Revision PCM (Week 2)
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apsj28092008MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
1. Following equilibria are established starting from reactants only in three separate containers and total
pressure set up in each at equilibrium are equal to 1 atm.
(I) CaCO3s CaO s CO2 g ; K p K1
(II) NH 4 HSs NH3 g H 2S g ; K p K 2
(III) NH 2CO 2 NH 4 s 2NH3 g CO2g ; K p K 3
Hence,
(A) K1 K 2 K3 (B) K3 K 2 K1 (C) K1 K 2 K3 (D) K1 K 2 K3
2. 100 ml of an aqueous solution consisting weak acid H2CO3 (0.1 M) is being titrated by 0.1 M NaOH
solution. pH of solution on adding 100 ml and 200 ml NaOH solution are respectively:
(pKa values of H2CO3 are 5 and 9 respectively.) (log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48 and log 7 = 0.84)
(A) 7 and 10.76 (B)5 and 9 (C) 7 and 9 (D) 5 and 10.76
3. The figure shows the change in concentrations of species A and B as a function of time. If n is an
integer then the equilibrium constant K c for the reaction: A g nB g is:
Concn (M)
0.4 [B]
0.3
0.2
0.1 [A]
Time (S)
(A) 1.6 (B) 16/30 (C) 1 (D) data insufficient
4. If solubility of AgCl in pure water is 10–5 M at a temperature then solubility of AgCl in 10–5 M NaCl
solution will be
(A) 10–5 M (B) 1.4 10–4 M (C) 0.6 10–5 M (D) 10–6 M
5. A weak acid HA after treatment with 12 ml of 0.1 M strong base BOH has pH = 5. At the end point,
the volume of same basic solution required is 26.6 ml. Ka of acid is :
[Given: log (1.2/1.46) = –0.085]
(A) 8.2 10–7 (B) 8.2 10–6 (C) 8.2 10–5 (D) 8.2 10–4
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6. 1840 mg mixture of CaCO3 and MgCO3 on strong heating gives 448 mL of CO2 at STP.
CaCO 3 CaO CO 2
MgCO3 MgO CO 2
The residue obtained is dissolved in water at 298 K to make one litre alkaline solution.
Identify the INCORRECT statement(s). (If required, take log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.477, log 5 = 0.7)
(A) The initial mixture contains 50% CaCO3 by mass.
(B) Mass of residue is 0.96 g.
(C) Mole fraction of MgO in residue is ½.
(D) Assuming complete ionization of bases in final solution, pH of solution is 12.6
SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C)and (D)are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A)and (D)will result in +2marks; and darkening (A)and
(B)will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. At a particular temperature, ionic product Kw for water is 6.25 10–14. The INCORRECT statement
about a solution with pH = 7 at this particular temperature is
(A) Solution is acidic in nature (B) [H+] = [OH–]
(C) Solution can be a basic buffer (D) Temperature < 25o C
8. Pb(IO3)2 is a sparingly soluble salt (Ksp = 2.7 10–13). To 35 ml 0.15 M Pb(NO3)2 solution, 15 ml of
0.8 M KIO3 solution is added and a precipitate of Pb(IO3)2 is formed. Identify the correct
statement(s).
(A) Pb(NO3)2 is a limiting reagent of the reaction that takes place in the solution.
(B) Molarity of IO3– ions in the solution after completion of the reaction is 0.125.
(C) Molarity of IO3– ions in the solution after completion of the reaction is 0.03.
(D) Molarity of Pb+2 ions in the solution after completion of the reaction is 3 x 10-10.
9. Solids CaCO3 and CaO and gaseous CO2 are placed in a vessel and allowed to reach equilibrium as
per the following reaction.
CaO s CO 2 g CaCO3 s H 180 kJ mol 1
The quantity of CaO in the vessel could be increased by
(A) adding more of solid CaCO3 (B) removing some of CO2
(C) increasing the temperature (D) increasing the volume of vessel
10. A solution contains of Cl-, Br- and I- each having concentration 0.01 M. AgNO3 is gradually added to
this solution. Which of the following is/are correct?
AgCl (Ksp = 10–10), AgBr (Ksp = 10–13), AgI (Ksp = 10–17)
(A) The compound which appears first as precipitate on gradual addition of AgNO3 is AgI.
(B Concentration of Cl– ions when AgBr starts precipitating is 0.01 M.
(C) Concentration of I– ions when AgBr starts precipitating is 10–11 M.
(D) Concentration of Br– ions when AgCl starts precipitating is 10–9 M.
11. Following equilibria are established in three different equal volume containers.
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Reaction I: X2(g) + YO2(g) X2O(g) + YO(g) ; Keq at 2000K = 4
Reaction II: 2X2O(g) 2X2(g) + O2(g) ; Keq at 2000K = 5 10–10
Reaction III: 2YO(g) + O2(g) 2YO2(g) ; Keq at 1000K = 2.5 1022
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) In reaction I, equilibrium amount of YO(g) can be increased by increasing the volume of
container at constant temperature.
(B) In reaction III, equilibrium amount of YO(g) can be increased by decreasing the pressure at
constant temperature.
(C) In reaction II, addition of Helium gas at constant volume and temperature increases the
equilibrium amount of O2(g).
(D) In reaction III, the forward reaction must be exothermic.
12. A solution is saturated with both MgF2 (Ksp = 9.5 10–9) and SrF2 (Ksp = 4 10–9). Identify the
correct statement(s).
(A) Concentration of F- ions in solution is double of the total concentration of Mg2+ and Sr2+ ions.
(B) The concentration of F- ions in solution is 1.5 10–3 M.
(C) The concentration of Mg2+ ions in solution is (9.5/9) 10–3 M.
(D) The concentration of Sr2+ ions in solution is (4/9) 10–3 M.
13. In which of the following reactions, Kp< Kc at 298K?
(A) CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g) (B) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g)
(C) 2BrCl(g) Br2(g) + Cl2(g) (D) I2(g) 2I(g)
14. The pKa values for the amino acid cysteine are 1.8, 8.3 and 10.8 (not necessarily in given order of
positions shown).
Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) pKa value for position 1 shown is 1.8 (B) pKa value for position 2 shown is 10.8
(C) pKa value for position 3 shown is 8.3 (D) pH of cysteine at isoelectric point is 5.05
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Degree of hydrolysis of salt of a weak acid (Ka = 2 10–7) and a weak base (Kb = 2 10–7) in
aqueous solution at 250C is 1/2.
(B) Value of ionic product of water increases with increase in temperature.
(C) Order of pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution: NaClO> NaClO2> NaClO3> NaClO4
(D) Solubility of Hg2Cl2 (Ksp = 4 10–18) in water is 10–6 M.
16. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?
(A) Low pressure is favourable for melting of ice.
(B) NH4Cl(g) dissociates as NH4Cl(g) NH3(g) + HCl(g); hence its vapour density becomes half
when it is 50% dissocited.
(C) Equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction always increases with increase in temperature.
(D) Mixing equal volumes of 2 10–5 M NaCl solution and 10–5 M AgNO3 results in precipitation
of AgCl. (Ksp for AgCl = 10–10)
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SECTION-III (PARAGRAPHTYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions relating to 2 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
There are three bottles labelled as (X), (Y) and (Z) containing aqueous solutions of strong monobasic
acid, strong monoacidic base and weak monobasic acid in random order.
A student performs various experiments at 250 C and following observations are made:
(i) When (X) and (Y) are completely mixed, the resulting solution becomes a buffer with pH = 4.7
(ii) When (Y) and (Z) are completely mixed, the resulting solution will have remaining strong acid
along with neutral salt.
(iii) When (X) and (Z) are completely mixed, the resulting solution is acidic with pH = 1.3
[Take log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.7, log 1.5 = 0.176]
17. What is the ionization constant (Ka) for the weak acid at 25oC?
(A) 2 10–5 (B) 1 10–5 (C) 2 10–6 (D) 5 10–5
18. What will be the pH of resulting solution when (Y) and (Z) are completely mixed at 25oC?
(A) 4.7 (B) 3 (C) 1.3 (D) 2.7
Paragraph for Questions No. 19 & 20
When gaseous NO and NO2 are mixed in a vessel of V litre capacity, the following equilibria are
readily attained at temperature T kelvin.
2NO2(g) N2O4(g); Kp = 6.8 atm–1
NO(g) + NO2(g) N2O3(g); Kp’ = ?
In an experiment, when NO and NO2 gases are mixed in molar ratio 1 : 2 in a closed container, the
final total pressure and partial pressure of N2O4 at equilibrium are 5.05 atm and 1.7 atm respectively.
19. The equilibrium pressure of NO gas is
(A) 1.05 atm (B) 1.80 atm (C) 2.85 atm (D) 2.10 atm
20. The value of Kp’ at T kelvin is
(A) 2 atm–1 (B) 3.43 atm–1 (C) 1.263 atm–1 (D) 1.714 atm–1
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SECTION-IV (LIST-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 02 List-Match sets. Each question has four statements Given in Column-I and
four statements in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one
or more statement (s) given in column-II.
21. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) H 2 g I2 g 2HIg (P) Forward reaction is favoured by
applying increase of pressure.
(B) N 2 g 3H 2 g 2NH3 g (Q) Kp Kc
(C) 1 (R) Kp Kc
NO g O 2 g NO 2 g
2
(D) PCl5 g PCl3 g Cl2 g (S) Introduction of helium gas at constant
pressure affects the equilibrium
(T) Kp Kc
22. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Titration of HCl with NaOH (P) Indicator with pH range 3.8 to 5.2 can be
used as indicator
(B) Titration of HCl with NH4OH (Q) Indicator with pH range 8.3 to 9.7 can be
used as indicator
(C) Titration of CH3COOH with NaOH (R) Equivalence point of reaction at pH < 7
(D) Titration of CH3COOH with NH4OH (S) No suitable indicator can be used
(T) Equivalence point of reaction at pH > 7
SECTION-V (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, –1)
23. You have been given two burettes, one filled with 50 ml 0.1 M HF solution and other filled with
50 ml 0.2 M KOH solution. X ml of HF solution is mixed with (50 – X) ml of KOH solution to
prepare a 50 ml solution having pH 2.76. Report the value for (X).
Ka for HF = 5 10–4; Use log 5 = 0.7 and (10)–0.54 = 0.3
24. What is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS in a solution that is 0.01 M
ZnCl2 and saturated with 0.10 M H2S? [Ksp of ZnS = 10–21 and for H2S K a1 K a 2 = 10–20]
(Ignore any hydrolysis)
25. C s CO 2 g 2CO g
C s and CO2 g are present initially in the container and 50% of moles of CO2 reacts to reach at
equilibrium. If the equilibrium pressure is 6 atm, then what will be the value of K p ?
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26. 10 ml of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 having pH 5 is diluted to 10 litres by adding water. What will
be the pH of diluted solution? Report the nearest integral value.
27. If 5 moles of CO(g), 5 moles of H2O(g), 10 moles of CO2(g) and 10 moles of H2(g) are present in
equilibrium in a closed vessel of 2 litres volume as per the following reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
How many moles of CO(g) should be added at the given equilibrium so that the final concentration of
CO2(g) in the vessel will be 6 M.
28. (I) [H+] in 10–2 M HX (Ka = 10–6) solution is [A 10–B M].
(II) A solution is prepared by mixing 1 M HY (pKa = 4.2) and 1 M NaY. If pH of solution is 4.5
then the ratio of volume of NaY to HY added is [C] (take : log 2 = 0.3).
Determine value of [A B C].
29. Consider the reversible reaction COCl2(g) CO(g) + Cl2(g) to be performed in a closed container at a
given temperature. Starting with COCl2(g) only, if one third of COCl2(g) is dissociated till equilibrium
then the equilibrium pressure (in atm) is numerically X times the value of KP for above given
reaction. Report X.
30. For aqueous solution of how many of the following compounds / mixtures, does the pH remains
constant even upon dilution?
(1) NH4Cl
(2) Na2CO3
(3) A 1 : 2 molar ratio mixture of Na2S and HCl.
(4) A 5 : 2 molar ratio mixture of NaOH and H3PO4.
(5) A 5 : 4 molar ratio mixture of CH3COONa and HCl.
(6) NaH2PO4
(7) A 2 : 1 molar ratio mixture of HCl and NaHCO3.
(8) CH3COONH4
(9) A 4 : 3 molar ratio mixture of NH4OH and HCl.
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 CRASH COURSE (ADV)
TOPIC: CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (ABD) 8. (ACD) 9. (BCD) 10. (AB)
11. (BD) 12. (ACD) 13. (AB) 14. (AD) 15. (BCD)
16. (ABCD) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) R ; (B) P, Q, S ; (C) P, Q, S ; (D) S, T
22. (A) P, Q ); (B) P, R ; (C) Q, T ; (D) S
23. (44.83) 24. (1.00) 25. (8.00) 26. (7.00) 27. (9.00)
28. (8.00) 29. (8.00) 30. (5.00)
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IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
SOLUTION
1. (B)
2 1
1 1 1 2 1 4
k1 1, k 2 , k3
2 2 4 3 3 27
2. (A)
On addition of 100 ml NaOH solution, 1st equivalence point is reached.
pk a1 pk a 2 5 9
pH 7
2 2
On addition of 200 ml NaOH solution,
10 1
[Na 2 CO3 ]
300 30
1
pH 7 pk a 2 log C 10.76
2
3. (A)
0.4
2
16
n 2 and hence k C 1: 6
0.1
1
10
4. (C)
K sp 10 5 1010
2
AgCl s Ag aq Claq ,
s s 10
5
5 1
s s 10 5 10 10 s 5
10 0.6 10
5
2
5. (B)
H A 10 5 12 0.1
Ka
HA 26.6 0.1 12 0.1
1.2 5 6
10 8.2 10
1.46
6. (A)
Assume x mol CaCO3 and y mol MgCO3 in initial mixture.
Balanced reaction are :
CaCO3 CaO CO 2
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MgCO3 MgO CO 2
100x 84y 1.84
x y 0.02
Thus, x = 0.01 mole and y = 0.01 mol.
Initial mixture contains 50% CaCO3 by mole. (not by mass)
Mass of residue = 56 0.01 + 40 0.01 = 0.96
0.01 1
Mole fraction of MgO in residue
0.02 2
[OH–] in final solution = 0.04
pH of final solution = 14 – (2 – log4) = 12.6
7. (ABD)
At given temperature, Kw > 10–14, hence T > 25oC
For given solution, [H+] < (Kw)1/2, hence solution is basic.
8. (ACD)
2KIO3 Pb NO3 2 Pb IO3 2 2KNO3
0.815 350.15
12 5.25
1 mol of Pb(NO3) reacts with 2 mol of KIO3
5.25 m mol of Pb(NO3)2 reacts = 2 5.25
= 10.5 m mol
m mol of KIO3 left = 12 – 10.5
= 1.5
Hence Pb(NO3)2 is limiting reagent
1.5 m mol
IO3 0.03 M
15 35 mL
Due to common ion IO3 left in the solution the solubility Pb IO3 2 decreases.
K sp 2.7 1013 10 4
S
0.03
2
9
0.30 109
3.0 1010
9. (BCD)
10. (AB)
[Ag+] required for ppt. of AgCl, AgBr and AgI are 10–8, 10–11 and 10–15 M respectively.
AgI will start precipitating first.
When AgBr starts precipitating, all the Cl– ions are still present as Qsp of AgCl will still be less than
its k sp .
When AgBr starts precipitating,
1017
Ag 1011 I 11 106 M
10
When AgCl starts precipitating.
1013
Ag 108 Br 8 105 M
10
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11. (BD)
(iii) = –2 (i) – 1 (ii)
K3 at 2000 K = (1/4)2 (1/(5 10–10))1 = 1.25 108 < (K3 at 1000 K)
Hence, value of K3 is decreasing with increase in temperature. Forward reaction is exothermic.
12. (ACD)
MgF2 Mg 2 2F
s1 2s1 2s2
SrF2 Sr 2F
2
s2 2s1 2s 2
s1 2s1 2s 2 9.5 10 9 ... i
2
s 2 2s1 2s 2 4 10 9 ... ii
2
s1 s 2 1.5 103 F 3 10 3
9.5 3
s1 10
9
4
s 2 10 3
9
13. (AB)
For Kp < Kc, Δng < 0
14. (AD)
pK a1 1.8, pK a 2 8.3, pK a 3 10.8
1
At isoelectric point, pH
2
pK a1 pK a 2 5.05
15. (BCD)
h kw
for salt of weak acid and weak base
1 h ka kb
h 1 1
h
1 h 2 3
16. (ABCD)
17. (B)
X is weak monobasic acid,Y is strong monoacidic base and Z is strong monobasic acid.
In (i), pH = pKa – log 2, hence pKa= 5, Ka = 10-5
18. (C)
In (ii), [H+]net = 5 10–2,
Hence pH = 2 – log 5 = 1.3
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Solution for Que. No. 19 & 20
19. (A)
20. (B)
PN 2O4
KP and PN 2O4 1.7 atm
2
PNO2
1/2
1.7
PNO2 0.5 atm
6.8
NO NO2 N2O3 N2O4 Total
Initial: P 2P O O 3P
At equi.: P x 2P x 3.4 X 1.7 5.05
2P x 3.4 0.5
2P x 3.9 ... i
p x 0.5 x 1.7 5.05
P 2.85 ... ii
x 2P 3.9 1.8
PNO P x 1.05 atm
PNO2 0.5 atm, PN 2O3 1.8 atm, PN 2O4 1.7 atm
PN2O3 1.8
KP 3.43 atm 1
PNO PNO2 1.05 0.5
K P 3.43 atm 1
21. (A) R ; (B) P, Q, S ; (C) P, Q, S ; (D) S, T
22. (A) P, Q ); (B) P, R ; (C) Q, T ; (D) S
23. (44.83)
10 0.2x
2.76 4 log 5 log
0.3x 10
13
x 44.83
0.29
24. (1.00)
K sp Zn 2 S2
1021
S2 1019
0.01
2
H S2
For Ka1.Ka 2
H 2S
2
H 1019
20
10 H 0.1
0.1
Or pH 1
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25. (8.00)
C s CO2 g 2CO g
t=0 a 0
At equi. a 2 a
Ptotal
PCO2 2 atm 42
3 KP 8
2
PCO 6 2 4 atm
26. (7.00)
10 5
H 108 M pH 7
Acid 1000
27. (9.00)
CO g H 2 O g CO2 g H 2 g
10 10
Initial (equi.) 5 5 10 10 K eq 4
55
On addition of CO (5 + x) 5 10 10
At new equib. (3 + x) 3 12 12 [CO 2 ] 6 n CO2 6 2 12
12 12
4 3 x 12 x 9
3 x 3
28. (8.00)
(I) H K a C
106 102
1 10 4
A 1, B 4
1 V1 V
(II) 4.5 4.2 log or 1 2 or C 2
1 V2 V2
29. (8.00)
If initial pressure = Po
2P0 P P 4P
At equilibrium, PCOCl2 , PCO 0 , PCl2 0 , Ptotal 0
3 3 3 3
P0 PTotal
KP
6 8
30. (5.00)
(1) pH pK w pK b log C
(2) pH pK w pK a 2 log C
(3) Na 2S 2HCl 2NaCl H 2S
1
pH WA
2
pK a1 log C
NaH 2 PO 4 H 2 O
(4) NaOH H 3 PO 4
i 5 2
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f 3 0 2 2
NaOH NaH 2 PO 4 NaHPO 4 H 2 O
i 3 2
f 1 0 2 2
Na 2 HPO 4 H 2 O
NaOH Na 2 HPO 4
i 1 2
f 0 1 4 1
Buffer solution pH pKa 3
(5) CH 3COONa HCl CH 3COOH NaCl
i 5 4
f 1 0 1 1
Acidic buffer pH pK a
p Ka1 p Ka 2
(6) pH
2
(7) HCl NaHCO3 NaCl H 2CO3
i 2 1
f 1 0 1 1
For a mixture of WA + SA, major H+ ions will come from HCl.
pH log10 H
HCl
1
(8) pH K w pK a pK b
2
(9) NH 4 OH HCl NH 4Cl H 2 O
i 4 3
f 1 0 3 3
Basic buffer
Clearly, Ph of solutions 4, 5, 6, 8 and 9 is not affected by dilution.
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ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
IIT – JEE-2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC:CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
SECTION–I (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
1. Pure water is added into the following solutions causing a 10% increase in volume of each. The
greatest % change in pH would be observed in which case (A), (B), (C) or (D)?
(A) 0.1 M NaHCO3 (B) 0.2 M NaOH
(C) 0.3 M NH3 – 0.2 M NH 4 system (D) 0.4 M CH3COONH4
2. A well is dug in a bed of rock containing fluorspar (CaF2). If the well contains 20000 L of water,
what is the amount of F– in it? Ksp = 4 × 10–11 (101/3 = 2.15)
(A) 4.3 mol (B) 6.8 mol (C) 8.6 mol (D) 13.6 mol
3. Ammonia gas at 15 atm is introduced in a rigid vessel at 300 K. At equilibrium the total pressure of
the vessel is found to be 40.11 atm at 300ºC. The degree of dissociation of NH3 will be:
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.4 (C) Unpredictable (D) None of these
4. For the equilibrium CuSO4.5H2O(s) CuSO4.3H2O(s) + 2H2O(g)
Kp = 2.25 × 10–4 atm2 and vapour pressure of water is 22.8 Torr at 298 K.
