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270.

The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.
If the static air temperature increases, the Mach number:
a) decreases
b) remains constant
c) increases
d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature,
increases if lower

91. An aeroplane is in steady descent.

The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.
If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number:
a) decreases
 b) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,
decreases if higher
c) remains constant
d) increases

92. An aircraft flying at FL 310 is cruising at an CAS of 290 kt.

If the correct outside air temperature is -48°C, this will give a Mach number of:
a) 0.76
b) 0.71
c) 0.78
d) 0.805

93. An aircraft flying at Mach 0.83 is in air SAT 230 Kelvin.

What is the TAS?
a) 495 kt
b) 575 kt
c) 490 kt
d) 470 kt

94. An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach No below the tropopause in ISA conditions.
During the climb the CAS will:
a) Increase due to falling temperature
b) Decrease due to decreasing density error
c) Decrease due to decreasing air density
d) Decrease due to increasing air density

95. An aircraft is cruising at an CAS of 340 kt at FL 330.

If the indicated temperature is -19°C, the Mach number of the aircraft will be:
a) M 1.04
b) M 0.94
c) M 0.875
d) M 0.975

96. An aircraft is descending at a constant Mach No through an isothermal layer.

The CAS of the aircraft will:
a) Decrease
b) Remain the same
c) Decrease quickly and then remain the same
d) Increase

97. An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number.

If the aircraft is descending through an inversion layer, the CAS will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease then decrease more slowly
c) Decrease
d) Remain constant

98. An aircraft is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maximum speed.

The limits in speed will be:
a) the MMO only
b) initially the VMO, then the MMO below a certain flight level
 c) the VMO only
d) initially the MMO, then the VMO below a certain flight level

99. An aircraft is flying at a constant altitude and Mach No, enters a warmer air mass.
As a result:
a) the TAS will decrease and the CAS increase
b) the TAS will increase and the CAS remain the same
c) the TAS will remain constant and the CAS decrease
d) the TAS and CAS will increase

100. An aircraft is flying at FL 290, TAS 500 kt, mach number 0.86.
The temperature deviation from ISA is:
a) -15
b) -7
c) +25
d) +7

101. An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature 207°A, and Mach 0.85.

The TAS of the aircraft is:
a) 472 kts
b) 485 kts
c) 476 kts
d) 561 kts

102. An aircraft is flying at TAS of 1100 kt and FL 650.

A change of 0.1 mach causes a change in TAS of 57 kt.
The temperature deviation at FL 650 assuming an ISA atmosphere is:
a) -6
b) +3
c) +6
d) -3

103. An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290.

The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number.
If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
a) decreases
b) remains constant
c) increases
d) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature,
decreases if lower

104. At FL 350 with a JSA deviation of -12, the true airspeed when flying at M0.78 is:
a) 436 kt
b) 460 kt
c) 447 kt
d) 490 kt

105. Below the tropopause with no temperature inversion, when climbing at constant
Mach number:
a) TAS remains constant
b) TAS increases
 c) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce
the TAS variation
d) TAS decreases

106. Below the tropopause, when descending at constant CAS:

a) Mach number increases and the velocity of sound decreases
b) Mach number and the velocity of sound decrease
c) Mach number decreases and the velocity of sound increases
d) Mach number and the velocity of sound increase

107. Cruising at FL390, M 0.84 is found to give a TAS of 499kt.

The ISA deviation at this level will be:
a) -17
b) +19
c) -19
d) +17

108. Descending from FL390 at maximum groundspeed, what will the pilot be limited
by:
a) VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude
b) VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude
c) VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude
d) MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude

109. During a descent at constant CAS and constant temperature, the mach no:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases if SAT is greater than standard temperature and decreases if it is lower

110. During a steady climb the pitot head becomes totally blocked by ice.
111. As the climb continues the indications of the machmeter will:
a) Progressively under indicate the Mach number
b) Increase no matter what the actual Mach number
c) Go to zero and stay there
d) Stick at the Mach number at the time of blockage

112. For an aircraft climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA
conditions, the CAS will:
a) fall due to the increasing density error and decreasing TAS
b) rise due to TAS increasing with falling density
c) rise due to the decreasing pressure
d) fall due to density decreasing due to the increase in local speed of sound

113. If a constant CAS is maintained in a climb, what happens to the mach number
a) increases
b) decreases
c) depends upon temperature
d) remains constant
114. If an aircraft climbs, at constant mach No, in ISA conditions what happens to the
TAS and the CAS?
a) TAS remains constant and CAS decreases
b) TAS decreases and CAS decreases
c) TAS increases and CAS increases
d) TAS decreases and CAS increases

115. If an aircraft descends from FL 310 at a constant CAS, the Mach No will:
a) Decrease because density is decreasing
b) Decrease because density is increasing
c) Decrease because static pressure is increasing
d) Increase because the density error is increasing

116. If the alternate static source is selected, the greatest error in the machmeter will
be;
a) Position error
b) Manoeuvre induced error
c) Density error
d) Lag

117. If the pitot line becomes blocked during a descent the machmeter will:
a) Over-read
b) Be unaffected
c) Under-read
d) Underread by an increasingly erroneous amount

118. If while level at FL 270, at a constant CAS, temperature falls, what happens to
the Mach No.
a) increases depending on whether temp >ISA or < ISA
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases

119. Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

a) CAS to LSS
b) IAS to LSS
c) TAS to LSS
d) EAS to LSS

120. Mach number is defined as:

a) the speed which will produce supersonic airflow over the aircraft
b) ratio of TAS over LSS
c) the ratio of static pressure over dynamic pressure
d) the percentage of TAS to LSS at MSL

121. Mach number is defined as:

a) The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure
b) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure
c) The ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure
d) The ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure
122. The combined Machmeter/ASI is subject to the following errors:
a) Instrument, pressure and temperature only
b) Those of the Machmeter only
c) Instrument and compressibility only
d) Position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced

123. The errors to which the machmeter are subject are:

a) instrument error, position error, density error and manoeuvre induced error
b) Instrument error, position error and manoeuvre induced error
c) Instrument error, position error, barometric error and manoeuvre induced error
d) Instrument error, position error, compressibility error and manoeuvre induced
error

124. The local speed of sound is equal to:

(K is a constant)
a) K temperature (°C) knots
b) K temperature (°K) knots
c) K temperature (°F) knots
d) K temperature (°K) metres per second

125. The machmeter consists of:

a) an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule
b) an altimeter corrected for density
c) a VSI and altimeter combined
d) an airspeed indicator with mach scale

126. The reason for the adjustable index on the Machmeter being set at a different
Mach number on different aircraft types is:
a) To indicate the best cruising Mach number for that aircraft
b) To correct for the differing position errors
c) Because different aircraft types have different limiting Mach numbers
d) To correct for differing instrument errors

127. What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and -28 degrees C.

a) 610 kts
b) 624 kts
c) 601 kts
d) 618 kts

128. What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft and -40 degrees C.

a) 590 kts
b) 661 kts
c) 595 kts
d) 562 kts

129. What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA

a) 583 kts
b) 1059 kts
c) 661 kts
d) 644 kts
130. When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an
inversion:
a) The CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase
b) The CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease
c) The CAS and TAS with both decrease
d) The CAS and TAS will both increase

131. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS, what does the
TAS do?
a) increase at an exponential rate
b) remain the same
c) increase at a linear rate
d) decrease

132. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number.
The total temperature increases by 50. The CAS will:
a) decrease
b) remain approximately constant
c) Increase
d) will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

022-005 Vertical Speed Indicator (13 Questions)

133. A blockage in the static line to the VSI will cause the instrument to display:
a) An increased rate of descent
b) A zero rate of climb
c) An increased rate of climb
d) A decreased rate of climb

134. An aircraft is travelling at 100 kts ground speed on a 3° glideslope.

What is its rate of descent?
a) 500 ft/min
b) 250 ft/min
c) 300 ft/min
d) 600 ft/min

135. Change of temperature as an aircraft climbs or descends

a) May be allowed for by use of tables or computer
b) Will affect VSI readings whenever temperature lapse rate differs from standard
conditions
c) Has no effect on the VSI as only static pressure is used in this instrument
d) Is compensated at the metering unit by means of a capillary and orifice

136. Compared to the VSI what errors are eliminated by the IVSI?
a) Pressure
b) Turning
c) Temperature
d) Lag

137. In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most pronounced error is:
a) Steep turn
 b) Instrument
c) Missed approach manoeuvre
d) Position

138. In the IVSI, lag error:

a) Is eliminated by feeding an example of static pressure to the case and delaying it
to the capsule
b) Is only eliminated when initiating a climb or descent
c) Is virtually eliminated by using a special dashpot accelerometer assembly
d) Is eliminated by the use of logarithmic presentation

139. Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :
a) pressure
b) density
c) temperature and the pressure
d) temperature

140. The advantage of having the VSI dial presentation in logarithmic spacing rather
then in linear spacing is that:
a) At low rates of climb or descent the pointer movement is much larger and so is
more easily read
b) Readings are instantaneous
c) A greater range of rates of climb and descent are shown
d) The internal mechanism is simplified by deletion of calibration choke

141. The purpose of the dynamic vane in an IVSI is to:

a) compensate for metering errors
b) increase sensitivity
c) improve dynamic range
d) reduce lag

142. The restricted choke in the VSI:

a) Creates a differential pressure between the capsule and the case as its main
function
b) Will prevent the instrument being damaged by high rates of climb and descent
c) Compensates for time lag in the instrument
d) Compensates for changes in temperature and density only

143. Vertical Speed Indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or
finishing a climb or descent.
144. This error is a result of:
a) A combination of time lag and manouvre induced error
b) A combination of position error and time lag
c) Manouevre induced error only
d) A combination of time lag and instrument error

145. What flight conditions produce the greatest errors in an IVSI?

1. rotate
2. steep turn
3. landing
 4. rolling
5. turbulence
6. looping
7. go around

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 5
b) 1, 2 & 5
c) 3, 4 & 6
d) 1 & 7

146. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:

a) A slight descent
b) A slight climb
c) No change in altitude
d) A slight descent at high airspeed only

022-006 Air Data Computer (8 Questions)

147. An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a) barometric data from static source
b) time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth
c) outside air temperature
d) difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

148. An air data computer

1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)

2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude
3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure
4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit
5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 and 5
b) 1 and 2
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3, 4 and 5

149. An Air Data Computer has inputs of:

a) dynamic pressure, static pressure and ram air temperature
b) pitot pressure, static pressure and static air temperature
c) static pressure, pitot pressure and total air temperature
d) dynamic pressure, static pressure and air temperature

150. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:

a) measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)
b) the difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage
c) measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface
and back
 d) measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the
fuselage

151. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system are:

1. position and compressibility correction.

2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 4
b) 1, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 3

152. What are the minimum inputs required by the ADC

1. OAT
2. dynamic pressure
3. TAT
4. static pressure
5. electric power
6. pitot pressure
7. AOA

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) all 7
b) 1, 2, 5 & 6
c) 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
d) 3, 4, 5 & 6

153. What are the primary inputs to the air data computer?

1 dynamic pressure & static pressure

2. static pressure & total air temperature
3. static air temperature & angle of attack
4. total air temperature & pitot pressure
5. pitot pressure & outside air temperature
6. weight on wheels switch & dynamic pressure
7. pitot pressure & static pressure

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 5 & 6
b) 1, 6 & 7
c) 2, 4 & 7
d) 1, 2 & 3

154. What errors can the Ar Data Computer correct for?

1. instrument error & ram rise

 2. compressibility & density error
3. lag & density error
4. position & temperature error
5. temperature & instrument error
6. manoeuvre error & ram rise
7. manoeuvre & position errors

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 6
b) 3 & 5
c) 3 & 7
d) 2 & 4

022-007 Magnetism (49 Questions)

155. The deviating effect of vertical soft iron (VSI) ........with decrease of magnetic
latitude, due to the ........of H and the ........of Z.
The line containing the words to correctly complete the above statement is:
a) Decreases........decrease..........decrease
b) Decrease..........increase..........decrease
c) Increases..........decrease..........decrease
d) increase............decrease.........increase

156. A compass swing is used to:

a) align magnetic north with true north
b) align compass north with magnetic north
c) align compass north with true north
d) get true north and lubber line aligned

157. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

a) acceleration on east/west headings
b) crosswinds - particularly on east/west headings
c) parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose
d) turning through east/west headings

158. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of
50° North.
Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
a) 355°
b) 005°
c) 340°
d) 020°

159. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of
20° North.
Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
a) 190°
b) 160°
c) 200°
 d) 170°

160. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of
20° North.
Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
a) 150°
b) 180°
c) 200°
d) 170°

161. A pilot wishes to turn right through 90° on to North at rate 2 at latitude of 40 North
using a direct reading compass.
In order to achieve this the turn should be stopped on an indicated heading of
approximately:
a) 010°
b) 330°
c) 360°
d) 030°

162. About a magnetic compass:

a) errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose
b) turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
c) acceleration errors are due to Schüler oscillations
d) acceleration errors are least when accelerating on east or west

163. Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard Iron

a) Varies directly with magnetic latitude
b) Is maximum on east and west
c) Varies indirectly with magnetic latitude
d) Is not usually influenced by the earth`s magnetic field

164. Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft Iron:

a) Varies with magnetic heading but not with magnetic latitude
b) Varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading
c) Varies as the cosine of the compass heading
d) It is not affected magnetic latitude or heading

165. Aircraft magnetism:

a) Does not vary with aircraft latitude but does vary with aircraft heading
b) Does not vary with aircraft heading or latitude
c) Varies with aircraft heading and latitude
d) Varies with latitude but does not vary with aircraft heading

166. An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading in the N hemisphere.

The compass needle rotates .... indicating a turn towards .....
a) Anti-clockwise.............. north
b) Clockwise.....................north
c) Anti-clockwise...............south
d) Clockwise.....................south
167. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing in a southerly direction, in the Southern
Hemisphere.
What indications will be seen on the DRMC?
a) oscillation about south
b) turn to west
c) 180° turn to east
d) no apparent turn

168. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is turning from 045° through North on to 315° in
the Northern Hemisphere.
The direction of turn of the magnet system and the effect of liquid swirl on the error
due to the turn are:
a) Anti clockwise Reduce turn error
b) Clockwise Increase turn error
c) Anti clockwise Increase turn error
d) Clockwise Reduce turn error

169. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC upon landing in a northerly direction, in the
Northern hemisphere, will indicate:
a) oscillation about north
b) no change
c) a turn towards east
d) a turn towards west

170. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere turns right through 90º from 300ºC.
The pilot should roll out on:
a) 010° M because the compass is sluggish
b) 050° M and liquid swirl will reduce the error
c) 360° M and liquid swirl will increase the error
d) 030° M because the compass is lively

171. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 045° (C) to
315°(C) using a DGI.
At the end of the turn the compass will read... than 315° and liquid swirl will ... this
effect.
a) More.................increase
b) More.................decrease
c) Less..................decrease
d) Less..................increase

172. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere lands on runway heading 090°.

