PITOT STATICS

PITOT STATICS 1.

Concerning the pitot static system, the static pressure error :

a. Is a direct effect of blockage of the static ports.

b. Is a direct effect of heating of the static ports.
c. Affects the alternate static source only.
d. Is caused by disturbed airflow around the static ports.

PITOT STATICS 2.

The output data from the ADC are used by :

1. Transponder.
2. EFIS.
3. Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1, 2.

PITOT STATICS 3.

The ADC uses the following parameters as input data :

a. Mach number, barometric altitude, CAS.

b. TAS, barometric altitude, TAT.
c. Static pressure, total pressure, TAT.
d. Total pressure, static pressure, TAT, EGT.

PITOT STATICS 4.

The ADC uses the following parameters as input data :

a. Static pressure, total air pressure, total air temperature.

b. TAS, CAS, altitude, total air temperature.
c. Static pressure and total pressure only.
d. TAS, altitude, vertical sped, SAT.

PITOT STATICS 5.

The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aeroplane is located in the flight deck.
When used the altimeter :

a. Tends to over read.

b. Tens o under read.
c. Is blocked.
d. Indicates zero.

PITOT STATICS 6.

The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aircraft is located in the flight deck.
When it is used, the static pressure sensed is likely to be :

a. Lower than ambient pressure if QNH is greater than 1013 hPa.

 b. Lower than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
c. Higher than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
d. Higher than ambient pressure if QNH is greater than 1013 hPa.

PITOT STATICS 7.

The total pressure head comprises a mast which moves its port to a distance from the aircraft skin in order :

a. To not disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.

b. To locate it outside the boundary layer.
c. To protect it from icing.
d. To make it easily accessible during maintenance.

PITOT STATICS 8.

The open ended tube parallel o the longitudinal axis of the aircraft senses the:

a. Total pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure plus static pressure.

PITOT STATICS 9.

Concerning the pitot and static system, the static pressure error varies according to :

1. Altimeter setting.
2. Speed.
3. Angle of attack.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is :

a. 2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1, 2 and 3.
d. 1 and 3.

PITOT STATICS 10.

The alternative static source is used :

a. To compensate the hysteresis of the aneroid capsule.

b. To compensate the static pressure error.
c. When the drain holes freeze.
d. When the static ports become blocked.

PITOT STATICS 11.

The data output from an ADC include.

1. Barometric altitude.
2. Mach number.
3. CAS.
4. TAS.
5. SAT.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 4.
b. 1, 3, 5.
 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
d. 2, 3, 4.

PITOT STATICS 12.

In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter?

a. Over reads the altitude in case of a side – slip to the right and displays the correct information during
symmetric flight.
b. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c. Under reads the altitude.
d. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during
symmetric flight.

PITOT STATICS 13.

If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which
is not, and all other factors being equal ?

a. At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.

b. There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally.
c. ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d. At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.

PITOT STATICS 14.

An Air Data Computer (ADC)?

a. Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct
altitude reporting.
b. Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments.
c. Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blocked.
d. Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and
speed information.

PITOT STATICS 15.

In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from ?

a. The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.

b. Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c. Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back.
d. Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.

PITOT STATICS 16.

In a non -pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency
means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?

a. Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.

b. Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c. Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.
d. Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments.
PITOT STATICS 17.

The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid
capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?

a. (i) static pressure (ii) Total pressure.

b. (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure.
c. (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) Static pressure at time t – t.
d. (i) total pressure (ii) Static pressure.

PITOT STATICS 18.

From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a “standard + 10” atmosphere is?

a. 781.8 hPa.
b. 942.13 hPa.
c. 1 013.25 hPa.
d. 644.41 hPa.

PITOT STATICS 19.

The QNH is by definition the value of the ?

a. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for
which it is provided.
b. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is
given.
d. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

PITOT STATICS 20.

During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is
blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed?

a. Decreases abruptly towards zero.

b. Increases steadily.
c. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
d. Decreases steadily.

PITOT STATICS 21.

With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a?

a. Increasing speed.
b. Fluctuating speed.
c. Decreasing speed.
d. Constant speed.

PITOT STATICS 22.

After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the
airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed?

a. Increases steadily.
b. Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c. Decreases steadily.
d. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
PITOT STATICS 23.

The static pressure error of the static vent on which he altimeter is connected varies substantially with the ?

a. Static temperature.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d. Aircraft altitude.

PITOT STATICS 23.

The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the ?

a. Static temperature.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d. Aircraft altitude.

PITOT STATICS 24.

The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a. In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

b. In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c. In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d. In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

PITOT STATICS 25.

The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?

a. Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.

b. Bi-metallic strip.
c. Return spring.
d. Second calibrated port.

PITOT STATICS 26.

The density altitude is?

a. The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the
atmosphere.
b. The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard
temperature.
c. The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.

PITOT STATICS 27.

On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the?

a. Standard altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.
PITOT STATICS 28.

The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are?

1. Position/ pressure error correction.

2. Hysteresis error correction.
3. Remote data transmission capability.
4. Capability to feed data to a large number of instruments simultaneously.

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1, 3, 4.

PITOT STATICS 29.

If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will ?

a. Read zero.
b. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
c. Under – read.
d. Over – read.

PITOT STATICS 30.

If the static source to a altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will ?

a. Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.

b. Under – read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked.
c. Over – read.
d. Gradually return to zero.

PITOT STATICS 31.

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will?

a. Gradually indicate zero.

b. Under-read.
c. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.
d. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.

PITOT STATICS 32.

A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft o an airspeed indicator would cause it to?

a. Under – read.
b. Over – read.
c. Over – read in a climb and under – read in a descent.
d. Under – read in a climb and over – read in a descent.

PITOT STATICS 33.

The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the?

a. Total pressure plus static pressure.

b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Total pressure.
d. Static pressure.
PITOT STATICS 34.

The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies?

a. The total pressure .

b. The static pressure.
c. The total pressure and the static pressure.
d. The dynamic pressure.

PITOT STATICS 35.

The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as?

a. Position pressure error.

b. Barometric error.
c. Instrument error.
d. Hysteresis effect.

PITOT STATICS 36.

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed
indicator to?

a. Read a little high.

b. Read a little low.
c. Freeze at zero.
d. React like an altimeter.

PITOT STATICS 37.

A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument(s)?

a. Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

b. Airspeed indicator only.
c. Altimeter only.
d. Vertical speed indicator only.

PITOT STATICS 38.

Given : Ts is the static temperature (SAT).

Tt is the total temperature (TAT).
Kr is the recovery coefficient.
M is the Mach number.

The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula?

a. Tt = Ts (1-0.2 M2).
b. Tt = Ts (1+0.2 Kr.M2).
c. Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M2).
d. Tt = Ts (1+0.2 M2).

PITOT STATICS 39.

The altimeter is fed by ?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.
PITOT STATICS 40.

The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.

PITOT STATICS 41.

The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change
of?

a. Kinetic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure.

PITOT STATICS 42.

What advantages are provided by an ADC, compared to traditional pitot static systems?

(1) Instrument lag is reduced or eliminated.

(2) Position error is automatically correct for.
(3) Compressibility error is automatically corrected for.
(4) A large number of instruments can be fed from one ADC.
(5) It provides emergency altimeter following main system failure.

a. (1), (3), (4), (5).

b. (1), (2), (3), (4).
c. (2), (3), (4), (5).
d. (1), (2), (4), (5).

PITOT STATICS 43.

If the static vents in an un-pressurised aircraft become blocked?

a. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the altimeter to function.

b. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the ASI to function.
c. Breaking the front glass will enable the altimeter to function.
d. Only instruments fed from an ADC will function.

PITOT STATICS 44.

From where does the ADC obtain its altitude data ?

a. Barometric information from the static pressure ports.

b. Barometric pressure from the pitot probe.
c. The difference between pitot and static pressures.
d. The time take for a radio signal to rebound from the earth.

PITOT STATICS 45.

What inputs are fed to the ADC?

(1) AOA.
(2) TAT.
(3) OAT.
(4) Dynamic pressure.
 (5) Static pressure.
(6) Total pressure.
(7) AC electrical power.
(8) Autopilot commands.

a. (1), (2), (4), (5), (7).

b. (1), (2), (4), (5), (7).
c. (1), (2), (5), (6), (7).
d. (2), (4), (5), (7), (8).

PITOT STATICS 46.

Which of the following is correct?

a. PTot = PStat + PDyn.

b. Pitot = PDyn – Pstat.
c. PDyn = PTot – Pitot.
d. Pitot = PTot + PDyn.

PITOT STATICS 47.

Entering ground effect is likely to ?

a. Decrease static pressure but increase pitot pressure.

b. Decrease pitot pressure but increase static pressure.
c. Increase position errors.
d. Decrease position errors.

PITOT STATICS 48.

If the pitot tube leaks and the pitot drains are blocked in an unpressurised aircraft?

a. The ASI will over indicate.

b. The ASI will under indicate.
c. The altimeter will under indicate.
d. The altimeter will over indicate.

PITOT STATICS 49.

If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The ASI will under indicate.

b. The ASI will over indicate.
c. The ASI will under or over indicate depending on altitude.
d. The ASI will indicate zero.

PITOT STATICS 50.

If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The altimeter will under indicate.

b. The altimeter will indicate zero.
c. The altimeter will over indicate.
d. The altimeter will under or over indicate depending on altitude.

TEMP
TEMP 1.
Given : E = electromotive force EMF. T = hot junction temperature. K = constant. The relationship that applies
to a thermocouple is :

a. E = K x SQRT (T).
b. E = K x T squared.
c. E = K x T.
d. E = K + T.

TEMP 2.

The Total Air Temperature (TAT) is :

a. The impact air temperature measured by the pitot probe.

b. The static temperature (SAT) multiplied by the recovery factor.
c. The average temperature resulting from the temperature measure of the pitot and TAT probes.
d. The temperature resulting from the aircraft motion through the air.

TEMP 3.

The Static air Temperature (SAT) is :

a. The ambient outside air temperature.

b. The TAT divided by the recovery factor.
c. The temperature resulting from the aircraft motion in the air.
d. The outside air temperature measured by the pitot probes.

TEMP 4.

Given : E = electromotive force emf. Tc = cold junction temperature. Th = hot junction temperature. K =
constant. The relationship that applies to a thermocouple is :

a. E = K x The squared.
b. E = K x The.
c. E = K X Tc.
d. E = K x Tc squared.

TEMP 5.

Total Air Temperature is …… Than …… by an amount which is proportional to …….?

a. Higher Static air temperature CAS.

b. Higher Static air temperature TAS.
c. Lower Dynamic air temperature CAS.
d. Higher Static air temperature LSS.

TEMP 6.

Total air temperature is …………….?

a. SAT plus kinetic heating effect.

b. SAT plus the heating effect caused by shock waves at high mach numbers.
c. SAT plus skin friction effect.
d. Dynamic heating effect.

TEMP 7.

What is the ram recovery factor for a Rosemount temperature probe?

 a. 0.5.
b. 1.0.
c. 1.5.
d. 2.0.

TEMP 8.

The formula for TAT is?

a. TAT = SAT (1 + (0.2 x K x M2).

b. TAT = SAT/(1 + 0.2 x K x M2).
c. TAT = SAT/(1 – 0.2 M2).
d. TAT = SAT (1 – KM2).

TEMP 9.

The pointer that aligns with the red line in an EGT gauge?

a. Is movable to indicate when temperatures have exceeded the red line limit.
b. Is painted on the glass.
c. Is moved only prior to flight.
d. Is moved to set lower limits when required by ambient conditions.

TEMP 10.

What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft?

1. Resistive.
2. Mercury.
3. Capacitive.
4. Inductive.
5. Thermocouples.

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 3, 4.
c. 2, 4, 5.
d. 1, 2, 5.

TEMP 11.

TAT is?

a. SAT plus ram rise due to skin friction.

b. SAT plus ram rise due to adiabatic compression.
c. SAT plus ram rise due to shock wave formation.
d. Sat plus gauge error.