CuSO4.5H2O(s) is efflorescent (i.e., loses water) when relative humidity is:
(A) less than 33.3% (B) less than 50 % (C) less than 66.6% (D) above 66.6%
5. What is the minimum pH when Fe(OH)3 starts precipitating from a solution containing 0.1M FeCl3?
Ksp of Fe(OH)3 = 8 × 10–13 M3
(A) 3.7 (B) 5.7 (C) 10.3 (D) 8.3
6. One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is left in a closed container under one atm . It is heated to 600 K
when 20 % by mass of N2O4 (g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is:
(A) 1.2 atm (B) 2.4 atm (C) 2.0 atm (D) 1.0 atm
SECTION-II (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4,- 2)
7. The equilibrium of which of the following reactions will not be disturbed by the addition of an inert
gas at constant volume?
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (B) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
(C) CO2(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g) (D) C(s) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g)
8. Ka values for HA, HB and HD are 10-5, 10-7 and 10-9 respectively. Which of the following will be
correct for decimolar aqueous solutions of NaA, NaB and NaD at 250C?
(A) (pH)NaA< (pH)NaB (B) (pH)NaD< (pH)NaB
(C) (pH)NaA< (pH)NaD (D) (pH)NaB = 7
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9. When NaNO3 is heated in a closed vessel, oxygen is liberated and NaNO2 is left behind. At
equilibrium,
1
NaNO3 (s) NaNO2 (s) + O2 (g)
2
(A) addition of NaNO2 favours reverse reaction
(B) addition of NaNO3 favours forwards reaction
(C) increasing temperature favours forward reaction
(D) increasing pressure favours reverse reaction
10. Let the colour of the indicator HIn (colourless) will be visible only when its ionised form (pink) is
25% or more in a solution. Suppose HIn (pKa = 9.0) is added to a solution of pH = 9.6 predict what
will happen. (Take log 2 = 0.3)
(A) pink colour will be visible
(B) pink colour will not be visible
(C) % of ionised form will be less than 25%
(D) % of ionised form will be more than 25%
11. The dissociation of ammonium carbamate may be represented by the equation
NH4CO2NH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), H ve
The equilibrium will shift from right to left if there is
(A) a decrease in pressure
(B) an increase in temperature
(C) an increase in the concentration of ammonia
(D) an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide
12. Which of the following mixtures will act as buffer?
(A) H2CO3 + NaOH (1.5 : 1 molar ratio) (B) H2CO3 + NaOH (1.5 : 2 molar ratio)
(C) NH4OH + HCl (5 : 4 molar ratio) (D) NH4OH + HCl (4 : 5 molar ratio)
SECTION – III (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions relating to 1 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 13 & 14.
Strontium fluoride (SrF2) is a sparingly soluble salt. Let s1 be its solubility (in mol/lt.) in pure water
at 25°C, assuming no hydrolysis of F– ions. Also, let s2 be its solubility (in mol/lt.) in 0.1 M NaF
solution at 25°C, assuming no hydrolysis of F– ions and no complex formation.
However, it is known that s1 : s2 = 106 : 256. Now, answer the following questions.
13. The Ksp value of SrF2 at 25°C is:
(A) 2.048 10–9 (B) 1.372 10–9 (C) 1.864 10–9 (D) 2.916 10–9
14. The mass of NaF to be added to 100 ml solution of 0.0011 M Sr+2 ions to reduce its concentration to
2 10–4 M is : [Assume no hydrolysis of F– ions]
(A) 0.42 g (B) 0.063 g (C) 0.021 g (D) 0.084 g
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 15& 16.
The pH {–log [H+]} value for pure water is 7.0, whereas natural rainwater is weakly acidic. This is
caused by dissolution of atmospheric carbon dioxide. In many areas, however, rainwater is more
acidic. This has several causes some of which are natural and some of which derive from human
activity. In the atmosphere, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen monoxide are oxidized to sulphur trioxide
and nitrogen dioxide respectively, which react with water to give sulphuric acid and nitric acid. The
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resulting so-called “acid rain” has an average pH of 4.5. Values as low as 1.7 have however, been
measured. Sulphur dioxide SO2, is diprotic acid in aqueous solution. At 27ºC the acidity constants
are
H HSO 3
SO 2 aq H 2 O HSO 3 aq H aq K a1 10 2 M
SO2
SO 22 H
HSO aq SO
3
2
3 aq H aq
K a2 10 7 M
HSO3
And for equilibrium
2
SO22 H
SO2 aq H 2 O SO aq 2H aq K a
2
K a1 K a 2 109 M
3
SO2
Also for water H 2 O H OH K w OH H 1014 .
Now answer the following questions (T =300 K for all questions).
15. The solubility of sulphur dioxide gas is 24.63 litre in 1 litre of water at partial pressure of 1 atm.
Then the concentration of SO2 in water saturated with SO2 gas (the change in volume caused by
dissolution of SO2 may be ignored) (R = 0.0821 litre atm.mol–1 K–1) is
(A) 1.2 M (B) 1M (C) 0.5 M (D) 2 M
16. The pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of sodium sulphite will be :
(A) 8.5 (B) 9 (C) 4.5 (D) 9.5
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 17& 18.
Equilibrium constants are given (in atm) for the following reactions at 0° C:
SrCl2. 6H2O(s) SrCl2.2H2O (s) + 4H2O(g) Kp = 5 × 10-12
Na2HPO4.12 H2O(s) Na2HPO4.7 H2O (s) + 5H2O(g) Kp = 2.43 × 10-13
Na2SO4.10H2O(s) Na2SO4(s) +10 H2O (g) Kp = 1.024 × 10-27
The vapor pressure of water at 0°C is 4.56 torr.
17. Which is the most effective drying agent at 0°C?
(A) SrCl2. 2H2O (B) Na2HPO4.7 H2O (C) Na2SO4 (D) all equally
18. At what relative humidities will Na2SO4.10 H2O be efflorescent (release moisture) when exposed to
air at 0°C?
(A) above 33.33% (B) below 33.33 % (C) above 66.66% (D) below 66.66%
SECTION – IV (Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is TO be bubbled.
(+4,0)
19. Calculate pH of a resultant solution of 25 mL of 0.1M HCl, 50 mL of 0.02M HNO3 and 25 ml of
0.1M NaOH.
20. Calculate pH of a resultant solution of 0.1M HA K a 10 6 and 0.45M HB K a 2 10 6 g 25o C
21. Calculate the ratio of sodium formate and formic acid K a 2 10 4 in a buffer solution of pH = 4.3
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22. A certain weak acid has K a 105 . If the equilibrium constant for its reaction with a strong base is
represented as y 10 y then find the value of y.
23. A solution is saturated in SrCO3 and SrF2 . The CO32 was found to be 103 mol/L. If the
concentration of F in solution is represented as y 102 M then what is the value of y?
[Given: Ksp SrCO3 2.5 10 ;Ksp SrF2 10 ]
10 10
24. If 50% of CO 2 converts to CO at the following equilibrium:
1 1
C s CO2 g CO g
2 2
And the equilibrium pressure is 12 atm. Calculate K p .
25. For the reaction A g B g ;KC 10
B g C g ; KC 2
C g D g ;KC 0.01
Calculate K C for the reaction D g A g .
26. Calculate K P for the reaction A g B s 2C g ;KC 0.2 at 305 K.
SECTION - V (Matrix Match Type)
This section 1 Question. Each question has four statements Given in Column - I and four statements
in Column – II. Any given statement in Column – I can have correct matching with one or more
statement (s) given in column II. (+8, 0)
27. (Use log1.8 0.26, Ka of formic acid 1.8 104 , Ka of acetic acid 1.8 105 , K b of ammonia
1.8 105 , Ka1 of H 2S 107 and Ka 2 of H 2S 10 14 , for the following matchings)
Match the entries of column II for which the equality of inequality given in the column I are
satisfied.
Column – I Column - II
(A) 10 M HCl solution > 0.1 M H 2S (P)
5
water (degree of dissociation of water)
solution
(B) CH 3COOH solution at pH equal to (Q) OH
4.74 = NH 4OH solution at pH equal to
9.26
(C) 0.1M CH 3COOH solution (R) (degree of dissociation of electrolytes)
1.0M HCOOH solution
(D) 0.1 M of a weak acid HA Ka 105 (S) pH
1
solution 0.01M of a weak acid
HA 2 Ka 10 6 solution
(A) A P, Q, R,S; B P, R;C R; D P, Q,S.
(B) A R,S; B P;C P, R;D P,S.
(C) A P, Q;B R;C P;D Q.
(D) A P,S;B R;C Q, R; D Q, R,S.
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28.
Column – I Column - II
(A) AgBr (P) Solubility in water is more than expectation.
(B) AgCN (Q) Solubility in acidic solution is more than thatin pure
water.
(C) Fe(OH)3 (R) Solubility in strongly basic solution is morethan that
in pure water.
(D) Zn(OH)2 (S) Solubility decreases in presence of commonanion.
(A) A R; B P, R;C R; D P,. (B) A S; B P, Q;C Q,S; D Q, R.
(C) A P; B R;C R; D Q. (D) A Q; B S;C Q; D P.
29. Match the following
List – I (Reaction) List– II (unitsof equilibrium constant)
(A) g g g (P) K c mole / L
N2 O2 2NO
(B) N2 3H2 2NH3 (Q) No unit
g g g
(C) PCl5 PCl3 Cl2 (R) k p atm2
g g g
(D) A B g (S) K p atm
(A) A Q;B R;C P,S; D P,S. (B) A Q; B R;C P;D S.
(C) A S;B Q;C P, R; D P,S. (D) A R;B Q;C P,S;D S.
30. For the reaction 2NH3 g 3H2 g N2 g , H ve
Column – I Column – II
(A) Keq (P) Increases with temperature.
(B) Degree of dissociation (Q) Decreases with temperature.
(C) No. of moles of H 2 (R) Increases with pressure.
(D) No. of moles of NH3 (S) Decreases with pressure.
(A) A Q; B Q, R;C Q, R; D P,S. (B) A P; B P,S;C P,S; D Q, R.
(C) A R; B P,S;C Q, R; D P,S. (D) A S; B Q, R;C Q, R; D P,S.
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TOPIC:CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (ABCD) 8. (AC) 9. (CD) 10. (AD)
11. (CD) 12. (ABC) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (9) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (5)
26. (5) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
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TOPIC: ELECTRO CHEMISTRY, VOLUMETRIC
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
1. Consider the following reaction :
3 Br2 6 CO32 3 H 2 O 5 Br BrO 3 6 HCO3 .
Which of the following statements is true regarding this reaction?
(A) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate radical is reduced.
(B) Bromine is reduced and the carbonate radical is oxidized.
(C) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
(D) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized.
2. In the reaction :
Na 2S2 O3 4 Cl 2 5 H 2O Na 2SO 4 H 2SO 4 8 HCl the equivalent weight of Na 2S2 O3 will be :
(M = molecular weight of Na 2S2 O3 )
M M M M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 1 2
3. X gm of metal gave Y gm of its oxide, so equivalent mass of metal is :
X YX YX X
(A) 8 (B) 8 (C) 8 (D) 8
YX X X Y
4. 0.54 V 0.45 V 1
ClO3 ClO Cl2 1.07 V Cl
2
0.76 V
o
E
o
The E in the given figure as :
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8
5. The solubility product of silver iodide is 8.3 1017 and the standard reduction potential of Ag / Ag
electrode is + 0.8 volts at 25o C . The standard reduction potential of AgI / Ag electrode from these
data is :
(A) 0.30 V (B) +0.15 V (C) +0.10 V (D) 0.15 V
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6. According to the tabulated standard reduction potentials
Mg 2 (aq) 2e Mg(s) E o 2.38 V
2H 2 O() 2e H 2 (g) 2OH (aq) E o 0.83 V
Br2 () 2e 2Br (aq) E o 0.53 V
O2 (g) 4H (aq) 2H 2O() E o 1.23 V
What products are formed during the electrolysis of an aqueous MgBr2 solution?
(A) Mg and H 2 (B) H 2 and Br2 (C) H 2 and O 2 (D) Mg and O 2
SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. Which of the following reaction are example of redox reactions ?
(A) KMnO 4 H 2SO 4 CO (B) K 2 Cr2 O 7 H 2SO 4 HCl
(C) CuSO 4 KCN(excess) (D) CuSO 4 KI(excess)
8. Which of the following can act both as an oxidizing as well as reducing agent?
(A) HNO 2 (B) H 2 O 2 (C) H 2S (D) SO 2
9. Choose the incorrect statement(s)
(A) 1 mole of MnO 4 ion can oxidize 10 moles of Fe2 ion in acidic medium.
(B) 1 mole of Cr2 O 72 ion can oxidize 12 moles of Fe2 ion in acidic medium.
(C) 2 mole of Cu 2S can be oxidize by 2.6 moles of MnO 4 ion in acidic medium
2
(Cu 2S Cu SO 2 )
(D) 2 mole of Cu 2S can be oxidize by 8/3 moles of Cr2 O 72 ion in acidic medium
(Cu 2S Cu 2 SO 2 )
10. A sample containing 1 mol KHC 2 O 4 .H 2 C2 O 4 is titrated with different reagent. Select correct
statement
(A) 1 mole of KOH are used
3
(B) moles of Ba(OH)2 are used
2
4
(C) mol of KMnO 4 are used in alkaline medium
5
2
(D) mol of K 2 Cr2 O7 are used in acidic medium
3
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11. Consider two reactions : (X represents an element)
Reaction – I : H 2 XO 4 KOH K 2 XO 4 H 2 O
Reaction – II : H 2 XO 4 KI H 2 X I 2
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Molar mass of H 2 XO 4 is equal in both reactions
(B) Equivalent mass of H 2 XO 4 is equal in both reactions
(C) Equivalent mass of H 2 XO 4 in Reaction – I is twice as in Reaction – II
(D) One mole of H 2 XO 4 will contain same number of equivalent in both reactions.
12. When a lead storage battery is discharged :
(A) PbSO 4 is formed (B) Pb is formed
(C) SO 2 is consumed (D) H 2SO 4 is consumed
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The conductance of one cm3 (or 1 unit 3 ) of a solution is called conductivity
(B) Specific conductance increases while molar conductivity decreases on progressive dilution.
(C) The limiting equivalent conductivity of weak electrolyte cannot be determined exactly by
extrapolation of the plot of eq against c
(D) The conductance of metals is due to the movement of free electrons.
14. In which of the following process(s): E cell E cell
o
?
(A) Cu(s) | Cu 2 (0.01M) || Ag (0.1M) | Ag(s) (B) Pt(H 2 ) | pH 1|| Zn 2 (0.01M) || Zn(s)
(C) Pt(H 2 ) | pH 1|| Zn 2 (1M) || Zn(s) (D) Pt(H 2 ) | H 0.1M || Zn 2 (0.01) || Zn(s)
15. E oA
|A
0.5 V; E oB |B 0.2 V;
E Co |C 0.3 V;
E oD
|D
0.1 V
Based on above data select correct statements under standard condition.
(A) Best oxidizing agent is A
(B) Best reducing agent is D
(C) C can displace D from it’s solution
(D) In galvanic cell obtained by electrodes A and B current flows from B to A in external circuit.
16. Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) Cell constant values of conductivity cells are independent of the solution filled into the cell.
(B) Kohlrausch law is valid for strong electrolyte but not for weak electrolyte.
(C) In general conductivity decreases on dilution whereas equivalent and molar conductivity
increase on dilution.
(D) Salt bridge is employed to maintain the electrical neutrality and to minimize the liquid-liquid
junction potential.
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SECTION-III (PARAGRAPH TYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions relating to 2 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
Drinking is injurious of health. But for revenue purpose government has fixed some permissible
value for alcohol. The permissible value for the alcohol content in the blood is 1% by mass. On
analysis of blood sample of a driver of being drunk over than the permissible value, it was obtained
that 60 gm sample reacted with 30 mL of 8 M K 2 Cr2 O7 (Acidic solution).
Reaction: 2K 2Cr2 O7 8H 2SO 4 C 2 H 5OH 2Cr2 (SO 4 )3 11H 2O 2K 2SO 4 2CO 2
Assume K 2 Cr2 O7 reacts only with the alcohol present in blood.
17. Will the driver be prosecuted for drunken driving?
(A) Yes (B) No (C) May or may not (D) Data insufficient
18. What is the percentage of alcohol in the blood sample?
(A) 9.2% (B) 8.8% (C) 0.8% (D) 7.2%
Paragraph for Questions No. 19 & 20
Zn Cu
electrode electrode
1 L , 2 M , ZnSO 4 1 L , 0.2 M , CuSO4
Given :
E oZn |Zn 0.76 V
2 K f [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2 4 1011
E oCu 2
|Cu
0.34V
19. The emf of cell at 200 K is :
2.303 R
[Given : 2 10 4 and assume that E o values are independent of temperature.]
F
(A) 1. 7 V (B) 1.8 V (C) 1.09 V (D) 1.10 V
20. When 1 mole of NH3 added to cathode compartment, then emf of cell is : (at 298 K)
(A) 0.81 V (B) 1.91 V (C) 1.1 V (D) 0.72 V
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SECTION-IV (LIST-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 04 List-Match sets. Each question has four statements Given in Column-I and
four statements in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one
or more statement (s) given in column-II.
21. Match the column.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Sn 2
MnO 4 (acidic) (P) Amount of oxidant available decides the
3.5 mole 1.2 mole number of electrons transfer
(B) H 2C 2O 4 MnO 4 (acidic) (Q) Amount of reductant available decides
the number of electrons transfer
8.4 mole 3.6 mole
(C) S2 O32 + I2 (R) Number of electrons involved per mole
of oxidant > Number of electrons
7.2 mole 3.6 mole
involved per mole of reductant
(D) Fe 2 + Cr2 O 72 (acidic) (S) Number of electrons involved per mole
of oxidant < Number of electrons
9.2 mole 1.6 mole
involved per mole of reductant
22. Match matrix (E oAg
/Ag
0.8 K sp (AgCl) 1010 )
Column – I Column – II
(A)
Pt | H 2 (0.1 bar) | H (0.1 M) || H (1 M) || H 2 (0.01 bar) | Pt (P) Concentration cell
(B) Ag | AgCl(KCl, 0.1 M) || Ag (0.01 M) || Ag (Q) E cell 0
(C) Cu | Cu 2 (0.1 M) || Cu 2 (0.01 M) | Cu (R) E ocell 0 but cell is working
(D) Pt | Cl2 (1 bar) | HCl (0.1 M) || NaCl (0.1 M) | Cl 2 | Pt(1 bar) (S) Non working condition
SECTION-V (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, –1)
23. 100 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is consumed in its titration with oxalic acid in presence of dil. HCl whose
excess amount was taken. The Cl 2 (g) produced is reached with excess of KI solution producing l 2
which required 170 mL of 0.2 M hypo solution for complete reaction. Calculate millimoles of oxalic
acid consumed.
24. It requires 40 mL of 1 M Ce4 to titrate 20 mL of 1 M Sn 2 to Sn 4 . What is the oxidation state of the
cerium in the product?
25. 1 mol of N 2 H 4 loses 14 moles of electrons to form a new compound X. Assuming that the entire
nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in X?
26. Certain moles of HCN are completely oxidized by 25 mL of KMnO 4 into CO 2 and NO 3 . When all
CO 2 is passed through lime water (Ca(OH) 2 ) . 12.5 gm of CaCO3 is formed. What is molarity of
KMnO 4 used?
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27. A fuel cell uses CH 4 (g) and forms CO32 at the anode. It is used to power a car with 80 amp, for
0.96 hr. How many litres of CH 4 (g) (at 1atm, 273 K) would be required? ( Vm =22.4 L/mol)
(F = 96500). Assume 100% efficiency. Write vol. of CH 4 (g) in nearest integer form.
28. Calculate acid dissociation constant for 0.1 M HCOOH if its solution shows a resistance of 50
filled in a cell having separation between parallel electrodes 4 cm and cross section area of electrode
10 cm2
[Given : m [Ca(HCOO) 2 ] 230 Scm 2 mol1
m [CaCl 2 ] 280 Scm 2 mol 1
m [HCl] 425 Scm 2 mol 1 ]
In scientific notation, x 10 y , find the value of y.
29. The conductivity of saturated solution of sparingly soluble salt Ba 3 (PO 4 ) 2 is 1.2 105 ohm1cm1 .
The limiting equivalent conductivities of BaCl 2 , K 3 PO 4 and KCl are 160, 140 and 100 ohm 1cm 2 eq 1
respectively. If value of K sp of Ba 3 (PO 4 ) 2 is A 1025 then calculate value of A/12.
30. 100 mL of 1 M AgNO3 solution is electrolyzed using Pt electrode by passing a current of 9.65A for
100 sec. Calculate pH of solution after electrolysis.
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TOPIC: ELECTRO CHEMISTRY, VOLUMETRIC
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (ABCD) 8. (ABD) 9. (ABC) 10. (BD)
11. (BCD) 12. (AD) 13. (ACD) 14. (ABD) 15. (AB)
16. (ACD) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) P ; (B) Q ; (C) R ; (D) S
22. (A) P, Q, R ; (B) Q ; (C) P, S ; (D) P, S
23. (8.00) 24. (3.00) 25. (5.00) 26. (10.00) 27. (8.00)
28. (3.00) 29. (9.00) 30. (1.00)
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TOPIC: ELECTRO CHEMISTRY, VOLUMETRIC
SOLUTION
1. (D)
2. (B)
3. (A)
4. (B)
6 E o 4 0.54 2 0.76
E o 0.613 V
5. (D)
E oI / AgI/Ag E oAg
|Ag
0.059 log(K sp )
0.8 0.059 log (8.3 1017 ) 0.15 V
6. (B)
7. (ABCD)
8. (ABD)
9. (ABC)
10. (BD)
(A) 1 3 = n 1 (B) 1 3 = n 2 (C) 1 4 = n 1 (D) 1 4 = n 6
11. (BCD)
Reaction I : H 2 XO 4 (n . f = 2)
Reaction II : H 2 XO 4 (n . f = 8)
12. (AD)
13. (ACD)
oeq for weak electrolytes is determined using Kohlrausch’s law.