The compass will indicate on apparent turn towards:
a) south, and over-read
b) north, and under-read
c) north, and over-read
d) south, and under-read

173. An aircraft is taking off on a runway heading 045°, in still air, with a compass
having 0° deviation. The runway is on an agonic line. What will the compass read if
you are in the northern hemisphere?
a) compass moves to more than 045°
 b) compass remains on 045°
c) compass stays on 045° if wings are kept level,
d) compass moves to less than 045°

174. An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°; the compass is made
for the northern hemisphere.
During rolling take-off, the compass indicates:
a) a value below 045°
b) a value above 045° in the southern hemisphere
c) a value above 045° in the northern hemisphere
d) 045°

175. An aircraft turns from 045°C to 315°C in the Southern Hemisphere.

The magnets turn ........and liquid swirls ..... causing the error.
a) Anti-clockwise...............Clockwise
b) Clockwise.......................Clockwise
c) Anti-clockwise...............Anti-clockwise
d) Clockwise.......................Anti-clockwise

176. An aircraft turns from south-west to south-east when situated at 45°N, what
heading should you roll out on if using a DRMC?
a) 115°
b) 140°
c) 155°
d) 130°

177. An aircraft turns right from 060° to 120° at 38°S.

Using the DRMC what heading should the aircraft roll out on:
a) 140°
b) 115°
c) 125°
d) 120°

178. An aircraft turns right from 300° to 360° at 48° S

Using the DRMC what heading should the aircraft roll out on:
a) 020°
b) 010°
c) 350°
d) 340°

179. An aircraft, fitted with a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC), is taking off
in an easterly direction, in the southern hemisphere.
The DRMC will show a turn towards:
a) north because the magnet rotates clockwise in error
b) north because the magnet rotates anticlockwise in error
c) south because the magnet rotates anticlockwise in error
d) south because the magnet rotates clockwise in error

180. As latitude increases, deviation due to aircraft magnetism:

a) increases because H is increasing and dip is reducing
b) increases because H is reducing and Z increasing
 c) decreases because Z is reducing and dip increasing
d) decreases because T is reducing and dip increasing

181. During a sustained turn _______ the nearer the magnetic pole, the effect of liquid
swirl will ________ compass turning error. Complete the sentence using the options
listed below.
a) Towards; increase
b) towards; not affect
c) away from; increase
d) Away from; not affect

182. During deceleration after a landing on a northerly runway, the magnetic compass
will indicate :
a) no apparent turn
b) a heading fluctuating about 360°
c) an apparent turn to the West
d) an apparent turn to the East.

183. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern
hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:
a) oscillates about west
b) a turn to south
c) no turn
d) a turn to the north

184. If the total force of the earth`s field at a point is T and the horizontal and vertical
components H and Z, the value of H and Z, the value of H is found by the formula
a) H = T sin dip
b) H = T cos dip
c) H = Z tan dip
d) H = T tan dip

185. In a direct reading compass the maximum errors will occur when accelerating on:
a) E/W & low latitudes
b) N/S & high latitudes
c) E/W & high latitudes
d) N/S & low latitudes

186. In a direct reading compass the maximum errors will occur when turning through:
a) North or South, at low latitudes
b) East or West, at low latitudes
c) East or West, at high latitudes
d) North or South, at high latitudes

187. In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparant liquid.

The purpose of this liquid is to:
a) Less; decrease
b) Increase Sensitivity, decrease aperiodity
c) Increase sensitivity, increase aperiodity
d) Increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl
188. In a standby direct reading compass there is:
a) A non-pendulously mounted magnet system
b) A low magnet moment system, either of circular or bar configuration
c) A single pendulously mounted rear bar magnet
d) A circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted

189. Lines on a chart joining places of the same magnetic variation are called:
a) Isogrivs
b) Isotachs
c) Isobars
d) Isogonals

190. The directive force of the earth`s magnetic field:

a) Increases as magnetic latitude increases
b) Varies with the heading of the aircraft
c) Is greatest at the magnetic equator
d) Increases as the magnetic variation increases

191. The line on a chart along which all points have zero angle of dip is called
a) The agonic line
b) The isogonal line
c) The aclinic line
d) The isoclininc line

192. The magnetic moment of a magnet

a) Varies inversely as the square of the distance between the poles
b) Is the product of pole strength and effective length
c) Decreases as the magnet length increases
d) Varies directly as the square of the distance between the poles

193. The pilot of an aircraft in the Southern Hemisphere carries out a turn to starboard
from 320° to 040° using his DGI.
During this turn, due to turning errors, the direct reading magnetic compass needle
will rotate.................. .
Any liquid swirl will be....................the turn of the aircraft so......................the overall
error of the direct reading magnetic compass.

The words to correctly complete the above statement are:

a) clockwise..............against..............reducing
b) anti-clockwise............with..............reducing
c) anti-clockwise..............against..............increasing
d) clockwise..............with..............increasing

194. The red pole of a freely suspended magnet will point towards ......and at latitude
60N will point .... at an angle known as the angle of......
a) The north magnetic pole........downwards........dip
b) The north magnetic pole........downwards........variation
c) The nose of the aircraft........downwards........deviations
d) The nearest pole..................downwards........dip
195. The slow change in the earth`s magnetic variation is known as the .......... change
and is caused by ...........
a) Annual .......... sunspot activity
b) Secular ......... westerly movement of the magnetic pole
c) Annual .......... westerly movement of the magnetic pole
d) Diurnal .......... easterly movement of the magnetic pole

196. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended

from a point:
a) On the centre line of the magnet
b) Above the centre of gravity
c) Varying with magnetic latitude
d) Below the centre of gravity

197. True heading can be converted into magnetic heading using a compass and:
a) A deviation card
b) A map with isogonal lines
c) A map with isoclinal lines
d) A fly-by card

198. What is the value of the angle of magnetic dip at the South Pole?
a) 90°
b) 45°
c) 0°
d) 60°

199. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the

magnet assembly of a direct reading magnetic compass, when viewed from above,
will:
a) Turn anti-clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the south
b) Turn clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the north
c) Turn clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the south
d) Turn anti-clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the north

200. When accelerating on an easterly heading in the N hemisphere, the magnet

system of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
a) Turn clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards the north
b) Turn anti-clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards the south
c) Turn anti-clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards the north
d) Turn clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards the south

201. When carrying out a right turn at the magnetic equator there will be:
a) No turning error
b) A tendency to underread turns due to liquid swirl
c) No turning error when turning through east or west only
d) A tendency to underread turns through south and overrread turns through north

202. Which of the following materials are classed as ferromagnetic:

a) copper, iron, carbon steel
b) nickel, iron, steel
c) Iron, steel, carbon-fibre
 d) iron, cobalt steel, chromium steel

203. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass?

1. ferrous metals
2. non-ferrous metals
3. electrical equipment

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) all 3
b) 1 & 2
c) 1 only
d) 1 & 3

022-008 gyroscopes (139 Questions)

204. A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have

a) two degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
b) two degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
c) one degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
d) one degree of freedom and a vertical axis

205. A constant torque is applied to deflect a gyroscope.

If the gyro rotor RPM is then doubled the precession will:
a) Increase
b) Cease altogether
c) Remain as before
d) Decrease

206. A DG flag appears on the pilot`s gyro unit. What does it indicate to the pilot?
a) No longer being monitored by the detector unit
b) The compass is aligned with the detector unit
c) The compass is misaligned
d) Remote indicating compass is unserviceable

207. A DGI has:

a) one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
b) two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
c) two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis
d) one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

208. A directional gyro indicator is basically a:

a) Vertical axis tied gyro
b) Vertical axis earth gyro
c) Horizontal axis tied gyro
d) Horizontal axis earth gyro

209. A directional gyro is valid only for a short period of time.

The causes of this inaccuracy are:

1. earth rotation
 2. longitudinal accelerations
3. a/c motion over the earth
4. mechanical defects
5. gyro mass

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1, 3 & 5
c) all of the above
d) 1, 3 & 4

210. A directional gyro is:

1. a gyroscope free around two axes

2. a gyroscope free around one axis
3. capable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction
4. incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction.

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

(The degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.)

a) 1&4
b) 2&3
c) 2&4
d) 1&3

211. A flux valve detects the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

1. the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars

2. the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro
3. the flux gate valve signal comes from the magnetic compass
4- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5°

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 4
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 1 & 2
d) 1 & 4

212. If a force is applied to the spin axis of a gyroscope, the rotor will be precessed:
a) In the same direction as the applied force
b) At 90° to the applied force
c) Unable to determine the direction
d) At 180° to the applied force

213. A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on:
a) a turn indicator
b) a gyromagnetic indicator
c) a directional gyro unit
d) an artificial horizon
214. A gyromagnetic compass is a system which always consists of:

1. a horizontal axis gyro

2. a vertical axis gyro
3. an earth's magnetic field detector
4. an erection mechanism to maintain the gyro axis horizontal
5. a torque motor to make the gyro precess in azimuth

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3, 4 & 5
b) 1 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 5
d) 2 & 3

215. A gyroscope which utilises gravity to control a vertical reference is termed a:

a) Earth gyro
b) Rate gyro
c) Tied gyro
d) Space gyro

216. A partially blocked air filter will cause the air-driven turn indicator to:
a) Indicate zero rate of turn
b) Read in the reverse sense
c) Underread the correct rate of turn
d) Overread the correct rate of turn

217. A perfectly balanced and frictionless gyro has a drift rate of 6.3° per hour,
increasing.
At what latitude is the DGI located?
a) 25° 10' N
b) 24° 50' S
c) 28° 20' S
d) 38° 40' N

218. A perfectly balanced space gyro at the equator has its spin axis aligned with true
north.
After 6 hours the axis will be aligned with:
a) True east direction
b) True south direction
c) True west direction
d) True north direction

219. A perfectly frictionless directional gyro indicator (DGI) is set to give zero drift
when stationary on the ground in latitude 42N. The gyro is set to read 356° in an
aircraft which is staitonary on the ground in latitude 50N.
The reading after 1 hr 45 min is:
a) 354.55
b) 358.50
c) 357.45
d) 353.50
220. A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from:
a) the flux valve
b) the flight director
c) the air-data-computer
d) a direct reading magnetic compass

221. A space gyro has .... gimbal (s) and is .... so as to maintain alignment with ....
a) two...........case levelled............the horizontal
b) one..........uncontrolled.............a fixed space reference
c) two...........uncontrolled.............a fixed space reference
d) one..........gravity.....................a horizontal earth surface

222. A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

a) Contains its own separate gyro
b) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation
c) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure
d) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

223. A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties:

1. a remote gyro
2. its own power supply
3. only to be used in emergency
4. its own gyro
5. one for each certified pilot

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 4
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) all the above
d) 1, 3 & 5

224. A turn indicator has which of the following:

1. a vertical spin axis

2. a rate gyro
3. an earth gyro
4. one degree of freedom
5. no degrees of freedom

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 5
b) 2 & 4
c) 1 & 5
d) 3 & 5

225. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn
depends upon:

1. bank angle
2. aeroplane speed
 3. aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 2
b) 1, 2, & 3
c) 1 & 3
d) 2 & 3

226. A vertically referenced gyro (data generation unit) will have:

a) horizontal spin axis and 2 degrees of freedom
b) vertical spin axis and 1 degree of freedom
c) vertical spin axis and 2 degrees of freedom
d) horizontal spin axis and 1 degree of freedom

227. Acceleration during the take-off run causes the air driven artificial horizon to
falsely indicate:
a) the nose pitching up due to the action of the pendulous vanes
b) the right wing going down due to the action of the pendulous vanes
c) the nose pitching up due to pendulosity of the gyro housing
d) the right wing going down due to pendulosity of the outer gimbal

228. Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth
rotation makes the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of
45°N, this reference turns by...
a) 15°per hour to the right
b) 10.5° per hour to the right
c) 7.5°per hour to the left
d) 7.5° per hour to the right

229. An a/c is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate
1(one) turn:
a) 18°
b) 12°
c) 35°
d) 30°

230. An air driven DGI is corrected for apparent wander at 56° N.

If the aircraft is maintaining constant DGI readings:
a) When flying north from 56° N the true heading of the aircraft will decrease
b) When flying east from 56°N the true heading will decrease
c) When flying south from 56° N the true heading will decrease
d) When flying west from 56° N the true heading will increase

231. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is a:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a) directional gyro
b) gyromagnetic compass
c) turn indicator
d) fluxgate compass
232. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a) an artificial horizon
b) a directional gyro
c) a turn indicator
d) a fluxgate compass

233. An artificial horizon has:

a) 2 degrees of freedom and an horizontal axis
b) 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
c) 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
d) 1 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis

234. An artificial horizon utilises (i)......to show (ii).......in (iii) .....and (iv)......
a) (i) a space gyro (ii) attitude (iii) degrees (iv) minutes
b) (i) an earth gyro (ii) attitude (iii) pitch (iv) roll
c) (i) an earth gyro (ii) latitiude (iii) pitch (iv) roll
d) (i) an earth gyro (ii) position (iii) latitude (iv) longitude