TEMP 12.

The advantages of a thermocouple temperature gauging system are?

1. Self powered.
2. No moving parts in sensors.
3. Low voltages.
4. Not susceptible to resistance losses.
5. Suitable for high temperatures.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 5.
c. 2, 3, 4, 5.
 d. All of the above.

TEMP 13.

A thermocouple circuit can be graduated to read temperature if?

a. The hot junction is kept at a constant temperature.

b. The cold junction is kept at a constant temperature.
c. The cold junction is kept at ambient temperature.
d. The cold junction is kept at the same temperature as the hot junction.

TEMP 14.

What is used to sense temperature in a jet engine turbine and how are they connected?

a. Thermistor in series.
b. Thermocouples in parallel.
c. Thermocouples in series.
d. Rosemount probes in parallel.

TEMP 15.

An aircraft is flying at Mach 1 at 36000 ft in the ISA. What TAT will a Rosemount probe indicate?

a. -13° C.
b. 13° C.
c. -56° C.
d. 56° C.

TEMP 16.

The formula for total ait temperature is ?

a. TAT = SAT + 0.2 M2).

b. TAT = SAT (1 + (0.2 x Kr M2).
c. TAT = SAT (1 - (0.2 x KrM2).
d. TAT = SAT/(1 -KrM2).

TEMP 17.

A TAT probe measures using the relationship?

a. TAT = SAT + heating due to compressibility.

b. TAT - = SAT + Kinetic heating.
c. TAT - = SAT + friction heating.
d. TAT = SAT + convention cooling.

TEMP 18.

A thermocouple system employs?

a. Two dissimilar metals jointed at one end and a wheatstone bridge at the other.
b. Two dissimilar metal joined at one end and a ratio meter at the other.
c. Two dissimilar metals joined at both ends and a moving coil instrument.
d. Tow dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric substance at one end and a capacitive gauge at the
other.

TEMP 19.

The resistive temperature sensing system is based on the fact that?

 a. Electrical resistance of metals is constant.
b. Electric resistance of metals increases with increasing temperature.
c. Electrical resistance of metals decreases with increasing temperature.
d. Electrical resistance causes temperature to change.

TEMP 20.

The bi-metalic temperature sensing system is employed?

a. Only in low temperature systems.

b. To measure jet pipe temperature.
c. In thermostatic switches.
d. In thermistors.

TEMP 21.

Methods employed in sensing temperature in aircraft include?

1. Resistive.
2. Inductive.
3. Capacitive.
4. Expansive.
5. Seebeck effect.

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 2, 3, 5.
c. 3, 4, 5.
d. 1, 4, 5.

TEMP 22.

At mach 2 a TAT probe will indicate + 45° K in an ambient temperature of ?

(assume K = 0.85).

a. 2.68° K.
b. 26.78° K.
c. 67.8° K.
d. 16.78° K.

TEMP 23.

Temperature sensing based on varying … are…. Than those using varying …………….>

a. Current more accurate voltage.

b. Current less accurate voltage.
c. Voltage as accurate current.
d. Voltage less accurate resistance.

TEMP 24.

A Rosemount probe employs an electrical heater to?

 a. Maintain constant temperature.
b. Prevent corrosion of the sensing elements.
c. Prevent icing.
d. Maintain constant electrical resistance.

ASI
ASI 1.

In case of static port blockage, the airspeed indicator:

a. Over reads in a climb and under reads in a descent.

b. Under reads in a descent only.
c. Under reads in a climb and over reads in a descent.
d. Over reads in a climb only.

ASI 2.

The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aeroplane is located in the flight deck.
When used :

a. The airspeed indicator tends to under read.

b. The airspeed indicator tends to over read.
c. It has no influence on airspeed indicator reading.
d. The airspeed indicator indicates a consistent decreasing speed.

ASI 3.

Given :

Pt = total pressure :
Ps = static pressure :
Pd = dynamic pressure :

The airspeed indicator measures :

a. Ps – Pt.
b. Pt – Pd.
c. Pd – Ps.
d. Pt – Ps.

ASI 4.

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator of light propeller aircraft are :

a. VSI and VNO.

b. VSI and VMO.
c. VSO and VNE.
d. VSI and VNE.

ASI 5.

On the airspeed indicator of a win engine aeroplane, he blue radial line corresponds to :

a. Best single engine rate of climb.

b. Single engine holding speed.
 c. Minimum ground control speed.
d. VNE.

ASI 6.

What does the “barber’s pole” used on some ASI’s indicate ?

a. MMO.
b. VNE.
c. TAS.
d. Temperature and VMO.

ASI 7.

What speed is VNO?

a. That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
b. That which may never be exceeded.
c. That which may be exceeded only in emergencies.
d. The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without overstressing the aircraft structure.

ASI 8.

From what is VMO calculated ?

a. TAS.
b. EAS.
c. CAS.
d. RAS.

ASI 9.

What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a pitot probe are blocked, whilst the static source
remains open ?

a. The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.

b. The ASI will not respond.
c. The ASI will under read at all speeds.
d. The ASI will over read when accelerating, decelerating, climbing or descending.

ASI 10.

What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow are on an ASI represent?

a. VNE and VNO.

b. VNO and VNE.
c. VMO and VNE.
d. VNO and VMO.

ASI 11.

If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will the ASI respond when
descending?

a. It will under read.

b. It will over read.
c. It will read zero in all conditions.
d. It will remain fixed at the reading at which it became blocked.

ASI 12.
At msl in the ISA?

a. CAS = TAS.
b. IAS = TAS.
c. IAS = EAS.
d. CAS < TAS.

ASI 13.

In an ASI system, what does the pitot probe measure?

a. Total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Ambient pressure.

ASI 14.

What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate ?

a. VXSE.
b. VNO.
c. VNE.
d. VYSE.

ASI 15.

What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white are on an ASI?

a. VS1 and VFE.

b. VS0 and VFE.
c. VFE and VFO.
d. VSE and VNE.

ASI 16.

VFE is the ?

a. Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with is flaps extended.
b. Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
c. The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
d. The maximum speed for flaps up flight.

ASI 17.

What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and the pitot drain is
blocked?

a. It will over read.

b. It will under read.
c. It will give a constant reading.
d. It will read zero at all speeds.

ASI 18.

At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same?

a. CAS.
 b. TAS.
c. Ground speed.
d. EAS.

ASI 19.

CAS is ?

a. EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.

b. IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c. TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
d. IAS corrected for density error and position error.

ASI 20.

When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum groundspeed, airspeed will be limited by?

a. VNE then VMO.

b. VNO then VNE.
c. MMO then VMO.
d. VMO then MMO.

ASI 21.

What will happen to TAS when descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase.

ASI 22.

When descending through an inversion at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

ASI 23.

When climbing through an inversion at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS increases.

ASI 24.

When descending through an in version at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number increases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
 d. TAS decreases.

ASI 25.

When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

ASI 26.

When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

ASI 27.

When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

ASI 28.

When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

ASI 29.

When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS decreases.
b. LSS increases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

ASI 30.

When climbing through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.

ASI 31.

When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

 a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.

ASI 32.

When descending through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

ASI 33.

When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.

ASI 34.

When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

ASI 35.

When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. Mach number increases.

b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

ASI 36.

When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS increases.

ASI 37.

When descending through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
 c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS increases.

ASI 38.

When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. CAS decreases.
c. CAS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.

ASI 39.

When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. LSS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.

ASI 40.

When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.

ASI 41.

When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number increases.

ASI 42.

If pressure remains constant as temperature increases ?

a. Density will increase, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to increase.

b. Density will increase, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to decrease.
c. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to increase.
d. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to decrease.

ASI 43.

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS reading will be too low when climbing.

b. The IAS reading will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS reading will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS reading will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

ASI 44.

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

 a. The IAS will be too high when descending.
b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating.

ASI 45.

If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The IAS and ROC will be too low when climbing.

b. The IAS and ROC will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS and ROC will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

ASI 46.

If the static pipe become partly blocked?

a. The IAS will be too high when descending at constant IAS.

b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating at constant altitude.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating at constant altitude.

ASI 47.

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The ASI will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at constant CAS than when
climbing at constant TAS.
b. The ASI will over read and the error will be greater when climbing at constant TAS than when
climbing at constant CAS.
c. The ASI will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at constant CAS than when
climbing at constant TAS.
d. The ASI will under read and the error will be greater when climbing at constant TAS then when
climbing at constant CAS.

ASI 48.

CAS is IAS corrected for?

a. Position error.
b. Instrument error.
c. Compressibility error.
d. Temperature error.
ASI 49.

What does the white are on an ASI indicate?

a. VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end.
b. VS0 at the lower end and VFO at the upper end.
c. VS1 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end.
d. VS1 at the lower end and VFO at the upper end.

ASI 50.

If the pitot source becomes blocked while the static source remains open, an ASI will?
 a. Under read at all speeds.
b. Over read at all speeds.
c. Read zero at all speeds.
d. Give an indication proportional to altitude.

ALT
ALT 1.

The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error varies according to ;

a. TAS and altimeter setting.

b. TAS and OAT.
c. Angle of attack and OAT.
d. TAS and angle of attack.

ALT 2.

The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error results from :
a. Incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbance of airflow around the static ports.
b. Imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsule.
c. Friction inside the instrument.
d. Cabin pressure slightly lower than outside air pressure due to airflow over the fuselage.

ALT 3.

A servo-assisted altimeter is more accurate than a simple altimeter because the small movements of :

a. The pointers are detected by a very sensitive electro-magnetic pick – off.

b. The capsules are detected by a very sensitive electro-magnetic pick-off.
c. The capsules are not taken into account.
d. The capsules are inhibited.

ALT 4.

The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the ?

a. Time passed a given altitude.

b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft altitude.
d. Static temperature.

ALT 5.

When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?

a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actual height above ground.
d. Over read.

ALT 6.

At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed?
 a. +/- 60 fee.
b. +/- 75 feet.
c. +/- 30 feet.
d. +/- 70 feet.

ALT 7.

The altitude indicated on board and aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the
aircraft are cold is?

a. Equal to the standard altitude.

b. Lower than the real altitude. The same as the real altitude.
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Higher than the real altitude.

ALT 8.

The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to ?

a. Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.

b. Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c. Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d. Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument.

ALT 9.

The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3
degrees, indicates?

a. -300 ft/min.
b. -150 ft/min.
c. -250 ft/min.
d. -500 ft/min.

ALT 10.

The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the
aircraft are warm is?

a. Equal to the standard altitude.

b. Higher than the real altitude.
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Lower than the real altitude.

ALT 11.

The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is
the use of?

a. A sub-scale logarithmic function.

b. An induction pick-off device.
c. More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
d. Combination of counters/pointers.

ALT 12.

What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each side of the
fuselage, but the left one is blocked?

a. Over read.
 b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.

ALT 13.

From what is true altitude derived?

a. Pressure altitude.
b. Density altitude.
c. Temperature altitude.
d. Difference between total pressure and static pressure.

ALT 14.

What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at the airfield.

b. Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
c. Sea level pressure.
d. Sea level pressure in the ISA.

ALT 15.

What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at msl.

b. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway.
c. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of the
runway.
d. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude when on the runway.

ALT 16.

What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient temperature was - 30°
C?

a. 15200 ft.
b. 15400 ft.
c. 16200 ft.
d. 16400 ft.

ALT 17.

What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer air mass?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not change.
d. Remain constant only if above the tropopause.

ALT 18.

What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.

b. True altitude.
c. Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d. True altitude corrected for density changes.
ALT 19.

What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for position error, whilst the
other is not?

a. One will over read at high airspeeds.

b. One will under read at high airspeeds.
c. One will under read close to the ground.
d. The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.

ALT 20.

Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

a. Overcome friction.
b. Overcome inertia.
c. Overcome hysteresis.
d. Reduce lag.

ALT 21.

What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front?

a. Over indication.
b. Under indication.
c. No change.
d. No change above the tropopause.