14. (ABD)
0.050
E cell E ocell log Q;
n
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For (A), (B), (D), Q = 1; E cell E cell
o
15. (AB)
16. (ACD)
Kohlrausch law is valid for strong as well as weak electrolyte.
17. (A)
18. (A)
2K 2Cr2 O7 8H 2SO 4 C 2 H 5OH 2Cr2 (SO 4 )3 11H 2O 2K 2SO 4 2CO 2
30 8 30 4 m mol
120 46
Mass of C 2 H 5 OH g 5.52g
1000
5.52
% Alcohol 100 9.2% 1%
60
19. (B)
2 10 4 200 2
E 0.76 0.34 log 1.1 0.2 1.8V
2 0.2
20. (A)
Cu 2 4NH3 Cu(NH 3 ) 42
0.2 1
0 1 – 0.8 0.2
0.2
Kf 4 1011
(0.2) [Cu 2 ]
4
[Cu 2 ] 3.125 1010
0.059 2
E 1.10 log 10
2 3.125 10
= 0.81 V
21. (A) P ; (B) Q ; (C) R ; (D) S
22. (A) P, Q, R ; (B) Q ; (C) P, S ; (D) P, S
23. (8.00)
Cl 2 KI I 2 KCl
2 mmCl2 2 mm I 2
I 2 Na 2S2 O3 Na 2S4 O6
2 mm I 2 1 mmof Hypo
2 mm I 2 1170 0.2
mm I 2 17
mm CI2 17
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34
KMnO 4 H 2 C 2 O 4 5 10 2 mm H 2C 2O 4
5
16 1
5 8 mm H 2C 2O 4
5 2
KMnO 4 HCl Cl 2
5 mm KMnO 4 2 17
34
mm KMnO 4
5
24. (3.00)
40 1 n 20 1 2 n 1
Ce4 Ce3
25. (5.00)
4 14e 10
N2 H4 2N
N oxidation state = + 5
26. (10.00)
12.5
n CO 2
100
2 7 4 5
HCN 3 2KMnO 4 2Mn 2 CO2 NO3
12.5 25 M
2
100 1000
27. (8.00)
4 4
CH 4 CO32
n.f. = 8
V 8 80 0.96 3600
V 8.02 L
22.4 96500
28. (3.00)
10 1000
k 8 103 ; m 8 103 80
50 0.1
230 280
om 425 400
2 2
C 2 0.1 0.04
om 0.2, K 4 103
m 1 2
0.96
29. (9.00)
k 1.2 105 1cm1
eq [Ba 3 (PO 4 ) 2 ] 160 140 100 200
m 200 6 1200
1000
1200 1.2 105
5
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S 105
K sp 33.22.(s)5 27 4 1025
A 1025
A
9
12
30. (1.00)
9.65 100
No. of eq. of H 0.01
96500
0.01
[H ] 0.1
0.1
pH = 1
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TOPIC: ELECTRO CHEMISTRY & VOLUMETRIC
SECTION–I (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
1. During electrolysis under suitable conditions, 0.015 mol of chromium is deposited at cathode
when 0.090 mol of electronsare passed through a chromium containing electrolyte. Which of the
following substances could have been the electrolyte?
(A) CrCl2 (B) Na2Cr2O7 (C) CrF5 (D) CrCl3
2. Calculate the potential of an indicator electrode, versus the standard hydrogen electrode, which
originally contained 0.1 M MnO4–and 0.8 MH+ and which has been treated with 90% of the Fe2+
necessary to reduce all the MnO4– to Mn2+.
(A) 2.21 V (B) 0.12 V (C) 1.93 V (D) 1.78 V
3. A fuel cell uses CH4(g) and forms CO32– at the anode. It is used to power a car with 80 Amp. For
0.96 hour. How many litres of CH4(g) (STP) would be required?
(Vm = 22.4L/mol)(F = 96500). Assume 100% efficiency.
(A) 8.02 L (B) 2.13 L (C) 7.34 L (D) 5.23 L
4. Given E° = – 0.268V for the Cl– |PbCl2| Pb couple and –0.126V for the Pb2+ | Pb couple, determine
the molar solubility for PbCl2 in pure water at 25°C.
(A) 1.578 × 10–2mol L–1 (B) 2.578 × 10–2mol L–1
–1
(C) 1.578 × 10 mol L –1 (D) 1.578 × 10–3mol L–1
5. In presence of fluoride ion, Mn2+ can be titrated with MnO4 , both reactants being converted to a
complex of Mn(III). A 0.545 gm of sample containing Mn3O4 was dissolved and all manganese was
converted to Mn2+. Titration in presence of fluoride ion consumed 31.1 ml of KMnO4 that was
0.117N against oxalate. What was the % of Mn3O4 in the sample?
(A) 40.734 (B) 20.734 (C) 80.734 (D) 60.734
6. A mixture of CS2 and H2S when completely oxidized yields a mixture of CO2, SO2 and H2O as
steam, which exerts a pressure of 748.8 mm of Hg when collected in 60 litre vessel at 327°C. No
oxygen is left in the oxidation process. To oxidize SO2 in the mixture 700 ml of 2N iodine were
required. What is the mole fraction of CS2 in the mixture?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.4
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SECTION-II (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4,- 2)
7. Assume that impure copper contains only iron, silver and gold as impurities. After passage of 140A
of current for a period of 482.5 sec, the mass of anode decreased by 22.26g and the cathode
increased in mass of 22.011g. Choose the correct options –
(A) The % of iron is 0.84 (B) The % of copper is 98.88
(C) The % of iron is 0.44 (D) The % of copper is 48.88
8. Some standard redox potentials are given below:
1 Br 1.07V
Br2 e
2
1 Cr 3 7 H 2O 1.33V
Cr2O72 7 H 3e
2 2
1 Cl 1.36 V
Cl2 e
2
Mn 2 4 H 2O 1.52V
MnO 4 8 H 5e
Which of the following statements are correct under standard conditions –
(A) Bromine will oxidize chloride ions to chlorine
(B) Manganate (VII) ions in acid solution will oxidize chloride ions to chlorine
(C) Manganate (VII) ions in acid solution will oxidize chromium (III) ions to dichromate (VI) ions
(D) Dichromate (VI) ions in acid solution will oxidize manganous (II) ion
9. An electrochemical cell (battery) consists of a Cu plate immersed in 100cm 3 of 0.100 M Cu2+
solution and a Zn plate immersed in 100cm3 of 0.100 M Zn2+ solution; the two compartments are
connected by a salt bridge and the cell is maintained at 25°C. The cell is discharged by passing a
10.00mA current for 105 seconds.
o
Given : EZn 2
/ Zn
0.762V , ECu
o
2
/ Cu
0.342V
Choose the correct options –
(A) The concentration of the cations (Cu2+ and Zn2+) in the respective compartments after the
discharge are respectively 4.82 × 10–1 M and 1.518 × 10–1 M
(B) The change of the potential (voltage) of the cell caused by the discharge is – 0.015V
(C) The change of the potential (voltage) of the cell caused by the discharge is 0.015V
(D) The concentration of the cations (Cu2+ and Zn2+) in the respective compartments after the
discharge are respectively 4.82 × 10–2 M and 1.518 × 10–1 M
10. Which of the following one incorrect ?
(A) Oxidation No. of Chromium changes when K2Cr2O7 reacts with peroxide in acidic medium
(B) When white phosphorous is reacted with KOH, it is disproportionated.
(C) If GMM of KMnO4 is x, then its equivalent wt in Acidic medium will be =
(D)The n factor of KHC2O4.H2C2O4 withoxidizing agent will be 3.
11. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) In the electrolysis of very dil. NaCl with inert electrode at cathode H2 is produced.
(B) In the electrolysis of dil. NaCl with inert electrode PH of solution increases.
(C) In the electrolysis of conc. NaCl with inert electrode PH of solution decreases.
(D) In the electrolysis of dil. NaCl with Hg as Cathode H2 will be liberated at cathode.
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12. In electrolytic cell on diluting the electrolytic solution.
(a) Conductance increases
(b) Conductivity increases
(c) Molar conductivity increases
(d) Specific conductivity increases.
SECTION – III (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions relating to 1 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 13 & 14
Corrosion of metals is associated with electrochemical reactions. This also applied for the formation
of rust on iron surfaces, where the initial electrode reactions usually are:
I. Fe s
Fe 2 (aq) 2 e Ds
II. O2 g 2 H 2 O l 4e HOH aq
An electrochemical cell in which these electrode reactions take place is constructed. The temperature
is 25°C. The cell is represented by the following cell diagram :
Fe s Fe 2 aq OH aq , O2 g Pt s
Standard electrode potentials (at 25°C)
Fe 2 aq 2e
Fe s ; E 0.44V
O2 g 2 H 2O 4e
4OH aq ; E 0.40V
Nernst factor : RT In 10/F = 0.05916 volt (at 25°C)
Faraday constant : F = 96485 Cmol–1
13. The overall reaction (indicated above) is allowed to proceed for 24 hour under standard conditions
and at constant current of 0.12 A. What mass of Fe converted to Fe 2+ after 24 hour?
(A) 1.0g (B) 1.5g (C) 2.0g (D) 3.0g
14. The equilibrium constant at 25°C for the overall cell reaction is –
(A) 1.75 × 1056 (M6bar–1) (B) 6.2 × 1056 (M6bar–1)
(C) 3.25 × 1055 (M6bar–1) (D) 3.25 × 1056 (M6bar–1)
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 15 & 16
Pure zinc is in contact with well oxygenated
PO2 1.000 atm aqueous solution containing HCl and ZnCl 2; the concentrations of HCl and ZnCl2
are CHCl = 1.000 M and cZnCl2 1.000 M , respectively and the temperature of the electrolyte is
25°C. The dissolution of Zn in this solution is represented by the equation given below.
1
Zn 2 HCl O2 ZnCl2 H 2O
2
Given : Zn Zn 2 2e; E10 0.762V
1
2 H O2 2e H 2O; E 02 1.229V
2
15. The value of ∆G° is –
(A) –3.842 × 105 J mol–1 (B) –3.842 × 102 J mol–1
(C) –3.842 × 103 J mol–1 (D) –3.842 × 104 J mol–1
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16. Choose the correct statement –
(A) Zn undergoes spontaneous dissolution.
(B) Zn does not undergo spontaneous dissolution.
(C) The value of ∆G° is negative
(D) Both (a) and (c)
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 17 & 18
When redox reaction occurs within the reactant, in which one component acts as oxidizing agent and
other component acts as reducing agent, then it is named as intra-molecular redox reaction, which
usually occurs in thermal decomposition of ionic compounds.
17. Which of the following compounds does not give nitrogen gas on heating –
(A) NH4NO2 (B) (NH4)2SO4 (C) NH4ClO4 (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7
18. Which of the following salt does not give NO2 gas on heating
(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) Hg(NO3)2 (C) KNO2 (D) AgNO3
SECTION – IV (Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
(+4,0)
19. The emf of the cell,
Pt|H2(1 atm),|HA(0.1M, 30ml)||Ag+ (0.8M)| Ag is 0.9V. Calculate the emf when 40ml of 0.05 M
NaOH is added.
20. A decinormal solution of NaCl has specific conductivity equal to 0.0092. If ionic conductance of Na +
and Cl– ion is the same temperature are 43.0 and 65.0 ohm–1 respectively. Calculate the degree of
dissociation of NaCl solution.
21. How long has a current of 3 ampere to be applied through a solution of silver mitrate to coat a metal
surface of 80 cm2 with 0.005 mm thick layer? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3.
22. The standard potential of Cu2+| Cu is +0.34V. Calculate the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the
above couple in a saturated solution of cupric hydroxide. Ksp of Cu(OH)2 is1.0 × 10–19 M3.
23. 1.0 N solution of a salt surrounding two platinum electrodes 2.1 cm apart and 4.2 sq cm in area was
found to offer a resistance of 50 ohm. Calculate the equivalent conductivity of the solution.
24. The element Se, dispersed in 5 ml sample of detergent for dandruff control was determined by
suspending it in the warm, ammoniacla solution that contained 45 ml of 0.02 M AgNO3.
6 Ag 3Se S 6 NH 3 3H 2O
2 Ag 2 Se s Ag 2 SeO3 s 6 NH 4
The mixture was now treated with excess nitric acid which dissolved the Ag2SeO3 but not Ag2Se.
The Ag+ from the Ag2SeO3 and the excess AgNO3 consumed 16.74 ml of 0.0137N KSCN in Volhard
titration. How many milligrams of Se were contained per ml of sample?
25. Calculate the mass of 90% pure MnO2 to produce 35.5g of Cl2 according to the following reaction.
MnO2 4 HCl
MnCl2 Cl2 2 H 2O
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26. Calcium carbide is made in an electric furnace by the reaction : CaO + 3C CaC2 + CO
The crude product is usually 85% CaC2 and 15% unreacted CaO. (a) How much CaO should we start
with to produce 450 kg of crude product?
SECTION - V (Matrix Match Type)
This section 1 Question. Each question has four statements Given in Column - I and four statements
in Column – II. Any given statement in Column – I can have correct matching with one or more
statement (s) given in column II. (+8, 0)
27. Match the column
Column I Column II
(A) Zn|Zn2+(c)||Zn2+(2C)|Zn (P) Spontaneous cell reaction
(B) H2(P = 1 atm)|Hcl (1N)||H2SO4 (Q) working cell representation
(C) Cu|Cu2+(0.01 M) || Ag+(0.1 M) Ag (R) Concentration of cation in cathodic
compartment increases upto
equilibrium
(D) Ag|AgCl|(KCl, 0,1 M) || Ag+(0.01 M) Ag (S) Concentration cell
28. Column – I contains the different electrolysis of different compounds and Column – II contains the
time required. Match column - I with column – II
Column I Column II
(A) 0.486 g of Zn is deposited at cathode when 1.77A of (P) 28.16
electric current is passed
through a solution of Zn2+(aq)
(B) 1.96 g of I2 at anode if a current Of 3.14A is passed (Q) 235
through KI (aq)
(C) 335 ml of 0.215 M CuSO4 solution is electrolysed by using (R) 8153
a current of
2.17 A with Pt electrode and Concentration of Cu2+ remained is
0.207 M
(D) 0.486 g of Zn is deposited at cathode when 1.77A of (S) 4743
electric current is passed
through a solution of Zn2+(aq)
29. Column II gives the integer (x, y, z, a and d) required for balanced equation in column I. Match them
correctly.
Column I Column II
(A) Cu NO3 2 zNO2 H 2O
xCu HNO3 (P) 1
(B) xCr2O72 I H
zCr 3 I 2 (Q) 2
(C) 2
Mn 2 Fe 3 yH 2O (R) 4
2.18 xMnO4 Fe
(D) aH 2C2O4 zKMnO4
bCO2 K 2O MnO4 H 2O (S) 5
(T) 10
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30. Match the following –
Column I(Electrolyte) Column II(Characteristics)
(A) NaCl (aqueous) (P) c
m
m
(B) NaCl (alcoholic) (Q) Obeys Kohlraush’s law
(C)
2.19 CH3COOH (aqueous) (R) Obeys Huckel’ law
(D) CH3COOH (alcoholic) (S) α≈1
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TOPIC: ELECTRO CHEMISTRY & VOLUMETRIC
ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (D) 7. (AB) 8. (BC) 9. (BD) 10. (AD)
11. (AB) 12. (A, C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (0.95V) 20. (0.85)
21. (125.09 second) 22. (0.22V) 23. (10 ohm–1 cm2 equiv–1)
24. (8.04) 25. (48.3) 26. (a) 400 kg cao
27. (A) – PQS;(B) – RS; (C) – PQ; (D) – PQS.
28. (A) – R; (B) – S; (C) – Q; (D) –P.
29. (A) – QRS; (B) – PQR; (C) – PQR; (D) – QRS.
30. (A) – PQR; (B) – PQ; (C) – PR; (D) – QST.
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TOPIC: CIRCULAR MOTION, WPE
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
4
1. Force acting on a block moving along x-axis is given by F 2 N . The block is displaced
x 2
from x = 2m to x = + 4m. The work done will be
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) zero (D) may be positive or negative
2. A constant power P is applied to a particle of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle when its
velocity increases from v1 and v2 is (neglect friction)
3P 2 m m 3 m 2
(A)
m
v 2 v12 (B)
3p
v 2 v1 (C)
3p
v 2 v13 (D)
3p
v 2 v12
3. A system consists of two cubes of masses m1 and m 2 respectively connected by a spring of force
constant k. The force (F) that should be applied to the upper cube to keep it at rest for which the
lower one just lifts after the force is removed is
F
m1
m2
m1m 2
(A) m1g (B) g (C) (m1 m 2 )g (D) m 2 g
m1 m 2
4. A particle of mass m begins to side down a fixed smooth sphere from the top. What is its tangential
acceleration when it breaks off the sphere?
2g 5g g
(A) (B) (C) g (D)
3 3 3
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5. A block of mass m is placed inside a smooth hollow cylinder of radius R whose axis is kept
horizontal. Initially system was at rest. Now cylinder is given a constant acceleration 2 g in the
horizontal direction by external agent. The maximum angular displacement of the block with the
vertical is
2g
1
(A) 2 tan 1 (2) (B) tan 1 (2) (C) tan 1 (1) (D) tan 1
2
6. A particle of mass m oscillates along the horizontal diameter AB inside a smooth spherical shell of
radius R. At any instant the kinetic energy of the particle is K. Then, the force applied by the particle
on the shell at this instant is
A B
K 2K 3K K
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R R R 2R
SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. A small spherical ball is suspended through a string of length . The whole arrangement is placed in
a vehicle which is moving with velocity v. Now suddenly the vehicle stops and ball starts moving
along a circular path. If tension in the string at the highest point is twice the weight of the ball then
(A) v 5g
(B) v 7g
(C) velocity of the ball at highest point is g
(D) velocity of the ball at the highest point is 3g
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8. A block of mass m is moving in a circle of radius R with speed v inside a smooth cone as shown in
figure. Choose the wrong options.
R
mv 2
(A) N = 0 if v = Rg tan (B) N sin
R
(C) Block is in equilibrium (D) Block is accelerated
9. A block of mass m is placed on a circular track and then it is given a velocity v vertically downwards
at position A on track. If block moves on track with constant speed, then
R
A
v
C
sin
(A) Coefficient of friction between block and circular track as function of angle is
V2
cot
Rg
sin
(B) Coefficient of friction between block and circular track as function of angle is
V2
cos
Rg
(C) Instantaneous power due to friction is – mgv sin
(D) Work done from A to C by friction on block will be – mgR
10. Instentenous power delivered by engine of a car of mass 18 kg moving on + x-axis is given as
p = (2x + 5) watt, where x is (in meter) position of car. Car starts from origin from rest (choose the
correct statement(s).
(A) Power increases with time (B) Power decreases with time
(C) At x = 1 m, speed of car is v = 1 m/s (D) At x = 1 m, speed of car is v = 2 m/s
11. A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration under a constant force F. Select the
correct alternative(s).
(A) Power developed by this force varies linearly with time
(B) Power developed by this force varies parabolically with time
(C) Power developed by this force varies linearly with displacement
(D) Power developed by this force varies parabolically with displacement
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12. A block is suspended by an ideal spring of force constant k. If the block is pulled down by applying a
constant force F and if maximum displacement of block from its initial mean position of rest is x 0
then
(A) increase in energy stored in spring is k x 02
3F
(B) x 0
2k
2F
(C) x 0
k
(D) work done by applied force F is Fx 0
13. In a projectile motion, power of the gravitational force
(A) is constant throughout
(B) is negative for first half, zero at topmost point and positive for rest half
(C) varies linearly with time
(D) is positive for complete path
14. Power of a force acting on a block varies with time t as shown in figure. Then, angle between force
acting on the block and its velocity is
P(W)
10
6 8 10
2 4 t (s)
10
(A) acute at = 1 s
(B) 90o at t = 3 s
(C) obtuse at t = 7 s
(D) change in kinetic energy from t = 0 to t = 10 s is 20 J
15. Displacement-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. From the graph
we can conclude that work done on the block is
s
t
t1 t2 t3 t4
(A) positive from 0 to t1 (B) negative from t1 to t 2
(C) zero from t 2 to t 3 (D) negative from t 3 to t 4
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16. In the pulley-block system shown in figure strings are light. Pulleys are massless and smooth.
System is released from rest. In 0.3 s
2 kg
1 kg
(A) work done on 2 kg block by gravity is 6 J
(B) work done on 2 kg block by string is – 2 J
(C) work done on 1 kg block by gravity is – 1.5 J
(D) work done on 1 kg block by string is 2 J
SECTION-III (PARAGRAPH TYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions relating to 2 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
In the figure shown, upper block is given a velocity of 6 m/s and lower block 3 m/s. When relative
motion between them is stopped.
Rough
1 kg 6 m/s
2 kg 3 m/s
Smooth
17. (A) Work done by friction on upper block is negative
(B) Work done by friction on both the blocks is negative
(C) Work done by friction on lower block is negative
(D) Work done by friction on both the blocks is positive
18. (A) Work done by friction on upper block is – 10 J
(B) Work done by friction on lower block is + 10 J
(C) Net work done by friction is zero
(D) All of the above
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Paragraph for Questions No. 19 & 20
The system is released from rest with both the springs in unstretched positions. Mass of each block is
1 kg and force constant of each spring is 10 N/m.