235. An artificial horizon with an air driven gyroscope, (spinning anti-clockwise seen
from above), is subjected to acceleration during a take-off run. As a result the
instrument indications will falsely show:
a) The right wing going down and the nose going up
b) The right wing going up and the nose going down
c) The right wing going down and the nose going down
d) The right wing going up and the nose going up

236. An artificial horizon with an electrical driven gyroscope has greatly reduced take-
off errors. This is because:
a) The fast erection switch is used to overcome toppple by increasing the erection
rate to a high value
b) It is fitted with a roll-out switch and a linear cut-out switch
c) The gyro has greater rigidity, is less bottom heavy and there is a linear
accelerometer cut-out switch fitted
d) The gyro has greater rigidity, is less bottom heavy and there is a roll out cut-out
switch fitted

237. An electrical Artificial Horizon employs .... and ...... to maintain its position in
relation to......
Select the line of phrases given below that would complete the above statement
correctly:
a) Precession circuit..........torque motor...............azimuth
b) Erection chamber..........pendulous vanes.........space
c) Fast erect buttons..........micro switches............local longitude
d) Mercury switches...........torque motors............ the local vertical

238. An electrically driven artificial horizon considerably reduces the acceleration

errors of the air driven variety by:
a) Increased gyro rpm and giving it the opposite rotation direction
b) Using mercury switches and torque motors
 c) Being more rigid and incorporating erection system cut-out switches
d) Being less pendulous and more rigid

239. An electrically driven artificial horizon has less errors during the take-off run
because:
a) It is less pendulous, has a higher rotor speed and a linear acceleration cut out
b) The mercury level switches are more sensitive than the pendulous vanes fitted to
air driven types
c) The roll cut-out speed is activated
d) It is less aperiodic than the air driven types

240. An instrument is carrying out a rate one turn at TAS of 480 kt. The diameter if the
turn will be:
a) 15 nm
b) 5 nm
c) 2.5 nm
d) 10 nm

241. An uncorrected, perfect gyroscope is fitted to a DGI in an aircraft located at 28°N.

The DGI is set to read 140°T.
What is the reading after 1hr 42min?
a) 130º T
b) 128º T
c) 152º T
d) 147º T

242. An uncorrected, perfect gyroscope is fitted to a DGI in an aircraft located at 48°S.

The DGI is set to read 140°T.
What is the reading after 2hr 45 min?
a) 171º T
b) 151º T
c) 115º T
d) 129º T

243. Apparent wander may be corrected in a DGI by:

a) Attaching a bias weight to the inner gymbal which makes the gyro process in
azimuth in the same direction as apparent wander
b) Correcting wander by means of air jets
c) Atttaching a bias weigh to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in
azimuth in the opposite direction to apparent wander
d) Causing the gyro to precess in a clockwise direction (in the northern hemisphere)

244. Apparent wander of a gyro is caused by:

a) External torque
b) Gymbal friction
c) Clear air turbulence
d) Rotation of the earth

245. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in

measuring the:
a) bank of the aircraft
 b) roll rate of the aircraft
c) pitch rate of the aircraft
d) yaw rate of the aircraft

246. Concerning the directional gyro indicator, the latitude at which the apparent
wander is equal to 0 is:
a) latitude 45°
b) latitude 30°
c) the North pole
d) the equator

247. During the take-off run, the air driven artificial horizon will indicate:
a) A right turn due to the pendulosity of the outer gimbal
b) A right turn due to the action of the pendulous vanes
c) A climb due to the action of the pendulous vanes
d) A climb due to the pendulosity of the inner gimbal

248. Errors affecting an air driven artificial horizon during the take-off run are:
a) Incorrect nose up attitude and right wing low
b) A false descending turn to the right
c) A false climbing turn to the left
d) Nose up and incorrect left bank

249. Errors of the DGI are:

a) Gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport wander
b) Acceleration error, turning error, altiude error, transport wander, rotor speed error
c) Gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport
wander
d) Transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration
error

250. False nose-up attitude displayed in air driven artifical horizon during the take-off
run is caused by:
a) The acceleration cut out
b) The high pendulousity of the rotor
c) Incorrect rotor speed
d) The lag of the lateral pendulous vanes

251. False right wing low attitude shown on an air driven artificial horizon during an
acceleration is caused by:
a) The longitudinal pendulous vanes
b) The roll cut-out
c) High rotor speed
d) The lag of the base of the rotor housing

252. Gimballing error:

a) Will disappear after a turn is completed:
b) Will remain until the gyro is reset
c) Will only occur during a 360° turn
d) Will be zero on only two headings during a 360° turn
253. Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to
the:
a) erecting system
b) heading indicator
c) error detector
d) amplifier

254. If a simple flux valve lies .......the earths field the current induced in the pick-off
coil will be .... and the frequency will be....the input frequency.
The words to correctly complete the sentence are:
a) In line with........................minimum................twice
b) At 90° to............................minimum................half
c) In line with........................maximum..............twice
d) At 90° to............................maximum..............half

255. If an air driven gyroscope is found to have a blocked air filter:

a) precession will be reduced for a given force
b) inertia will increase
c) precession will be increased for a given force
d) rigidity will be increased

256. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it
indicate:
a) turn to right & too much bank
b) turn to left & too little bank
c) turn to right & too little bank
d) turn to left & too much bank

257. If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is higher than normal, the turn
indicator will:
a) Underread the correct rate of turn
b) Overread the correct rate of turn
c) Not indicate due to the increased rigidity
d) Indicate correctly

258. In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth?
a) earth Rate
b) latitude error
c) real wander
d) transport Wander

259. In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate transmits information to the:
a) error detector
b) amplifier
c) erecting system
d) heading indicator

260. In a gyro magnetic compass, where does the torque motor get its information
from?
a) the rotor gimbal
b) the flux gate
 c) error detector
d) amplifier

261. In a left turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:

a) Needle left, ball right
b) Needle right, ball right
c) Needle left, ball left
d) Needle right, ball left

262. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co-ordinator is out to the right, what corrective
action is required?
a) more right rudder
b) more left rudder
c) less right bank
d) more left bank

263. In a remote indicating compass, the rotor of the slaved gyro is automatically
prevented from wandering in the vertical plane by means of:
a) Pendulous suspension
b) Bevel grears and gimbals
c) A levelling switch and torque motor
d) A torque motor

264. In a Remote Indicating Magnetic Compass the input to the flux valve is
________, the output from the flux valve is _________, and goes to the
__________:
a) AC, DC, rotor coil
b) DC, AC, rotor coil
c) DC, DC, error detector
d) AC, AC, error detector

265. In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications on a Turn & Slip Indicator are:
a) Needle left, ball left
b) Needle right, ball left
c) Needle right, ball right
d) Needle left, ball right

266. In a turn and slip indicator the largest errors will be induced by:
a) Angle of attack
b) Reduced spring tension
c) Yaw
d) Primary torque

267. In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:

a) independent of weight and proportional to TAS
b) dependant on weight and proportional to TAS
c) independent of weight and inversely proportional a to TAS
d) dependant on weight and inversely proportional to TAS

268. In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is:

a) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
 b) proportional to the aircraft weight
c) independent to the aircraft true airspeed
d) inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

269. In an air driven directional gyro the air jets are attached to:
a) The outer gimbal
b) The rotor axis
c) The inner gimbal
d) The instrument casing

270. In gyroscopic theory the term `drift` is defined as:

a) Wander, real or apparent, in the horizontal plane
b) Real wander only, in the horizontal plane
c) Apparent wander only, in the horizontal plane
d) Wander, real or apparent , in the vertical plane

271. In gyroscopic theory the term `Topple` is defined as:

a) Real wander only in the vertical plane
b) Wander, real or apparent, in the vertical plane
c) Real wander only in the horizontal plane
d) Wander, real or apparent, in the horizontal plane

272. Inside an artificial horizon:

a) The inner ring is tied to the vertical by a control system
b) The inner ring is pivoted laterally inside the outer ring and the outer ring is
pivoted longitudinally inside the case
c) The rotor axis is kept level by a calibrated spring attached to the outer ring and
the instrument case
d) There is only one gimbal ring

273. JARs state that the residual deviation of a remote indicating compass shall not
exceed
a) 1 degree
b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
d) 2 degrees

274. Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JARs) state the the maximum possible
deviation after compensation of coefficinets A, B and C are:
a) Three degrees for a remote indicating compass and one degree for a direct
reading magnetic compass
b) One degree for a direct reading magnetic compaass and eleven degrees for a
slaved compass.
c) One degree for a remote indicating compass and ten degrees for a direct reading
magnetic compass
d) Eleven degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass and one degree for a
remote indicating compass

275. Real wander of a gyro can be caused by:

a) Moving the gyro north or south of its present position
b) Asymmetrical friction at the spinning axis
 c) Increasing the RPM of the rotor
d) Rotation of the earth

276. Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:

a) Mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation
b) Weight, torque and speed of rotation
c) Rate of precession and torque,
d) Weight, rate of precession and speed of rotation

277. The air driven artificial horizon uses .... gyroscope which is maintained ..... by
means of..... The words which correctly complete the above sentence are:
a) An earth........vertical...........pendulous vanes
b) A free............horizontal.......case levelling
c) An earth.......vertical............torque motors
d) A space.......vertical............torque motors

278. The annunciator in a Remote Indicating Magnetic Compass is primarily used to:

1. indicate slaving is taking place

2. show power supply to the compass
3. indicate which way to synchronise the compass manually
4. show output from flux valve
5. indicate movement of the gyro
6. indicate which of the dual systems is operating

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2&6
b) 1&3
c) 4&5
d) 1&5

279. The detector unit of a remote indicating compass is normally:

a) Fixed in the vertical plane only
b) Free in the vertical
c) Free in the horizontal plane
d) Fixed in the azimuth

280. The detector unit of a remote indicating compass:

1. senses magnetic direction

2. is fixed to the same magnetic direction
3. is pendulously suspended
4. is fixed in relation to the aircraft's longitudinal axis
5. seeks magnetic north

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 5
281. The flux valve in a RIMC
a) is made of hard-iron magnetic steel
b) is fed with DC current
c) is supplied with AC current
d) has its own self exciter unit

282. The Fluxvalve of the RIMC(Gyro Magnetic Compass):

a) Is not subject to turning and acceleration errors
b) Is pendulously suspended and is not affected by the vertical component of the
Earths magnetic field
c) Is pendulously mounted and remains aligned with the Earths magnetic field
d) Is fixed to and turns with the aircraft to create a field which is used to measure
the angle between the aircraft and the Earths magnetic flux lines

283. The formula used to calculate apparent wander of a directional gyro in the
northern hemisphere is:
a) + 15° sine latitude in degrees for the time of running
b) - 15° sine latitude in degrees per hour
c) 15° sine latitude in degrees per hour increasing
d) + 15° sine latitude in degees per hour

284. The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator is inclined at about 30° with respect to the
aircraft`s longitudinal axis in order to:
a) Make the gyro sensitive to banking of the aircraft as well as to turning
b) Make the gyro more effective during inverted flight
c) Have a higher rotor speed which will prolong the life of the instrument
d) Make the rate of turn more accurate

285. A Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) is set to read 090°. The DGI reading after
flying for 80 minutes on a track of 090°T along the parallel of 20°N at a groundspeed
of 540 kt is:
a) 107.5°
b) 093.5°
c) 072.5°
d) 102.5°

286. A Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) is set to read 100°. The DGI reading after 45
minutes, when stationary on the ground in latitude 25°S, is:
a) 113°
b) 104.7°
c) 087°
d) 096.5°

287. A Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) is set to read 356°in an arcraft which is
stationary on the ground latitude 50N.
The DGI reading after 1 hr 45 mins is:
a) 335.89°
b) 357.45°
c) 358.50°
d) 354.55°
288. A DGI is set to read the correct magnetic heading when the aircraft is heading
090°(T) variation 10E. The DGI reading after a 45 minutes flight on track of 090°(T)
with nil drift along the parallel of 62N at 545 kt is:
a) 064.80°
b) 075.00°
c) 089.60°
d) 100.50°

289. The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,

due to:

1. Earth rotation
2. transport wander
3. banking the aeroplane in a climb or a descent
4. annual movement of magnetic north
5- mechanical defects

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 4 & 5
b) 2, 3 & 5
c) 1, 2, 3 & 5
d) 3, 4 & 5

290. The latitude correcting device of an air driven directional gyro is:
a) an adjustable weight attached to the inner gimbal of the DI
b) a chamber with four exit slots half covered by pendulous vanes
c) the air jet which drives the rotor
d) an adjustable weight attached to the outer gimbal of the DI

291. The latitude nut of a directional indicator (DI) is on the .... gimbal and causes the
gyroscope to precess around its ....axis.
The correct words to complete the above sentence are:
a) outer..........horizontal
b) inner..........horizontal
c) outer..........vertical
d) inner..........vertical

292. The limits of pitch and roll for a modern directional gyro are respectively:
a) 55° and 85°
b) 85° and 55°
c) 55° and 55°
d) 85° and 85°

293. The magnetic detection element of a remote indicating magnetic compass should
exhibit the following properties:

1. full freedom of movement in pitch and roll

2. be pendulously suspended
3. have a large hysterysis loop to increase remenance
4. freedom to move in azimuth
 5. an AC supply to the exciter coil
6. 4 spokes to resolve any ambiguity
7. a DC output to the Selsyn system

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 4&6
b) 2&5
c) 1&3
d) 2&7

294. The main advantage of electric gyros are:

a) High RPM, high moment of inertia, rapid build-up of speed, constant RPM
b) High RPM, only require low voltage DC, constant speed, sealed casing
c) Light weight, high RPM, constant speed, inexpensive
d) Sealed casing, constant speed, high precession rate, low cost

295. The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:
a) 30° per hour
b) 45° per hour
c) 15° per hour
d) 60° per hour

296. The precession of a gyroscope varies:

a) Inversely with the applied force and directly with the inertia of the rotor.
b) Directly with the applied force and inversely with the inertia of the rotor
c) Inversely with the applied force and inversely with the inertia of the rotor
d) Directly with the applied force and directly with the inertia of the rotor

297. The precession rate of a gyroscope varies........................with the applied

disturbing torque and............................with the rigidity of the rotor:
a) inversely...............inversely
b) directly...............directly
c) directly...............inversely
d) inversely...............directly