ALT 22.

A barometric altimeter comprises of?

a. An aneroid capsule sensing static pressure.

b. An aneroid capsule sensing pitot pressure.
c. A differential capsule sensing pitot and static pressures.
d. A bellows sensing temperature and static pressure.

ALT 23.

If pressure altitude is 30000 ft, indicated TAT is – 10, mach number is 0.82, what is the density altitude?

a. 31000 ft.
b. 30472 ft.
c. 30573 ft.
d. 30674 ft.

ALT 24.

If QNH is 999 hPa, what is the pressure altitude at an elevation of 25000 ft?

a. 25100 ft.
b. 25200 ft.
c. 25300 ft.
d. 25400 ft.

ALT 25.

If pressure altitude is 22800 ft, at an elevation of 22000 ft, what is QNH?

a. 985 hPa.
 b. 976 hPa.
c. 1034 hPa.
d. 1026 hPa.

ALT 26.

If field elevation is 4000 ft amsl and QNH is 900 mb, what is the pressure altitude ?
a. 7390.
b. 6390.
c. 610.
d. 5540.

ALT 27.

If field elevation is 3500 ft amsl and QFE is 1020 mb, what is the pressure altitude?

a. 210.
b. -210.
c. 3710.
d. 3290.

ALT 28.

If pressure altitude is 3700 ft amsl and QNH is 1000 mb, what is field elevation?

a. 3310.
b. 3210.
c. 390.
d. 490.

ALT 29.

Density altitude is?

a. The altitude at which the existing density would occur in the ISA.
b. The density at which the existing temperature would occur in the ISA.
c. The elevation at which the existing density would occur in the ISA.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for density deviation.

ALT 30.

The pressure altitude of the field can be found by ?

a. Setting QNH on the altimeter subscale.

b. Setting QFE on the altimeter subscale.
c. Setting 1013 mb on the altimeter subscale.
d. From an ADC only.

ALT 31.

If field pressure altitude is 5000 ft amsl and OAT is 25°C, what is the density altitude?
a. 5000 + 118 (25 – (15 – (5 x 1.98))) = 7348.2 ft.
b. 5000 – 118 (25 – (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 4988.2 ft.
c. 500 + 118 (25 + (15 – (5 x 1.98))) = 8551.8 ft.
d. 5000 – 118 (25 + (15 + (5 x (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.

ALT 32.

If QFE is 1022 hPa what is the pressure altitude of the field?

 a. 270 ft amsl.
b. -270 ft amsl.
c. 30660 ft amsl.
d. 500 ft amsl.

ALT 33.

If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500 ft amsl, what is QFE?

a. 850 hPa.
b. 163 hPa.
c. -850 hPa.
d. 900 hPa.

ALT 34.

Pressure altitude is ?

a. The altitude above sea level.

b. The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale.
c. The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the subscale.
d. The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale.

ALT 35.

Which of the following cause air density to decrease?

a. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, increasing temperature.

b. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.
c. Increasing humidity, decreasing altitude, increasing temperature.
d. Decreasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.

ALT 36.

If QNH changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa this will?

a. Increase field elevation.

b. Decrease field elevation.
c. Not affect field elevation.
d. Decrease QFE.

ALT 37.

If QEF changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa will?

a. Increase field elevation.

b. Not affect QNH.
c. Increase QNH.
d. Decrease QNH.

ALT 38.

As pressure altitude increases ?

a. Temperature decreases.
b. Temperature increases.
c. Temperature increases then remains constant.
d. Temperature decreases then remains constant.

ALT 39.
At a fixed pressure altitude an increase in temperature will?

a. Decrease density but increase density altitude.

b. Decrease density altitude.
c. Not affect density altitude.
d. Increase density but decrease density altitude.

ALT 40.

What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has static vent at each side of the
fuselage, but the right one is blocked.

a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.

ALT 41.

What will a cabin altimeter read with QFE set.

a. The same as with QNH set.

b. Height AGL.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Field elevation when on the runway.

ALT 42.

The altimeter of an aircraft with a static pressure source on each side of the fuselage will ……. If one becomes
blocked?

a. Over read when side slipping.

b. Over read when side slipping towards the blocked source.
c. Over read when side slipping towards the clear source.
d. Under read when side slipping.

ALT 43.

A servo altimeter is …. It employs an electrical pick-off?

a. More accurate because …….

b. Less accurate because ……
c. Less reliable because ……
d. More reliable because …….

ALT 44.

What will happen to the altimeter reading if an aircraft flying at a fixed heading meets a colder air mass?

a. Read less than true altitude.

b. Read more than true altitude.
c. Read zero.
d. Readings will not be affected.

ALT 45.

What is the true altitude of an aircraft flying at 16000 ft indicated altitude with an OAT of – 16 degrees C?
 a. 13200 ft.
b. 14200 ft.
c. 16050 ft.
d. 16200 ft.

ALT 46.

From where does the ADC obtain altitude data?

a. Radio Altimeter.
b. OAT sources.
c. Barometric altitude source.
d. Dynamic minus total pressure.

ALT 47.

True altitude is obtained from …… on board an aircraft?

a. Density altitude.
b. Temperature altitude.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. International standard altitude.

ALT 48.

What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for density.

b. Temperature altitude corrected for density.
c. Temperature altitude corrected for pressure.
d. Pressure altitude corrected for temperature.

ALT 49.

How will altimeter readings be affected if the layers of air below an aircraft are colder than the standard
temperature?

a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters.

b. Read zero.
c. Read high than true.
d. Read lower than true.

ALT 50.

How will altimeter reading be affected if the static vent pipe becomes blocked?

a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters

b. Readings will freeze.
c. Read higher than true.
d. Read lower than true.
VSI
VSI 1.
The alternate static source in a light non-pressurized aircraft is in the flight deck. As the alternate source is
opened, the vertical airspeed indicator may:

a. Indicate a high rate of descent.

b. Indicate a slight momentary descent.
c. Indicate a slight momentary climb.
d. Be blocked.

VSI 2.

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing.

b. The VSI will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI will not be affected.
d. The VSI will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

VSI 3.

If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when descending.

b. The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
c. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
d. The VSI indication will be unaffected.

VSI 4.

VSI lag is reduced by?

a. Two dashpots responding to acceleration.

b. Two return springs.
c. Bi-metallic strips.
d. Electronic systems.

VSI 5.

If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing.

b. The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI indication will be too high at all times.
d. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.

VSI 6.

The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is to?

a. Break the VSI glass.

b. Use the standby static source.
c. Calculate ROC using mathematically.
d. Open a window to equalize pressures.

VSI 7.

If the casing of a VSIs in a pressurized aircraft develops a leak?

 a. VSI indications will be too low when climbing or descending.
b. VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending.
c. VSI indications will be too low when climbing and too high when descending.
d. VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending.

VSI 8.

A VSI?

a. Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure.

b. Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
c. Measures the different between the pressure inside and outside a capsule.
d. Measures only dynamic pressure.

VSI 9.

A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

a. VSI needle moving downwards.

b. VSI needle moving upwards.
c. VSI needle stationary.
d. The VSI indicates only vertical speeds, not accelerations.

VSI 10.

As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?

a. Become inaccurate due to ground effect.

b. Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
c. Stick due to loss of pitot source.
d. Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.

VSI 11.

What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glideslope if flying at 100 Kts TAS?

a. 224 fpm descent.

b. 324 fpm descent.
c. 424 fpm descent.
d. 542 fpm descent.

VSI 12.

If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when descending.

b. The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant altitudes.
c. The VSI indication will be too low at all times.
d. The VSI indication will be too low when descending.

VSI 13.

If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI will over read when climbing or descending.

b. The VSI will be unaffected.
c. The VSI will over under read at all times.
d. The VSI will read zero at all times.

VSI 14.
The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

a. Accelerometer system.
b. Choke system.
c. Bi-metalic compensator.
d. Return spring.

VSI 15.

If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI indications when it is side
slipping to the left in a descent?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Be unaffected.
d. Fluctuate.

MACH
MACH 1.

If OAT increases whilst maintaining constant CAS and flight level :

a. TAS decreases.
b. TAS remains constant.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. Mac number decreases.

MACH 2.

If OAT decreases while maintaining constant CAS and flight level :

a. Mach number increases.

b. TAS increases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. TAS remains constant.

MACH 3.

The Mach meter is subject to position error. The error varies according to :

1. Angle of attack.
2. OAT.
3. TAS.

The combination regrouping all of the correct options is :

a. 1, 3.
b. 3.
c. 1.
d. 1, 2, 3.

MACH 4.

The Mach meter is subject to position error. This error results from :

a. Incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbance of airflow around the pitot tube or the static ports.
b. Imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsule.
 c. Incorrect altimeter setting.
d. Non standard atmospheric conditions.

MACH 5.

The Mach meter is subject to position errors. The value of this error varies according to :

a. OAT only.
b. TAS and OAT.
c. TAS only.
d. TAS and angle of attack.

MACH 6.

An aeroplane is flying at FL140, with a CAS of 260 knots in standard conditions. The mach number is :

a. 0.53.
b. 0.41.
c. 0.43.
d. 0.51.

MACH 7.

Am aeroplnae is flying at FL300 with a TAS of 470 knots in standard conditions. The Mach number is :

a. 0.83.
b. 0.53.
c. 0.80.
d. 0.82.

MACH 8.

The Mach meter is subject to position errors. The error concerns :

a. Alternate static sources only.

b. Static ports only.
c. Pitot tubes only.
d. Pitot tubes and static ports.

MACH 9.

How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL270 when it experiences a
reduction in OAT?

a. No change.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Increase or decrease depending on TAT.

MACH 10.

What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is - 40° C?

a. 579 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 584 Kts.
d. 594 Kts.

MACH 11.
Which of the following best defines Mach number ?

a. The ratio of TAS : LSS.

b. The ratio of LSS : TAS.
c. The ratio of CAS : LSS.
d. The ratio of ambient density to that at msl in the ISA.

MACH 12.

A mach meter comprises of ?

a. A combination of ASI and altimeter.

b. A combination of VSI and altimeter.
c. An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers.
d. An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.

MACH 13.

What is the LSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?

a. 542 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 573 Kts.
d. 550 Kts.

MACH 14.

How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. Remain constant.

MACH 15.

What is the LSS at msl ISA ?

a. 600 Kts.
b. 550 Kts.
c. 750 Kts.
d. 661 Kts.

MACH 16.

Mach meter indications?

a. Vary with airspeed and temperature.

b. Vary only with airspeed.
c. Vary only with temperature.
d. Vary with density and altitude.

MACH 17.

How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS
and altitude?
 a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on altitude.

MACH 18.

How will he mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source becomes blocked ?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 19.

How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source becomes blocked?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 20.

How will the mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes blocked ?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

MACH 21.

The indications on a mach meter are independent of ?

a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Ambient temperature.
c. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.

MACH 22.

What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases then remains constant.
d. Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.

MACH 23.

What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in a pressurized aircraft at
high altitude ?

a. Under read.
b. Over read.
c. No effect.
d. Under read or over read depending on temperature.
MACH 24.

If an aircraft climbs at constant TAS from FL 200 to FL 400 the mach meter indication will ?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.

MACH 25.

A mach meter is made up of ?

a. An altimeter with a density capsule.

b. An ASI with an altitude capsule.
c. A VSI with a modified scale.
d. An ASI with a modified scale.

MACH 26.

VMO is calculated based on ?

a. TAS.
b. RAS.
c. CAS.
d. EAS.

MACH 27.

Mach number is the ratio of ?

a. IAS : TAS.
b. CAS : LSS.
c. TAS : LSS.
d. RAS : TAS.

MACH 28.

If the static source becomes blocked the mach meter will ….. as an aircraft climbs ?

a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not indicate.
d. Freeze.

MACH 29.

If temperature decreases when flying at constant CAS at FL 200, the mach meter indication will ….. and the
true mach number will …..?

a. Increase increase.
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change not change.
d. Not change increase.