19. Extension of horizontal spring in equilibrium is
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.4 m (C) 0.6 m (D) 0.8 m
20. In the equilibrium position, speed of the block placed horizontally is
(A) 3.21 m/s (B) 2.21 m/s (C) 1.93 m/s (D) 1.26 m/s
SECTION-IV (LIST-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 02 List-Match sets. Each question has four statements Given in Column-I and
four statements in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one
or more statement (s) given in column-II.
21. In the system shown in figure, mass m is released from rest from position A. Potential energy of m at
point A with respect to point B is E. Volume of m is negligible and all surfaces are smooth. When
mass m reaches at point B
m
A
R
2m
B
Column – I Column – II
(A) Kinetic energy of m (P) E/3
(B) Kinetic energy of 2m (Q) 2E/3
(C) Momentum of m (R) 4
mE
3
(D) Momentum of 2m (S) 2
mE
3
(T) None
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22. A particle is suspended from a string of length R. It is given a velocity u 3 gR at the bottom.
C
D B
u
A
Match the following :
Column – I Column – II
(A) Velocity at B (P) 7 mg
(B) Velocity at C (Q) 5gR
(C) Tension in string at B (R) 7gR
(D) Tension in string at C (S) 5 mg
(T) None
SECTION-V (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, –1)
23. A block of mass m moving at a speed v compresses a spring through a distance x before its speed is
6mv 2
halved. The spring constant of the springs is . Find value of n.
nx 2
24. A force of F = 0.5 N is applied on lower block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on
upper block for a displacement of 6m of the upper block with respect to ground is (in J).
(Take g = 10 m/s).
0.1
1 kg
2 kg F
Smooth
25. The potential energy of a particle is determined by the expression U (x 2 y 2 ) , where is a
positive constant. The particle begins to move from a point with the co-ordinates (3, 3) only under
the action of potential fields force. When it reaches the point.
(1, 1) its kinetic energy is 4 K . Find the value of K.
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26. A 10 kg collar P slides with negligible friction on the fixed vertical shaft. When the collar is released
from rest at the bottom position shown, it moves up the shaft under the action of the constant force
F = 200 N applied to the cable. The position of the small pulley at B is fixed. Find the spring
constant k(in k – N/m) which the spring must have if its maximum compression is to be limited to
0.4 m.
k 5m
B
12 m
F
0.4 m
P
27. Starting from rest, a 5kg object is acted upon by only one force as shown in figure. Find the total
work done by the force. If your answer is J then find /15
F(N)
20
10
0 t(s)
1 2 3
-10
28. A hemisphere of radius R and of mass 4 m is free to slide with its base on a smooth horizontal table.
A particle of mass m is placed on the top of the hemisphere. The angular velocity of the particle
relative to centre of hemisphere at an angular displacement when velocity of hemisphere has
become v is
5v 2v 3v 5v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R cos R cos R sin R sin
29. The lower end of a 4 m long uniform rod AB is pulled with constant speed v = 4 m/s. The speed of
centre of mass of the rod at 60o will be
A
v
O B
4
(A) m/s (B) 2 3 m / s (C) 4 m/s (D) 4 3 m / s
3
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30. A 4 kg block is on a smooth horizontal table. The block is connected to a second block of mass 1 kg
by a massless flexible taught cord that passes over a frictionless pulley. The 1 kg block is 1 m above
the floor. The two blocks are released from rest. With what speed (in m/s) does the 1 kg block hit the
ground?
4 kg
1 kg 1m
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IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CIRCULAR MOTION, WPE
ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (BD) 8. (AC) 9. (BCD) 10. (AC)
11. (AD) 12 (CD) 13. (BC) 14. (ACD) 15. (ABC)
16. (ABCD) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (A) Q ; (B) P ; (C) R ; (D) R
22. (A) R ; (B) Q ; (C) P ; (D) T
23. (8.00) 24. (1.00) 25. (4.00) 26. (5.00) 27. (6.00)
28. (1.00) 29. (1.00) 30. (2.00)
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IIT – JEE-2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC : CIRCULAR MOTION, WPE
SECTION–I (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
1. If W1 , W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle slowly from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a point mass m, find the
correct relation between W1 , W2 and W3
(A) W1 W2 W3 (B) W1 W2 W3 (C) W1 W2 W3 (D) W2 W1 W3
2. A light inextensible string that goes over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in the figure connects two
blocks of masses 0.36 kg and 0.72 kg . Taking g 10 m / s 2 , find the work done (in joules) by the
string on the block of mass 0.36 kg during the first second after the system is released from rest
(A) 6 Joule (B) 5 Joule (C) 8 Joule (D) 2 Joule
3. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x-axis is given by
x4 x2
Vx J
4 2
The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
(A) 2 (B) 1 2 (C) 2 (D) 3 2
4. A tennis ball is dropped on a horizontal smooth surface. It bounces back to its original position after
hitting the surface. The force on the ball during the collision is proportional to the length of
compression of the ball. Which one of the following sketches describes the variation of its kinetic
energy K with time t most appropriately? The figures are only illustrative and not to the scale
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(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. A person is walking on a rough surface and his feet does not slide on the ground. Work done by
friction from ground on man will be
(A) Negative (B) Positive
(C) Zero (D) Positive only if person accelerates
6. For an isolated system:
(A) Total energy is always conserved
(B) Potential energy is always conserved
(C) Kinetic energy always conserved
(D) None
SECTION-II (Multiple Choice Questions)
This section contains06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4,- 2)
6mg
7. Both blocksare released from rest at the instant when initial compression in spring is .
k
m
3m
12
m
(A) The speed of m when normal reaction on 3m is mg is 4g
k
(B) When normal reaction on 3m is mg then spring is in compression
(C) When normal reaction on 3m is mg then spring is inextension
12
m
(D) Speed of m when normal reaction on 3m is mg is 2g
k
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8. A man climbs a vertical ladderthrough a certain height
(A) Work done by gravity on him is positive
(B) Work done by gravity on him is negative
(C) Work done by normal of ladder on his foot is negative
(D) Work done by normal of ladder on his foot is positive
9. A block having hemi spherical cavity is accelerating horizontally.A particle slides inside it then
m
(A) Work done by normal force on particle is 0in ground frame
(B) Work done by normal force on particle is 0in wedge frame
(C) Work done by normal force on the entire system (particle + block) is0in ground frame
(D) Work done by normal force on the entire system (particle + block) is not 0 in ground frame
10. Net external force on a system is 0. Which of the following is/are True.
(A) Kinetic energy of system will remain constant
(B) Potential energy of system will remain constant
(C) Total energy of the system will remain constant
(D) All of the above
11. For a particle on x-axis, Force v/s position graph is given.The positive force means force along
positive x axis and negative force means along negative x-axis.
x1 x2 x3
x
(A) x x1 is stable equilibrium
x x 2 is neutral equilibrium
x x 3 is unstable equilibrium
(B) x x1 is unstable equilibrium
x x 2 is neutral equilibrium
x x 3 is stable equilibrium
(C) x x1 is unstable equilibrium
x x 3 is stable equilibrium
(D) x x1 is stable equilibrium
x x 3 is unstable equilibrium
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12. Two blocks of same masses of 4 kg are kept as shown.Ground is smooth but friction exists between
A and B. A is given 2 m/s velocity on B. B is very long. Consider any time interval 0 t
2m s
A 4
B 4
(A) Friction will do positive work on B
(B) Friction will do negative work on A
(C) Friction will do zero work on system A B
(D) Friction will do negative work on system
SECTION – III (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions relating to 1 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3,- 1)
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 13 & 14
Blocks A and B of mass m each are connected with spring of constant k. Both blocks are kept on
frictionless ground and are imparted horizontal speed v as shown when string is unstretched.
13. Find the maximum extension in string
V V
45o m m 45o
m m 2m
(A) V (B) V (C) v (D) None
k 2k k
14. The total kinetic energy of both the blocks at instance of max extension is
mv 2 mv 2
(A) mv 2 (B) (C) (D) None
4 2
PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 15 & 16
A small particle of mass m lies at bottom of smooth trench of radius R as shown. It is being pulled
from above with the help of a massless string passing over a smooth pulley and a constant force is
being applied at the other end. If the particle does not leave contact with the curved surface, then
F
R
m
15. What will be work done by tension on particle by the time it reaches the horizontal surface
(A) mgR (B) FR (C) F 2R (D) mg 2R
16. What will be the speed of particle by the time it reaches the horizontal surface?
F 2 R
(A) 2R (B) 2R 2 g
m m
R F
(C) 2R g (D) 2R 2g
m m
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PARAGRAPH FOR QUE. NOS. 17& 18
A small bead of mass m can move on a smooth circular wire of radius R under the action of a force
Km
F 2 directed towards point P. (the r is the distance of bead from point P and K is constant).
r
R/2
F
B
O P A
17. What is the work done by the force F in one complete revolution on the bead
Km Km Km
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
R 2R 2R
18. What minimum speed must be given at point A so that bead completes the circle
3K 8K 6K
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
R 3R R
SECTION – IV (Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is be bubbled. (+4,0)
19. A particle is at rest at origin. A force starts acting on it along positive x axis such that it always
delivers constant power. If x co-ordinate of particle can be written as, x kt n1 n 2 then find n1 n 2 . (k
is a constant)
20. If the potential energy function of a particle of mass 2kg is given by U 3x x 3 and particle is
currently at rest at its stable equilibrium position then find the minimum speed that mustbe
given so that particle does not oscillate. (Assume particle is constrained to movealong x axis
only and only conservative force acts).
21. A block of mass 0.18 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 2 N/m. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the floor is 0.1. Initially the block is at rest and the spring is un-stretched. An
impulse is given to the block as shown in the figure. The block slides a distance of 0.06 m and comes
to rest for the first time. The initial velocity of the block in m/s is V N /10 . Then N is
22. A particle of mass 0.2 kg is moving in one dimension under a force that delivers a constant power
0.5 W to the particle. If the initial speed in ms 1 of the particle is zero, the speed in ms 1 after 5s
is
The potential energy of a particles is given by U 10 x 2 . Its kinetic energy at
2
23.
x 2 is 36 Joule. Then if particle can exist between x1 and x 2 then the average value of x1 and x 2
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24. The speed given to the bob at bottom position was xg along the tangential direction. It was
observed that when string becomes horizontal tension in it was mg find x.
Idial
string
m
xg
25. Blocks A and B each of mass ‘m’ fall on ground starting from rest. Initially B is at height ‘h’ above
and spring of spring constant k is at natural length. B does not rebound after striking the ground. The
n mg
minimum value of h such that Bfinally just lifts up is 1 find n1 n 2
n 2k
A
h
h
26. A 10.0-kg block is released from rest at point (A) in figure. The track is frictionless except for the
portion between points (B) and (C), which has a length of 6.00 m. The block travels down the track,
hits a spring of force constant 3000 N/m and compresses the spring 0.20 m from its equilibrium
position before coming to rest momentarily. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block
and the rough surface between points (B) and (C) is 10 x. find the value of x.
SECTION - V (Matrix Match Type)
This section 1 Question. Each question has four statements Given in Column - I and four statements
in Column – II. Any given statement in Column – I can have correct matching with one or more
statement (s) given in column II. (+8, 0)
27. A particle exists in a potential energy region given by U 3x x 3 y3 3y .
Column – I Column - II
(A) At 0, 0 (P) Particle is at stable equilibrium if displaced
along x
(B) At 1,1 (Q) Particle is at stable equilibrium if displaced
along y
(C) At 1, 1 (R) Particle is not at equilibrium
(D) At 1, 1 (S) Particle is at unstable equilibrium for displaced
in x
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x y
28. A force given by F i j acts on a particle moving along the path as shown
x 2
y
2 32
x 2
y
2 32
in Column I.In Column II workdone by force F is shown. Match the column
Column – I Column - II
(A) (P) Work = 0
B
A
Particle moves on semi circle of radius
r from A to B
(B) B (Q) Work 0
A
Particle moves along a circle of radius
r from A to B
(C)
Particle moves on a random closed
loop
(D) B
A
Particle moves on a random path
29. It is given that a small particle completes the vertical circular motion.
Different region have been marked on the circular trajectory. A is the bottom most position and C is
the top most. Match the entry of Column I and Column II
C
O
D B
A
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Column – I Column - II
(A) No. of points at which speed can be 0 (P) No points
(B) No. of points at which tension can be (Q) 1
0
(C) Region where angle between velocity (R) 2
and total acceleration is acute
(D) Point(s) where acceleration and (S) Between A and B
velocity are along same direction.
(T) Between B and C
(U) Between A and D
30. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along a circle of radius 1 m, then match column I with column II.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Speed of particle and time (t) are (P) Work done by net force on particle is positive
related as V 2t 2
(B) Kinetic energy and distance covered (Q) Power supplied by net force is zero
(s) by particle are related as KE 2s2
(C) Angular velocity and time (t) are (R) Angle between net acceleration and line
joining particle and centre of circle changes
related as 2t
continuously
(D) Angular displacement and time (t) (S) Magnitude of net acceleration changes
continuously
are related as 2 3t
(T) Power supplied by net force in non - zero
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IIT – JEE-2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC : CIRCULAR MOTION, WPE
SOLUTION
1. (B)
Gravitational force is a conservative force and work done against it is a point function i.e. does not
depend on the path.
2. (C)
In the given condition tension in the string
2m1m 2 2 0.36 0.72
T g 10
m1 m 2 1.08
T 4.8N
And acceleration of each block
m m1 0.72 0.36 10
a 2 g g m s .
2
m
1 m 2 0.72 0.36 3
Let ‘S’ is the distance covered by block of mass 0.36 kg in first sec.
1 1 10 10
S ut at 2 S 0 12 meter
2 2 3 6
10
Work done by the string W TS 4.8
6
W 8 Joule.
3. (D)
x4 x2
Potential energy V
4 2
For maximum kinetic energy, potential energy of a particle should be minimum.
dV d2V
For minimum value of V, 0 and 0
dx dx 2
3
dV 4x 2x
Force F 0 x3 x 0
dx 4 2
x x 2 1 0
i.e. at x 0, x 1 and x 1 force on the particle will be zero.
d2V
Now 2
3x 2 1
dx
d2V
For x 1 and x 1 1
dx 2
It means the potential energy of the particle will be minimum at x 1 and x 1 .
Now substituting these values in expression of potential energy
14 12 1 1 1
Vmin J J J
4 2
4 2 4
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1
(kinetic energy)max = Total energy – (Potential energy)min = 2
4
1 9 9 3
m2max 2max max m sec
2 4 2 2
4. (B)
t 0
(Before collision)
1
K mg 2 t 2
2
K t 2 : parabolic graph
Then during collision kinetic energy first decreases to elastic potential energy and then increases.
5. (C)
6. (A)
7. (AC)
8. (B)
9. (BC)
10. (C)
11. (C)
12. (ABD)
13. (A)
14. (C)
1 2
1 v 2 1 2
2 mv 2 m kx
2 2 2 2
2
mv 1 m
kx 2 x v
2 2 k
15. (C)
16. (B)
17. (D)
18. (B)
Sol. 17-18
B
O R/2 A
Clearly F is central hence conservative. hence in one revolution W 0 .
If particle reaches B then it will complete the circle. For finding the w of F. From A to B we find the
work along shown path
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3R 2 3R /2
km kM 2 4Km
w
R 2
r 2
dr
r
2km
3R 3R
R 2
1 4k m
So, m v2
2 3R
8k
v
3R
19. (5)
dK 1
P mv2 t
dt 2
2t dx
v
m dt
x kt 32
20. (2 m/s)
U 3x x 3
dU
F 3x 2 3 0
dx
x 1
x 1 is stable
Mechanical energy conservation between x 1 and +1
1
mv 2 U x 1 0 U x 1
2
v 2 2 2
v 2m / s
21. (4)
0.1
1 1
mu 2 mg 0.06 kx 2
2 2
1 1
0.18u 2 0.1 0.18 10 0.06 2 0.06
2
2 2
N
0.4 N 4 .
10
22. (5)
1
E P.t 0.5W 5s 2.5J m2 5m / s .
2
23. (2)
K 36 x 2 0
2
So x1 8
x 2 4
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24. (3)
mv 2
T mg v g
By energy conservation u 3g
25. (5)
Normal force should be zero finally
2
mg 1 mg
By energy constant - 2mgh mg k
k 2 k
26. (2)
27. ( A R; B Q,S; C P; D S )
u u
F i j 3x 2 3 i 3 3y2 j
x y
F0 1, 1
2U
6x
x 2
2U
6y
y 2
28. ( A P; B P;C P; D Q )
29. ( A P; B Q;C U; D P )
30. ( A P, R,S, T; B P, R,S, T; C P, R,S, T; D Q. )
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IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
R
1. From a circular disc of mass radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius is removed as shown
3
in figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the
disc and passing through O is
40 37
(A) 4 MR2 (B) MR 2 (C) 40 MR2 (D) MR 2
9 9
2. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R, is resting on a table on its rim. The coefficient of thickness
between and disc and table is . Now the disc is pulled with a force F as shown in the figure. The
maximum value of F for which the disc rolls without slipping is
(A) Mg (B) 2Mg (C) 3Mg (D) 4Mg
3. A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed 0 is placed lightly (without any translational push)
on a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the disc is R. Let A , B and C be the magnitudes of
linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc as shown. Then
(A) A B C (B) A B C (C) A B C (D) A B C
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4. When a mass m is connected individually to two springs S1 and S2 the oscillation frequencies are v1
and v2. If the same mass is attached to the two springs as shown in fig., the oscillation frequency
would be
1 1
(A) v1 + v2 (B) v12 v22 (C) (D) v12 v22
v1 v2
5. The displacement – time graph for a particle executing SHM is as shown in figure.
3
(A) The velocity of the particle is maximum at t T
4
T
(B) The velocity of the particle is maximum at t
2
T
(C) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at t
4
3
(D) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at t T
4
6. Two S.H.Ms are represented by the equations. y1 0.1sin 100t and y 2 0.1cos 100 t . The
3
phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 w.r.t. to the velocity of particle 2 is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6 6
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SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. A metal rod of length L and mass m is pivoted at one end. A thin disc of mass M and radius R (< L)
is attached at its centre to the free end of the rod. Consider two ways the disc is attached: (case A).
The disc is not free to rotate about its centre and (case B) the disc is free to rotate about its centre.
The rod – disc system performs SHM in vertical plane after being released from the same displaced
position. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) restoring torque in case A = restoring torque in case B
(B) restoring torque in case A < restoring torque in case B
(C) restoring torque in case A > angular frequency for case B
(D) Angular frequency for A < angular frequency for case B
8. Point of masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L and negligible
mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular
velocity 0 is minimum, is given by
m1L m1 m2 m2L
(A) x (B) x L (C) x L (D) x
m1 m 2 m2 m1 m1 m 2
9. A thin ring of mass 2kg and radius 0.5m is rolling without
slipping on a horizontal plane with a velocity of 1ms-1. A small
ball of mass 0.1kg moving with velocity 20 ms-1 in the opposite
direction hits the ring at a height of 0.75 m and goes vertically up
with velocity 10 ms-1. Immediately after collision.
(A) the ring has pure rotation about its stationary CM
(B) the ring comes to a complete stop
(C) friction between the ring and the ground is to the left
(D) there is no friction between the ring and the ground
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10. The net external torque on a system of particles about an axis is zero. Which of the following are
compatible with it ?
(A) The forces may be acting radially from a point on the axis
(B) The forces may be acting on the axis of rotation
(C) The forces may be acting parallel to the axis of rotation
(D) The torque caused by some forces may be equal and opposite to that caused by other forces
11. Figure shows lamina in x-y plane. Two axes z and z pass perpendicular to its plane. A force F acts
in the plane of lamina at point P as shown. Which of the following are true ? (The point P is closer to
z – axis than the z–axis)
(A) Torque caused by F about z axis is along – k
(B) Torque caused by F about z axis is along – k
(C) Torque caused by F about z axis is greater in magnitude than that about z axis.
(D) Total torque is given by
12. The potential energy of a particle of mass m at a distance r from a fixed point O is given by
V(r) = kr2/2 where k is a positive constant of appropriate dimensions. This particle is moving in a
circular orbit of radius R about the point O. If v is the speed the particle and L is the magnitude of its
angular momentum about O, which of the following statements is (are) true?
k k mk 2
(A) v R (B) R (C) L mkR 2 (D) L R
2m m 2
13. For a particle executing S.H.M., which statements are correct?
(A) The velocity of the particle is maximum at the mean position
(B) The sum of kinetic and potential energies of the particle at any instant remains constant
(C) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the mean position
(D) The restoring force is always directed towards the mean position
14. A simple harmonic motion is represented by y = a sin t. Which of the following statements are
true?
(A) The phase difference between displacement and velocity is
2
(B) The phase difference between the displacement and acceleration is
a2
(C) The magnitude of the maximum acceleration is
2
(D) The maximum velocity of the particle is at the extreme position
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15. The displacement time graph of a particle executing S.H.M. is shown in figure. Which of the
following statement is/are true?
3T 4T
(A) The force is zero at t (B) The acceleration is maximum at t
4 4
T T
(C) The velocity is maximum at t (D) The P.E. is equal to K.E. of oscillation at t
4 2
16. A body is performing S.H.M. Then its
(A) average total energy per cycle is equal to its maximum kinetic energy
(B) average kinetic energy per cycle is equal to half of its maximum kinetic energy
2
(C) mean velocity over a complex cycle is equal to
1
(D) root mean square velocity is times of its maximum velocity
2
SECTION-III (PARAGRAPH TYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions relating to 2 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
A simple pendulum can be used to determine the height of the roof of a dome shaped big hall. The
time period of a simple pendulum depends on the length of the pendulum and acceleration due to
gravity at a place. A student was asked to find the height of the roof of a dome shaped hall. He took a
solid spherical ball of radius 50 cm which was suspended by a string with the roof of the dome.