298. The principle of operation of the turn and slip indicator is best described as:
a) An earth gyro in which a calibrated spring ensures the tilt of the gyro is
proportional to the aircraft rate of turn
b) A single gimbal gyroscope in which a spring , opposing the primary precession,
produces a secondary precession equal to the aircraft rate of turn
c) A space gyro which uses the forces of precession against a spring to give a
reading of the aircraft rate of turn
d) A single gimbal gyroscope whose primary precession is opposed by a spring
which, in turn, produces a second precession equal and opposite to the aircraft
rate of turn

299. The properties of a Turn Indicator are:

1. one degree of freedom

2. two degrees of freedom
3. two springs connected to the aircraft frame
 4. spin axis in the longitudinal plane
5. spin axis parallel to the yaw axis
6. spin axis horizontal

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1&6
b) 2&6
c) 2&5
d) 1&4

300. The purpose of the annunciator circuit in a remote indicating compass is:
a) To align the gyro unit with the aircraft heading using the output from the rotor of
the signal selsyn
b) To indicate the correct way to turn the synchronising knob to initially synchronise
the compass system and then to indicate correct operation of the system
c) To monitor the signals sent to the precession coil to ensure the gyro is turned the
correct way to make its axis line up with the electrical field in the signal selsyn
d) To monitor the signals sent to the precession coil to ensure the gyro is turned the
correct way to bring the rotor coil in line with the earths magnetic field

301. The purpose of the annunciator on a remote indicating compass is:

a) to indicate when the gyro is correctly tied in the aircraft's yawing plane
b) to reduce turning and acceleration errors
c) to indicate whether or not the gyro is correctly synchronised with magnetic North
d) to indicate that the correct voltage is being supplied to the compass system

302. The purpose of the Annunciator unit of the Remote Indicating compass is to:
a) Indicate that the gyro is synchronised with the detector unit
b) Advise if the gyro is subject to excessive wander.
c) Show whether the compass is operating either in the GYRO or COMPASS mode:
d) Display the serviceability of the compass

303. The purpose of the caging knob on a DGI is:

a) To prevent apparent wander
b) To reset the heading
c) To prevent the gyro toppling
d) To reset the heading and to prevent toppling

304. The rate gyro in a turn and slip indicator is in a state of balance when the
secondary....................... due to the spring is in the..........................sense and equal
to the......................... :
a) torque...............opposite...........amount of gimbal roll
b) precession........same................rate of turn of the aircraft
c) torque...............same................amount of gimbal roll
d) precession........opposite............rate of turn of the aircraft

305. The rate of turn shown on a turn indicator depends upon:

1. bank angle
2. aeroplane speed
3. aeroplane weight
 The combination regrouping the correct statements is :
a) 1&2
b) 1&3
c) 12&3
d) 2&3

306. The rigidity (gyroscopic interia) of a gyroscope may be increased by:

a) Increasing the number of gimbals and decreasing the number of planes of
rotation
b) Increasing the speed of rotation and decreasing the mass of the rotor
c) Increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor
d) Decreasing the speed of rotation and increasing the speed of the rotor

307. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:

a) Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor
b) Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
c) Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
d) Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

308. The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied to the earth`s vertical by:
a) The roll cut out
b) Four pendulous vanes
c) Two mercury level switches and two torque motors
d) The low centre of gravity of the rotor housing

309. The rotor in a Turn Indicator is rotating too slowly. The aircraft is flying an
indicated rate 2 turn. The time taken to turn through 180° will be:
a) less than 30 seconds
b) more than 30 seconds
c) 30 seconds if the bank is reduced
d) 30 seconds

310. The rotor in an air driven Artificial Horizon rotates anti-clockwise when viewed
from above. On the aircraft accelerating ........ will cause the bottom of the rotor axis
to lag, resulting in a ....... wing ....... indication.
The correct words to complete the above statement are:
a) Precession............starboard.............down
b) Inertia...................port......................up
c) Inertia...................starboard..............up
d) Precesssion..........port......................down

311. The rotor of a rate gyroscope is over speeding. The pilot carries out a turn with
the rate gyroscope indicating Rate 1.
The actual rate of turn will be:
a) 3° per second
b) More than 3° per second
c) Less than 3° per second
d) 6° per second

312. The rotor of the pitch correction motor of the electrical artificial horizon is on:
 a) The outer gimbal
b) The rotor axis
c) The top of the gyro unit
d) The inner gimbal

313. The spin axis of a directional gyro is maintained in ........ by means of ........ in an
air driven gyro and by means of a ........ in an electrically driven gyro:
a) The horizontal plane ....... air jets ......... wedge plate
b) The yawing plane .......... air jets .......... wedge plate
c) The yawing plane .......... air jets .......... torque motor
d) The vertical plane ........... airjets .......... torque motor

314. The torque motor of a gyro stabilised magnetic compass:

a) precesses the directional gyro
b) takes its input from the flux valve
c) moves the heading pointer
d) moves the Selsyn stator

315. The Turn Indicator is a useful gyroscopic instrument.

When used in association with an attitude indicator will show:

1. angular velocity about the true vertical

2. direction of turn
3. angular velocity about yaw axis
4. speed of turn

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2&3
b) 3&4
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) 1&3

316. The turn needle indicates:

a) angular velocity about the vertical axis
b) roll rate
c) rate of pitch
d) rate of yaw

317. Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument.
When it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates:

1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis

2. The bank of the aircraft
3. The direction of the aircraft turn
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 3 & 4
c) 1 & 2
 d) 1, 2 & 3

318. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the A/C performs a right turn through 270
degrees, at a constant angle of bank and rate of turn.
The indications are:
a) Nose up, wings level
b) Nose up, not enough bank
c) Bank and pitch correct
d) Nose up, too much bank

319. What are the basic properties of a gyroscope?

1. constant attitude
2. rigidity
3. inertia
4. precession
5. constant speed
6. fixed in location
7. rigid in precession

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1&3
b) 2&4
c) 6&7
d) 2&5

320. What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due to earth rate:

a) 5° per hour
b) 15° per hour
c) 90° per hour
d) 180° per hour

321. What is the purpose of the latitude nut in a DGI?

a) to correct for earth rate
b) to correct for transport wander
c) to correct for latitude error
d) to correct for coriolis error

322. What prevents the rotor of the slaved gyro from wandering in the horizontal
plane:
a) A levelling switch
b) A precession circuit
c) An alignment switch
d) A follow up amplifier

323. What type of gyroscope is fitted to a Direction Indicator?

a) vertical axis & 2 degrees of freedom
b) vertical axis & 1 degree of freedom
c) horizontal axis & 2 degrees of freedom
d) horizontal axis & 1 degree of freedom
324. What type of gyroscope is fitted to a Remote Indicating Compass?
a) horizontal axis & 1 degree of freedom
b) horizontal axis & 2 degrees of freedom
c) vertical axis & 2 degrees of freedom
d) vertical axis & 1 degree of freedom

325. When accelerating the electric artificial horizon:

a) has a reduced climb error due to the roll cut out switch
b) has a reduced roll error due to the pitch cut out switch
c) has a reduced climb error due to the pitch cut out switch
d) has a reduced roll error due to the roll cut out switch

326. When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft:
a) It should be set to the central position on the ground and left there
b) It should be rendered inoperative
c) It should be set to 15°
d) It should be checked at regular intervals

327. When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
a) too much nose-up and bank correct
b) too much nose-up and bank too low
c) too much nose-up and bank too high
d) attitude and bank correct

328. When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:
a) The calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of
turn
b) The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of
turn (in the opposite direction to the turn)
c) The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of
turn (in the same direction as the turn)
d) The force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but opposite
to the rate of turn is correctly banked

329. When turning through 180° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial
Horizon indicates:
a) nose up and bank angle too low
b) attitude and bank angle are correct
c) nose up and correct angle of bank
d) nose up and bank angle too high

330. When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial
Horizon indicates:
a) nose up and bank angle too high
b) nose up and correct angle of bank
c) nose up and bank angle too low
d) attitude and bank angle are correct
331. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a turn-and-slip indicator are on the right,
the aircraft is turning:
a) left with not enough bank
b) right with too much bank
c) right with not enough bank
d) left with too much bank

332. Where is the earth rate wander, and the transport wander of a gyro equal to
zero?
a) North Pole
b) Equator
c) 45° N
d) 45° S

333. Which instrument has its gyro axis offset by 2°?

a) artificial horizon
b) directional gyro indicator
c) turn indicator
d) flux detector

334. Which of the following are errors of a DGI:

1. earth rate
2. transport wander
3. banking when pitched up
4. annual movement of poles
5. mechanical problems

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 3, 4 & 5
b) 2, 3 & 5
c) all 5
d) 1, 2, 3 & 5

335. Which of the following factors will affect a Turn Indicator:

1. angle of bank
2. aircraft speed
3. aircraft weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) all 3
c) 1 & 3
d) 1 & 2

336. Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom?
a) turn indicator
b) artificial horizon
c) slaved gyro compass
d) directional gyro
337. Which of the following is true regarding the turn co-ordinator?
a) It gives angle of bank and rate of turn
b) It has a tied gyroscope
c) It responds to rate of turn only
d) Its gyro is offset by 30° to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

338. While decelerating the air driven artificial horizon will falsely indicate:
a) the right wing going down due to pendulous vanes
b) pitch down error due to the action of the pendulous vanes
c) a pitch down error due to pendulosity of the gyro housing
d) the left wing going down due to the action of the pendulous vanes

339. With reference to the flux valve of a remote indicating compass:

a) The flux valve is fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the
angle between the aircraft and the earth’s magnetic field
b) The flux valve is pendulously mounted and so it is not subject to or affected by
the earth’s magnetic field
c) The flux valve is not subject to acceleration errors
d) The flux valve is pendulously mounted and is free to turn to remain aligned with
the earth magnetic field

022-009 Inertial Navigation (INS and IRS) (30 Questions)

340. A gyro stabilised platform used for navigation, may use the following
components:
a) 2 accelerometers and 3 rate integrating gyros
b) 2 rate gyros and 2 rate accelerometers
c) 3 rate integrating gyros and 1 accelerometer
d) 3 accelerometers and 2 rate gyros

341. A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in:

1. An inertial attitude unit

2. An automatic pilot
3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
5. A rate-of-turn indicator

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 5
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
d) 1&4

342. Advantages of an IRS compared to an INS are:

a) insensitive to 'g' and no 'lock-out'
b) insensitive to 'g' and negligible spin-up time
c) no 'lock-out' and negligible spin-up time
d) platform system and no 'lock-in'
343. An INS in the `Align` mode will:
a) Accept an error of 10° latitude but not an error of 10° longitude of the inserted
position
b) Not accept an error of 10° latitude and 10° longitude of the inserted initial position
c) Will accept an error of 10° longitude but not 10° error of latitude in the initial
inserted position
d) Accept error of 10° latitude and 10° longitude of the inserted initial position

344. An IRS is aligned in order to:

a) establish true and magnetic north
b) establish position relative to true north and magnetic north
c) establish magnetic north
d) calculate the computed trihedron with reference to the earth

345. An IRS with laser gyros should: ...................be Schuler tuned, and .......be
strapped down
a) never.........................always
b) never.........................never
c) always.......................always
d) always.......................never

346. At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance
gone. To convert this distance into change of longitude it has to:
a) Be divided by Tangent of the latitude
b) Be divided by Secant of the latitude
c) Be multiplied by Cosine of the latitude
d) Be multiplied by Secant of the latitude

347. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:

a) has a fairly long starting cycle
b) is influenced by temperature
c) has a longer life cycle
d) consumes a lot of power

348. During flight you turn the INS to OFF then ON again. Will the INS;
a) be unusable except for attitude information
b) be usable only after a position update
c) continue to work normally
d) be totally unusable

349. During initialisation of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until:
a) The gyros and the accelerometers are all in the `null` position
b) The platform is levelled
c) The green `ready nav` light is illuminated and the mode selector switch has been
set to the `nav` position
d) The ramp position has been inserted and checked
350. Heading information given by a gyro platform, is based on a gyro having :
a) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
b) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
c) 1 degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
d) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis

351. In a `north reference` (INS), `gyro compassing` is:

a) Carried out in the STANDBY mode by aligning the platform using the aircraft
gyromagnetic compass system to define the north
b) The process by which the platform is levelled and aligned with true north using
the earths gravity, in the ALIGN mode
c) The process by which the platform is maintained in correct alignment with true
north during flight
d) The process by which the inertial platform is aligned with True north during the
ALIGN phrase

352. In a stable platform, north referenced INS, the mean groundspeed is 550 kt. After
21.1 mins the indicated groundspeed was overreading by 5 kt. The indicated
groundspeed after 63.3 minutes was:
a) 550 kt
b) 565 kt
c) 555 kt
d) 545 kt

353. In an INS the E/W accelerations are converted into an E/W speed (kt) at the first
stage of integration and into E/W distance gone (nm) at the second stage of
integration and into E/W distance gone(nm) at the second stage of integration.
This gives:
a) D`long (min which is used to automatically up-date the present longitude)
b) Departure which is multiplied by Secant of the present latitude to obtain d`long
(min) which is used to automatically up-date the present longitude
c) Departure which is multiplied by Sine of the present latitude to obtain d`long
(min) which is used to automatically up-date the present longitude
d) Departure which is multiplied by Cosine of the present latitude of obtain d`long
(min) which is used to automatically up-date the present longitude

354. In an INS which is Schuler tuned, the largest unbounded errors are:
a) Due to the output of the first stage integrators
b) Track errors due to initial misalignment
c) Due to the real wander of the platform gyroscopes
d) Instrument error and position error

355. In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local
geographical coordinates. This is necessary to:
a) re-erect laser gyros
b) position the computing trihedron with reference to earth
c) check operation of laser gyros
d) determine magnetic or true heading
356. INS errors are classified as `Bounded errors` and `Unbounded errors`.
a) An `Unbounded error` is an error that increases with time, an example being an
increasing ground speed error due to the platform not being levelled correctly
b) An `Unbounded error` is an error that increases with time, an example being the
distance gone error due to an incorrect second-stage integrator
c) A `Bounded error` is an error that is subject to sudden unpredictable random
changes. Most notable during pitching manoeuvres and when raising or lowering
flap and U/C
d) A `Bounded error` is an error that is `tied` to the real wander rates of the gyros on
the platform