MACH 30.

Mach meter indications?

 a. Are temperature related.
b. Increase with temperature.
c. Decrease with temperature.
d. Are independent of temperature.

MACH 31.

The speed of sound an ISA msl is ?

a. 550 Kts.
b. 560 Kts.
c. 660 Kts.
d. 670 Kts.

MACH 32.

If ambient temperature is - 10° C, what is the mach number when TAS is 594 Kts?

a. 0.5M.
b. 0.75M.
c. 0.94M.
d. 1.5M.

MACH 33.

The speed of sound at 25000 ft ISA is ?

a. 600 Kts.
b. 602 Kts.
c. 604 Kts.
d. 606 Kts.

MACH 34.

What is true mach number at 25000 ft ISA if the TAS is 500 Kts?

a. 0.75M.
b. 0.83M.
c. 0.90M.
d. 0.93M.

MACH 35.

A mach meter indicates mach number based on the ratio of?

a. Static pressure to pitot pressure.

b. Pitot pressure to static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure to static pressure.
d. Static pressure to dynamic pressure.

MACH 36.

How will CAS respond if temperature increases by 5 degrees C when flying at a constant indicated mach
number at FL290?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains approximately constant.
d. Depends on conditions relative to ISA.
MACH 37.

What happens to TAT when an aircraft descends at constant indicated mach number ?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remain constant.
d. Remains constant then increases.

MACH 38.

What is actually measured by a mach meter?

a. Pitot pressure.
b. The ratio of (pitot pressure – static pressure) : static pressure.
c. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure.
d. The ratio of (static pressure + pitot pressure) : pitot pressure.

MACH 39.

When descending at constant CAS, and TAT and mach meter indications should?

a. Increase. Increase.
b. Increase. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant decrease.
d. Remain constant remain constant.

MACH 40.

Mach meter indications are derived from ?

a. (PT – PS)/PT.
b. (PS – PT)/PS.
c. (PT – PS)/PS.
d. (PS – PT)/PT.

MACH 41.

If temperature increases by 5 degree C during a constant mach number descent.

What will happen to CAS?

a. Increase by 5 Kts.
b. Increase by 10 Kts.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on whether conditions are above or below ISA.

MACH 42.

A mach meter compares?

a. (PT – PS) to PT.

b. (PS – PT) to PS.
c. (PT – PS) to PS.
d. (PS – PT) to PT.

MACH 43.

What does mach number represent ?

 a. The CAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.
b. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.
c. The TAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.
d. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.

MACH 44.

What is the local speed of sound at sea level if the ambient temperature is 20° C?

a. 661 Kts.
b. 666 Kt.s
c. 677 Kts.
d. 680 Kts.

MACH 45.

If ambient temperature increases by 10 degrees, for an aircraft flying at constant TAS, the indicated mach
number will ……. And the true mach number will ……?

a. Increase increase
b. Decrease decrease.
c. Not change increase.
d. Not change decrease.

MACH 46.

When climbing at constant mach number below the tropopause in the ISA, the CAS will?

a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.

MACH 47.

When descending at constant CAS, if temperature remains constant the indicated mach number will?

a. Remain constant.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Increase exponentially.

MACH 48.

What should the mach meter indicate when flying at 500 kts TAS at FL250, if the ambient temperature is - 30°
C?

a. 0.52M.
b. 0.62M.
c. 0.72M.
d. 0.82M.

GYRO
GYRO 1.

The spin axis of a turn indicator gyroscope is parallel to :

a. Yaw axis.
b. Longitudinal axis.
c. Pitch axis.
d. Roll axis.

GYRO 2.

Concerning the directional gyro, the apparent drift rate due to the Earth’s rotation is a function of :
a. Longitude.
b. Latitude and longitude.
c. Magnetic longitude.
d. Latitude.

GYRO 3.

The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass?

a. Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

b. On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
c. Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
d. On the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

GYRO 4.

A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator?

a. Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.

b. Contains its own separate gyro.
c. Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro is the alternator fails.
d. Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation.

GYRO 5.

The basis properties of a gyroscope are ?

1. The gyro’s weight.

2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession.

The combination of correct statements is ?

a. 3, 4.
b. 2, 5.
c. 2, 3, 5.
d. 1, 3, 5.
GYRO 6.

The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are valid only for a short period of
time. The causes of this inaccuracy are ?

a. The earth’s rotation.

b. The longitudinal acceleration.
c. The aircraft’s motion over the surface of the earth.
d. The mechanical defects of the gyro.
e. The gyro’s weight.
f. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings.

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 1, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
c. 2, 5, 6.
d. 1, 3, 4, 6.

GYRO 7.

The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilized compass system are ?

a. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained
in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained
in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this
direction by an erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic
erecting system.

GYRO 8.

A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on?

a. An artificial horizon.
b. A directional gyro unit.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A gyro-magnetic indicator.

GYRO 9.

When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
GYRO 10.

When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank too high.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. Too much nose – up and bank correct.

GYRO 11.

Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it
comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a
gyroscope with ?

a. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by an
automatic erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in
a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic
erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the location
is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.

GYRO 12.

A slaved directional gyro derives it’s directional signal from?

a. A direct reading magnetic compass.

b. The flight director.
c. The flux valve.
d. The air-data-computer.

GYRO 13.

A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with?

a. 1 degree of freedom.
b. 3 degrees of freedom.
c. 2 degrees of freedom.
d. 0 degree of freedom.

GYRO 14.

The diagram below shows three gyro assemblies : A, B and C. among these gyros,

One is a roll gyro (noted 1).

One is a pitch gyro (noted 2).
One is a yaw gyro (noted 3).
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is?

a. 1C, 2A, 3B.

b. 1B, 2A, 3C.
c. 1A, 2B, 3C.
d. 1B, 2C, 3A.

GYRO 15.

The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to :

1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.

Chose the combination with true statements only?

a. 2, 3, 5.
b. 1, 2, 3, 5.
c. 3, 4, 5.
d. 1, 2, 4, 5.

GYRO 16.

At a low bank angle, he measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the?

a. Angular velocity of the aircraft.

b. Yaw rate of the aircraft.
c. Pitch rate of the aircraft.
d. Roll rate of the aircraft.

GYRO 17.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is?

a. An artificial horizon.
b. A turn indicator.
c. A fluxgate compass.
d. A directional gyro.

GYRO 18.

When, in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is ?

a. Turning left with two much bank.

b. Turning right with not enough bank.
c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.

GYRO 19.
When, in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is ?

a. Turning left with too much bank.

b. Turning right with not enough bank.
c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.

GYRO 20.

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft i?

a. Turning left with too much bank.

b. Turning left with not enough bank.
c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning right with not enough bank.

GYRO 21.

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is ?

a. Turning right with too much bank.

b. Turning right with not enough bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.

GYRO 22.

On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates?

a. Needle to the left, ball to the left.

b. Needle in the middle, ball to the right.
c. Needle in the middle, ball to the left.
d. Needle to the left, ball to the right.

GYRO 23.

The rate-of-turn is the?

a. Pitch rate in a turn.

b. Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft.
c. Yaw rate in a turn aircraft.
d. Speed in a turn.

GYRO 24.

In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists for?

a. High bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.

b. High bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.
 c. Low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.
d. Low bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.

GYRO 25.

In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is ?

a. Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.
b. Independent to the aircraft true airspeed.
c. Proportional to the aircraft weight.
d. Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.

GYRO 26.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is?

a. A directional gyro.
b. An artificial horizon.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A flux gate compass.

GYRO 27.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a?

a. Fluxgate compass.
b. Directional gyro.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Gyro-magnetic compass.

GYRO 28.

The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?

a. 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

b. 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
d. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.

GYRO 29.

When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
d. Attitude and bank correct.

GYRO 30.
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates?
 a. Needle in the middle, ball to left.
b. Needle to the right, ball to left.
c. Needle to the right, ball to right.
d. Needle in the middle, ball to right.

GYRO 31.

The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
a. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
b. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
d. 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.

GYRO 32.

Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates?

a. Too high pitch-up and too low banking.

b. Too high pitch-up and correct banking.
c. Attitude and banking correct.
d. Too high pitch up and too high banking.

GYRO 33.

The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor?

a. Causes the directional gyro unit to precess.

b. Causes the heading indicator to precess.
c. Feeds the error defector system.
d. Is fed by the flux valve.

GYRO 34.

The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is sent to the ?

a. Error detector.
b. Erector system.
c. Heading indicator.
d. Amplifier.

GYRO 35.

The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device originates from the?

a. Directional gyro erection device.

b. Error defector.
c. Flux valve.
d. Directional gyro unit.

GYRO 36.
A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in?
 1. An inertial attitude unit.
2. An automatic pilot.
3. A stabilizing servo system.
4. An inertial navigation system.
5. A rate-of-turn indicator.

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 1, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3, 4.

GYRO 37.

Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable
gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates?

1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis.

2. The bank of the aircraft.
3. The direction of the aircraft turn.
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical.

The combination of correct statements is ?

a. 3, 4.
b. 2, 4.
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2.

GYRO 38.

The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of?

a. A bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft.

b. An apparent weight and an apparent vertical.
c. Too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring.
d. The aircraft’s track over the earth.

GYRO 39.

The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds?

a. A torque motor on the sensitive axis.

b. 2 torque motors arranged horizontally.
c. A levelling erection torque motor.
d. A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.

GYRO 40.

The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour?
 a. In the latitude 30°.
b. In the latitude 45°.
c. On the equator.
d. On the North pole.

GYRO 41.

Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro?

a. Consumes a lot of power.

b. Has a longer life cycle.
c. Is influenced by temperature.
d. Has a fairly long starting cycle.

GYRO 42.

The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 1.

GYRO 43.

A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon:

1. Bank angle.
2. Aeroplane speed.
3. Aeroplane weight.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a. 1, 2, and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 2 and 3.

GYRO 44.

During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the
horizon bar indicating a?

a. Nose-down attitude.
b. Constant attitude.
c. Nose -down followed by a nose-up attitude.
d. Nose-up attitude.

GYRO 45.

Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at?

 a. 2 degrees – of – freedom in the vertical axis.
b. 1 degree – of – freedom in the horizontal axis.
c. 1 degree – of – freedom in the vertical axis.
d. 2 degrees – of – freedom in the horizontal axis.

GYRO 46.

Among the systematic errors of he “directional gyro”, the error due to the earth rotation make the north
reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45° N, this reference turns by?

a. 15°/hour to the right.

b. 7.5°/hour to the right.
c. 7.5°/hour to the left.
d. 10.5°/hour to the right.

GYRO 47.

The diagram which shows a 45° left bank and 5° nose down attitude is?

a. 2.
b. 1.
c. 3.
d. 4.

GYRO 48.

The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of
the aircraft. This error?

a. Is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track.

b. Shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15°
per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere.
c. Is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average latitude of the flight.
d. Is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected.

GYRO 49.

A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on?

a. Artificial horizon.
b. A directional gyro.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A gyro-magnetic compass.

GYRO 50.

The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is?

a. 180°/hour.
b. 5°/hour.
 c. 15°/hour.
d. 90°/hour.

ATTITUDE
ATTITUDE 1.

How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?

a. Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.

b. Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
c. Aircraft horizontal axis one degrees of freedom.
d. Aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.

ATTITUDE 2.

What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a. Climb due to pendulous vanes.

b. No climb.
c. Descent due to pendulous vanes.
d. Correct pitch and bank at all times.

ATTITUDE 3.

What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant attitude and bank
angle?

a. Correct bank angle and attitude.

b. Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
c. Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
d. Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.

ATTITUDE 4.

An AI has?

a. One degree of freedom and a lateral spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d. One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

ATTITUDE 5.

How will a basic AI respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank angle and ROT?

a. Nose up and bank.

b. Nose down and bank.
c. Nose level and bank.
d. Correct bank and pitch.

ATTITUDE 6.

Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

a. EICAS/ECAM primary display.

b. EFIS ND.
c. EFIS PFD.
d. All of the above.
ATTITUDE 7.

When turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate?

a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.

b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

ATTITUDE 8.

When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate?

a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.

b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

ATTITUDE 9.

An artificial horizon has?

a. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
d. No degrees of freedom because it is earth tied.

ATTITUDE 10.

The latitude nut ……… an artificial horizon?

a. Compensates for transport error.

b. Is not fitted to.
c. Compensates for latitude error.
d. Compensates for earth rate errors.

ATTITUDE 11.

The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

a. Prevent tilting of the gyro.

b. Prevent precession of the gyro.
c. Erect the gyro.
d. Provide signals to the autopilot.

ATTITUDE 12.

Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180° at constant AOB?

a. Nose up and AOB too low.

b. Nose up and AOB too high.
c. Nose up and correct AOB.
d. Pitch attitude and AOB correct.

ATTITUDE 13.

An artificial horizon has ….. degrees of freedom in the ……… axis?

 a. Two vertical.
b. Two horizontal.
c. One vertical.
d. One horizontal.

ATTITUDE 14.

Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?

1. Independent power supply.

2. Integral gyro.
3. Remote (external) gyro.
4. Used only in emergencies.
5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.

ATTITUDE 15.

If an aircraft turns through 270° at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indications on its classic artificial
horizon will be?

a. Bank left nose up.

b. Ban right nose up.
c. Wings level nose up.
d. AOB and pitch attitude correct.
TURN/SLIP
TURN/SLIP 1.

The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is …… by ……… and ………….. Indicate/s the state of slip?

a. Held central Gravity Does not always.

b. Positioned Acceleration Does not always.
c. Held central Gravity Always.
d. Positioned Acceleration Always.

TURN/SLIP 2.

The turn indicator is affected by?

1. AOB.
2. Airspeed.
3. Weight.
4. Altitude.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.

TURN/SLIP 3.

A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show?

1. Turn direction.
 2. Rate of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.
5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 2, 3, 5.

TURN/SLIP 4.

ROT indications are?

a. Proportional to TAS.
b. Proportional to CAS.
c. Proportional to mass.
d. Proportional to EAS.

TURN/SLIP 5.

A turn indicator has?

1. A horizontal spin axis.

2. A vertical spin axis.
3. One degree of freedom.
4. Two degrees of freedom.
5. A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft.
6. A gravity erecting unit.

a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 5.
c. 3, 5.
d. 4, 6.

TURN/SLIP 6.

When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with insufficient bank.

b. Turning right with too much bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with insufficient bank.

TURN/SLIP 7.

When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is?

Turning right with too much TAS.

a. Turning right with insufficient TAS.

b. Turning left with too much TAS.
c. Turning left with insufficient TAS.

TURN/SLIP 8.

When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip indicator, the aircraft is?

a. Turning right with insufficient bank.

b. Turning left with too much bank.
 c. Turning left with insufficient TAS.
d. Turning right with too much bank.

TURN/SLIP 9.

The turn needle indicates ….. in a slightly banked turn?

a. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.

b. Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
c. Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
d. Yaw displacement.

TURN/SLIP 10.

A rate 1 turn at 120 kts requires?

a. 10° AOB.
b. 20° AOB.
c. 30° AOB.
d. 40° AOB.

TURN/SLIP 11.

The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?

a. Needle and ball right.

b. Needle and ball left.
c. Needle right and ball left.
d. Needle left and ball right.

TURN/SLIP 12.

ROT indications depend on?

1. Airspeed.
2. Mass.
3. AOB.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2, 3.

TURN/SLIP 13.

For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?

a. 22°.
b. 33°.
c. 44°.
d. 55°.

TURN/SLIP 14.

Following a let engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the yaw, whilst side
slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this
condition.

a. Both needle and ball central.

b. Both needle and ball right.
 c. Both needle and ball left.
d. Needle left and ball right.

TURN/SLIP 15.

Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to oppose yaw and keep the
aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip.
What will the turn and slip indicator show?

a. Both needle and ball central.

b. Both needle and ball right.
c. Both needle and ball left.
d. Needle central and ball right.

TURN/SLIP 16.

What will be the immediate turn and slip indications when a left engine fails in climbing flight.

a. Needle and ball left.

b. Needle and ball right.
c. Needle left and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.

TURN/SLIP 17.

What does it indicate if both the needle and ball in a turn and slip indicator move out to the right?

a. Turning right with too much bank.

b. Turning right with too little bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
d. Turning left with too little bank.

TURN/SLIP 18.

When turning at constant bank angle the rate of turn is?

a. Determined by weight and TAS.

b. Determined by weight.
c. Determined by TAS.
d. Determined only by AofA.

TURN/SLIP 19.

A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator can show?

1. TAS in a turn.
2. Direction of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the vertical axis of the aircraft.
4. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2, 3.
d. 3, 4.

TURN/SLIP 20.

What factors affect the turn indicator?

1. AofA.
 2. AOB.
3. TAS.
4. Weight.

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2, 3.
d. 3, 4.

TURN/SLIP 21.

What are the essential properties of a turn indicator?

1. Two degrees of freedom.

2. One degree of freedom.
3. Horizontal spin axis.
4. Vertical spin axis.
5. Longitudinal spin axis.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 2, 5.

TURN/SLIP 22.

What angle of bank would give a rate 1 turn at 120 Kts?

a. 10 degrees.
b. 14 degrees.
c. 18 degrees.
d. 22 degrees.

TURN/SLIP 23.

What does it indicate when the turn needle is out to the left and the ball out to the right?

a. Right turn with too much bank.

b. Right turn with too little bank.
c. Left turn with too much bank.
d. Left turn with too little bank.

TURN/SLIP 24

What should a turn and slip indicator show in a right turn on the ground?

a. Needle left and ball left.

b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball left.
d. Needle right and ball right.

TURN/SLIP 25.

What will the turn needle indicate in a slightly banked turn?

a. Yaw rate.
b. Roll rate.
c. Pitch rate.
d. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
TURN/SLIP 26.

What corrective action is required if the ball is out to the right in a left turn?

a. More right ruder.

b. More left rudder.
c. More right bank.
d. More left bank.

TURN/SLIP 27.

If both the ball and needle are out to the left in a turn, the ball can be centralized by?

a. Pushing the right rudder bar forward.

b. Increasing left bank.
c. Decreasing TAS.
d. Increasing TAS.

TURN/SLIP 28.

How should the turn and slip indicator respond in a right turn when taxiing?

a. Needle left and ball left.

b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.

TURN/SLIP 29.

For a coordinates rate 1 right turn at 250 Kts TAS, the correct AOB is approximately?

a. 32 degrees.
b. 23 degrees.
c. 16 degrees.
d. 25 degrees.

TURN/SLIP 30.

For a coordinated 300 Kts TAS rate 1 right turn the AOB should be?

a. 17 degrees.
b. 27 degrees.
c. 37 degrees.
d. 47 degrees.

TURN/SLIP 31.

For a coordinated rate 1 left turn at an AOB of 27 degrees, the TAS should be?

a. 200 Kts.
b. 250 Kts.
c. 270 Kts.
d. 300 Kts.

TURN/SLIP 32.

The gyro in a turn indicator must have …….. gimbal and ……. Degrees of freedom?
 a. One one.
b. Two one.
c. Two two.
d. Three two.

TURN/SLIP 33.

If the turn indicator needle is out to the right and the ball is out to the left, it indicates?

a. A left turn with too much bank.

b. A left turn with too little bank.
c. A right turn with too much bank.
d. A right turn with too little bank.

TURN/SLIP 34.

What angle of bank is required to conduct a balanced rate 1 turn in an aircraft at 125 Kts TAS at a mass of
55000 Kg?

a. 15.5 degrees.
b. 17.5 degrees.
c. 19.5 degrees.
d. 21.5 degrees.

TURN/SLIP 35.

If the mass of the aircraft in question 34 above, was decreased to 45000 Kg?

a. It would increase the required AOB.

b. It would decrease the required AOB.
c. It would not affect the required AOB, but less power would be required.
d. It would not affect the required AOB but more power would be required.

TURN/SLIP 36.

The correct indications when taxiing to the left are?

a. Needle right, ball right.

b. Needle right, ball centre.
c. Needle left, ball left.
d. Needle left, ball right.

TURN/SLIP 37.

If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball left in a banked turn, the aircraft is ………… and the
required corrective action is ……………?

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

TURN/SLIP 38.

If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball right in a banked turn, the aircraft is …….. and the
required corrective action is ……..?

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
 c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

TURN/SLIP 39.

If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball right in a banked turn, the aircraft is ……… and the
required corrective action is ………….?

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.

TURN/SLIP 40.

If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball left in a banked turn, the aircraft is …….. and the
required corrective action is …………?

a. Skidding push left pedal forward.

b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.
RADIO ALTIMETERS
RADIO ALTIMETERS 1.

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an indication of the true?

a. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b. Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
c. Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
d. Altitude of the aircraft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 2.

For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?

a. Height indication is removed.

b. DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
c. DH lamp flashes red.
d. Audio warning signal sounds.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 3.

A radio altimeter can be defined as a ?

a. Ground radio aid used to measure the rue height of the aircraft.
b. Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
d. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 4.

The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

a. Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

b. Concerns only the decision height.
c. Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
d. Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 5.

The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches :

a. Operate in the 1540 – 1660 MHz range.

b. Are of the pulsed type.
c. Are of the frequency modulation type.
d. Have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
e. Have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.

The combination of the correct statements is?

a. 3, 5.
b. 3, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 5.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 6.

In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it
is necessary to ?

a. Change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
b. Compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length.
c. Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading.
d. Place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 7.

The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is ?

a. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.

b. 5 GHz.
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
d. 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 8.

Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?

a. HF (High Frequency).
b. UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
c. SHF (Super High Frequency).
d. VLF (Very Low Frequency).

RADIO ALTIMETERS 9.

The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?

a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

b. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d. Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 10.

In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon?

a. A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and
received waves after ground reflection is measured.
 b. A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the
received wave after ground reflection is measured.
c. A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular
scanning screen.
d. A wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is
measured.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 11.

The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the?

a. Weather radar.
b. Primary radar.
c. Radio altimeter.
d. High altitude radio altimeter.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 12.

A radio altimeter is?

a. Aircraft based and indicates true altitude.

b. Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude.
c. Aircraft based and indicates true height.
d. Ground based and employ microwaves.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 13.

Radio altimeters are based on the principle of ?

a. Frequency modulated carrier wave.

b. Pulse modulated carrier wave.
c. Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
d. Continuous wave.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 14.

For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?

a. Height of the aircraft above the ground.

b. Height of the flight deck above the ground.
c. Height of the main wheel above the ground.
d. Altitude.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 15.

Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the ……… wavelength?

a. Metric.
b. Decametric.
c. Centimetric.
d. Millimetric.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 16.

Low altitude altimeters uses the ……… waveband?

a. HF.
b. VHF.
c. UHF.
d. SHF.
RADIO ALTIMETERS 17.

If there is a fault in the system the radalt display will?

a. Needle will disappear and an alarm flag will appear, possibly accompanied by an audio warning.
b. Freeze.
c. Turn red and activate an aural warning.
d. Turn red and activate visual and aural warnings.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 18.

A radio altimeter measures?

a. True Altimate.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Height above the ground or water over which the aircraft is flying.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 19.

A radalt is?

a. Ground based nad measures true altitude.

b. Ground based and measures true height.
c. Aircraft based and measures true altitude.
d. Aircraft based and measures true height.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 20.

A RADALT provides?

a. Radio altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Height above terrain.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 21.

The failure of the radio altimeter would cause?

a. Loss of pressure altitude data.

b. Loss of density altitude data.
c. Loss of altitude data.
d. Loss of height data.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 22.

A radio altimeter has a maximum effective height because ?

a. At greater heights the signal will be too weak.

b. At greater heights the signal will be undetectable.
c. At greater heights the signal will be absorbed by moisture in the air.
d. At greater heights signal from different modulation cycles will overlap.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 23.