When the spherical ball suspended freely, its distance from the floor was 5 cm. He noted the time
taken by the ball to complete 10 oscillations about its equilibrium position as 50 seconds. Then the
same pendulum was suspended in a lift which first accelerated upwards with an acceleration of 4ms-2
and then accelerated downwards with an acceleration of 4 ms-2. Assume g = 10 ms-2 ?
17. Time period of the pendulum when suspended with the roof the dome is
(A) 10 s (B) 5 s (C) 2.5 s (D) 1.5 s
18. The height of the dome from the surface of the floor is about
(A) 6.39 m (B) 6.00 m (C) 7.90 m (D) 8.00 m
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Paragraph for Questions No. 19 & 20
Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 about their respective axes (normal to the disc and passing
through the centre), and rotating with angular speed 1and 2 are brought into contact face to face
with their axes of rotation coincident.
19. The angular speed of the two-disc system is
I I I I 1 2 1 2
(A) 1 1 2 2 (B) 1 1 2 2 (C) (D)
I1 I 2 I1 I 2 2 2
20. Loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process is
I1I 2 1 2 I1I 2 1 2 2I1I2 1 2 2I1I 2 1 2
2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 I1 I 2 I1 I 2 I1 I2 I1 I 2
SECTION-IV (LIST-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 04 List-Match sets. Each question has four statements Given in Column-I and
four statements in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one
or more statement (s) given in column-II.
21. Match the statements given in Column – I with the terms given in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Projection of uniform circular motion upon a (P) Force constant
diameter of the circle of reference
(B) The state of a particle as regard to its (Q) Damped oscillation
position and direction of motion w.r.t.
equilibrium position
(C) Restoring force per unit displacement (R) Simple harmonic motion
(D) Periodic oscillations whose amplitude (S) phase
decrease with time
22. A uniform sphere of mass M and radius R placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown in figure is
struck horizontally at a height h from the surface. Match the statements in column I with the
statements in column I with the conditions in column II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Sphere rolls without slipping with constant (P) R
velocity and there is no loss of energy If h
2
(B) Sphere spins clockwise, loses energy by (Q) If h = R
friction
(C) Sphere spins anticlockwise, loses energy by (R) 3
friction If h R
2
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(D) Sphere has only a translational motion, loses (S) 7
energy by friction R
5
SECTION-V (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, –1)
23. The displacement of a particle in SHM is x 10 sin 2t metre. When its displacement is 6m, the
6
-1
velocity of the particle in (ms ) is
24. A particle of mass 4kg is executing S.H.M. Its displacement is given by the equation Y = 8 cos [100t
+ /4] cm. Its maximum kinetic energy is
25. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h-1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the
moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2. If the vehicle is brought to rest in
15s, the magnitude of average torque transmitted by its brakes to the wheel is : (in kg m2S-2)
26. The position of centre of mass of the T-shaped plate from O as shown in figure is (in m)
27. A solid sphere of mass 2kg and radius 0.1m rolls down along a hemispherical bowl ABC from point
A whose height from the bottom B of the bowl is 7m as shown in figure. Part AB of the bowl is the
rough and part BC is frictionless. Calculate the height attained by the sphere along the path BC. (in
m)
28. A sign board (x, y, z) made of metal in the shape of triangle as shown in figure is to be hanged with a
metallic wire.
Find the distance from the left end of the board, when the wire is to be attached to hang the board. (in
m)
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29. A block (B) is attached to two unstretched springs S1 and S2 with spring constants k and 4k,
respectively (see Figure). The other ends are attached to identical supports M1 and M2 not attached
to the walls. The springs and supports have negligible mass. There is no friction anywhere. The
block B is displaced towards wall 1 by a small distance x (Figure II) and released. The block returns
and moves a maximum distance y towards wall 2. Displacements x and y are measured with respect
x
to the equilibrium position of the block B. The ratio is
y
30. Two masses m1 = 1.0 kg and m2 = 0.5 kg are suspended together by a massless spring to spring
constant k as shown in figure. When masses are in equilibrium, m1 is removed without disturbing the
system. Calculate the amplitude of oscillation and angular frequency of m2 (g = 10 m s-2 and k = 12.5
Nm-1)
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (AD) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (ABCD)
11. (BC) 12. (BC) 13. (AB) 14. (AB) 15. (ABC)
16. (ABD) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) R ; (B) S ; (C) Q ; (D) P
22. (A) R ; (B) S ; (C) Q ; (D) P
23. (16.00) 24. (128.00) 25. (6.66) 26. (2.7) 27. (5.00)
28. (2.00) 29. (2.00) 30. (5.00)
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
SOLUTION
1. (A)
9M 2
M.I. of disc about O, I1 R
2
9M
Mass per unit area of disc
R 2
R2
Area of removed small disc
9
9M R 2
mass of removed small disc = M
R 2 9
2 2
1 R 2R 1
M.I. of removed small disc about O, I 2 M M MR
2
2 3 3 2
9M 2 1
M. I. of remaining disc, I I1 I 2 R MR 2
2 2
= 4MR2
2. (C)
Ma = F – f …(1)
fR I
1 1 a 1
or fR MR 2 MR 2 MRa
2 2 R 2
or M a = 2 f
Hence from eqn. (1)
F
f
3
For rolling without slipping
f Mg
F
or Mg or F 3 Mg
3
3. (D)
r
4. (B)
1 K1 1 K2
v1 and v2
2 m 2 m
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K1 K
or 42 v12 and 2 42v22
m m
The spring constant of parallel combination of S1 and S2, K = K1 + K2
1 K 1 K1 K 2
v
2 m 2 m
1 K1 1 K1 K 2
2 m 2 m
v12 v22
5. (A)
From given figure
2
y = A cost, where
T
dy d
A sin t and a 2 A cos t
dt dt
max if sin t 1
3 3 3 T 3T
or t or t
2 2 2 2 4
a a max if cos t = –1
T T
or t = or t
2 2
6. (C)
dy1
1 0.1100 cos 100t
dt 3
y 2 0.1cos100t 0.1sin 100t
2
dy
2 2 0.1 100 cos 100t
dt 2
Phase difference of 1 w.r.t. 2
1000t 1000t
3 2 6
7. (AD)
Restoring torque in both cases is same
mL2 MR 2
IA ML2
3 2
3L2
IB ML2 , I A I B .Since A B
3
A B
8. (D)
Work done = increase in rotational K.E.
1 1
W m1x 2 02 m 2 L x 02
2 2
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dW
Work will be minimum, if 0
dx
or m1x02 m 2 L x 02 0
m1x m 2 L x
m2L
or x
m1 m 2
9. (C)
During collision, angular impulse due to impulsive force i.e., friction tends to decrease the angular
velocity of the ring but the ring continuous to rotate anticlockwise about its centre. Therefore,
friction between the ring and ground is to the left.
10. (ABCD)
r F or r Fsin . Where is angle between r F .
11. (BC)
t r F r sin n , where n represents the direction of torque and perpendicular to the plane
containing r F .
12. (BC)
dV
F Kr
dr
mv 2 K
KR or v R
R m
K
L mvR mR 2 R 2 mK
m
13. (AB)
r 2 y 2 , r = amplitude, y = displacement
a = –2y
1
E M 2 r 2
2
14. (AB)
y a sin t …(1)
a cos t
a sin t …(2)
2
a sin t
2
…(3)
15. (ABC)
y A cos t
A sin t
a A 2 cos t
F m A2 cos t
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3T 2 3T
(A) At t , F m A 2 cos 0
4 T 4
4T 2
(B) At t T,a A 2 cos T A 2
4 T
T 2 T
(C) At t , A sin A A
4 T 4
1 1
(D) P.E. M 2 y 2 M 2 A 2 cos t
2
2 2
2
1 2 T
M 2 A 2 cos
2 T 2
1
M 2 A 2 max
2
1
K.E. M2 A 2 y 2
2
1
M2 A 2 A 2 0
2
16. (ABD)
1
E K r 2 (r = amplitude) = (K.E)max
2
1 1
Average K.E. K r 2 E
4 2
17. (B)
50s
T 5s
10
18. (A)
L
T 2
g
T 2g 25 10
L 6.34m
4 4 3.14
2 2
Height = L + distance of bob from the floor.
= 6.34 + 0.05 = 6.39 m
19. (B)
According to law of conservation of angular momentum: I1 1 I 2 2 I1 I 2
20. (A)
I1 I 2 2 I112 I222
1 1 1
Loss in K.E. = K f K i
2 2 2
I11 I 2 2
Using , we get
I1 I 2
I1I 2 1 2
2
Loss in K.E =
2 I1 I 2
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21. (A) R ; (B) S ; (C) Q ; (D) P
22. (A) R ; (B) S ; (C) Q ; (D) P
v
For rolling the sphere without slipping,
R
Angular momentum of the sphere about its CM.
2 v 2
Mv h R I MR 2 MvR
5 R 5
2 7
or hR R or h R
5 2
Torque about the C.M. of sphere due to force F.
h R F
The torque will be positive or spins clockwise if h > R
The torque will be negative or spins anticlockwise if h < R
The sphere has only translational motion if = 0 or h = R.
23. (16.00)
x 10sin 2t
6
Compare it with standard equation,
y A sin t
A = 10 m, = 2 rad/s
Now A 2 x 2 2 100 36
2 8 16ms 1
24. (128.00)
y = 8 cos(100 t + /4)
dy
800sin 100 t 4
dt
max 800 cm s 1 8m s 1
1 1
max. K.E. m 2max 4 64 128 J
2 2
25. (6.66)
54km h 1 15 ms 1
15
0 rad s 1
r 0.45
= 0, t = 15 s
I 0 3 15
I 6.66
t 15 0.45
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magnitude of = 6.66 kg m2 s-2
26. (2.7)
Let be the mass per unit length of the plate.
mass of horizontal portion, m1 8 2 16
Mass of vertical portion, m 2 6 2 12
Mass m1 is concentrated at O1, whose distance from O, y1 = 1m
Mass m2 is concentrated at O2, whose distance from O, y2 = (3 + 2)m = 5m
m y m 2 y 2 16 12 5 76
y cm 1 1
m1 m 2 16 12 28
= 2.7 m
27. (5.00)
When the solid sphere rolls down along AB path, then according to the law of conservation of
energy,
1 1
Mgh I2 Mv 2
2 2
1 1 7
Mgh Mv 2 Mv 2 Mv 2
5 2 10
10gh
or v 2 …(1)
7
Since part BC is frictionless, so no torque acts on the ball and its K.E. at B is conserved into potential
energy of the sphere at C. Let h be the height attained by the sphere along the path BC. Therefore,
1 1
Mv 2 Mgh or v 2 gh
2 2
Using eqn. (1), we get
1 10gh 5
gh or h 7 5m
2 7 7
28. (2.00)
The wire is to be attached at the centre of mass of the sign board.
Let M = mass of the sign board. Assume that thickness of sign board is negligible.
Consider a small strip of length y and width dx on the sing board. Let be the mass/area of the sign
M 2M
board
1
Lh Lh
2
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2M
mass of the strip, dm = ydx y dx
Lh
1 1 2M 2
Now x cm x dm x y dx xy dx
M M Lh Lh
y h h
But or y x
x L L
L L
2 h 2
x cm x x dx 2 x 2 dx
Lh 0 L L 0
L
2 x3 2 L3 2
2 2 L
L 3 0 L 3 3
2
3m 2m
3
29. (2.00)
1 2 1 x
kx 4k y2 or 4 2
2 2 y
30. (5.00)
Let y = extension in length of the spring when both m1and m2 are suspended with it.
Then (m1 + m2)g = ky
y 1
m m2 g
k
Let y = extension in the length of the spring when only m2 is suspended.
mg
m 2 g ky y 2
k
m m 2 g m 2 g m1g
y y 1
k k k
This is amplitude (r) of the oscillation
m g 110
r 1 0.8m
k 12.5
k 12.5
5 rad s1
m2 0.5
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE / NAGPUR
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3, –1)
1. Find the moment of inertia of a hemisphere of mass M (shown in the figure) about an axis AA
passing through its centre of mass.
69 89 74 83
(A) MR 2 (B) MR 2 (C) MR 2 (D) MR 2
240 320 243 320
2. A uniform rod AB of mass m = 2 kg and length L = 1 m is placed on a sharp support O such that a =
0.4 m and b = 0.6 m. A spring of force constant k = 600 Nm–1 is attached to the end B. To keep the
rod horizontal, its end A is tied with a thread such that the spring is elongated by 1 cm. When the
thread is burnt, what will be the reaction of the support O? (Given, g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 15 N (B) 20 N (C) 25 N (D) 30 N
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3. A wedge of mass 4m is placed at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A uniform solid sphere of mass
m and radius r is placed at rest on the flat portion of the smooth wedge at a point Q as shown in the
figure. A sharp horizontal impulse J is given to the sphere at a point below h = 0.4 r from the centre
of the sphere. The maximum height to which the centre of mass of the sphere will climb on the
curved portion of the wedge is
2J 2 J2 J2 3J 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5m 2 g 5m 2 g 2m 2 g 5m 2 g
4. Two particles P1 and P2 are executing SHM along the same straight line, whose equations are given
x1 A sin t 1 and x2 A sin t 2 . An observer on the ground, at t 0 , observes particle
A 3
P1 at distance moving to the right from mean position O while particle P2 at A moving to
2 2
the left from mean position O, as shown in figure. Find the value of 2 1 .
7 13 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 12 6
5. A particle of mass m moves with its potential energy U shown in the figure. The period of the
motion, if the total energy of the particle is E0 , is
m 2 E0 m
(A) 4 (B) 2
k mg 2 k
m 2 E0 2 E0
(C) 2 (D) 2
k mg 2 mg 2
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6. A block of mass m suspended by means of an ideal spring of force constant k from the ceiling of a
car, which is moving along a circular path of radius r with acceleration a0 . The time period of
oscillation of the block, when it is displaced along the spring, will be
mg ma0 m m m
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
k k g a
2 2
0
k k g 2 a02
2
SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. A horizontally oriented uniform disc of mass M and radius R rotates freely about a stationary vertical
axis passing through its centre. The disc has a radial guide along which can slide, without friction, a
small body of mass m. A light thread running down through the hollow axle of the disc, is tied up to
the body. Initially, the body was located at the edge of the disc and the whole system rotated with an
angular velocity 0 0 . Then, by means of force F applied to the lower end of the thread, the body
was slowly pulled to the rotational axis. Choose the correct option(s).
m
(A) The angular velocity of the system in its final state is 1 0
2M
2m
(B) The angular velocity of the system in its final state is 1 0
M
1 2m
(C) Work performed by the force F is mR 2 02 1
2 M
1 m
(D) Work performed by the force F is mR 2 02 1
2 2M
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8. A rod leans against a stationary cylindrical body as shown in the figure. Now, its right end slides to
the right on the floor with a constant speed v. Choose the correct option(s).
2 Rv 2 2 x 2 R 2
(A) The angular acceleration is
x 2 x 2 R 2 3/ 2
2Rv
(B) The angular speed is
x x 2 R 2 1/ 2
Rv
(C) The angular speed is
x x R 2 1/ 2
2
Rv 2 2 x 2 R 2
(D) The angular acceleration is
x 2 x 2 R 2 3/ 2
9. For the figure, the cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 10 cm has a tape wrapped around it. The pulley
weighs 100 N and has a radius 5 cm. When the system is released, the 5 kg mass comes down and
the cylinder rolls without slipping. Choose the correct option(s).
3g 4g
(A) Acceleration of mass is (B) Acceleration of mass is
11 11
3gt 4 gt
(C) Velocity of mass is (D) Velocity of mass is
11 11
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10. A string is wrapped several times on a cylinder of mass M and radius R. The cylinder is pivoted
about its axis of symmetry. A block of mass m tied to the string rests on a support positioned so that
the string has no slack. The block is carefully lifted vertically a distance h and the support is removed
as shown. Now, the block is released. Just before the string gets taut, kinetic energy of the system is
E0 . Just after taut kinetic energy of the system, velocity of m and angular velocity of cylinder are
E1 , v1 and 1 respectively. Then,
E0 2 gh 2 gh
(A) E0 mgh (B) E1 (C) v1 (D) 1
M M M
1 1 R 1
2m 2m 2m
11. In the shown figure, a block of mass m connected to an ideal spring (of force constant k) in different
ways. Time period is denoted by T. Choose the correct option.
entire block is always in fluid
during oscillation
m m
(A) T 2 only in (i), (ii), (iii) (B) T 2 only (i), (ii) (v)
k k
m m
(C) T 2 cos in (ii) (D) T 2 in all cases
k k
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12. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the same time period (T) and equal amplitudes
(A). At a particular instant, one particle is at x = – A and the other is at x = 0. They move in the same
direction. They will cross each other at
4T 3T A A
(A) t (B) t (C) x (D) x
3 8 2 2
SECTION-III (COMPREHENSIONS TYPE)
This section contains 06 questions. Based on each paragraph, there are THREE questions. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 13 & 14
Three particles A, B and C, each of mass m are connected to one another by three massless rigid rods
to form a rigid, equilateral triangular body of side l. This body is placed on a horizontal frictionless
table (XY-plane) and is hinged to it at the point A so that it can move without friction about the
vertical axis through A. A force F is applied on B along BC. At the given instant its angular velocity
is & the side BC is parallel to X-axis.
13. The magnitude of vertical force (Y-component) exerted by the hinge on the body at the given instant
is
3 3
(A) ml 2 (B) ml 2 (C) 3 ml 2 (D) 2 3 ml 2
2 4
14. The magnitude of horizontal force (X-component) exerted by the hinge on the body at the given
instant is
3F 2F F F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 3 3 4
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Paragraph for Questions No. 15 & 16
A rod AB of length 3 m remains in contact with a horizontal floor and a vertical wall. At the instant
shown, the point A has a velocity 2 ms–1 and an acceleration of 1.6 ms–2 rightwards.
15. The velocity of B at the instant shown is
(A) 1.72 ms–1 (B) 1.16 ms–1 (C) 1.98 ms–1 (D) 1.54 ms–1
16. The acceleration of B at the instant shown is
(A) 3.72 ms–2 (B) 3.43 ms–2 (C) 2.21 ms–2 (D) 2.98 ms–2
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
4mg
A small block of mass m is fixed at upper end of a vertical spring of spring constant k and
L
natural length 10L. The lower end of spring is free and is at a height L from fixed horizontal floor as
shown in the figure. The spring is initially unstretched and the spring-block system is released from
rest in the shown position.
17. At the instant, the speed of block is maximum, the magnitude of force exerted by the spring on the
block is
mg
(A) mg (B) (C) zero (D) None of these
2
18. As the block is coming down, the maximum speed attained by the block is
3 3
(A) gL (B) gL (C) 3gL (D) gL
2 2
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SECTION-IV (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, 0)
19. A uniform thin rod is released from rest in the horizontal position as shown in the figure. The value
L
of x for which angular acceleration is maximum is given by x . Find N.
2 N
20. A man of mass m = 80 kg runs at a speed u = 4 ms–1 along the tangent to a disc shaped platform of
mass M = 160 kg and radius R = 2 m. The platform is initially at rest and can rotate freely about an
axis through its centre. Find the angular velocity of the man after the man jumps on to the disc.
21. A constant force F is exerted on a rod of mass M. The rod is supported by a frictionless wall. If the
rod starts from a position of rest when 45 (see figure). The angular speed when the end A has
1/2
F
moved a distance 1.5 m is 1.6 . Find the value of K.
KM
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22. A spherical ball of radius R and mass m collides with a plank of mass M kept on a smooth horizontal
surface. Just before impact, the centre of the ball has a velocity v0 and angular velocity 0 as shown
in the figure. After the impact, the normal velocity is reversed with same magnitude and the ball
stops rotating after the impact. The coefficient of friction between the ball and the plank is .
Assume that the plank is large enough. The distance on the plank between first two impacts of the
4v R m
ball is 0 0 1 . Find the value of .
g M
23. A car of mass m travelling at speed v moves on a horizontal track. The centre of mass of the car
describes a circle of radius r. If 2a is the separation between the inner wheels and outer wheels and h
is the height of the centre of mass above the ground, if the limiting speed beyond which the car will
gra
overturn is given by v k . Find k.
h
(Assume that the car overturns before skidding as v increases)
24. A rigid sculpture, consisting of thin hoop (of mass m and radius R) and two thin rods (each of mass
m and length L = 2R), is arranged as shown in the figure. The sculpture is pivoted and can rotate in a
horizontal axis in the plane of the hoop and passing through centre of the hoop. The sculptures
35mR 2
rotational inertia about this axis is approximately . Find the value of K.
K
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25. A sphere of mass M and radius R is on a smooth fixed inclined plane in equilibrium as shown in the
figure. If now the sphere is displaced through a small distance along the plane, what will be the
4M
angular frequency (in rads–1) of the resulting SHM? (Given, k )
3
26. A highly rigid cubical block B1 of small mass m and side L is fixed rigidly onto another cubical
block B2 of same dimensions and of low modulus of rigidity , such that the lower face of B1
completely covers the upper face of B2 . The lower face of B2 is rigidly held on a horizontal surface.
A small force F is applied perpendicular to one of the side faces of B1 . After force is withdrawn,
m
block B1 executes small oscillations, the time period of which is . Find the value of .
L
SECTION-V (MATRIX-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 04 Matrix Match. Each question has matching lists. Each question has four
choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+8, 0)
27. In each case, there is a sufficient friction for regular rigid uniform disc to undergo pure rolling on a
rigid horizontal surface. Match the situations in Column I to the Statements in Column II.
Column – I Column – II
(P) (1) The direction of static friction may be forward
or backward or static friction may be zero.