357. Ring laser gyros utilise a `Dither` motor to:

a) Prevent a `lock in` of the laser beams
b) To reduce real wander
c) To level and align the gyros
d) To reduce apparent wander

358. The corrections fed to the platform gimbal motors of a north referenced inertial
navigation system during the ALIGN mode use inputs from:
a) The longitude setting, the latitude setting, the air data computer
b) The latitude setting, the accelerometers
c) The latitude setting, the longitude setting, the accelerometers
d) All the factors mentioned in 1, 2, 3 above

359. The Inertial Strapdown Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during
alignment in order to:
a) compensate for aircraft movement
b) establish the trihedron with reference to the earth
c) check the function of the laser gyros
d) establish true or magnetic heading

360. The main purpose of a Laser Gyro, in an IRS is to;

a) monitor accelerometer outputs
b) maintain alignment with the aircraft heading
c) determine the angular changes of the aircraft's attitude
d) calculate changes in GS

361. The most significant Schuler bounded error, within an IRS, is likely to be:
a) wander in the azimuth gyro
b) 2nd stage integration errors
c) initial incorrect levelling
d) initial misalignment of true heading

362. The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS
system is:
a) Distance
b) Departure
c) Speed along the local horizontal
d) Speed along the parallel
363. The product of the first integration of the output from the N/S accelerometer in
INS equipment is:
a) Velocity along the local meridian
b) Departure
c) Latitude
d) Distance along the local meridian

364. The product of the second integration of the E/W accelerometer output in an INS
system is:
a) E/W ground speed
b) Departure
c) E/W acceleration
d) Longitude

365. Two checks that can be carried out to check that two selected sequential
waypoints have been entered correctly are:
a) Select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the
flight plan: then check that the time agrees with the flight plan time for the leg
b) Select DSR.TK/STS and check that the status is less than 4: Select DIS/TIME
and check that the time agrees with the flight plan time
c) Select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the
flight plan: Select HDG/DA and check that the heading agrees with the flight plan
heading for the leg
d) Select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the
flight plan: select DSR.TK/STS and check that the track agrees with the flight
plan track for the leg
366.
367. 27
368. What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?
a) has a longer mean time between failures
b) uses more power
c) takes longer to align
d) takes longer to set up/ spin up

369. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?

a) Not adversely affected by "g" and no wander of the gyroscopes
b) Increase accuracy and a dither motor to prevent "lock-out"
c) Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affected by "g"
d) Reduce spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent "lock-out"

370. What is the Schuler period?

a) 48 minutes
b) 48 seconds
c) 84 seconds
d) 84 minutes

371. What type of alignment system is used in an INS?

a) rate gyros with two degrees of freedom
b) rate integrating gyros with one degree of freedom
c) accelerometers and mercury levelling switches
d) accelerometers, and rate integrating gyros with one degree of freedom
022-010 Electronics (ADC, Rad Alt, FMS, EFIS) (38 Questions)

372. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
b) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
c) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
d) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

373. A radio altimeter is:

a) ground based and measures true altitude
b) a/c based and measures true height
c) ground based and measures true height
d) a/c based and measures true altitude

374. Airspeed is shown

a) On both EHSIs
b) On both EADIs
c) Only on the flight management CRT
d) Only on the captains EHSI

375. An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a) time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth
b) outside air temperature
c) barometric data from static source
d) difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

376. An air data computer

1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)

2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude
3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure
4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit
5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 2 and 5

377. An Air Data Computer has inputs of:

a) dynamic pressure, static pressure and air temperature
b) dynamic pressure, static pressure and ram air temperature
c) pitot pressure, static pressure and static air temperature
d) static pressure, pitot pressure and total air temperature

378. An EFIS as well as having a control panel, symbol generators and a remote light
sensor also has:
a) EADIs and EHSIs
b) EADI and WXR display tubes
c) EHSIs and altitude indicator
 d) EADIs and EICAs

379. Decision height is adjusted and set on the :

a) flight management computer
b) ADI section of the EFIS control panel
c) ADI or HSI
d) HSI section of the EFIS control panel

380. If an alert message is generated by the flight management system:

a) It appears in the middle of the CRT screen and a red light flashes
b) It appears in the scratch pas and the MSG annunciator illuminates
c) It appears in the scratch pad and an amber light flashes
d) It appears at the top of the CRT and an amber light flashes

381. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:

a) measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)
b) measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface
and back
c) the difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage
d) measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the
fuselage

382. On the EHSI the following displays are available

a) Airspeed and altitude
b) ETA to way point and distance to next way point
c) Pitch and roll altitude
d) Way point and real drift

383. Radio altimeters use;

a) a continuous wave which is frequency modulated
b) a frequency modulated pulse wave
c) pulse modulation with a constant frequency
d) an increasing frequency continuous wave

384. Selecting Cost Index 0 on a FMS will result in:

1. Low speed descent

2. Minimum fuel trip operation
3. High speed cruise
4. Max range cruise
5. High speed descent
6. Minimum aeroplane operating cost

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 5
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 2, 4 & 6
d) 3, 5 & 6
385. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system are:

1. position and compressibility correction.

2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1, 3 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 4

386. The radar altimeter receives information from:

a) The ground below the aircraft within a narrow cone angled 70° down from the
horizontal
b) The ground directly beneath the aircraft
c) The ground within an ellipse of 30° in the for and aft axis and 60° in the lateral
axis beneath the aircraft
d) The ground within a 30° cone directly beneath the aircraft

387. Weather Radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes:
a) Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR
b) Map ILS VOR
c) Map Exp ILS Exp VOR
d) Plan Exp ILS Map

388. What are the colours used on an EFIS display to show a tuned navigation aid
and an airport?
a) green & cyan
b) white & yellow
c) white & magenta
d) green & white

389. What are the frequencies normally used in a low altitude radio altimeter?

1. 4.2 to 4.4 GHz

2. 1.2 to 1.4 GHz
3. 4000 MHz to 4200 MHz
4. VHF Band
5. 1600 MHz to 1660 MHz
6. EHF Band

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) 1 & 5
c) 4 & 6
d) 2 & 4
390. What are the inputs to the FMS?

1. Radio Aids
2. Engine Parameters
3. Air Data
4. Route Data
5. Terminal Data
6. Operating Data

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3 & 6
b) 2, 3, 4, & 5
c) 1, 3, 4 & 6
d) All of the above

391. What are the minimum inputs required by the ADC

1. OAT
2. dynamic pressure
3. TAT
4. static pressure
5. electric power
6. pitot pressure
7. AOA

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
b) 1, 2, 5 & 6
c) all 7
d) 3, 4, 5 & 6

392. What are the primary inputs to the air data computer?

1 dynamic pressure & static pressure

2. static pressure & total air temperature
3. static air temperature & angle of attack
4. total air temperature & pitot pressure
5. pitot pressure & outside air temperature
6. weight on wheels switch & dynamic pressure
7. pitot pressure & static pressure

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 7
c) 2, 5 & 6
d) 1, 6 & 7
393. What errors can the Ar Data Computer correct for?

1. instrument error & ram rise

2. compressibility & density error
3. lag & density error
4. position & temperature error
5. temperature & instrument error
6. manoeuvre error & ram rise
7. manoeuvre & position errors

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1&6
b) 3&5
c) 2&4
d) 3&7

394. What frequency band is normally used in a Radio Altimeter?

a) EHF
b) UHF
c) VHF
d) SHF

395. What frequency is normally used in a Radio Altimeter?

a) 1.60 to 1.66 MHZ in the SHF band
b) 4.20 to 4.4 GHZ in the SHF band
c) 4.20 to 4.4 MHZ in the SHF band
d) 1.60 to 1.66 GHZ in the UHF band

396. Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?
a) V NAV only
b) L NAV and V NAV
c) L NAV or V NAV
d) L NAV only

397. With a fully equipped FMS aircraft the following selections are usually utilised in
flight:
a) VNAV only
b) LNAV and VNAV but not simultaneously
c) LNAV only
d) LNAV and VNAV

398. WXR display is controlled from:

a) captains EHSI control only
b) A special control panel
c) Both captains and co-pilots EHSI panels
d) Co-pilots EHSI control only

399. WXR display is on :

a) A special screen
b) The co-pilots CRT only
c) The captains CRT only
 d) On both the captains and co-pilots CRTs

022-011 Auto Flight (105 Questions)

400. "LOC ARMED" lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means:
a) localiser beam armed and awaiting capture
b) a/c is on localiser centerline
c) localiser beam captured
d) localiser alarm is on

401. A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:
a) an amplifier
b) a servomechanism
c) an autopilot
d) a servomotor

402. A flight control system which can, in the event of a failure, complete automatically
the approach, flare and landing is called fail ...
a) passive
b) soft
c) hard
d) operational

403. A flight director comprises a channel for:

1. the attitude,
2. the bank control,
3. the pitch control,
4. the speed.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 3 & 4
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 4

404. A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:

1. fuel flow regulation for steady state running, deceleration and

acceleration.
2. automatic starting sequence
3. transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments
4. thrust management and protection of operation limits
5. monitoring of the thrust reversers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3, 4 & 5
b) 1, 3 & 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
d) 2, 4 & 5
405. A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and
carries out a manoeuvre in roll.
When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:
a) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment
b) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control
display unit
c) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment
d) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment

406. A single axis autopilot system:

a) Is unsuitable for use in powered aircraft
b) Provides stabilisation about the normal axis
c) Provides control about the roll axis
d) Provides control about the pitch axis

407. After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your
ADI show that the vertical command bar is left of the aircraft symbol and the
horizontal command bar is above the aircraft symbol.
This indication is commanding a bank to the left and:
a) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon
b) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon
c) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
airplane
d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
airplane

408. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
guidance are:

1. pitch attitude holding

2. horizontal wing holding
3. indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4. altitude holding
5. VOR axis holding
6. yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 6
b) 1, 3, 4 & 5
c) 1, 2, 3 & 6
d) 3, 4 & 5

409. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
stabilisation are:

1. pitch attitude holding

2. horizontal wing holding
3. displayed heading or inertial track holding
4. indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5. yaw damping
 6. VOR axis holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 4 & 5
b) 1, 2 & 5
c) 3, 4, 5 & 6
d) 1, 2, 3 & 6

410. An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle is set to maintain a constant

Mach number.
If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
a) decreases
b) remains constant
c) increases
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,
increases if higher

411. An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270°. The flight director is engaged in the
heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 270° selected. If a new heading 360° is
selected, the vertical trend bar:
a) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode
b) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the
bank angle calculated by the flight director
c) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10
d) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached
heading 360°

412. An aircraft is cruising with the autopilot and and auto-throttle engaged. When
altitude hold (ALT HOLD) is the engaged mode of the autopilot:
a) the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of
elevator
b) the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of
elevator
c) the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system
d) the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system

413. An automatic flight system which can safely continue with an automatic landing
after a system failure is a:
a) Fail passive system
b) Fail redundant system
c) Three axis system
d) Fail operational system

414. An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued

manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called
"FAIL...."
a) "SAFE"
b) "REDUNDANT"
c) "PASSIVE"
d) "OPERATIONAL"
415. An autopilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold is a minimum requirement
for:
a) Single pilot operation under IFR and at night
b) Single pilot operation in VMC and IMC,
c) Dual pilot operation (in IFR)
d) Aircraft over 5,700kg

416. An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:
a) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot
b) on airplanes over 5.7 t
c) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot
d) on multi-pilot airplanes

417. When operating with the autopilot in Heading Select mode (HDG SEL), the
autopilot delivers roll commands to the ailerons to achieve a bank angle:
a) set bank of 30 degrees
b) proportional to TAS, but below a specified maximum
c) proportional to the deviation from the desired heading, but not exceeding a
specified maximum
d) set bank of 25 degrees

418. An autopilot system whereby if one A/P fails it cannot carry out an autoland is
called fail.............:
a) Passive
b) Safe
c) Redundant
d) Operational

419. An Autoflight Control System AFCS:

a) provides control about the C of G and aircraft guidance functions
b) provides automatic take off and landing functions
c) provides automatic take off functions
d) provides aircraft stabilisation control about the C of G

420. At 200ft on an auto-land:

a) The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE mode is engaged
in the pitch channel
b) The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in
pitch
c) The auto-throttle is maintaining the speed and the pitch channel is maintaining
the height
d) The ROLL OUT mode is engaged in the Roll channel and the G/S mode is
engaged in pitch

421. Auto-throttle can hold which of the following:

1. Speed
2. Mach No.
3. Altitude
4. N1/ EPR
5. VOR capture
 6. Vertical profile

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1, 2 & 6
c) 1, 3 & 5
d) 1, 2 & 4

422. Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot:

1. To provide control about the lateral axis

2. To prevent snatching on engaging the A/P
3. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
4. To prevent snatching on disengaging the A/P
5. To allow the A/P to retain full elevator authority
6. To trim for fuel imbalances laterally between wings

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 3, 4 & 5
d) 4, 5 & 6

423. During an autoland pressing the TO/GA button on the throttle initiates the go
around, which of the following occur:

1. A/T will select GA thrust

2. A/P controls the climb
3. A/P retracts the gear and flaps automatically
4. The pilot controls the climb
5. The pilot retracts the gear and flaps
6. The FD bars activate and the FD system directs the GA mode

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 6
b) 4, 5 & 6
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 2 & 5

424. Command bars of the flight director may be present on the:

1. HSI
2. EICAS
3. CDU
4. ADI

The combination containing all of the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1 only
425. Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type:

1. the vertical bar is always associated with the roll channel

2. the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel
3. the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel
4. the horizontal bar is always associated with the pitch channel

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 3 & 4
d) 1 & 4

426. During a CAT 1 ILS approach, descision height is based on:

a) Inner Marker beacon
b) Barometric height
c) GPS height
d) Radio Altimeter height

427. During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by

the:
a) radio altimeter
b) encoding altimeter
c) altimeter
d) GPS (Global Positioning System)

428. During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical
plane under 200 ft are based on:
a) a radio altimeter
b) an altimeter set to the QNH
c) an altimeter set to the QFE
d) an altimeter set to 1013 hPa

429. During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(holding of ILS Glide Slope), the position of the horizontal command bar indicates:
a) the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope
b) the pitch attitude of the aircraft
c) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide
Slope
d) the correction to the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope

430. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(holding of ILS Glide Slope).
The position of the horizontal command bar indicates:

1. the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope

2. the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope
3. the pitch attitude of the aircraft

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 2
 b) 1&3
c) 1
d) 2

431. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of Localizer axis).
The position of the vertical command bar indicates:
a) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the Localizer axis
b) the position of the aircraft relative to the Localizer axis
c) the correction to the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis
d) the roll attitude of the aircraft

432. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of localizer axis).
The position of the vertical command bar indicates:

1. the position of the aircraft relative to the localizer axis

2. the roll attitude of the aircraft
3. the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 3
b) 1 & 2
c) 1
d) 3

433. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated.