Radio altimeters works on the principal of?

a. Frequency modulation.
b. Amplitude modulation.
c. Pulse modulation.
d. Pulse and amplitude modulation.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 24.

A RADALT employs ….. waveband?

a. HF.
b. VHF.
c. UHF.
d. SHF.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 25.

Radio altimeters employ?

a. FM.
b. AM.
c. Pulsed FM.
d. Pulse modulation.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 26.

A radio altimeter will indicate zero when the aircraft is on the ground because of?

1. Frequency modulation of the transmitted signal.

2. Allowance for the signal path through the aircraft.
3. Allowance for the height of the aerials above the main wheels.
4. Beam width compensation.
5. Reduction in gain rate vey close to the surface.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 27.

Audio altimeters are accurate only within the height range?

a. Zero to 50 ft.
b. Zero to 500 ft.
c. 50 ft to 2700 ft.
d. Zero ft to 2500 ft.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 28.

The frequency range used by a low altitude radio altimeter is?

a. 5 GHz.
b. 115 GHz to 750 GHz.
c. 1200 MHz to 1500 MHz.
d. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

RADIO ALTIMETERS 29.

A RADALT system is?

a. Ground based and measures true altitude.

b. Ground based and measures true height.
c. Aircraft based and measures true altitude.
d. Aircraft based and measures true height.

INS/IRS
INS/IRS 1.

An inertial reference and navigation system is a “strapdown” system when:

a. Gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilized platform.

b. The gyroscopes and the accelerometers are part of the unit’s fixture to the aircraft structure.
c. Only the gyros and not the accelerometers are part of the unit’s fixture to the aircraft structure.
d. The gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference.

INS/IRS 2.

The principle of the Schuler pendulum is used in the design of a :

a. Directional gyro control system.

b. Stabilized platform inertial system.
c. Strapdown inertial system.
d. Artificial horizon control system.

INS/IRS 3.

The operating The principle of an inertial system consists of:

a. Measuring the acceleration, speed and position of the aircraft.

b. Measuring earth rotation and performing integrations to elaborate the ground speed and position.
c. Measuring the accelerations of the aircraft and performing integrations to elaborate the ground speed
and position.
d. Measuring the position of the aircraft and performing integrations to elaborate the ground speed and
acceleration.

INS/IRS 4.

In an inertial navigation system, to know the distance travelled:

a. Integrating once the speed in time is sufficient.

b. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial speed only.
c. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial speed and initial position.

INS/IRS 5.

To know the instantaneous speed from the accelerations:

a. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial speed only.
b. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time is sufficient.
c. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial speed and the initial
position.

INS/IRS 6.
To know the instantaneous position from the accelerations :

a. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial speed and the initial
position.
b. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time is sufficient.
c. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial speed only.

INS/IRS 7.

The position error of a stand-alone inertial system, is approximately:

a. 0.01 to 0.2 nm per hour.

b. 0.5 to 2 nm per hour.
c. 8 to 10 nm per hour.
d. 6 to 8 nm per hour.

INS/IRS 8.

The output data of an IRS include :

1. Attitude.
2. Altitude.
3. Present position (lat, long).
4. Static air temperature.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3.

INS/IRS 9.

if the acceleration of an aircraft is zero, its velocity:

a. Will increase.
b. Will decrease.
c. Is always zero.
d. Is constant.

INS/IRS 10.

The alignment of an inertial system can be successfully performed :

a. When the aircraft is stationary.

b. In all phases of flight outside areas of turbulence.
c. In all phases of flight.
d. When the aircraft is taxiing.

INS/IRS 11.

The time for a normal alignment (not a quick alignment) of an inertial system is:

a. 1 to 2 minutes.
b. 3 to 10 minutes.
c. 15 to 20 minutes.
d. Less than 1 minute.
INS/IRS 12.

The output data of an IRS include :

1. Present position.
2. Total pressure.
3. Static temperature.
4. True heading.

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1, 3.

INS/IRS 13.

In an inertial navigation system, the integration process makes a :

a. Time multiplication.
b. Time division.
c. Distance multiplication.
d. Distance division.

INS/IRS 14.

The output data of an IRS include :

1. Satellites status.
2. Altitude.
3. Drift angle.
4. Present position (lat/long).

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 2, 4.
b. 3, ,4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 4.

INS/IRS 15.

Considering a stabilized platform system :

1. The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on the same platform.
2. The rate gyros and accelerometers are mounted on separate platforms.
3. The principle of operation requires at least 2 rate gyros.
4. The principle of operation requires at least 2 accelerometers.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 2, 4.

INS/IRS 16.

In inertial navigation systems, the integration process :

 1. Amounts to making a time decision.
2. Amounts o making a time multiplication.
3. Enable to get accelerations from position.
4. Enable to get position from accelerations.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 2, 4.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1, 3.

INS/IRS 17.

The output data from an IRS include :

1. Angle of attack.
2. Altitude.
3. Ground speed.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 3
b. 2
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2.

INS/IRS 18.

The output data from an IRS include :

1. Number of satellites tracked.

2. Mach number.
3. Ground speed.
4. True track.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 4.
b. 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3.

INS/IRS 19.

To obtain instantaneous speed from the accelerometers, it is necessary to :

1. Integrate once the acceleration in time.

2. Know the initial position.
3. Know the initial speed.

The combination that regroups all of the corrects statements is :

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1.
INS/IRS 20.

In an inertial navigation system, the principle used to obtain position is :

1. Single integration of acceleration according to time.

2. Double integration of acceleration according to time.
3. Single integration of speed according to time.
4. Doble integration of speed according to time.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1
b. 2 or 3.
c. 3
d. 1 or 4.

INS/IRS 21.

To obtain instantaneous position from the accelerometers, it is necessary to :

1. Integrate twice the acceleration in time.

2. Know the initial position.
3. Know the initial speed.

The combination that regroups all of the corrects statements is :

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1
c. 1, 2.
d. 1, 3.

INS/IRS 22.

Considering a strapdown inertial system, the operating principle requires at least :

a. 3 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.

b. 2 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers.
c. 2 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.
d. 3 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers.

INS/IRS 23.

Compared with a stabilized platform inertial system, a strapdown inertial system ;

1. Has a longer alignment phase in time.

2. Has a shorter alignment phase in time.
3. Is more reliable in time.
4. Is less reliable in time.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 2, 4.

INS/IRS 24.

A strapdown inertial system consists of :

 a. Gyroscopes attached to the aircraft chassis and accelerometers, which are not.
b. Accelerometers attached to the aircraft chassis and gyroscopes, which are not.
c. A platform attached to the aircraft chassis and which includes gyroscopes and accelerometers.
d. A platform free of the aircraft chassis and which includes gyroscopes and accelerometers.

INS/IRS 25.

In an inertial navigation system, integrating once the speed gives :

a. A distance travelled
b. A position.
c. An instantaneous acceleration.
d. An average acceleration.

INS/IRS 27.

The alignment phase of a gyro-stabilised platform consists of :

a. Levelling the platform and determining its orientation.

b. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft axis (pitch, yaw and roll).
c. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft pitch axis only.
d. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft roll axis only.

INS/IRS 28.

If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative and the control switch is set to ATT, the output data of the
INS are ;

a. Attitude and ground speed.

b. Attitude and heading.
c. Ground speed and heading.
d. Attitude, TAS and heading.

INS/IRS 29.

A ring laser gyro is :

a. A device that measures earth rate precession.

b. Used for stabilizing the inns platform.
c. A device that measures angular movement.
d. An optical accelerometer.

INS/IRS 30.

Considering a strapdown inertial system, the IRU (Inertial Reference Unit) measures :

a. Angular rates only.

b. Linear accelerations only.
c. Accelerations and angular rates.
d. Angular accelerations only.

INS/IRS 31.

The alignment time of a strapdown inertial system takes longer time when the aircraft is :

a. At a high latitude.
 b. Close to the equator.
c. At a high longitude.
d. At a location where magnetic variation is greater than 15 degrees.

INS/IRS 32.

An inertial Navigation System:

a. Can only operate when communicating with ground installations.

b. Can only operate when interfacing with the GPS equipment.
c. Can be operated as a stand-alone equipment without any interface with other navigation equipment.
d. Can only operate when interfacing with other navigation equipment.

INS/IRS 33.

On the INS control panel, the rotary knob can be selected to OFF, NAV or ATT positions.
The correct statements is

a. NAV is the normal setting. The ATT position is a back-up position in case of failure of the navigation
function.
b. NAV is the normal setting. The OFF position is a back-up position in case of failure of the navigation
function.
c. ATT is the normal system setting.
d. ATT is the normal system setting. The NAV position inhibits the attitude data.

INS/IRS 34.

The position data (la and long) computed by an IRS can be used by the :

a. TCAS.
b. ADC.
c. ILS receiver.
d. FMS.

INS/IRS 35.

In a stabilized platform inertial system, the accelerations are measured in a trihedron which is : (NB. “aircraft
trihedron” = pitch, roll and yaw axis.)

a. Free from the aircraft’s trihedron.

b. Fixed in absolute space.
c. Merged with the aircraft’s trihedron.
d. Merged with only two axes of the aircraft trihedron, the roll and pitch axes.

INS/IRS 36.

In an inertial navigation system, the principle used to obtain the change in speed is :

a. Double integration of acceleration according to time.

b. Single integration of position according to time.
c. Single integration of acceleration according to time.
d. Double integration of position according to time.

INS/IRS 37.

The characteristics of the earth which are used during alignment of an INS platform are :
 a. Earth rotation and gravity.
b. Longitude and gravity.
c. Earth magnetic field and earth rotation.
d. Earth rotation and longitude.

INS/IRS 38.

In a strapdown inertial system, the accelerations are measured in a trihedron which is fixed regarding:

a. Absolute space.
b. Earth’s trihedron (longitude and latitude).
c. Earth’s trihedron (X, Y, Z).
d. Aircraft’s trihedron (pitch, roll and yaw axis).

INS/IRS 39.

The output data of an IRS include :

1. Present position (lat and long).

2. TAS.
3. Attitude.
4. Ground speed.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 3, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3.

INS/IRS 40.

The accuracy of the altitude computed by a stand-alone inertial system:

a. Decreases exponentially with flight time.

b. Decreases proportionally with flight time.
c. Is bounded.
d. Is poor at the beginning of the flight.

INS/IRS 41.

Considering a stabilized platform inertial system, this platform :

1. Can be servo controlled in azimuth.

2. Is kept level during the alignment phase only.
3. Is always kept level.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 2.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 1, 3.

INS/IRS 42.

Comparing the radio navigation system and the inertial navigation system :
 1. The radio position is more accurate in DME range.
2. The radio position may be obtained whatever the position on the earth.
3. The inertial position may be obtained whatever the position on the earth.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2
d. 3

INS/IRS 43.

An inertial navigation system, to know the distance travelled, it is necessary to:

1. Integrate once the speed in time.

2. To know the initial position.
3. To know the initial speed.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2.

INS/IRS 44.

The position error of a stand-alone inertial system:

a. Is sinusoidal.
b. Remains constant.
c. Increases up to 2 nm due to the drift error of the gyroscopes then stabilizes.
d. Increases along the time.

INS/IRS 45.

If the navigation function of an INS becomes inoperative and the control rotary switch is set to ATT, the output
data of the INS are :

a. Position only.
b. Position and attitude.
c. Attitude and groundspeed.
d. Attitude and heading.

INS/IRS 46.

The alignment of a strapdown inertial system consists of :

a. Measuring the earth rotation and local gravitation to position the reference trihedron.
b. Positioning the gyroscopes and accelerometers relative to the fuselage axis.
c. Positioning the platform relative to the local vertical and true north.
d. Positioning the accelerometers.

INS/IRS 47.

The attitude data computed by an IRS can be used by the :

a. Autopilot system.
 b. TCAS.
c. GPWS.
d. Stall warning system.