(Q) (2) The direction of static friction is backwards.
(R) (3) The angular acceleration will be clockwise.
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(S) (4) Acceleration of the centre of mass will be
along the direction of F.
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
28. A sphere, a ring and a disc of same mass and same radius are allowed to roll down three similar,
sufficiently rough inclined planes as shown from the same height.
Match the following columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
(P) Final kinetic energy (1) Sphere > disc > ring
(Q) Final linear velocity (2) Sphere < disc < ring
(R) Frictional force acting during rolling (3) Disc = ring = sphere
(S) Time taken to reach the bottom (4) Ring > sphere > disc
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 2
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
29. The figure shows a uniform smooth solid cylinder A of radius R = 4m rolling without slipping on the
8 kg plank, which in turn is supported by a fixed smooth horizontal surface. The blocks B and C
accelerate downwards with 6 ms–2 and 2 ms–2, respectively.
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The angular acceleration of the cylinder A is , the acceleration of COM of the cylinder is a, the
mA
ratio of mass of cylinder A to the mass of block B is . The length of the unwrapped tread
MB
between the cylinder and the block B at t 0 is I 0 20 m and at t 2s is l. Assume the system to be
released from rest. (g = 10 ms–2). Match the following columns and select the correct options from
the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
(P) (in rad s )
–2 (1) 8
(Q) 2a (in ms )–2 (2) 2
(R) mA (3) 4
mB
(S) l l0 (in m) (4) 1
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 4 1
30. A spring-block pendulum (horizontal configuration) executes SHM in such a way that the block has
velocity v when it crosses the mean position. Now, the changes are made in such a way that the
velocity while crossing the mean position gets doubled, without changing the mass of block. In
Column I, some statements (in complete) are given and corresponding completions are given in
Column II.
Match the Column I with Column II and mark the correct option from the codes given below.
Column – I Column – II
(P) The frequency of oscillation will change by a factor of (1) 2
(Q) The amplitude of oscillation will change by a factor of (2) 2
(R) The magnitude of maximum acceleration will change by (3) 1
a factor of
(S) Maximum PE increases by a factor of (4) 4
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 1 4
(B) 1 1 3 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE / NAGPUR
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (BC) 8. (CD) 9. (BD) 10. (ABCD)
11. (D) 12. (BD) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (5) 23. (1) 24. (6) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE / NAGPUR
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: ROTATION, SHM
SOLUTION
1. (D)
We know,
2 1 2
I BB 2M R 2 MR 2
5 2 5
2
3R
I BB I COM M
8
2 9
I COM MR 2 MR 2
5 64
128 45 83
I COM I AA MR 2 MR 2
320 320
2. (B)
Just after the thread is burnt the forces acting on the rod are as shown in the figure.
about O 20 0.1 6 0.6 5.6 N- m
T 5.6
I 2 1 2
2
2 0.1
12
30 rad s2
aCOM 0.1 0.1 30 3 ms 2
Fnet ma
kx mg F m aCOM
6 20 F 2 3
F 20 N
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3. (A)
2
J mvc and j Jh mr 2
5
J 5h 0.4r J
vc and
m 2 mr 2 mr
1 2
Etotal i mvc2 mr 2 2
2 5
2 2
1 J 2 J
m mr 2
2 m 5 mr
J 2 2J 2 9 J 2
2m 5m 10 m
1 2 1 J2 J2
K translational i mvc m 2
2 2 m 2m
K rotational i remains constant.
K translational i becomes
K translational f of m 4m and mgh
From conservation of momentum,
mvc m 4m v
vc
v
5
1
K translational f 5m v
2
of m 4m
2
2
1 v mv 2
5m c c
2 5 10
2 2
m J J
2
10 m 10 m
J2 J2
mgh
2m 10 m
1 J 2 1 1 2 j2
h
mg m 2 10 5 m 2 g
4. (B)
x1 A sin t 1
A
At t 0, x
2
A
A sin 0 1
2
1
sin 1 1
2 4
x2 A sin t 2
3
At t 0, x A
2
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3
A A sin 0 2
2
3
sin 2
2
4
2
3 3
4 16 3 13
2 1
3 4 12 12
5. (C)
The left half of the graph is usual SHM.
m
t1
k
For the right part, U mgx
At the origin, U 0
K E0
As we move right the potential energy increases linearly with x.
This is similar to a body that is thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity.
1 2 2 E0
nu E0 u
2 m
Time of flight till it reaches point of projection (i.e. origin) is
2u 2 2 E0 2 E0
t2 2
g g m mg 2
m 2 E0
Total time of oscillation is T1 t1 t2 2
k mg 2
6. (C)
In this case of spring-block system, a0 and g do not effect time period.
m
T 2
k
7. (BC)
Here, the external force F is applied on the system along the axis of rotation.
So, ext is zero. Thus, I is conserved.
MR 2
(i) I1 mR 2
2
1 0
MR 2
I2
2
2 ?
I11 I 2 2
I1
2 1
I2
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MR 2
mR 2
2
0
MR 2
2
2m
1 0
M
(ii) The work performed by force,
F = change in KE of the system.
1 1
W K f K i I 2 22 I112
2 2
2
1 MR 2 2m 2 1 MR 2
1 0 mR 2 02
2 2 M 2 2
1 2m
mR 2 02 1
2 M
8. (CD)
From geometry,
R
x
sin
d
R cos
dx d R dt
c
dt dt sin gq sin 2
d
dt
R cos
So v
sin 2
2
R
v sin 2 v Rv
x
R cos R x 2 R 2 x x R2
2 1/2
x
d d Rv
dt dt x x R
2 2
Rv 2 2 x 2 Rh2
x2 x2 R2
3/2
9. (BD)
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For no slipping at A, a2 a1 R11 ... v
For no slipping at B, a1 R11 ... vi
Solving the above equations, we get
4 4 gt
al 2 g , v a2t
11 11
10. (ABCD)
Just before the string is taut, cylinder is not rotating.
MR 2
So, E0 mgh when the string gets taut, L i L f mv0 R 0 mv1 R 1
2
MR 2
Or m 2 ghR mv1 R 1 .
2
The string is inextensible.
So, v1 E1
2 gh
Solving the above equations, we get 1
M
1
2m
2 gh E0
v1 and E1
M M
1 1
2m 2m
11. (D)
m
Basically for a spring-block system, when there are no dissipative effects, time period is T 2 .
k
Note In case (iv), this is true only when the entire block is inside the liquid, during oscillations and
no viscous effect is present.
12. (BD)
3
For 1st particle, x A sin t A cos t .
2
For 2 particle, x A sin t
nd
When they cross each other
cos t sin t tan t 1
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3
t
4
3 T 3T
t
4 2 8
3T 2 3T 3 A
When t , x A sin , A sin 9
8 T 8 4 2
Solution for Questions No. 13 & 14
13. (C) 14. (A)
(i) ac 2 r a
The centre of mass moves along a circular path with constant angular velocity. So, there must be
a horizontal centripetal force directed towards the axis at the hinge.
I 2
Fc 3m 3 ml
2
3
(ii) Let Fx and Fy be the forces applied by the hinge along X-axis and Y-axis, respectively.
l
F x Fx F 3m at 3m
3
... i
l 2
F y Fy 3m
3
... ii
3
F l ml 2 ml 2 ... iii
2
From Eq. (iii), we get
3F
4 ml
From Eq. (i), we get
l 3F F
Fx F 3m
3 4 ml 4
3F
Fx
4
From Eq. (ii), we get
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Fy 3 ml 2
Solution for Questions No. 15 & 16
15. (B)
v r
3 3
vA
2
2
or 2
3 3
4
rad s 1
3 3
3 3 1 2
vB 1.16 ms 1
2 2 3 3 3
16. (D)
The motion of B can be looked as translation of end B with velocity v A rotation of B w.r.t. A with
tangential velocity vBA . Since, the velocity vector of end B is downwards, the resultant of v A and
vBA must be equal to vB (see figure).
vA
sin 60 o
vBA
vA 2 2
vBA o
sin 60 3
1
or vBA 2.3 ms
The acceleration of end B has three components
(i) Due to translation of end A, a A 1.6 ms 1
(ii) Due to rotation of end B about A, i.e. tangential acceleration,
at , rAB 3 3 ms 2
(iii) Radial acceleration from B to A,
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2.3 1.76 ms1
2
v2
an BA
rAB 3
The net acceleration of end B is vertically downwards.
So, net horizontal component must be zero.
ax 0
1.6 1.76 cos 60o 3 cos 30o 0
0.95rad s2
aB a y 1.76sin 60o 3 sin 30o 2.98ms 1
17. (A)
When the speed of the block is maximum, Fnet 0
Spring force mg
18. (D)
Fs mg kx (When the speed is maximum)
mg
x
k
mg
Compression in spring
k
mg L
L
4mg 4
L
h 11L 10 L
4
L 5L
L
4 4
Applying conservation of energy.
2
5L 1 L 1 2
mg k mvmax
4 2 4 2
5 L 1 4mg L2 1 2
mg mvmax
4 2 L 16 2
5 g L gL 2
vmax
2 4
5 1 10 1
vmax
2
gL gL
2 4 4
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3
vmax gL
2
19. (3)
About O,
0 I 0
mL2
mgx mx 2
12
gx
2
L 2
x
12
d
For to be maximum, 0
dx
L2 2
x g gx 2 x 0
12
2
L
2 x2 x2
12
L2
x2
12
L
x
2 3
max for x L
2 3
L
g
2 3 g 3
2
L2 L L
12 2 3
20. (1)
About the centre of the disc, L i L f
MR 2
muR 0 mR 2
2
2 160
80 4 2 2 80
2
640 640
1rad s1
21. (2)
The length of the rod is L 32 32 18 m . When the end A moves a distance x 1.5 m , let the
end B moves a distance y.
From figure, 3 x 3 y 18
2 2
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y 0.97 m
Now, let v A and vB are the velocities of A and B, respectively.
Then, vA 3.97 and vB 1.5
The velocity of centre C is
2 2
v v
v A B
2
C
2 2
or vC 4.52 2
2
In this process, centre C will rise
y 0.97
0.485 m
2 2
From conservation of mechanical energy,
Work done by F = Increase in GPE of centre of mass + Increases in RKE of rod about instantaneous
centre.
1
F 1.5 mg 0.485 I IAOR 2
2
18
2
2
M 18
I IAOR M
12 2
1.5M 4.5M 6M
1
F 1.5 4.735M 6 M 2
2
F
1.5 4.753 32
M
F F
1.5 4.753 32 2 1.6
M 2M
1/2
F
1.6
2M
K 2
22. (5)
The forces during impact are as shown in figure (i).
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Let the horizontal velocities of the plank and the ball be v2 and v1 in opposite directions as shown in
figure (ii).
From conservation of linear momentum
mv1 Mv2 ... i
Linear impulse of the ball in vertical direction = Change in linear momentum in vertical direction.
J 2mv0 ... ii J Ndt p
Linear impulse on the ball in horizontal direction = Change in linear momentum in horizontal
direction.
J mv1 ... iii
Angular impulse on the ball about centre of mass = Change in angular momentum about centre of
mass
2
JR I 0 mR 2 0 ... iv
5
Solving Eqs. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
2 m 2
v1 R0 and v2 R0
5 M 5
2v y 2v0
Now, actual path of the ball is projectile, whose time of flight will be T
g g
Relative velocity of ball with respect of plank in horizontal direction is
2 m
vr v1 v2 1 R0
5 M
So, the desired distance is
4 v R m
s vr T 0 0 1
5 g M
23. (1)
Figure shows the rear view of the car that is turning towards left.
Frictional force on the tyres provides centripetal force while turning.
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mv 2
Fx f1 f 2 r
... i
Fy N1 N 2 mg 0 ... ii
From condition of rotational equilibrium, sum of moments about centre of mass must be zero.
f1 f 2 h N1a N2 a 0
a
or f1 f 2 N 2 N1 ... iii
h
From the above equation, it is clear that N1 N 2 .
So, as speed increases, N1 decreases and at the time of overturning N1 becomes zero. So, inner
wheels lose their contact with the ground.
From Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
mv 2 h
N 2 N1 ... iv
ar
hmv 2 hmv 2
By solving Eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get 2 N1 mg and 2 N 2 mg
ar ar
At the time of overturning, N1 0
hmv 2 gra
mg v
ar h
Alternate Method We can solve this problem from the reference frame of car. At the instant, the car
begins to overturn the forces N1 and f1 are zero. Taking moments about centre of mass for rotational
equilibrium.
mv 2
r
h mg a 0
gra
or v
h
Note Overturning happens only when is sufficient to prevent slipping before overturning. If is
not sufficient enough to prevent skidding, the vehicle skids first before toppling. In such case
f1 f 2 N1 N 2 (Note that N1 N2 mg )
Equality sign holds good when skidding starts.
mv 2
Also, f1 f 2
r
mv 2
When skidding starts, mg v gr
r
Therefore, the limiting speed at which skidding uses is given by v gr
So, if the car is to skid rather than overturn, then
gra a
gr or
h h
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24. (6)
About the axis given
m 2R
2
mL2
m 2R m 2R
2 2
IA
12 12
1 13
4 mR 2 mR 2
3 3
I B mR 2
mR 2
I hoop
2
13 1 26 6 3
I net 1 mR 2 mRh2
3 2 6
35
mR 2 6mR 2 K 6
6
25. (1)
If the sphere moves down along the plane by a distance x, extension in the spring = x cos 30o
Restoring force = F cos 30o
3
As it restoring in nature, FR kx
4
3 k
a x
4 M
3 k 3 4M
1rad s 1
4 M 4M 3
26. (4)
F
A
x
Here, A L2 and .
L
Restoring force is F A Lx
L
Acceleration is a x
m
a x
L
Oscillations are simple harmonic with
m
2 m 4m
So, T 2
L L
4
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27. (A)
Fh fR I , F maCOM , aCOM R
Hence, (P) 1, 3, 4; (Q) 2, 3, 4; (R) 2, 3, 4; (S) 1, 3, 4
28. (A)
Energy is conserved for all the three bodies.
So, final KE for all will be same.
K2 K2 1
2
1 for ring, 2 for disc,
R R 2
2
K 2
2
0.4 for sphere
R 5
g sin
a
K2
1 2
R
asphere adisc aring
Higher the acceleration, smaller will be the time taken.
Also, vsphere vdisc vring
and f sphere f disc f ring
Hence, (P) 3; (Q) 1; (R) 2; (S) 2
29. (A)
a A R aB
a 4 6 ... i
R aA aC ... ii
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
a 2 ms2 , 1rad s 2
1 1
l l0 R t 2 20 4 1 2 28 m
2
2 2
l l0 8m
mB g T mB aB
10mB T 6mB
T mA a A
T 2mA
mA
2
mB
Hence, (P) 4; (Q) 3; (R) 2; (S) 1
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30. (A)
1 k
f , so f does not change.
2 m
So, does not change.
vmax v A
and v A
A 2 A v 2v
amax A2
2 amax
amax
KEmax increases by a factor 4. So, does PE.
Hence, (P) 3; (Q) 1; (R) 1; (S) 4
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CONIC SECTION
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
1. The equation x 2 (y 1)2 x 2 (y 1) 2 K will represent a hyperbola for
(A) K (0, 2) (B) K (2, 1) (C) K (1, ) (D) K (0, )
2. An equilateral triangle SAB is inscribed in the parabola y 2 4ax having it’s focus “S”. If chord AB
lies towards the left of S, then side length of this triangle is
(A) 2a(2 3 ) (B) 4a(2 3 ) (C) a(2 3 ) (D) 8a(2 3 )
a 3x 2 a 2x
3. The locus of the vertex of the family of parabolas y 2a is
3 2
105 3 35 64
(A) xy (B) xy (C) xy (D) xy
64 4 16 105
4. Let Pi and P 'i be the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from foci S, S’ on a tangent Ti to an ellipse
10
whose length of semi-major axis is 20, if (SP )(S'P ' ) 2560 , then the value of eccentricity is
i 1
i i
1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5
5. If maximum distance of any point on the ellipse x 2 2y 2 2xy 1 from its centre be r, then r is equal
to
2
(A) 3 3 (B) 2 2 (C) (D) 2 2
3 5
6. (x – 1) (y – 2) = 5 and (x 1)2 (y 2) 2 r 2 intersect at four points A, B, C, D and if centroid of
ABC lies on line y = 3x – 4, then locus of D is
(A) y = 3x (B) x 2 y 2 3x 1 0 (C) 3y = x + 1 (D) y = 3x + 1
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SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
7. If the normal at P to the rectangular hyperbola x 2 y 2 4 meets the axes in G and g is the centre of
the hyperbola, then
(A) PG = PC (B) Pg = PC (C) PG = Pg (D) Gg = 2PC
x2 y2
8. Consider the ellipse 1 and f(x) is a positive decreasing function, then
f (k 2 2k 5) f (k 11)
(A) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is x-axis is (3, 2)
(B) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is (, 2)
(C) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is (, 3) (2, )
(D) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is (3, )
x 2 y2
9. The locus of the image of the focus of the ellipse 1 (a b) with respect to any of the
25 9
tangents to the ellipse is
(A) (x 4) 2 y 2 100 (B) (x 2) 2 y 2 50
(C) (x 4) 2 y 2 100 (D) (x 2) 2 y 2 50
10. If the tangent drawn at point (t 2 , 2t) on the parabola y 2 4x is same as the normal drawn at point
( 5 cos , 2 sin ) on the ellipse 4x 2 5y 2 20 . Then
1 1 2 1
(A) cos 1 (B) cos 1 (C) t (D) t
5 5 5 5
11. If a pair of variable straight lines x 2 4y 2 axy 0 (where is a real parameter) cut the ellipse
x 2 4y 2 4 at two points A and B, then the locus of the point of intersection of tangents at A and B
is
(A) x – 2y = 0 (B) 2x – y = 0 (C) x + 2y = 0 (D) 2x + y = 0
12. Parabola y 2 4x and the circle having it’s centre at (6, 5) intersect at right angle. Possible point of
intersection of these curves can be
(A) (9, 6) (B) (2, 8) (C) (4, 4) (D) (3, 2 3)
13. The locus of the midpoint of the focal distance of a variable point moving on the parabola, y 2 4ax
is a parabola whose
(A) latus rectum is half the latus rectum of the original parabola.
a
(B) vertex is , 0 (C) directrix is y-axis
c
(D) focus has the co-ordinates (a, 0)
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14. A square has one vertex at the vertex of the parabola y 2 4x and the diagonal through the vertex lies
along the axis of the parabola. If the ends of the other diagonal lie on the parabola, the coordinates of
the vertices of the square are
(A) (4a, 4a) (B) (4a, 4a) (C) (0, 0) (D) (8a, 0)
15. Which of the following is/are true?
2
5x 12y 1
(A) There are infinite positive integral values of a for which (13x 1) 2 (13y 2) 2
a
represents an ellipse.
(B) The minimum distance of a point (1, 2) from the ellipse 4x 2 9y 2 8x 36y 4 0 is 1
(C) If from a point P(0, ) two normals other than axes are drawn to the ellipse
x 2 y2 9
1, then | a |
25 16 4
(D) If the length of latus rectum of an ellipse is one-third of its major axis, then its eccentricity is
1
equal to
3
16. The equation of the chord joining two points (x1 , y1 ) and (x 2 , y 2 ) on the rectangular hyperbola
xy c 2 is
x y x y
(A) 1 (B) 1
x1 x 2 y1 y 2 x1 x 2 y1 y 2
x y x y
(C) 1 (D) 1
y1 y 2 x1 x 2 y1 y 2 x1 x 2
SECTION-III (PARAGRAPH TYPE)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions relating to 2 paragraph. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+4, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
Consider the ellipse whose major and minor axes are x-axis and y-axis, respectively. If is the angle
3
between the CP and the normal at point P on the ellipse, and the greatest value tan is (where C is
2
the centre of the ellipse). Also semi-major axis is 10 units.
17. The eccentricity of the ellipse is
1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 3 2
18. A rectangle is inscribed in the ellipse whose sides are parallel to the co-ordinates axes, then
maximum area of rectangle is
(A) 50 units (B) 100 units (C) 25 units (D) none of these
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Paragraph for Questions No. 19 & 20
The locus of foot of perpendicular from any focus of a hyperbola upon any tangent to the hyperbola
is the auxiliary circle of the hyperbola. Consider the foci of a hyperbola as (3, 2) and (5, 6) and the
foot of perpendicular from the focus (5, 6) upon a tangent to the hyperbola as (2, 5)
19. The conjugate axis of the hyperbola is
(A) 4 11 (B) 2 11 (C) 4 22 (D) 2 22
20. The directrix of the hyperbola corresponding to the focus (5, 6) is
(A) 2x + 2y 1 = 0 (B) 2x + 2y – 11 = 0
(C) 2x + 2y – 7 = 0 (D) 2x + 2y – 9 = 0
SECTION-IV (LIST-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 04 List-Match sets. Each question has four statements Given in Column-I and
four statements in Column-II. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with one
or more statement (s) given in column-II.
21.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Parabola y 4x and the circle having its centre at (6, (P)
2 13
5) intersects at right angle, at the point (a, a) then one
value of a equal to
(B) The angle between the tangents drawn to (Q) 8
(y 2)2 4(x 3) at the points where it is intersected
4
by the line 3x – y + 8 = 0 is , then p has the value
equal to
(C) If the line x – 1 = 0 is the directrix of the parabola (R) 10 5
y 2 kx 8 0 , then one of the value of k is
(D) Length of the normal chord of the parabola y 2 8x at (S) 4
the point where abscissa & ordinate are equal is
(T) 12
22.