The system is:
a) Approaching decision height
b) Fail passive
c) Fail active or fail operational
d) Requiring a crew input

434. During an approach to autoland at 1,500feet;

a) Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically
engaged and flare mode is armed
b) Provided both localiser and glideslope signals are valid LAND 3 will illuminate
c) Off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed
d) Localiser is controlling the roll channel, stabiliser is trimmed nose up and roll out
is armed

435. During an automatic landing the autopilot............:

a) and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least the flare
b) and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least decision height
c) and the auto-throttle control the approach until at least the roll-out
d) and the auto-throttle control until the roll-out, the pilot controls the power

436. During an automatic landing, between 50 ft AGL and touch down, the autopilot
maintains:
a) a vertical speed according to the GPS height
b) a constant vertical speed
 c) a constant flight path angle with reference to the ground
d) a vertical speed according to the radio altimeter height

437. During an ILS at 1500ft agl the aircraft banks:

a) The radio altimeter will unlock
b) The radio altimeter will read to the centre of an ellipse 60° across track and 30°
along track
c) The radio altimeter will command the autopilot to fly down
d) The radio altimeter will accurately read height agl directly beneath the aircraft

438. During large control inputs from an automatic flight control system (AFCS), the
control stick in the cockpit is moved to inform the pilot of the action.
This is:
a) achieved by the flight director
b) a false statement; the information is displayed to the pilot via the ADI, HSI and
AFCS controller
c) achieved by a series actuator
d) achieved by a parallel actuator

439. During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles:

a) hold IAS
b) hold N1 or EPR
c) maintain V2 under 1,500 ft
d) hold and maintain the Mach number

440. Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form

of command bars on the following instrument:
a) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator
b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator
c) ADI Attitude Director Indicator
d) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator

441. Flight level change and altitude hold are examples of:
a) Interlocking functions in pitch
b) Outer loop functions in pitch using manometric information
c) Outer loop functions in pitch using the flight management computer program
d) Inner loop functions in pitch using radio navigation information

442. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in
the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above the ILS Glide
Slope, the horizontal command bar:
a) is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged
b) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide Slope
c) will be centred only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope
d) cannot be centred

443. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in
the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is below the ILS Glide
Slope, the horizontal command bar:
a) deviates upward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is
b) deviates downward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is
 c) is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged
d) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the ILS Glide Slope

444. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in
the LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is left of the Localizer axis, the
vertical command bar:
a) is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged
b) deviates to the right, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is
c) deviates to the left, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is
d) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis

445. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in
the LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is right of the Localizer axis,
the vertical command bar:
a) cannot be centred
b) is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged
c) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis
d) will be centred only when establish on the Localizer axis

446. For an aircraft to operate at night and/or in IMC with 2 pilots the autopilot must
be:
a) no autopilot is necessary
b) an autopilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold
c) a 3 axis autopilot
d) a 2 axis autopilot

447. For an autoland system to meet fail passive criteria it must:

a) Be able to continue with an autoland below alert height in the event of a single
autopilot failure
b) Be able to continue continue with an autoland below decision height in the event
of a single autopilot failure
c) Have suitable system redundancy to enable an autoland to be completed after a
single failure
d) Withstand a system failure without producing excessive deviations from the flight
path

448. Gain scheduling within the flight director is applied to:

a) ADC outputs
b) Glideslope receiver
c) ILS Markers
d) Pitch channel

449. If automatic flight control system is fitted with control wheel steering (CWS):
a) The autopilot must be disengaged before the pilot can input manoeuvring
commands
b) The CWS is only there for steering on the ground
c) Manoeuvring commands may be input by the pilot by applying normal forces to
the control yoke without first disengaging the autopilot
d) Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn controls on the
automatic flight system control panel, without first disengaging the autopilot
450. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure:
a) it is fail safe and will disconnect
b) it is fail passive with redundancy
c) it is fail soft and will not disconnect
d) it is fail operational and will not disconnect

451. In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display

devices, the following fundamental elements:

1. Airflow valve
2. Attitude Sensors
3. Attiude Comparison Circuits
4. Computers
5. Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
b) 2, 3, 4 & 5
c) 1, 2 & 6
d) 1, 3, 4 & 6

452. In a yaw damper:

a) ailerons are moved in proportion to Mach No
b) rudder is moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity
c) ailerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity
d) rudder is moved in proportion to Mach No

453. In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
synchronisation at the point of engagement:
a) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged
b) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is
disengaged
c) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged
d) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged

454. In an autopilot system, command modes include which of the following:

1. Pitch attitude holding

2. Horizontal wing holding
3. VOR axis holding
4. Inertial heading holding
5. IAS & Mach hold
6. Yaw Damper

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 6
b) 1, 3 & 5
c) 4 only
d) 3, 4 & 5
455. In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will
check the:
a) ND (Navigation Display)
b) throttles position
c) PFD (Primary Flight Display)
d) TCC (Thrust Control Computer)

456. Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:

a) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach
b) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise
c) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the
horizontal tail
d) backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator
to nose-up

457. Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means:

a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing
centre line
b) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
c) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centreline
d) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

458. On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:
a) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management)
b) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display)
c) control panel of the flight director only
d) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display)

459. On a modern transport category airplane, the engagement of the automatic pilot
is checked on the display of:
a) the ND (Navigation Display) of the pilot in command
b) the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) left screen
c) the ND (Navigation Display)
d) the PFD (Primary Flight Display)

460. Regarding the autopilot and auto-throttle, which of the following is incorrect
a) A/P holds rate of climb in LVL CHG mode, A/T controls IAS/Mach
b) A/P holds IAS/Mach when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T controls thrust
c) A/P holds altitude in cruise with ALT HOLD, A/T controls IAS/Mach
d) A/P holds FMS commanded IAS in V NAV climb mode, A/T controls thrust

461. The "guidance" functions of an autopilot consist of:

a) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of
space
b) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of
space
c) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity
d) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre
462. The auto-throttle:

1. enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM

2. enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM
3. enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS)
4. is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) 1, 3 & 4
c) 1 & 3
d) 1 & 4

463. The auto-throttles can hold:

1. a true airspeed;
2. a Mach number;
3. an indicated airspeed;
4. a N1 thrust.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3 &4
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 3

464. The auto-trim system is provided to:

a) to trim the aircraft aerodynamically throughout the flight
b) to allow the use of the manual trim to alter C of G position laterally
c) to prevent control column 'snatch' at the time of autopilot disconnection
d) prevent Mach tuck

465. The automatic pitch trim:

1. ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed prior to autopilot engagement.

2. permits the elevator to always be in neutral position with respect to horizontal
stabiliser.
3. ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 3

466. The automatic power control system (auto-throttle) of a transport airplane has the
following mode(s):

1. capture and holding of speeds

2. capture and holding of Mach number
3. capture and holding of flight angle of attack
 4. capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)
5. capture and holding of flight paths

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 4
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 1, 2, 3 & 5
d) 1, 4 & 5

467. The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system:

1. operates only when the autopilot is engaged

2. prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when disengaging the
autopilot
3. enables the cancellation of the rudder control signals
4. prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when engaging the autopilot

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 1 & 4
c) 1 & 2
d) 4

468. The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is
to:
a) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up
b) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement
c) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot
d) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot)

469. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:

1. the autopilot pitch channel in the Level Change mode at a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
2. the auto-throttles in the Level Change mode at a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS) or Mach number
3. the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode
4. the auto-throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 3
b) 2 & 4
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 4

470. The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:
a) HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
b) ILS (Instrument Landing System)
c) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
d) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)
471. The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined
as the relationship between the:
a) computer input deviation data and the attitude signals received by the feedback
loop
b) pilot's control demands and the control surface movement
c) crew inputs to the computer and the gyro detector responses
d) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data
and control deflection signals

472. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the autopilot computer in
order to stabilise the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant if the:

1. difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is

large.
2. rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the
instantaneous attitude is large.
3. temperature is low.
4. pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 4
b) 1 & 2
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 3

473. The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:

1. there is a fault in the electrical power supply

2. the controlled-turn knob is not set to center-off
3. there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4. there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 3 & 4

474. The essential components of a flight director are:

1. a computer
2. an automatic pilot
3. an auto-throttle
4. command bars

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1&2
b) 2&4
c) 2&3
d) 1&4
475. The flight director indicates the:
a) optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial
b) optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial
c) path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time
d) path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance

476. The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL) , heading
180° selected. When heading is 160°, the vertical bar of the FD:
a) is centered if the aircraft has a 20° right drift
b) cannot be centered
c) is centered if the aircraft has a 20° left drift
d) is centered if the bank angle of the aircraft is equal to the bank angle computed
by the flight director computer

477. The flight director provides information for the pilot:

a) to join a desired track with a 45° intercept angle
b) to join to a desired path with the optimum attitude.
c) to remain within the flight envelope
d) to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25°

478. The flight director vertical command bar is displaced to the left of the centre, the
horizontal bar is below the aircraft symbol. What is the overall demand from the flight
director:
a) climbing left turn
b) climbing right turn
c) descending right turn
d) descending left turn

479. The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:

a) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity
b) guiding the airplane path
c) monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity
d) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre

480. The fundamental components of an autopilot control loop are:

a) Servomotor, rate gyro, torque limiter, error signal generator
b) Torque limiter, error signal generator, servomotor
c) Rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator
d) Rate gyro, servomotor, torque limiter

481. The horizontal command bar of a flight director:

a) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane
b) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane
c) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied to the pitch of the aircraft
d) gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied to the
pitch of the aircraft
482. The horizontal command bar of a flight director:

1. repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane
2. repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane
3. gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied on the pitch of the aircraft.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2
b) 1 & 3
c) 3
d) 2 & 3

483. The interception of a localiser beam by the autopilot takes place:

a) according to an interception versus range computation
b) at a constant magnetic course
c) at a constant heading
d) according to an interception versus radio deviation law

484. The Mach trim system allows:

a) an interlock of the operation of the stick shaker at the oncoming of the high
speed stall
b) a search for the ideal C.G. location by transferring the fuel into the horizontal
stabilizer
c) a trim to counter the pitch up tendency of the aircraft by changing the horizontal
stabilizer or elevator position according to the Mach number
d) a trim to counter the pitch down tendency of the aircraft by changing the
horizontal stabilizer or elevator position according to the Mach number

485. The parameters taken into account by the flight director computer in the altitude
holding mode (ALT HOLD) are:

1. altitude deviation
2. roll
3. bank attitude
4. pitch attitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 4
b) 1
c) 1 & 3
d) 1 & 2

486. The position of a Flight Director command bars:

a) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position
b) repeats the ADI and HSI information
c) indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation
d) only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation
487. The purpose of a flight director is to:
a) Automatically steer the aircraft to waypoints selected on the CDU
b) reduce the pilots workload by presenting data in the form of control commands
c) convey air traffic control information to the pilot
d) Provide an automatic landing system function

488. The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment
of the:
a) elevator(s)
b) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons
c) rudder(s)
d) elevator(s) and rudder(s)

489. The purpose of Auto Throttle is:

a) to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"
b) automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature
c) to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot
d) to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed

490. The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to:

a) control elevator trim in order to relieve elevator load
b) help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence
c) trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation
d) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required

491. The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final
approach to touch-down) controlled by signals from:
a) the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing
System)
b) the altimeter set to the QNH
c) the radio altimeter
d) the distance left before the touch down zone

492. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

a) repeats the position information given by the VOR
b) repeats the position information given by the EHSI
c) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied on the control commands
d) gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the
bank of the aircraft

493. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

1. repeats the position information given by the EHSI

2. repeats the position information given by the VOR
3. gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be
applied to the bank of the aircraft

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) 1 & 3
 c) 3
d) 1, 2 & 3

494. The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the:
a) rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
b) yaw damper action on the rudder
c) yaw damper action only on the ground
d) rudder position

495. The yaw damper system controls:

a) the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal
b) the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal
c) the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal
d) the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal

496. The Yaw Damper system:

1. counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals;

2. counters dutch roll;
3. is active only when autopilot is engaged.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements are:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 2

497. What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P:

1. Prevents snatching on disengagement

2. Prevents snatching on engagement
3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination
4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
5. Displays the control positions
6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the
CMD button being selected

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3 & 5
b) 2, 4 & 6
c) 2, 3 & 5
d) 1, 4 & 6

498. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue
following a single failure below alert height?
a) Fail operational or fail active
b) Land 2 system
c) Fail soft
d) Fail passive
499. When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone of
confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:
a) temporarily maintains a heading
b) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system
c) is temporarily disconnected
d) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial

500. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables:
a) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal
b) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions
c) aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and
automatic pitch trim
d) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation
course lines

501. When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:
a) relieve the pressure on the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P.
disconnect
b) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
c) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P.
disconnect
d) synchronize the longitudinal loop

502. When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:

1. cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

2. ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3. restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot
disengagement

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 3
b) 3
c) 1 & 2
d) 1, 2 & 3