INS/IRS 48.

If the position data (lat and long) is no longer computed by an IRS, the affected systems are :

a. FMS and TCAS.

b. TCAS.
c. ADC and TCAS.
d. FMS.

INS/IRS 49.

The output data from an IRS include :

1. Present position (long and lat).

2. Altitude.
3. Ground speed.
4. True heading.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :

a. 1, 3, 4.
b. 1, 4.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3.

INS/IRS 50.

The position error of a stand-alone inertial system is ;

a. Small and constant along the flight.

b. Small a few minutes after initialization and increases along the flight.
c. Large a few minutes after initialization and reduces along the flight.
d. Constant along the flight with accuracy depending on the accuracy of the accelerometers.

INS/IRS 51.

The sideslip indication displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display) is generated by the :

a. The yaw damper.

b. The automatic flight control system (AFCS).
c. The inertial system.
d. The stall protection system.

INS/IRS 52.

The energy required to operate a strapdown inertial system is supplied by :

a. A dedicated pneumatic system.

b. The bled air system.
c. The electrical system.
d. The hydraulic system.
INS/IRS 53.

The accelerometers of a strapdown inertial reference system are in line with :

a. The aircraft axes.

b. The geographical directions.
c. The local vertical and the local meridian.
d. The local meridian and parallel.
INS/IRS 54.

If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative, the back up mode if existing, used to operate the INS is :

a. The GS mode, which supplies ground speed and heading data.

b. The ATT mode, which allows to maintain pitch attitude only.
c. The OFF mode, which turns off the navigation mode but recovers the heading mode.
d. The ATT mode, which supplies attitude and heading data.

INS/IRS 55.

The navigation precision of a stand-alone inertial system decreases along the flight due to :

a. The acceleration of the aircraft.

b. The motion of the aircraft.
c. The drift of the gyroscopes.
d. The meteorological conditions.

INS/IRS 56.

When the rotary knob on the INS control panel is set to “NAV” mode, it is :

a. The navigation mode allowing all of the functions of the system except heading.
b. The navigation mode allowing all of the functions of the system except attitude.
c. The normal operating mode allowing all of the functions of the system.
d. The alignment function in flight.

INS/IRS 57.

Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:

a. Has a longer life cycle.

b. Consumes more power.
c. Is influenced by temperature.
d. Is more cumbersome.

INS/IRS 58.

The alignment of a gyro stabilized inertial platform consists of positioning the platform relative to ;

a. The local vertical and true north.

b. The pitch axis only.
c. The pitch and roll axes.
d. The roll axis only.

INS/IRS 59.

The drift of the gyroscope of a stand-alone inertial system:

a. Is not a source of error.

b. Induces a bounded error.
c. Induces a position error that decreases along the flight.
 d. Is the main source of error.

INS/IRS 60.

What is the Schuler period?

a. 48 minutes.
b. 84 seconds.
c. 48 seconds.
d. 84 minutes.

INS/IRS 61.

To obtain heading information from a gyro-stabilised platform, the gyros should be ?

a. 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis.

b. 1 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis.
c. 2 degree of freedom and a horizonal axis.
d. 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.

INS/IRS 62.

While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the
following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with the pendulous system?

a. With damping and a period of about 84 minutes.

b. With damping and a period of about 84 seconds.
c. Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
d. Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds.

INS/IRS 63.

Heading information given by a gyro platform is given by a gyro with?

a. 3 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.

b. 3 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
d. 1 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.

INS/IRS 64.

The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit?

a. Illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.

b. Flashes for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
c. Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on standby
battery.
d. Illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in.

INS/IRS 67.

At the second state of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone.
To convert this departure into change of longitude it has to ?

a. Be divided by the secant of latitude.

b. Be multiplied by the secant of latitude.
c. Be divided by the tangent of latitude.
d. Be multiplied by the Cosine of latitude.

INS/IRS 66.
An INS with the accelerometers aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use at latitudes below about 82°. This is
because ?

a. It loses horizontal reference as dip becomes large.

b. At high speed on East or West tracks the rate of convergency is faster than the azimuth motor can
correct.
c. The functions of secant latitude and tangent latitude used in certain corrections in the computer start to
approach infinity and the computer cannot handle the rapid changes involved.
d. The correction for the Coriolis effect of the earth rotation approaches infinity above 82° latitude.

INS/IRS 67.

The diagram below shows a gyro-stabilised platform. 1 is a ………… gyro gimbal and 2 is a …… gimbal?

a. Roll Pitch.
b. Pitch Roll.
c. Roll Yaw.
d. Pitch Roll.

INS/IRS 68.

The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?

a. 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

b. 1 degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d. 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

INS/IRS 69.

With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrator are ?

1. At the second stage integration to suppress unbounded errors (when in nav mode).
2. At the first stage of integration to convert accelerations with respect to time, into speed, (when in nav
mode).
3. At the second stage of integration to convert speed with respect to time, into distance gone, (when in
nav mode).
4. To align the platform (when in level and align modes).

a. All of the above statements are correct.

b. Only statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
c. Only statements 1, 2 and 3, are correct.
d. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

INS/IRS 70.

Ring laser gyros use dither motors to?

a. Reduce random wander.

b. Prevent unbounded errors.
c. Level and align the gyros.
d. Prevent lock in of the laser beams.

INS/IRS 71.

The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS system is?

a. Departure.
b. Speed along the local parallel.
 c. Speed along the local horizontal.
d. Distance.

INS/IRS 72.

Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?

a. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the sine lat.
At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.
b. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the sine lat.
At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true magnetic virtually
impossible.
c. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the cosine lat.
At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to magnetic north virtually
impossible.
d. The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the cosine lat.
At high latitudes this component is nearly zero ang makes alignment to true north virtually impossible.

INS/IRS 73.

A longitude error in an INS will cause :

a. A failure to align.
b. Poor alignment and degraded accuracy.
c. Will be corrected for once the E/W accelerometer has aligned to true north.
d. Will cause no problems at all.

INS/IRS 74.

When using an INS platform Coriolis affects?

a. The N/S accelerometer.

b. The E/W accelerometer.
c. Both a, and b.
d. Neither a, nor b.

INS/IRS 75.

The errors of an INS fall into three categories?

a. Bounded, unbounded and velocity.

b. Coriolis, unbounded and inherent.
c. Bounded, unbounded and inherent.
d. Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.

INS/IRS 76.

The fundamental difference between INS and IRS is that?

a. The INS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted at 90° to each other.
b. The IRS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted at 90° to each other.
c. The INS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted at 90° to each other.
d. The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted at 90° to each other.

INS/IRS 77.
The position accuracy of an RLG INS is?

a. 1 nm/hr.
b. 2 nm/hr.
c. 5 nm/hr.
d. 10 nm/hr.

INS/IRS 78.

The control and display unit of an inertial navigation system indicates a position of 4810.9°N 00012.2°W on a
ramp position 4807.5°N 00005.1°E. What is the radial error rate of the system if it has been in NAV mode for 8
hours 20 minutes?

a. 1.37 Km/hr.
b. 1.37 Nm/hr.
c. 11.42 Nm/hr.
d. 14.3 Nm/hr.

INS/IRS 79.

In an INS a TAS input is?

a. Not required.
b. Required for polar navigation.
c. Required for great circle navigation.
d. Required in order to provide a wind velocity read out.

INS/IRS 80.

In an INS which is Schuler tuned, the largest unbounded errors are?

a. Due to the output of the first stage integrators.

b. Due to the real wander of the platform gyroscopes.
c. Due to accelerometer errors.
d. Track errors due to initial platform misalignment.

INS/IRS 81.

During initialization of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until?

a. The ramp position has been inserted and checked.

b. The platform is levelled.
c. The gyros and the accelerometers are all in the NULL position.
d. The green READY NAV light is illuminated and the mode selector switch has been set to the NAV
position.

INS/IRS 82.

An INS in the ALIGN mode will?

a. Not accept an error on 10° latitude and 10° longitude of the inserted initial position.
b. Accept an error of 10° latitude and 10° of longitude of the inserted position.
c. Accept an error of 10° latitude but not an error of 10° longitude of the inserted initial position.
d. Accept an error of 10° longitude but not one of 10° of latitude in the inserted initial position.

INS/IRS 83.

An IRS with laser gyros should (i) ……….. be Schuler tuned, and (ii) ……… be strapped down?

a. (i) always (ii) always.

 b. (i) always (ii) never.
c. (i) never (ii) always.
d. (i) never (ii) never.

INS/IRS 84.

Laser gyros are used in an IRS. Why must accurate latitude and longitude be inserted?

a. To determine magnetic north.

b. To check the function of the laser gyros.
c. To determine the computed trihedron.
d. To compensate for aircraft movement.

INS/IRS 85.

The triangular cavity in a RLG is filled with which combination of gasses?

a. Helium and argon.

b. Hydrogen and neon.
c. Helium and neon.
d. Hydrogen and argon.

INS/IRS 86.

Alignment of a RLG INS takes?

a. Less than 10 minutes.

b. 10 to 15 minutes.
c. 15 to 20 minutes.
d. 84.4 minutes.

INS/IRS 87.

In an INS the gyros should ……….. be strap down. In an IRS the gyros should ….. be strapped down?

a. Always never.
b. Always always.
c. Never always.
d. Never never.

INS/IRS 88.

In order to align a strap-down inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is
necessary to?

a. Position the computing trihedron with reference to the earth.

b. Check operation of the laser gyros.
c. Determine magnetic or true heading.
d. Re-erect laser gyros.

INS/IRS 89.

When initial position is put into an INS system?

a. If rejects initial latitude or longitude errors.

b. It rejects initial longitude errors, but will accept latitude errors.
c. It rejects initial latitude errors, but accepts initial longitude errors.
d. It accepts both longitude and latitude errors.

INS/IRS 90.
IRS is different from INS in that it?

a. Its strapped down accelerometers are not rotated with the aircraft and hence do not suffer schuler
errors.
b. It requires no corrections for central accelerations or Coriolis effects.
c. It suffers laser lock but spins up faster.
d. It is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity, but it requires a longer spin-up time.

INS/IRS 91.

In an IRS system?

a. Both the platform and accelerometers are strapped down.

b. Both the platform and accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
c. The platform is gyro-stabilised but the accelerometers are strapped down.

INS/IRS 92.

The sequences for switching on INS is?

a. Off, Standby, Align, Nav.

b. Off, Align, Standby, Nav.
c. Off, On, Align, Standby.
d. Off, Align, On, Standby.

INS/IRS 93.

The correct latitude must be put into INS?

a. Because it cannot detect initial latitude.

b. Because it cannot detect latitude changes.
c. Because small latitude errors will not be detected but will cause unbounded errors during the
subsequent flight.
d. Large latitude errors will be undetected but cause large errors during the subsequent flight.

INS/IRS 94.

During initial alignment the IRS must be given coordinates to?

a. Establish true magnetic north.

b. Test the accuracy and serviceability of the laser ring gyros.
c. Establish the trihedron with reference to the earth.
d. Input initial heading information.

INS/IRS 95.

The schuler period is?

a. 12 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 84 minutes.
d. 98 minutes.

INS/IRS 96.

The selection on an IRS mode panel are used in the following order ?

a. OFF STBY ALIGN ATT NAV.

b. OFF ALIGN STBY NAV ATT.
 c. OFF ALIGN STBY ATT NAV.
d. OFF STBY ALIGN NAV ATT.

INS/IRS 97.

Where would a rate integrating gyro be used?

1. Turn and slip indicators.

2. Servo stabilizer mechanisms.
3. Autopilots.
4. Inertial attitude units.
5. Inertial navigation units.

a. 1 2, 3, 4.
b. 2, 4, ,5.
c. 3, 4, 5.
d. 4, 5.

INS/IRS 98.

The schuler period is?

a. 1 oscillation in azimuth.
b. 22 minutes.
c. 66 minutes.
d. 84 minutes.

INS/IRS 100.