Column – I Column – II
(A) x 2
y 2
4 (P) 36
A tangent to the ellipse 1 having slope
27 48 3
cuts the x and y-axis at the points A and B
respectively. If O is the origin then area of triangle
OAB is equal to
(B) Product of the perpendicular drawn from the points ( (Q) 72
3, 0) to the line y = mx 25m2 16 is
(C) An ellipse passing through the origin has its foci (3, 4) (R) 10
and (6, 8), then length of its minor axis is
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(D) x 2 y2 (S) 16
If PQ is focal chord of ellipse 1 which
25 16
passes through S = (3, 0) and PS = 2 then length of
chord PQ is
(T) 10 2
SECTION-V (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, –1)
23. Tangents and normal at points P and Q to the parabola y 2 4x intersect at point T and point R(9, 6)
respectively. Then find the length of tangent drawn from (1, 1) to the circle circumscribing the
quadrilateral PTQR.
24. From a point A common tangents are drawn to the circle x 2 y 2 a 2 / 2 and the parabola y 2 4ax .
Find the area of the quadrilateral formed by the common tangents, the chords of contact of the point
a 2
A w.r.t the circle and the parabola is , then find .
4
(x 4) 2 y 2
25. If x, y R satisfying the equation 1 , then the difference between the largest and
4 9
x 2 y2
smallest value of the expression is
4 9
x 2 y2
26. Consider an ellipse (E) 1 , centered at point ‘O’ and having AB and CD as its major and
a 2 b2
minor axes respectively if S1 be one of the foci of the ellipse, radius of incircle of triangle OCS1 be 1
unit and OS1 = 6 units, then the value of (a – b)/2 is
x 2 y2
27. If from a point P(0, ) two normal other than axes are drawn to ellipse 1 , such that
25 16
| | k , then the value of 4k is
e e'
28. , are the eccentricities of
If a variable line has its intercepts on the co-ordinates axes e. e’, where
2 2
a hyperbola and its conjugate hyperbola, then this line always touches the circle x 2 y 2 r 2 , where
r=
29. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola x 2 y 2 sec 2 5 is 3 times the eccentricity of the ellipse
x 2 sec 2 y 2 25 , then smallest positive value of is , value of ‘p’ is
P
2
x y2
30. If the chord x cos + y sin = p of the hyperbola 1 subtends a right angle at the centre,
16 18
and the diameter of the circle, concentric with the hyperbola, to which the given chord is a tangent is
d then the value of d/4 is
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CONIC SECTION
ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (ABCD) 8. (AC) 9. (AC) 10. (AD)
11. (AC) 12. (AC) 13. (ABCD) 14. (ABCD) 15. (ABC)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (A) (s), (B) (q), (C) (s), (D) (r)
22. (A) (p), (B) (s), (C) (t), (D) (r)
23. (4.00) 24. (15.00) 25. (8.00) 26. (4.00) 27. (9.00)
28. (2.00) 29. (4.00) 30. (6.00)
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / GHAZIABAD / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE
IIT – JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 1
TOPIC: CONIC SECTION
SOLUTION
1. (A)
We have, x 2 (y 1)2 x 2 (y 1) 2 K
Which is required to | S1P S2 P | = constant, where S1 (0,1),S2 (0, 1) and P (x, y)
The above equation represents a hyperbola. So, we have
2a = K
and 2ae S1S2 2
Where 2a is the transverse axis and e is the eccentricity.
Dividing, we have
2
e
K
Since, e > 1 for a hyperbola, therefore K < 2
Also, K must be a positive quantity.
So, we have K (0, 2)
2. (B)
Let A = (at12 , 2at1 ), B (at 22 , 2at1 )
We have
5
m AS tan
6
2at1 1
at1 1
2
3
t12 2 3t1 1 0
t1 3 2
Clearly, t1 3 2 is rejected
Thus, t1 (2 3)
Hence, AB 4at1 4a(2 3)
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3. (A)
a 3x 2 a 2 x B D
The family of parabolas is y 2a and the vertex is A , (h, k)
3 2 2A 4A
a2
3
h 23
a 4a
2
3
2
a 2 4a 3 (2a)
2 3
and k 3
a
4
3
3 35a
h andk
4a 16
Eliminating a, we have hk = 105/64.
Hence, the required locus is xy = 105/64
4. (C)
10
(SP )(S' P ' ) 2560
i 1
i i
10b2 2560
b 2 256
b 16
256 = 400 (1- e 2 )
5. (C)
Here centre of the ellipse is (0, 0)
Let P(r cos , r sin ) be any point on the given ellipse then r 2 cos2 2r 2 sin 2 2r 2 sin cos 1
1
r2
cos 2sin 2 sin 2
2
1
sin 1 sin 2
2
2
1 cos 2 2sin 2
2
3 cos 2 2sin 2
6. (A)
If (x i , yi ) is the point of intersection of given curves, then
4 4
xi
j1 11
y
j1
1
and 0
4 2 4
3 3
xi 4 x4 y 1
y4
Now i 1
and i 1
3 3 3 3
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3 3
x i yi
Centroid j1 , i 1 lies on the line y = 3x – 4.
3 3
y 4 3(4 x 4 )
Hence, 4
3 3
Therefore, the locus of D is y = 3x
7. (ABCD)
2x 2y
Normal at point P(2sec , 2 tan ) is 8
sec tan
It meets the axes at points G(4 sec , 0) and g(0, 4 tan ).
Then
PG 4sec2 4 tan 2
Pg 4 sec 2 4 tan 2
PC 4sec2 4 tan 2
Gg 16 sec2 16 tan 2
2 4sec 2 tan 2 2PC
8. (AC)
f(x) is a decreasing function and for major axis to be x-axis
f (k 2 2k 5) f (k 11)
k 2 2k 5 k 11
k (3, 2)
Then for the remaining values of k, i.e., k k (, 3) (2, ) , major axis is y-axis.
9. (AC)
Let S” (h, k) be the image.
SS” cuts a tangent at a point which lies on the auxiliary circle of the ellipse
2
h4 k
2
25
2 4
locus is (x 4) 2 y 2 100
10. (AD)
The equation of the tangent at (t 2 , 2t) to the parabola
y 2 4x , is
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2ty 2(x t 2 )
ty x t 2
x ty t 2 0 (i)
The equation of the normal at point ( 5 cos , 2 sin ) on the ellipse 5x 2 5y 2 20 is
( 5 sec )x (2 cos ec)y 5 4
( 5 sec )x (2 cos ec)y 1 (ii)
Given that Eqs. (i) and (ii) represent the same line.
5 sec 2 cos es 1
2
1 t t
2 1
t cot and t sin
5 2
2 1
cot sin
5 2
4 cos 5 sin 2
4 cos 5(1 cos 2 )
5 cos 2 4 cos 5 0
(cos 5)( 5 cos 1) 0
1
cos [ cos 5]
5
1
cos 1
5
1 1
Putting cos in t sin , we get
5 2
1 1 1
t 1
2 5 5
1 1
Hence, cos 1 and t
5 5
11. (AC)
Let the point of equation of intersection of tangents A and B be P(h, k). then equation of AB is
xh yk
1 (i)
4 1
Homogenizing the equation of ellipse using Eq. (i), we get
2
x 2 y 2 xh yk
4 1 4 1
h2 4 2 2 2kh
x2 y (k 1) xy 0 (ii)
16 4
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Given equation of OA and OB is
x 2 4y 2 xy 0 (iii)
Equation (ii) and (iii) represent same line,
h 2 4 k 2 1 kh
Hence,
16 4 2a
h 2 4 4(k 2 1)
h 2 4k 2 0
Locus (x – 2y) (x + 2y) = 0
12. (AC)
Let the possible point be (t 2 , 2t) .
Equation of tangent at this point is yt x t 2
It must pass through (6, 5).
(Since normal to circle always passes through its centre)
t 2 5t 6 0
t = 2,3
Possible points are (4, 4), (9, 6)
13. (ABCD)
Any point on the parabola is P(at 2 , 2at) .
Therefore, midpoint of S(a, 0) and P(at 2 , 2at) is
a at 2
R , at (h, k)
2
a at 2
h , k at
2
Eliminate ‘t’
y2 y2
i.e., 2x a 1 2 a
a a
i.e., 2ax a 2 y 2
a
i.e., y 2 2a x
2
14. (ABCD)
AC is one diagonal along x-axis, then the other diagonal is BD where both B and D lie on parabola.
2at 2
Also slope of AB is tan 1 . If B is (at 2 , 2at) then the slope of AB 2 1
4 at t
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t=2
Therefore, B is (4a, 4a) and hence D is (4a, 4a)
Clearly, C is (8a, 0)
15. (ABC)
2 2 2
1 2 1 5x 12y 1
(A) The given equation is x y 2
13 13 a 13
1
It represents ellipse if 2 1 a 2 1 a 1
a
(B) 4x 8x 9y 36y 4
2 2
4(x 2 2x 1) 9(y 2 4y 4) 36
(x 1)2 (y 2) 2
1
9 4
Hence, (1, 2) is focus and (1, 2) lies on the major axis.
Then required minimum distance is 1.
(C) Equation of normal at P() is 5 sec x 4 cos ec y 25 16 , and it passes through P(0, )
9
4cos ec
9
sin
4
9
| |
4
2
2b 2a
(D) 3b 2 a 2
a 3
From b 2 a 2 (1 e 2 ),1 3(1 e 2 ) e 2 / 3
16. (A)
x x 2 y1 y 2
The midpoint of the chord is 1 , .
2 2
The equation of the chord in terms of its midpoint is
y y2 x1 x 2 2 x1 x 2 y1 y 2 2
x 1 y c 2 c
2 2 2 2
x(y1 y 2 ) y(x1 x 2 ) (x1 x 2 )(y1 y 2 )
x y
1
x1 x 2 y1 y 2
17. (C)
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18. (B)
Any point P on the ellipse at (a cos , b sin )
b
Equation of CP is y = tan x
a
ax bx
The normal to the ellipse at P is a 2 b2
cos sin
b a
Slope of the lines CP and the normal GP. are tan and tan respectively
a b
a b
tan tan
tan b a
a b
1 tan tan
b a
a b tan
2 2
ab s ec 2
a 2 b2 a 2 b2
sin cos sin 2
ab 2ab
a 2 b2 a 2 b2
Therefore, the greatest value of tan 1
2ab 2ab
a b
2 2
3 a
Given that .Let t
2ab 2 b
1 3
t
t 2
2t 3t 2 0
2
2t 2 4t t 2 0
a
(2t + 1) (t 2) 2
b
1
e2 1
4
3
e
2
19. (D)
Centre (1, 2)
Radius of auxiliary circle = a = (2 1)2 (5 2) 2
10
4
2ae 82 82 8 2 e
5
b2 a 2e2 a 2 32 10 22
2b 2 22
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20. (B)
Directrix is perpendicular to the transverse axis. Let it be x + y = k
a
Its distance from centre
e
|1 2 k | 5 5 11
k 3
2 2 2 2 2
21. (A) (s), (B) (q), (C) (s), (D) (r)
(A) Point (a, a) lies on y 2 4x
a 2 4a i.e., a = 0, 4
a=4
(B) The line 3x – y + 8 = 0 passes through the focus (2, 2) so the tangents at the end points on the
chord is
2
p=8
(C) y 2 k(x 8 / k)
8 k 8 k
Equation of directrix is x x
k 4 k 4
8 k
Compare with x = 1 1 k 4
k 4
5 2 5
(D) end points of the normal chord will be (8, 8) & 2 , 2.2.
2 2
length of the chord will be = 10 5
22. (A) (p), (B) (s), (C) (t), (D) (r)
(A) Let ( 27 cos , 48 sin ) be a point on the ellipse
Thus equation of tangent or their points in
27 cos x 48 sin y
1
27 48
cos 48 4 4
slope cot i.e., cot 1 i.e.
27 sin 3 3 4
x y
equation of the tangent is 1
54 96
1
Area of triangle 3 6 4 6 36
2
(B) Product of perpendicular
3m 25m 2 16 3m 25m 2 16
1 m2 1 m2
25m 2 16 9m 2
16
1 m2
(C) 2a = 5 + 10 = 15
15
sum of focal distance of any point on ellipse is equal to length of major axis a
2
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2ae (6 3) 2 (8 4) 2 5
1
e
3
225 1
b2 1 50
4 9
b 5 2
2b 10 2
(D) a = 5 b = 4
3
e ae = 3
5
SA = 2 also SP = 2
P coincides with A and Q coincides with A’
PQ = 2a = 10
23. (4.00)
T(t1t 2 t1 t 2 ) and
Normals at P(t1 ) and Q(t 2 ) intersect at R(9, 6) on the parabola
t1t 2 2 and t1t 2 (t1 t 2 ) 6
T(2, 3)
For the required circle TR will be diameter
equation of required circle is (x – 2) (x – 9) + (y + 3) (y – 6) = 0 x 2 y 2 11x 3y 0
required length of tangent = 1 1 11 3 4
24. (15.00)
Let a common tangent through A meet the circle at
a a
B, cos , sin and the parabola at A1 (at 2 , 2at) (figure).
2 2
Equation of the tangent to the parabola at A1 is
t y = x + at 2 …(i)
Equation of the tangent to the circle at B1 is
a
x cos y sin …(ii)
2
Since (i) and (ii) represent the same line.
1 t
2 t2 …(iii)
cos sin
1 1
4 2 1 1 t 2 2t 4 2t 4 t 2 1 0
2t 2t
(t 1) (2t 2 1) 0
2
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Which gives two real values of t, equal to 1 giving two common tangents through A to the given
circle and the parabola. Let the other common tangent meet the circle at B2 and the parabola at A 2 .
coordinate of A1 are (a, 2a) and coordinate of A 2 are (a, 2a) A1A 2 4 a
a a a a
From (iii) we get coordinate of B1 are , and the coordinate of B2 as ,
2 2 2 2
B1B2 a
The quadrilateral A1 B1 B2 A 2 formed by the common tangents and the chords of contact B1 B2 of
the circle and A1 A 2 of the parabola is a trapezium whose area.
1 a 1 3a 15a 2
(A1 A 2 B1 B2 ) a 5a
2 2 2 2 4
25. (8.00)
Let x – 4 = 2 cos x = 2 cos + 4
and y = 3 sin
x 2 y2
Now E =
4 9
(2 cos 4)2
sin 2
4
4 cos 2 16 16 cos 4sin 2
4
20 16cos
4
= 5 + 4 cos
Hence E max E min (9 1) 8
26. (4.00)
OS1 ae 6, OC b(let) also CS1 a
1
Area of OCS1 (OS1 ) (OC) 3b
2
semi perimeter of OCS1 1/ 2(OS1 OC CS1 )
1 / 2 (6 + a + b) (1)
Indradius of OCS 1 1
3b
1 5b 6 a (2)
1
(6 a b)
2
Also b2 a 2 a 2e2 a 2 36 (3)
from (2)
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25b 2 36 12a a 2
25(a 2 36) 36 a 2 12a
2a 2 a 78 0
13
a , 6
2
13 5
a b
2 2
27. (9.00)
Equation of normal at P() is 5 sec x 4cos ec y 25 16 and it passes through P(0, )
9 9 9
i.e. sin | |
4cosec 4 4
28. (2.00)
e e'
Since and are eccentricities of a hyperbola and its conjugate
2 2
4 4
2 '2 1
e e
e 2 e '2
i.e. 4= 2
e ' e '2
x y
Equation of variable line is 1
e e'
e’x + ey – ee’ = 0
It is tangent to the circle x 2 y 2 r 2
ee '
r
e e '2
2
e 2 e '2
r2 4
e 2 e '2
r=2
29. (4.00)
1 sec 2
Eccentricity of the hyperbola x 2 y 2 sec 2 5 is e1 1 cos 2
sec
2
Eccentricity of the ellipse x 2 sec 2 y 2 25 is
sec 2 1
e2 | sin |
sec 2
Given e1 3 e2
1 cos2 3sin 2
1
cos
2
least positive value of is
4
p=4
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30. (6.00)
x 2 y2
Equation of hyperbola is 1 or 9x 2 8y2 144 0
16 18
x cos ysin
Homogenization of this equation using 1
p
2
x cos y sin
We have 9x 8y 144
2 2
0
p
Since these lines are perpendicular to each other
9p 2 8p 2 144(cos 2 sin 2 ) 0
p 2 144 or p 12
radius of the circle = 12
diameter of the circle = 24
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE / NAGPUR
IIT-JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: CONIC SECTIONS
SECTION-I (SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3, –1)
Q.1 The vertex A of the parabola y2 = 4ax is joined to any point P on it and PQ is drawn at right angles to AP to meet
the axis in Q. Projection of PQ on the axis is equal to
(A) twice the latus rectum (B) the latus rectum
(C) half the latus rectum (D) one fourth of the latus rectum
Q.2 Angle between the parabolas y2 = 4b (x – 2a + b) and x2 + 4a (y – 2b – a) = 0 at the common end of their latus
rectum, is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 3 6
Q.3 A circle has the same centre as an ellipse & passes through the foci F1 & F2 of the ellipse, such that the two
curves intersect in 4 points. Let 'P' be any one of their point of intersection. If the major axis of the ellipse is 17
& the area of the triangle PF1F2 is 30, then the distance between the foci is :
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) none
Q.4 Point 'O' is the centre of the ellipse with major axis AB & minor axis CD. Point F is one focus of the ellipse. If
OF = 6 & the diameter of the inscribed circle of triangle OCF is 2, then the product (AB) (CD) is equal to
(A) 65 (B) 52 (C) 78 (D) none
1
Q.5 If P is any point on ellipse with foci S1 & S2 and eccentricity is such that PS1S2 = PS2S1 = ,
2
S1PS2 = , then cot , cot , cot are in
2 2 2
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) NOT A.P., G.P. & H.P.
Q.6 For each positive integer n, consider the point P with abscissa n on the curve y2 – x2 = 1. If dn represents the
shortest distance from the point P to the line y = x then Lim(n ·d n ) has the value equal to
n
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
2 2 2 2
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SECTION-II (MULTIPLE ANSWER(S) CORRECT TYPE)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (+4, –2)
+1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option. Provided NO
incorrect option is darkened. In all other cases, minus (–2) mark will be awarded in these parts.
If (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will
result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
Q.7 Through a point P (– 2, 0), tangents PQ and PR are drawn to the parabola y2 = 8x. Two circles each passing
through the focus of the parabola and one touching at Q and other at R are drawn. Which of the following
point(s) with respect to the triangle PQR lie(s) on the common chord of the two circles?
(A) centroid (B) orthocentre (C) incentre (D) circumcentre
Q.8 Let p and q be non-zero real numbers. Then the equation (px2 + qy2 + r)(4x2 + 4y2 – 8x – 4) = 0 represents
(A) two straight lines and a circle, when r = 0 and p, q are of the opposite sign.
(B) two circles, when p = q and r is of sign opposite to that of p.
(C) a hyperbola and a circle, when p and q are of opposite sign and r 0.
(D) a circle and an ellipse, when p and q are unequal but of same sign and r is of sign opposite to that of p.
x2 y2
Q.9 Extremities of the latera recta of the ellipses 1 (a > b) having a given major axis 2a lies on
a2 b2
(A) x2 = a(a – y) (B) x2= a (a + y) (C) y2 = a(a + x) (D) y2 = a (a – x)
Q.10 The tangent to the hyperbola, x2 3y2 = 3 at the point
3 , 0 when associated with two asymptotes
constitutes :
(A) isosceles triangle (B) an equilateral triangle
(C) a triangles whose area is 3 sq. units (D) a right isosceles triangle .
Q.11 Consider a circle with its centre lying on the focus of the parabola, y2 = 2 px such that it touches the directrix of
the parabola. Then a point of intersection of the circle & the parabola is
p p p p
(A) , p (B) , p (C) , p (D) , p
2 2 2 2
Q.12 If a number of ellipse be described having the same major axis 2a but a variable minor axis then the tangents at
the ends of their latera recta pass through fixed points which can be
(A) (0, a) (B) (0, 0) (C) (0, – a) (D) (a, a)
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SECTION-III (COMPREHENSIONS TYPE)
This section contains 06 questions. Based on each paragraph, there are THREE questions. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct. (+3, –1)
Paragraph for Questions No. 13 & 14
Tangents are drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point P(6, 5) to touch the parabola at Q and R. C1
is a circle which touches the parabola at Q and C2 is a circle which touches the parabola at R. Both the
circles C1 and C2 pass through the focus of the parabola.
Q.13 Area of the PQR equals
1 1
(A) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)
2 4
Q.14 The common chord of the circles C1 and C2 passes through the
(A) incentre (B) circumcentre
(C) centroid (D) orthocentre of the PQR
Paragraph for Questions No. 15 & 16
The graph of the conic x2 – (y – 1)2 = 1 has one tangent line with positive slope that passes through the origin.
the point of tangency being (a, b). Then
a
Q.15 The value of sin–1 is
b
5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 6 3 4
Q.16 Length of the latus rectum of the conic is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) none
Paragraph for Questions No. 17 & 18
From a point 'P' three normals are drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x such that two of them make angles with the
abscissa axis, the product of whose tangents is 2. Suppose the locus of the point 'P' is a part of a conic 'C'.
Now a circle S = 0 is described on the chord of the conic 'C' as diameter passing through the point (1, 0) and
with gradient unity. Suppose (a, b) are the coordinates of the centre of this circle. If L1 and L2 are the two
asymptotes of the hyperbola with length of its transverse axis 2a and conjugate axis 2b (principal axes of the
hyperbola along the coordinate axes) then answer the following questions.