503. Which of the following apply to the a Yaw damper :

1. May aid the pilot in the event of asymmetric thrust after engine failure
2. Applies measured amounts of aileron to counter dutch roll
3. Increases lateral stability to stop dutch roll
4. Is required at high altitude
5. Will only work with the autopilot engaged
6. Has limited authority over the rudder counteract the natural oscillating
tendency of the aircraft.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 4 & 6
b) 1, 4 & 5
c) 2, 3 & 6
 d) 2, 3 & 4

504. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a
Mach trim system:
a) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged
b) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing
centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds
c) It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number
d) It operates over the full aircraft speed range

022-012 Warning & Recording (90 Questions)

505. "Other traffic" which is assessed as not being a threat will be indicated by a
TCAS system as:
a) A hollow cyan square
b) A hollow white or cyan diamond
c) A solid white or cyan diamond
d) A solid red square

506. A GPWS system requires:

a) Aural, tactile and visual signals or any combination there of
b) Aural signals only
c) Light & bell
d) Aural signals which may be supplemented by visual signals

507. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) automatically generates a distinct

warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:

1. an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain

2.- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3. a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4. an abnormal flight attitude
5. an abnormal landing configuration
6. an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 5 & 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) 3, 4, 5 & 6

508. A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on

board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:
a) at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
b) a sound alarm or a visual alarm
c) a sound and visual alarm
d) a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be added
509. A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include:
a) Various inputs including speed brake position, a warning module and a visual or
aural warning
b) Various inputs including EGT, a warning module and an aural warning
c) Various inputs including landing gear micro switch, flap position and an aural
warning
d) Stick shakers and stick pushers

510. A stall warning system is based on a measure of:

a) aerodynamic incidence
b) groundspeed
c) attitude
d) airspeed

511. A TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

a) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the vertical plane only
b) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes
c) a simple intruding airplane proximity warning
d) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only

512. According to JAR OPS when must the CVR on a 50 seat turbo prop a/c begin
recording?
a) At commencement of the taxy to turning off the runway
b) From lift off to when the weight on wheels switch is made on landing
c) Switch on to switch off
d) From before the a/c is capable of moving under its own power to after the a/c is
no longer capable of moving under its own power

513. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but
not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
a) red
b) flashing red
c) green
d) amber

514. An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew:

1. when approaching the pre-selected altitude

2. when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3. in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least
by an aural warning)
4. in case of excessive vertical speed
5. when approaching the ground with the gear retracted

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 1, 3 & 4
 d) 1 & 3

515. An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of the TCAS II
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying a:
a) solid red square
b) blue or white hollow diamond
c) solid yellow circle
d) blue or white solid diamond

516. An aircraft registered after the 1 April 1998 requires a CVR which:
a) Records the last 8 hours of flight
b) Records the last 72 hours of flight
c) Records the last 30 minutes of flight
d) Records the last 2 hours of flight

517. An aircraft that weighs more than 5,700 kg and was registered after 1 April 1998,
the FDR and CVR must record respectively:
a) 25 hr and 2 hr
b) 10 hr and 2 hr
c) 25 hr and 1 hr
d) 10 hr and 1hr

518. An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew on:

1. Approaching selected altitude.

2. Excessive deviation from selected altitude.
3. Excessive vertical speed.
4. Excessive terrain closure.
5. Abnormal gear/flap combination.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 2
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
c) 1, 2, 3 &4
d) 1, 2 & 3

519. An angle of attack sensor may consist of:

1. an inertial system computing the difference between flight path and flight
attitude
2. a conical slotted probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack
3. a vane detector which positions the rotor of a synchro transmitter

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1 & 3
c) 1 & 2
d) 2 & 3
520. An FDR fitted to an aircraft of over 5,700kgs after Apr 98 must record for:
a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 10 hours
d) 25 hours

521. Angle of attack may be sensed by means of......mounted.........

a) A hinged vane sensor..............on the wing leading edge
b) A conical slotted probe............on the wing leading edge
c) A stick pusher........................adjacent to the flying controls
d) An indexer..............................in the flight director

522. Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System):

a) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from
ATC
b) In one of the system modes, the warning: "PULL UP" is generated
c) In one of the system modes, the warning: "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated
d) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
transponder

523. Except for aeroplanes under 5.7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent
to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded
data for a minimum of the last:
a) 10 hours
b) 25 hours
c) 30 minutes
d) 60 minutes

524. GPWS is active between the following heights:

a) 0 ft & 2,500 ft
b) 0 ft & 5,000 ft
c) 50 ft & 5,000 ft
d) 50 ft & 2,450 ft

525. GPWS may indicate (list):

1. Excessive sink rate after T/O.

2. Excessive descent rate.
3. Excessive closure with terrain.
4. Ground proximity not in the landing configuration.
5. Excessive glide-slope deviation.
6. Altitude call-outs.
7. Bank Angle alerting.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) All 7
b) 1, 3, 6 & 7
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 4, 5 & 7
526. If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
the following aural warning signals:
a) "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
b) "SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
c) "TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW GEAR" (twice)
d) "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"

527. If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot
with an aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because:
a) at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent
b) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing
gear retracted
c) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap
selected
d) during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose
altitude

528. In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located
in the aircraft:
a) as near to the landing gear as practicable
b) at the right or left wing tip
c) as far forward as practicable
d) as far to the rear as practicable

529. In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins
between stall and natural buffet. The warning system supplies the corresponding
alarm.
The required margin related to the stall speed is:
a) 3%
b) 10%
c) 7%
d) 5%

530. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance
System) presents warnings to the crew such as:
a) "Glide Slope"
b) "Climb Climb" or "Descend Descend"
c) "Turn left" or "Turn right"
d) "Too low terrain"

531. On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution

advisory" (RA) is a resolution advisory:-
a) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft
b) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but
does not require any change to be made to that rate
c) asking the pilot to modify the vertical speed of his aircraft to displayed guidelines
d) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft
532. On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution
advisory" (RA) is a resolution advisory:
a) asking the pilot not to modify his current vertical speed rate
b) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft
c) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft
d) asking the pilot to modify the vertical speed of his aircraft

533. On receipt of a TCAS RA the pilot should:

a) immediately contact ATC and if no immediate reply manoeuvre in response to
the RA
b) monitor vertical speed and wait for a corrective RA
c) attempt to visually identify the intruder
d) smoothly & immediately respond

534. On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a
resolution advisory (RA) is represented by:
a) a white or cyan empty lozenge
b) a red full square
c) a white or cyan solid lozenge
d) an amber solid circle

535. On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System),
proximate traffic is represented by:
a) an amber solid circle
b) a red full square
c) a white or cyan empty lozenge
d) a white or cyan solid lozenge

536. Refer to the statements about flight data recorders (FDR).

1. Aeroplanes under 27,000 kg may have their FDR combined with the cockpit
voice recorder.
2. FDR's in aeroplanes over 5,700 kg must be capable of recording and storing
data during at least 25 hours of its operation.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
b) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
c) Only statement 1 is correct
d) Only statement 2 is correct

537. Select the correct statements from the following list of aerodynamic warnings:

1. The minimum requirement for an altitude alerting system is for a visual signal.
2. Altitude alerting is inhibited in flight whenever glideslope is captured.
3. The maximum allowable airspeed is shown on a conventional (mechanical)
instrument by means of a barber's pole pointer.
4. During an overspeed situation the warning can be cancelled by depressing the
red master warning light switch.
5. Stall warnings always produce tactile, aural and visual signals.
 6. The regulatory margin between the stall and stall warning is 5 knots or 5% of
the CAS, whichever is greater.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, & 6
b) 1, 2,3, & 5
c) 2, 4, & 6
d) 1, 4, & 5

538. TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:
a) the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
b) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
c) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based
radar echoes
d) the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system

539. TCAS 2 gives avoidance information:

a) By speed instructions
b) In the vertical and horizontal plane
c) In the vertical plane
d) In the horizontal plane

540. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give:

a) TA and RA in horizontal plane
b) TA only
c) RA only
d) TA and RA in vertical plane

541. TCAS II obtains information from:

1. Pressure encoding from mode S transponder

2. Radio altimeter
3. Aircraft specific configurations
4. Inertial reference unit (IRU)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, & 2
b) 1, 2, & 3
c) 1, 2, 3, & 4
d) 1, 2, & 4

542. The aerodynamic angle of incidence (angle of attack) is:

a) The angle between the chord line of the wing of an aircraft and the direction of
the relative air flow
b) The angle between the longitudinal axis and the relative air flow ,
c) The angle between the chord line of the wing and the lateral axis ,
d) The angle between the wing and the chord line
543. The Altitude Alert system :
a) Activates a warning light on reaching selected altitude
b) May alert by visual signals when approaching the selected altitude
c) Engages autotrim on reaching selected altitude
d) Disengages autotrim on reaching selected altitude

544. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot:

a) When reference altitude equals the selected altitude
b) At decision height
c) When deviating from the selected altitude
d) At the selected altitude

545. The altitude alerting system:

a) generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude
b) alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity
c) alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement
d) alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude

546. The angle of attack sensor(s) on larger aircraft;

a) are vanes, or probes, attached to either side of the fuselage between the wings
and tail
b) is a vane type sensor in the leading edge of the wing
c) is a conical probe on the leading edge of the wing
d) are probes, or vanes, attached through the fuselage forward of the wing line

547. The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage
supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position of:

1. a specific slaved pitot probe

2. a vane detector
3. a conical slotted probe

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1 & 3
c) 1 & 2
d) 2 &3

548. The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) tapes can be erased:

a) on the ground with all engines stopped , the parking brake set and all electrical
power off
b) with the aircraft on the ground, all engines stopped , the parking brake set and ac
electrical power on.
c) on the ground with the aircraft stationary and the erase button depressed for at
least 2 seconds
d) in flight, if the erase button is held depressed for at least 2 seconds

549. The computer combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport
airplane receives information about the:

1. angle of attack
 2. engine R.P.M.
3. configuration
4. pitch and bank attitude
5. sideslip

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1&5
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5

550. The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:

1. a microphone
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards
3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1&4
b) 2&4
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 1&2

551. The Flight Data Recorder actually starts running:

a) At the beginning of the T/O run
b) When a/c lines up on runway
c) Before the a/c starts moving under its own power
d) When the gear is retracted

552. The functions of the altitude alerting system is to alert the flight crew:

1. upon approaching a pre-selected altitude

2. upon approaching a pre-selected altitude, during climb only
3. of a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach
4. of a wrong landing configuration
5. when deviating from the selected altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 3&4
b) 1, 3 & 4
c) 1&5
d) 2&5

553. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the
following cases:

1. excessive rate of descent

2. excessive ground proximity rate
3. loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4. abnormal gear/flaps configuration
 5. excessive deviation under the glidepath
6. abnormal airbrakes configuration

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 3, 4, 5 & 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
d) 2, 4, 5 & 6

554. The GPWS alert SINK RATE applies to which of these modes:
a) Excessive barometric descent rate
b) Loss of height after take-off / go around
c) Excessive terrain closure rate
d) Excessive radar altimeter descent rate

555. The GPWS computer is able to operate in the following modes:

1. excessive descent rate

2. excessive rate of terrain closure
3. excessive angle of attack
4. too high descent attitude
5. loss of altitude after take-off
6. abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7. excessive glidepath deviation

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 5 & 7
b) 1, 2, 5, 6 & 7
c) 1, 2, 4, 6 & 7
d) 3, 4, 5 & 6

556. The GPWS computer receives the following signals:

1. vertical speed
2. radio altimeter height
3. pressure altitude
4. glidepath deviation
5. gear and flaps position
6. flight path angle

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 4 & 6
b) 1, 3, 4, 5 & 6
c) 1, 2, 5 & 6
d) 1, 2, 4 & 5
557. The GPWS uses inputs from;
a) The radio altimeter, barometric altimeter, ILS receiver and the landing gear and
flap position monitors
b) The radio altimeter, ILS receiver, static pressure monitor, and the landing gear
position monitor
c) The radio altimeter and the ILS receiver
d) The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, landing gear position monitor, and
the flap position monitor

558. The GPWS warns the crew in case of:

1. an altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered
in the FMS.
2. a dangerous ground proximity.
3. a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4. a wrong landing configuration.
5. a descent below glidepath.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2&5
b) 2
c) 1, 3 & 4
d) 2, 3, 4 & 5

559. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
a) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
b) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots
a second level
c) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
d) DON'T SINK repetitive only

560. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according
to a height span ranging from:
a) 50 ft to 2,450 ft
b) the ground to 2,450 ft
c) 30 ft to 5,000 ft
d) the ground to 2500 ft

561. The input to a basic stall warning system is:

a) IAS
b) Angle of attack
c) Mno
d) Slat/flap position

562. The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:

1. Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)

2. Radio Altimeter
3. NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4. NAV/VOR
 5. Flap (position)
6. Weight of the aircraft
7. Landing Gear (position)

The combination of correct statement is:

a) 2, 4, 5 & 6
b) 2, 5 & 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5 & 7
d) 1, 4 & 7

563. The main input data to the Stall Warning System are:

1. Mach Meter indication

2. Angle of Attack
3. Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
4. Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1&4
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 2&3
d) 2, 3 & 4

564. The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by
laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as:

1. the descent rate

2. the climb rate
3. the aircraft configuration
4. the selected engine rpm

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2&4
b) 2&3
c) 1&3
d) 1, 2 & 4

565. The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the
use of:
a) air traffic control radar systems
b) transponders fitted in the aircraft
c) airborne weather radar system
d) F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

566. A pilot can ignore a TCAS RA:

a) Never
b) Only if the pilot can visually identify the intruder and elects to manoeuvre
accordingly
c) Only if in RT communication with the intruder aircraft and ATC
d) When authorised by ATC
567. The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning
to the pilot when the:
a) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous
b) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude
c) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude
d) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude

568. If the aircraft altitude deviates from the MCP selected altitude the altitude alert
system will:
a) Activate an advisory message on the centralised warning display
b) Activate a 'caution' alert including a white visual indication on the altimeter
c) Activate a 'warning' alert including a red visual indication on the altimeter
d) Activate a 'caution' alert including an amber visual indication on the altimeter

569. The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns
aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity:

1. turboprop-powered
2. piston-powered
3. jet-powered

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1
b) 3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1&3