Why is the inertial strapdown unit in an IRS programmed with coordinates during alignment?

a. To compensate for earth rotation errors.

b. To establish the trihedron with reference to the earth.
c. To functionally test the ring laser gyroscopes.
d. To establish magnetic north and true north.

CRP5
CRP5 1.

An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000 ft. The outside air temperature is -30°C. What is the true
altitude?

a. 16200 ft.
b. 15200 ft.
c. 18600 ft.
d. 13500 ft.

CRP5 2.

What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 15000 ft, OAT = -15°C, CAS = 145 Kts?

a. 133 Kts.
b. 148 Kts.
 c. 183 Kts.
d. 198 Kts.

CRP5 3.

What is the TAS when pressure altitude = 20000 ft, OAT = -20°C, CAS = 200 Kts?

a. 194 Kts.
b. 273 Kts.
c. 239 Kts.
d. 296 Kts.

CRP5 4.

Cruising at FL390, M0.84, is found to give a TAS of 499 Kts. The ISA deviation at this level is?

a. -17.
b. +17.
c. +19.
d. -19.

CRP5 5.

The velocity of the speed of sound at sea level in the standard atmosphere is?

a. 644 kts.
b. 1059 kts.
c. 661 kts.
d. 332 kts.

CRP5 6.

If outside air temperature at 35000 ft is -40°C, the local speed of sound is ?

a. 307 kts.
b. 247 kts.
c. 596 kts.
d. 686 kts.

CRP5 7.

An aircraft is flying at 310 Kts TAS at FL290, Temperature deviation is -6°. The local speed of sound is?

a. 570 kts.
b. 583 kts.
c. 596 kts.
d. 563 k ts.

CRP5 8.

An aircraft flying at FL310 is cruising at a CAS of 280 Kts. If the correct outside air temperature is -48°C, this
will give a mach number of?

a. 0.76.
b. 0.71.
c. 0.78.
d. 0.82.
CRP5 9.

The temperature at the airport is 23°C, what is the local speed of sound?

a. 615 Kts.
b. 644 Kts.
c. 671 Kts.
d. 694 Kts.

CRP5 10.

An aircraft is flying at 1100 Kts TAS at FL650. A change of 0.1M gives a change of 57 Kts TAS. The
temperature deviation at FL650 assuming an ISA atmosphere is?

a. -5.
b. +5.
c. -2.5.
d. +2.5.

CRP5 11.

An aircraft is flying at FL290 at 500 Kts TAS, 0.86M, the temperature deviation is?

a. -8.
b. +7.
c. -15.
d. +25.

CRP5 12.

An increase of 0.15 in mach number results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If temperature deviation from ISA is
+9°C, the FL is?

a. FL200.
b. FL220.
c. FL170.
d. FL90.

CRP5 13.

An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature is -56.5°C at mach 0.85. The TAS is?

a. 561 Kts.
b. 476 Kts.
c. 485 Kts.
d. 472 Kts.

CRP5 14.

An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. The local speed of sound is?

a. 560 Kts.
b. 685 Kts.
c. 620 Kts.
d. 580 Kts.
CRP5 15.

An increase of 0.15 mach results in an increase of 93 Kts TAS. If temperature deviation from ISA is +5°C, the
approximate flight level is ?

a. FL200.
b. FL150.
c. FL220.
d. FL250.
AIRSPEEDS
AIRSPEEDS 1.

An aeroplane is cruising at FL60 with TAS of 100 knots in standard atmosphere. In these conditions :

1. The TAS is approximately 10% higher than the IAS.

2. The difference between EAS and CAS is negligible.
3. The speed displayed on the airspeed indicator is a CAS if position error and instrument error are zero.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a. 11, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1, 3.

AIRSPEEDS 2.

Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in :

a. Lower TAS because air density decreases.

b. Higher TAS because air density decreases.
c. Higher TAS because air density increases.
d. Lower TAS because air density increases.

AIRSPEEDS 3.

The TAS is equal to the EAS only if

a. P = 1013.25 hPa and OAT = 15 degrees Celsius.

b. P = 1013.25 hPa, OAT = 15 degrees Celsius, and TAS>200 knots.
c. P = 1013.25 hPa, OAT = 15 degrees Celsius, and TAS < 20 knots.
d. P = 1013.25 hPa and OAT = 273 degrees Kelvin.

AIRSPEEDS 4.

The EAS is obtained from the CAS by correcting for :

a. Instrument error.
b. Compressibility error.
c. Density error.
d. Position error.

AIRSPEEDS 5.

When climbing at a constant CAS in standard atmosphere :

a. TAS decreases.
b. TAS remains constant.
c. TAS increases.
 d. TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.

AIRSPEEDS 6.

The compressibility error must be taken into account only for aeroplanes with :

a. Mach number equal to or greater than 1.

b. TAS greater than approximately 100 knots.
c. TAS greater than approximately 200 knots.
d. Mach number greater than 0.8.

AIRSPEEDS 7.

During a climb at a constant CAS below the tropopause in the standard atmosphere :

a. The mach number and the speed of sound decrease.

b. The mach number decreases and the speed of sound increases.
c. The mach number increases and the speed of sound decreases.
d. The mach number and the speed of sound increase.

AIRSPEEDS 8.

During a descent at constant CAS below the tropopause in standard atmosphere :

a. Mach number and TAS decrease.

b. Mach number and TAS increase.
c. Mach number decreases and TAS increases.
d. Mach number increases and TAS decreases.

AIRSPEEDS 9.

The CAS is obtained from the IAS by correcting for the following errors:

1. Position.
2. Compressibility.
3. Instrument.
4. Density.

a. 1, 3.
b. 3.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3, 4.

AIRSPEEDS 10.

Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the
captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time
of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited?

A. By the MMO.
B. By the VMO in still air.
C. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
D. Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.

AIRSPEEDS 11.

In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?

a. Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

b. Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
 c. Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
d. Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

AIRSPEEDS 12.

With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same?

a. Calibrated airspeed.
b. Ground speed.
c. True airspeed.
d. Equivalent airspeed.

AIRSPEEDS 13.

The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)?

a. A compressibility and density correction.

b. An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
c. An antenna and compressibility correction.
d. An instrument and density correction.

AIRSPEEDS 14.

The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in ?

a. True airspeed (TAS).

b. Computed airspeed (COAS).
c. Calibrated airspeed (CAS).
d. Equivalent airspeed (EAS).

AIRSPEEDS 15.

The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
b. VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
c. VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 16.

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
c. VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
d. VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 17.

The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are ?

a. VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
c. VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d. VNO for the lower limit and VNE for he upper limit.

AIRSPEEDS 18.

During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)?
 a. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c. The mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.

AIRSPEEDS 19.

VLE is the maximum ?

a. Speed authorized in flight.

b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
d. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.

AIRSPEEDS 20.

VLO is the maximum?

a. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
d. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 21.

VNE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

b. With flaps extended in landing position.
c. Which must never be exceeded.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 22.

VNO is the maximum speed?

a. Which must never be exceeded.

b. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
c. With flaps extended in landing position.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

AIRSPEEDS 23.

For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a?

a. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.

b. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.

AIRSPEEDS 24.

When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS) will?

a. Decrease.
 b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.

AIRSPEEDS 25

If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is - 40° C, the local speed of sound is ?

a. 686 kt.
b. 596 kt.
c. 247 kt.
d. 307 kt.

AIRSPEEDS 26.

When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed
(TAS) will?

a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.

AIRSPEEDS 27.

In a steady climb with the auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed.

If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number?

a. Decreases.
b. Remains constant.
c. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
d. Increases.

AIRSPEEDS 28.

The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue line
corresponds to the?

a. Maximum speed in operations, or VMO.

b. Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy.
c. Speed not to be exceeded, or VNE.
d. Minimum control speed, or VMC.

AIRSPEEDS 29.

The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer
indicates the ?

a. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box, versus temperature.

b. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box versus altitude.
c. Maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude.
d. Maximum speed in VMO operation. Versus temperature.

AIRSPEEDS 30.

VFE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flaps can be operated.

b. With the flaps extended in take-off position.
c. With the flaps extended in a given position.
 d. With the flaps extended in landing position.

AIRSPEEDS 31.

An airplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number.

If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?

a. Remains constant.
b. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above.
c. Increases.
d. Decreases.

AIRSPEEDS 32.

An aeroplane is in steady descent below the tropopause in the ISA. The auto-throttle maintains a constant
calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, he Mach number?

a. Increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.

AIRSPEEDS 33.

An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintain a constant Mach number. If the total temperature
remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?

a. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature increases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.

GPWS, TCAS
FLIGHT PLANNING
1. True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground
speed (GS)

a) WCA +2°, GS 396kt

b) WCA -2°, GS 426kt
c) WCA -2°, GS 396kt
2. On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach
Number (M). the flight conditions static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below :

FL370; M = 0.80; Ts = -60°C; HWC = -15kt

FL330; M = 0.78; Ts = -60°C; HWC = -5kt
FL290; M = 0.80; Ts = -55°C; HWC = -15kt
FL270; M = 0.76; Ts = -43°C’ HWC = 0kt

The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is :

a) FL270
b) FL330
c) FL290

The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:

i) FL270 ii) FL330 iii) FL290

3. You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions:

- Dry operating mass : 2800 kg

- Trip fuel: 300 kg
- Payload : 400 kg
- Maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg
- Maximum landing mass : 3700 kg

a) 800 kg
b) 1000 kg
c) 1800 kg

4. If the sustained Mach number/true airspeed at cruising level varies by plus or minus Mach ______ or more, or plus or
minus ______ true airspeed or more from the current flight plan, the appropriate air traffic services unit shall be so
informed.

a) 0.02, 19 kms
b) 0.01, 19 kts
c) 0.05, 10 kts

5. Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure routes the routes are given with:

a) Magnetic course
b) True headings
c) Magnetic headings
6. A flight plan is required to be filed by:

a) Any flight with in advisory airspace.

b) Only IFR flights within controlled airspace
c) Any IFR or VFR flight with in controlled airspace
7. A flight plan can be submitted:

a) 30 days before EOBT

b) 24 hrs before ETD
c) 120 hrs before EOBT
8. Letter W in ITEM 10 of flight plan indicates.

a) RVSM approved
b) Weather Radar on board
c) Route designator in India.
9. To indicate to ATC that you are evacuating a critically injured on board, following will be added in box 18 of flight
plan form
a) STS
b) PAN MED
c) MEDEVAC
10. When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account:

1. The wind
2. Foreseeable airborne delays
3. Other weather forecasts
4. Any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing

The combination of correct statement is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3,
c) 1, 3
11. In the ATS flight plan item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder – mode A (4
digits – 4096 codes) and mode C, is :

a) C
b) A
c) P
12. In the ATS flight plan item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the light should be indicated by:

a) Circling the relevant box

b) Crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
c) Listing the items carried on the “REMARKS” line
13. Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes “NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT”. In this case “NUMBER” means:

a) The ICAO type designator number as set in ICAO Doc 8643

b) The resignation number of the aircraft
c) The number of aircraft flying in a group

14. When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters
entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be:

a) Y
b) X
c) G

15. ON a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked “speed” the planned speed for the first part of the cruise
or for the entire cruise. This speed is:

a) The indicated airspeed

b) The true airspeed
c) The estimated ground speed

16. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:

a) 7000kg
b) 5700 kg
c) 10000 kg

17. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that
at which the aircraft intends to:

a) Start-up
b) Pass the departure beacon
c) Go off-blocks

18. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is
equipped with a mode A4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is:

a) A
b) C
c) S
19. If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:
a) ZZZZ
b) AAAA
c) XXXX

20. You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is n oted that you will deviate from the ATS
route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London.

The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The route according to the flight plan is accepted

b) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan
c) The filed deviation is not accepted
21. Runway direction 305 degrees Magnetic. Surface W/V 260/30. Calculate cross wind and head wind component in kts.

a) 18/20 b) 21/21 c) 24/26