570. The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:

1. an angle of attack sensor

2. a computer
3. a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4. an independent pitot probe
5. a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 5
b) 1, 2, 4 & 5
c) 1&4
d) 1, 2 & 4

571. The stall warning system receives information about the:

1. airplane angle of attack

2. airplane speed
3. airplane bank angle
4. airplane configuration
5. load factor on the airplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
 b) 1, 3 & 5
c) 2, 3, 4 & 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5

572. The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
a) only in the vertical plane
b) only in the horizontal plane
c) based on speed control
d) in horizontal and vertical planes

573. The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

1. traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)

2. horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3. vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4. ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1&2
b) 1&3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

574. The TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:

1. about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder

2. from the radio-altimeter
3. specific to the airplane configuration
4. from the inertial units

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1&2

575. The TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
a) only in the horizontal plane
b) in horizontal and vertical planes
c) only in the vertical plane
d) based on speed control

576. The TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system
which detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a:
a) SELCAL system
b) DME system
c) serviceable SSR transponder
d) serviceable weather radar

577. What are the components of a CVR?

 1. Microphone
2. Crash/Fire resistant construction
3. Independent battery
4. A Flight data recorder

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1&2
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 1&4
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

578. What are the JAR OPS requirements for the CVR to start and stop recording?
a) From the time when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power until it is
no longer able to do so
b) From the time when the first engine is started and stops 5 minutes after the APU
is shutdown
c) From the time the first engine is started and stops 5 minutes after the last engine
is shutdown
d) From the time when the aircraft is first able to move under its own power until 5
minutes after it is no longer able to do so

579. What corrective action is given by TCAS?

a) Turn left or right
b) Contact ATC
c) Turn then climb or descend
d) Climb or descend

580. What does a CVR record?

a) Cabin crew conversations
b) Cabin crew conversation on intercom
c) Radio conversations from flight deck
d) PA announcements even when not selected on flight deck

581. What does a FDR record when combined with a CVR?

1. Cockpit voice
2. Radio
3. Public addresses from the cockpit
4. Cabin voice

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2&4
b) All 4
c) 1&2
d) 1, 2 & 3
582. What input is there to TCAS 2?
a) Mode 'C' and 'S' transponders which co-ordinate avoidance manoeuvres
b) Mode 'S' transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres
c) Mode 'C' transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres
d) Mode 'A' transponder which gives TA and RAs

583. What is the correct response to a TCAS RA?

a) Request permission to manoeuvre from ATC
b) Turn 900 and smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands
c) Smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands
d) Follow ATC instructions as these override TCAS RAs

584. What is the GPWS Mode 3 audible alert?

a) DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK followed immediately by WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP
b) DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP if the sink
rate exceeds a certain value
c) DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK continuously
d) SINK RATE repeated each 1.5 seconds. Penetrating the second boundary
generates an aural alert of WHOOP, WHOOP PULL UP

585. What symbol is used to represent a RA on a TCAS PPI?

a) Red circle
b) Red lozenge
c) Yellow circle
d) Red square

586. When an intruder aircraft has no Altitude Reporting facility (Mode A transponder
only). TCAS 2 can give:
a) TA followed by preventative and corrective Ra's
b) A corrective RA only
c) No useful information
d) TA only

587. When required, the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) must automatically
provide distinctive warning to the flight crew of:

1. impeding stall
2. excessive sink rate
3. altitude loss after take-off or go-around
4. incorrect landing configuration
5. dangerous ground proximity
6. downward glide-slope deviation

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
b) 3, 5 & 6
c) 1, 4, 5 & 6
d) 1, 2, 4 & 5
588. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
a) "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory"
b) "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory"
c) "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory"
d) vertical "traffic advisory" and an horizontal "resolution advisory"

589. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:
a) "traffic advisory" only
b) "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory"
c) "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory"
d) "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory"

590. Where in the aircraft does JAR require the FDR to be fitted:
a) At the back
b) In the wings
c) In the undercarriage bay
d) At the front

591. Where can TCAS information displayed?

1. On a PPI (plan position indicator)

2. On the EFIS displays
3. On the Weather Radar display
4. On an electronic VSI

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) All 4
b) 1&4
c) 2&3
d) 1, 2 & 4

592. Which of the following are modes of the GPWS?

1. Excessive sink rate.

2. Altitude loss after T/O or go-around.
3. Excessive Glideslope deviation.
4. High climb rate.
5. Flaps in incorrect position for an approach.
6. High altitude descent.
7. Stall.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 1, 3, 5 & 7
c) All 7
d) 1, 2, 3, & 5
593. Which of the following is a preventative RA?
a) Monitor vertical speed
b) Turn left
c) Climb, climb now
d) Traffic, traffic

594. With reference to the GPWS the test sequence is:

a) Is automatically run when the GPWS is selected on
b) Pilot initiated before taxi/take-off and reduced in flight
c) Is carried out at any time during flight
d) May be carried out below 2,500ft provided a valid localiser/glideslope frequency
is selected

022-013 Engine Instrumentation (54 Questions)

595. A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:

a) smoke detectors
b) turbine temperature probes
c) vibration detectors
d) pressure sensors

596. A capacitive type gauging system may measure mass due to:
a) fuel dielectric constant being equal to that of air and inversely proportional to
density
b) fuel dielectric constant being equal to that of air and proportional to density
c) fuel dielectric constant being twice that of air and inversely proportional to
density
d) fuel dielectric constant being twice that of air and proportional to density

597. A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and
the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values
provided that the temperature of the:
a) cold junction is maintained at 15°C
b) hot junction is maintained at 15°C
c) cold junction is maintained at a constant temperature
d) hot junction is maintained at a constant temperature

598. A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:

a) set several engines to the same speed
b) achieve optimum control of on-board voltages
c) reduce the rpm of each engine
d) reduce the vibration of each engine

599. A thermocouple can be made of:

a) two metal conductors of the same material fixed together at two points
b) two metal conductors of different material fixed together at two points
c) a single wire coil
d) a three wire coil
600. A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It
indicates the :
a) vibration period expressed in seconds
b) vibration frequency expressed in Hz
c) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g
d) vibration amplitude at a given frequency

601. A vibration meter input is:

a) Inversely proportional to engine RPM
b) Only proportional to engine RPM
c) Coupled directly to the meter
d) Filtered to remove any output which is normal to the engine operation

602. A volumetric fuel flow meter is different to a mass flow meter because the mass
flow meter compensates for:
a) pressure
b) volume
c) density
d) dielectric

603. A warning message on the EICAS system screen would be:

a) displayed in red, normally on the upper screen , and requiring immediate
corrective action
b) displayed in amber on the lower screen with associated caution lights and aural
tones
c) displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen, indented one space to the
right
d) displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen with aural warnings

604. An aircraft equipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system.

a) This centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored systems is displayed,
the crew must:
b) reset the warning display after noting the failure on the left screen
c) analyse initially the failure and only respond to a level 1 warning
d) apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two
screens
e) cancel the warning

605. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is
refuelled so that the total fuel contents are 76,000kg at a temperature of 18 degrees
C and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26
degrees C and the S.G. becomes 0.80.
The indicated fuel contents have:
a) remained the same
b) decreased by 5%
c) increased by 5%
d) increased by 10%
606. Cylinder head temperature measurement uses the principle of
a) differential expansion of two metals
b) a ratiometer measuring the ratio of two temperatures
c) a thermocouple in contact with the cylinder head
d) a wheatstone bridge connecting cylinder heads together

607. During the take-off run , the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR
indication to :
a) increase and subsequently decrease
b) increase
c) decrease
d) remain constant

608. EPR is the ratio of;

a) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure on a turbo-prop engine only
b) Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine
c) The compressor outlet pressure to the compressor inlet pressure
d) Jet pipe pressure to the compressor outlet pressure on a gas turbine engine

609. If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the

cause is probably;
a) too high float level
b) fuel of too low volatility
c) ice in induction system
d) a leak in pressure gauge line

610. If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the
thrust
a) varies according to the characteristics of the engine
b) decreases
c) increases
d) remains constant

611. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system became disconnected, the reading
would:
a) Decrease by between 20°C to 30°C
b) Be largely unaffected
c) Fall to zero
d) Increase by between 20°C to 30°C

612. In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator:

1. the transmitter is a direct current generator

2. the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
3. the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed
4. the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an AC motor driving a magnetic
tachometer

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 5
 b) 1&2
c) 1&4
d) 3&5

613. In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by
the engine is:
a) inversely proportional to engine speed
b) amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator
c) fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering
d) directly proportional to engine speed

614. In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a:
a) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals
b) ratiometer circuit
c) wheatstone bridge circuit
d) bourdon tube

615. In transport airplanes, systems requiring temperature measurement generally

utilise:

1. resistance thermometers
2. thermocouple thermometers
3. reactance thermometers
4. capacitance thermometers
5. mercury thermometers

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

a) 1, 3, 4 & 5
b) 1, 2 & 5
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 2

616. Take off EPR:

a) Must be set before approximately 60 knots
b) Is available when reverse thrust is selected
c) Must be set before brake release
d) Must be set before V1

617. The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure:

a) pressure
b) a flow rate
c) temperature
d) quantity

618. The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are:

1. easy construction
2. independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude
3. independence of indications with regard to manoevring
4. independence of indications with regard to temperature variations
 5. independence of indications with regard to vibrations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
b) 1
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 2, 3, 4 & 5

619. The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:

1. the display is not sensitive to line resistance

2. the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply
3. the measurement is independent of temperature variations
4. the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in
parallel to a single transmitter

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 4
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 4

620. The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the:
a) electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which
it is immersed
b) capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed
c) capacity of a capacitor depends only on the density of the liquid on which it is
immersed
d) internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it
is immersed

621. The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the:

a) high influence of line resistance on the indication
b) necessity of providing a power supply source
c) influence of temperature on the indication
d) generation of spurious signals at the commutator

622. The disadvantages of a float type fuel contents gauging system are:

1. Simple design
2. Subject to attitude error
3. Subject to acceleration errors
4. Subject to temperature errors
5. Requires an alternating current supply

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 & 4
b) 2, 3, 4 &5
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
623. The electric float gauge:

1. gives a mass information;

2. gives information independent of aircraft's manoeuvres and attitude
changes;
3. gives information all the more accurate as the tank is full;
4. is typically a DC powered system.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3 & 4
b) 1
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 4

624. The electrical tacho generator system uses

a) three phase a.c. whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered
to a three phase synchronous motor (squirrel cage) and drag cup
b) Single phase a.c. whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered
to a single phase synchronous motor and drag cup
c) Single phase d.c. whose frequency varies with speed of the engine converted to
a square wave pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument
d) A tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed and sending information to a
squirrel cage motor and drag cup

625. The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:

a) a notched wheel rotating in front of a magnetic probe
b) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator
c) the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator
d) a circular magnet with four poles

626. The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by:

a) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure
b) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure
c) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure
d) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure

627. The float type fuel gauges provide information on:

a) mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel
b) volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel
c) volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel
d) mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel

628. The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system
can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
a) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density
b) the same as that of air and varies directly with density
c) twice that of air and varies directly with density
d) twice that of air and varies inversely with density
629. The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) is carried out at the:
a) combustion chamber outlet
b) combustion chamber intake
c) high pressure turbine outlet
d) high pressure chamber intake

630. The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the:

a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
magnetic field
b) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator
c) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator
d) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator

631. The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:

a) capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric
b) capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor
c) current variation in the Wheatstone bridge
d) flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line

632. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel
burnt is:
a) integration of instantaneous flow
b) difference of indication according to departure value
c) capacitance variation of a capacitor
d) multiplying flight time by fuel consumption

633. The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine
powerplant is:
a) an aneroid capsule
b) a bellows sensor
c) a differential capsule
d) a Bourdon tube

634. The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges.
The working principle of these sensors is to measure the:
a) relative permittivity of the fuel
b) volume of the fuel
c) height of the fuel
d) charge of condensers

635. The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engined RPM indicator
signifies:
a) Maximum RPM
b) RPM that must never be exceeded in the cruise
c) RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered
d) Minimum RPM
636. The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this
small red arc the:
a) rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode,
b) propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating
c) rating is the minimum usable in cruise
d) propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden

637. The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft
equipped with turbojets are:
a) thermocouples
b) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with
temperature
c) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured
d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature

638. The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator,

connected to RPM indicator, is:
a) an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode
bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
b) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator
is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer
c) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator
converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
d) a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a
rev/min. scale

639. The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:

1. a magnetic probe sensor supplying an induced AC voltage

2. a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3. a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage
4. a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 4
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

640. The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor
outlet
b) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio)
c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet
d) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio)

641. The upper display unit for an EICAS system shows electronic displays of;
a) Engine primary and secondary information, level A, B and C alerts and auto-
throttle engaged mode
 b) Engine primary information, level A, B and C alerts and thrust mode limit
annunciation
c) Memo and checklist information, caution and warning messages and immediate
action checklist
d) Engine primary information, level A, B and C alerts and pre flight checklist

642. To permit turbine exit gas temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are
equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:
a) bi-metallic strip
b) gas pressure
c) liquid expansion
d) thermocouple

643. Torque can be determined by measuring the:

a) oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicyclic reduction gear between the engine
and the propeller
b) phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission
shaft
c) frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft
d) quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft

644. Torque meters provide a reliable measure of power output from:

a) An APU
b) A noise suppression unit
c) A turbo-propeller engine
d) A turbo-jet engine

645. Vibration levels are indicated on the flight deck by a gauge calibrated in:
a) Phons
b) Units of engine torque
c) Decibels
d) Units of relative amplitude

646. When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter
takes into account the fuel:
a) pressure
b) turbulent flow in the line
c) temperature
d) density

647. When it is coupled directly to a temperature gauge, a themocouple requires:

a) 28v DC power
b) Battery power
c) No power
d) 115v AC power

648. Which of the following types of pressure sensor would be best suited to a high
pressure input?
a) bellows
b) dynamic probe
c) bourdon tube
d) aneroid capsule