Q.17 Locus of P is a
(A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) hyperbola
Q.18 The angle (0, /2) between the two asymptotes of the hyperbola lies in the interval
(A) (0, 15°) (B) (30°, 45°) (C) (45°, 60°) (D) (60°, 75°)
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SECTION-IV (INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 08 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, 30.27, 127.30) (+4, 0)
Q.19. Let L1 : x + y = 0 and L2 : x – y = 0 are tangent to a parabola whose focus is S(1, 2). If the length of latus-
m
rectum of the parabola can be expressed as (where m and n are coprime) then find the value of (m – n).
n
x2 y2
Q.207 Find the number of integral values of parameter 'a' for which three chords of the ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 (other
2a a
a2
than its diameter) passing through the point P11a , are bisected by the parabola y2 = 4ax.
4
Q.21 Consider two concentric circles S1 : | z | = 1 and S2 : | z | = 2 on the Argand plane. A parabola is drawn
through the points where 'S1' meets the real axis and having arbitrary tangent of 'S2' as its directrix. If the
locus of the focus of drawn parabola is a conic C then find half of the area of the quadrilateral formed by the
tangents at the ends of the latus-rectum of conic C.
Q.22 An ellipse is inscribed in a circle and a point within the circle is chosen at random. If the probability that this
a b
point lies outside the ellipse is 2/3 then the eccentricity of the ellipse is , then the value of (a + b + c ) is
c
Q.23 The number of possible tangents which can be drawn to the curve 4x2 9y2 = 36, which are perpendicular to
the straight line 5x + 2y 10 = 0 is :
Q.24 Let the major axis of a standard ellipse equals the transverse axis of a standard hyperbola and their director
circles have radius equal to 2R and R respectively. If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of the ellipse and hyperbola
then the value of 4e22 – e12 is equal to
x 2 y2
Q.25 A tangent to the ellipse 1 meets its director circle at P and Q. Then the product of the slopes of CP
9 4
a
and CQ where 'C' is the origin is , the value of (b – a) is
b
Q.26 The point (a2, a + 1) is a point in the angle between the lines 3x – y + 1 = 0 and x + 2y – 5 = 0 containing
the origin if a (p, q) (r, s) then the value of (p + q + 9r + s) is
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SECTION-V (MATRIX-MATCH TYPE)
This section contains 04 Matrix Match. Each question has matching lists. Each question has four choice
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (+8, 0)
Q.27 Match the properties given in column-I with the corresponding curves given in the column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(P) The curve such that product of the distances of any of its tangent (1) Circle
from two given points is constant, can be
(Q) A curve for which the length of the subnormal at any of its point is (2) Parabola
equal to 2 and the curve passes through (1, 2), can be
(R) A curve passes through (1, 4) and is such that the segment joining (3) Ellipse
any point P on the curve and the point of intersection of the normal
at P with the x-axis is bisected by the y-axis. The curve can be (4) Hyperbola
(S) A curve passes through (1, 2) is such that the length of the normal
at any of its point is equal to 2. The curve can be
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 1, 4 2 3 1
(B) 3, 4 3 1 2
(C) 3, 4 2 3 1
(D) 2, 4 3 1 2
Q.28 Column-I Column-II
(P) If the chord of contact of tangents from a point P to the (1) Straight line
parabola y2 = 4ax touches the parabola x2 = 4by, the locus of P is
(Q) A variable circle C has the equation (2) Circle
x2 + y2 – 2(t2 – 3t + 1)x – 2(t2 + 2t)y + t = 0, where t is a parameter.
The locus of the centre of the circle is
x2 y2
(R) The locus of point of intersection of tangents to an ellipse 2 2 = 1 (3) Parabola
a b
at two points the sum of whose eccentric angles is constant is
(S) An ellipse slides between two perpendicular straight lines. (4) Hyperbola
Then the locus of its centre is
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
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Q.29 Column-I Column-II
x 2 y2
(P) For an ellipse 1 with vertices A and A', tangent drawn at the
9 4
(1) 2
point P in the first quadrant meets the y-axis in Q and the chord A'P meets
the y-axis in M. If 'O' is the origin then OQ2 – MQ2 equals to
(Q) If the product of the perpendicular distances from any point on the (2) 3
x 2 y2
hyperbola 2 2 1 of eccentricity e = 3 from its asymptotes
a b
is equal to 6, then the length of the transverse axis of the hyperbola is
(R) The locus of the point of intersection of the lines (3) 4
3 x y 4 3 t = 0 and 3 tx + ty 4 3 = 0
(where t is a parameter) is a hyperbola whose eccentricity is
(S) If F1 & F2 are the feet of the perpendiculars from the foci S1 & S2 (4) 6
x 2 y2
of an ellipse = 1 on the tangent at any point P on the ellipse,
5 3
then (S1F1). (S2F2) is equal to
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 2 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
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Q.30 Match the column:
Column – I Column – II
x 2 y2
(P) If the mid point of a chord of the ellipse 1 is (0, 3), (1) 6
16 25
4k
then length of the chord is , then k is
5
(Q) Eccentric angle of one of the points on the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 at (2) 8
k
a distance 2 units from the centre of the ellipse is , then k is
4
(R) If the distance between a focus and corresponding directix of an (3) 3
1
ellipse be 8 and the eccentricity be , then length of the minor
2
k
axis is , then k is
3
x 2 y2
(S) Sum of distances of a point on the ellipse 1 from (4) 16
9 16
the focii
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
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IIT-JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: CONIC SECTIONS
ANSWER KEY
Q.1 (B)
Q.2 (B)
Q.3 (C)
Q.4 (A)
Q.5 (A)
Q.6 (A)
Q.7 (ABCD)
Q.8 (ABCD)
Q.9 (AB)
Q.10 (BC)
Q.11 (AB)
Q.12 (AC)
Q.13 (A)
Q.14 (C)
Q.15 (D)
Q.16 (C)
Q.17 (B)
Q.18 (D)
Q.19 (1)
Q.20 (2)
Q.21 (8)
Q.22 (7)
Q.23 (0)
Q.24 (6)
Q.25 (5)
Q.26 (1)
Q.27 (C)
Q.28 (B)
Q.29 (D)
Q.30 (A)
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MUMBAI / AKOLA / DELHI / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA / BOKARO / PUNE / NAGPUR
IIT-JEE: 2021 PRACTICE SHEET - 2
TOPIC: CONIC SECTIONS
SOLUTION
Q.1 (B)
A(0, 0), P(at2, 2at), Q(x, 0)
Slope of AP × slope of PQ = – 1
2at 2at
2
1
at x1 at 2
(x1 – at2)(at2) = 4a2t2
x = 4a + at2 = AQ
projection QM = AQ – AM = 4a = Latus rectum Ans.]
Q.2 (B)
y2 = 4b (x – (2a – b) ) or y2 = 4bX where x – (2a – b) = X
x2 + 4a (y – (a + 2b) ) or x2 = – 4aY where y – (a + 2b) = Y
for y2 = 4bX, extremities of latus rectum (b, 2b) and (b, – 2b) w.r.t. X Y axis
i.e. (2a, 2b) and (2a, – 2b) w.r.t. xy axis
for x2 = – 4aY, extremities of latus rectum (2a, – a) and (–2a, –a) w.r.t. XY axis
i.e. (2a, 2b) and (–2a, 2b)
Hence the common end of latus rectum (2a, 2b)
dy dy 2b
now for 1st parabola 2y = 4b = y = 1 at (2a, 2b)
dx dx 1
dy dy x
also for 2nd parabola 2x = – 4a
or =– = – 1 at (2a, 2b)
dx dx 2a
Hence parabolas intersect orthogonally at (2a, 2b) (B)]
Q.3 (C)
x + y = 17 ; xy = 60, To find x 2 y 2 ]
now, x2 + y2 = (x + y)2 – 2xy
= 289 – 120 = 169
x 2 y 2 13 ]
Q.4 (A)
a2 e2 = 36 a2 b2 = 36 ....(1); 4ab = ?
A'
Using r = (s a) tan in OCF
2
1 = (s a) tan 45º where a = CF
2 = 2 (s a)
or 2 = 2s 2a = 2s AB
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or 2 = (OF + FC + CO) AB
AB C D
2=6+ + AB
2 2
AB CD
= 4 2 (a b) = 8 a b = 4 (2)
2
From (1) & (2) a + b = 9 2a = 13 ; 2b = 5 (AB) (CD) = 65 ]
Q.5 (A)
2ae S1P S2 P 2a
By sine rule in PS1S2, we get sin ( ) = sin = sin = sin sin
2 sin cos
sin ( ) e 2 2 Y
e = sin sin
1
2 sin cos P
2 2
–(+)
1 1 S2 S1
1 e 1 X
Now = tan tan = 2 2 1 2ae
1 e 2 2 1 3 3
1
2 2
1
tan tan = ... (1)
2 2 3
Also we know that
cot + cot + cot = cot cot cot
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 cot = cot + cot cot , cot , cot are in A.P.. ]
2 2 2 2 2 2
Q.6 (A)
Curve is rectangular hyperbola.
n n2 1
perpendicular distance, dn = 2
n 2
Lim(n ·d n ) = Lim n 1 n
n n 2
n 1 1
= Lim = Ans. ]
n 2 n2 1 n 2 2
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Q.7 (ABCD)
(–2, 0) is the foot of directrix.
Hence Q and R are the extremities of the latus rectum and angle
QPR = 90° with PQR as right isosceles.
Hence by symmetric the common chord of the two circles will be
the x-axis which will be the median, altitude, angle bisector and
also the perpendicular bisector.
Hence centroid, orthocentre, incentre and circumcentre all will lie on
it. ]
Q.8 (ABCD)
(px2 + qy2 + r) (4x2 + 4y2 – 8x – 4) = 0
4x2 + 4y2 – 8x – 4 = 0 (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1
or
px2 + qy2 + r = 0 will represents
(i) two straight lines if r = 0 and p, q are of opposite sign.
(ii) a circle if p = q and r is of opposite sign that of p.
(iii) a hyperbola if p and q are of opposite sign & r 0.
(iv) an ellipse if p and q are unequal but of same sign and r is of sign opposite to that of p.]
Q.9 (AB)
b2
h = + ae ; k = +
a
h2 h 2
k = +a(1 – e2)
= + a 1 a
2 = +
a a
h2 h2
+ ve sign , k = a a k h2 = a ( a – k) (A)
a a
h2
– ve sign , k = a h2 = a (a + k) (B) ]
a
Q.10 (BC)
area of the = ab sq units ; H : x2/3 – y2 / 1 = 1 ]
Q.11 (AB)
2
p 2 2
Equation of circle will be x y p
2
2
which intersects y = 2px
2
p 2
x 2px p
2
3p 2
x2 + px – =0
4
2
x 3p x p = 0
4 2
3p
x 0
4
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 3
p
x= only
2
p
y2 = 2p y=±p
2
p p
Hence , p and , p Ans.]
2 2
Q.12 (AC)
e is a variable quantity
xae yb2
1 ex + y = a y – a + ex = 0
a 2 ab 2
it passes through (0, a).
|||ly other point is (0, – a) ]
Solution for Questions No. 13 & 14
Equation of tangent of slope m to y2 = 4x is
1
y = mx + ....(1)
m
Q.13 (A)
As (1) passes through P(6, 5), so
1
5 = 6m +
m y (6,5)P
(4,4) R(9,6)
1 1 Q
6m2 – 5m + 1 = 0 m= or m = C1
2 3 S(1,0) x
O
1 2 1 2
Points of contact are 2 , m and 2 , m
m1 1 m2 2
Hence P (4, 4) and Q (9, 6)
6 5 1
1 1
Area of PQR = 2 4 4 1 = (A)
9 6 1 2
1
y= x + 2 x – 2y + 4 = 0 ....(2)
2
1
and y= x + 3 x – 3y + 9 = 0
3
Now equation of circle C2 touching x – 3y + 9 = 0 at (9, 6), is
(x – 9)2 + (y – 6)2 + ( x – 3y + 9) = 0
As above circle passes through (1, 0), so
64 + 36 + 10 = 0 = – 10
2 2
Circle C2 is x + y – 28x + 18y + 27 = 0 .....(3)
Radius of C2 is
r22 = 196 + 81 – 27 = 277 – 27 = 250 r2 = 5 10
Q.14 (C)
Equation of C1
(x – 4)2 + (y – 4)2 + (x – 2y + 4) = 0
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 4
As above circle passes through (1, 0)
9 + 16 + (5) = 0 =–5
2 2
Now C1 is x + y – 13x + 2y + 12 = 0 ....(4)
Common chord of (3) and (4) is P(6,5)
15x – 16y – 15 = 0 ....(5)
19
Also centroid (G) of PQR is , 5 G 19 ,5
3 3
Q(4,4) R(9,6)
19
Clearly , 5 satisfies equation (5)
3
Hence (C) ]
Solution for Questions No. 15 & 16
Q.15 (D)
differentiate the curve
dy
2x – 2(y – 1) =0
dx
dy a b b
dx a , b b 1 = a (mOP =
a
)
a2 = b2 – b ....(1)
Also (a, b) satisfy the curve
a2 – (b – 1)2 = 1
a2 – (b2 – 2b + 1) = 1
a2 – b2 + 2b = 2
– b + 2b = 2 b = 2 { putting a2 – b2 = – b from (1) }
a= 2 (a – 2)
a
sin–1 = Ans.
b 4
Q.16 (C)
2b 2
Length of latus rectum = = 2a = distance between the vertices = 2
a
(note that the hyperbola is rectangular)
Solution for Questions No. 17 & 18
Q.17 (B) Q.18 (D)
Equation of a normal y = mx – 2m – m3
passes through (h, k)]
m3 + (2 – h)m + k = 0
m1m2m3 = – k
but m1 m2 = 2
m3 = – k/2
this must satisfy equation (1)
k3 k
– (2 – h) + k = 0
8 2
k – 4k(2 – h) + 8k = 0 (k 0)
3
k2 – 8 – 4h + 8 = 0
locus of 'P' is y2 = 4x which is a parabola Ans.
now chord passing through (1, 0) is the focal chord.
Given that gradient of focal chord is 1
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 5
2
t1 t 2 = 1 t1 + t2 = 2, Also t1t2 = – 1
equation of circle described on t1t2 as diameter is
(x – t12 )(x – t 22 ) + (y – 2t1)(y – 2t2) = 0
x2 + y2 – x( t12 + t 22 ) + t12 t 22 – 2y(t1 + t2) + 4t1t2 = 0
x2 + y2 – x[4 + 2] + 1 – 2y(2) – 4 = 0
x2 + y2 – 6x – 4y – 3 = 0
centre a = 3 and b = 2; r= 4
x2 y2
now the hyperbola is – =1
9 4
2x 2x
asymptotes are y = and y = –
3 3
now tan = 2/3
= 2
2 ·(2 3) 12 12
tan = 1 (4 9) ; tan = ; = tan–1
5 5
hence (60°, 75°) Ans. ]
Q.19 (1)
Feet of the perpendicular (N1 and N2) from focus upon any tangent to parabola lies on the tangent line at the
vertex.
Now equation of SN1 is x + y = passing through (1, 2) =3
Equation of SN1 is x + y = 3
3 3
Solving x + y = 3 and y = x, we get N1 ,
2 2
|||ly equation of SN2 is x – y = passing through (1, 2) =–1
Equation of SN2 is y – x = 1
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 6
1 1
Solving y – x = 1 and y = – x, we get N2 ,
2 2
Now equation of tangent line at vertex is, 2x – 4y + 3 = 0
Distance of S(1, 2) from tangent at vertex is
| 2 83| 3 1
= = = latus rectum .
20 2 5 4
6 m
and hence length of latus rectum = =
5 n
Hence m - n = 6 - 5 = 1 Ans.]
Q.20 (2)
x2 y2
Any point on the parabola y2 = 4ax is (at2, 2at). Equation of chord of the ellipse 1 , whose mid-
2a 2 a 2
x ·at 2 y ·2at a 2t 4 4a 2 t 2
point is(at2,
2at) is + = +
2a 2 a2 2a 2 a2
tx + 4y = at3 + 8at ( t 0)
a 2
As it passes through 11a ,
4 ,
a2
11at – 4 4 = at3 + 8at at3 – 3at + a2 = 0
t – 3t + a = 0 (a 0)
3
Now, three chords of the ellipse will be bisected by the parabola if the equation (1) has three real and distinct
roots.
Let f(t) = t3 – 3t + a
f '(t) = 3t2 – 3 = 0 t=±1
So, f (1) f(–1) < 0
a (– 2, 2)
But a 0, so a (– 2, 0) (0, 2)
Number of integral values of 'a' = 2. ]
Q.21 (8)
Clearly the parabola should pass through (1, 0) and (–1,0). Let directrix of this parabola be x
cos + y sin = 2. If M (h,k) be the focus of this parabola, then distance of (±1, 0) from 'M' and from the
directrix should be same.
(h – 1)2 + k2 = (cos – 2)2 ....(1)
and (h + 1)2 + k2 = (cos + 2)2 ....(2)
h
Now (2) – (1) cos = ....(3)
2
Also (2) + (1) (h2 + k2 + 1) = (cos2 + 4) ....(4)
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 7
y
|z|=2
|z| P(2cos, 2sin)
=1
O x
(–1,0) (0,0) (1,0)
M(h,k)
From (3) and (4), we get
h2 3h 2
h2 + k2 +1=4+ + k2 = 3
4 4
x 2 y2
Hence locus of focus M(h, k) is 1 (Ellipse)
4 3
2a 2
Also we know that area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the ends of the latus-rectum is
e
(where e is eccentricity of ellipse)
2( 4) 3 1 1
Requred area = = 16 (square units) (As e2 = 1 – = e= ) ]
1 4 4 2
2
Q.22 (7)
2 a 2 ab b 8 2 2
= = 1 = 1 1 e 2 e2 = e =
3 a 2 a 9 3
Q.23 (0)
y = (5/2) x + 5 m = 2/5 a2m2 b2 = 9 . 4/25 4 = (36 100)/25 < 0
Note that the slope of the tangent (2/5) is less than the slope of the asymptote which is 2/3 which is not possible
Q.24 (6)
x 2 y2 x 2 y2
1 ....(1); 1 ....(2)
a 2 b2 a 2 b12
R= a 2 b12
2R = a 2 b2
2 b2 2 b2
2 a 2
b12 = e1 1 2 ; e 2 1 12
a 2 b2 a a
4 a 2 b12 = a2 + b2
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 8
b2 2
41 12 = 1 + b
a
a2
4[(1 – (e22 – 1)] = 1 + 1 – e12
8 – 4e22 = 2 – e12
4e22 – e12 = 6 Ans. ]
Q.25 (5)
x 2 y2
The equation of the tangent at (3 cos , 2 sin ) on 1 is
9 4
x y
cos sin 1 ... (i)
3 2
The equation of the director circle is
x2 + y2 = 9 + 3 = 13 ... (ii)
The combined equation of CP and CQ is obtained by homogenising equation (ii) with (i). Thus combined
equation is
2
x y
x2 + y2 = 13 cos sin
3 2
13 2 2 13 13 2 2
cos 1 x sin cos xy + sin 1 y 0
9 3 4
Product of the slopes of CP and CQ
13
cos 2 1
coefficient of x 2 9 13 cos 2 9 4 13 cos 2 9 4 4
coefficient of y 2 13 = 2 = 2 ]
sin 2 1 13 sin 4 9 9 13 cos 4 9 9
4
Q.26 (1)
Oragin R(a2, a + 1) lies same side w.r.t. to given lines
a2 + 2a + 2 – 5 < 0 a2 + 2a – 3 < 0
(a + 3) (a – 1) < 0
a (– 3, 1)
3a – (a + 1) + 1 > 0
2
3a2 – a > 0
a(3a – 1) > 0
1
a ( , 0) 3 ,
1
take intersection we get a (– 3, 0) 3 ,1
Q.27 (C)
(P) Very important property of ellipse and hyperbola (p1p2 = b2) (3), (4)
dy y2
(Q) y =2 = 2x + C
dx 2
x = 1, y = 2 C=0
y2 = 4x parabola (2)
(R) Equation of normal at P
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 9
1
Y–y=– (X x )
m
Y = 0, X = x + my
x
X = 0, Y = y –
m dy
hence x + my + x = 0 2x + y =0
dx
2x dx + y dy = 0
y2
x2 + = C passes through (1, 4)
2
1+8=C
y2 x 2 y2
hence x2 + =9 =1 ellipse (3)
2 9 18
(S) length of normal
(x + my – x)2 + y2 = 4
m2y2 + y2 = 4
4 y2 4 y2 y dy
m2 = 2 ;
dy
= ; 4 y2
dx
y dx y
– 4 y2 = x + C
x = 1, y = 4 C=–1
(x – 1)2 = 4 – y2
(x – 1)2 + y2 = 4 circle (1)]
Q.28 (B)
(P) yy1 = 2a (x + x1) ; x2 = 4by = 4b [(2a/y1) (x + x1)] y1x2 8 abx 8 abx1 = 0 ;
D = 0 gives xy = 2ab Hyperbola
(Q) 2
centre is x = t – 3t + 1 ....(1)
y = t2 + 2t ....(2)
(2) – (1) gives – x + y = 5t – 1
1 x y
or t=
5
Substituting the value of t in (2)
2
y x 1 y x 1
y= +2
5 5
2
25y = (y – x + 1) + 10(y – x + 1)
25y = y2 + x2 + 1 – 2xy – 2x + 2y + 10y – 10x + 10
x2 + y2 – 2xy – 12x – 13y + 11 = 0
which is a parabola
as 0 and h2 = ab ]
a cos b sin
(R) h= 2 ; k= 2
cos cos
2 2
given = constant = C
2
a cos C b sin C b
cos = y = tan C x
2 h k a
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 10
Locus of (h, k) is a straight line
(S) y1y2 = x1x2 = b2 ....(1)
and (x2 – x1) + (y2 – y1)2 = 4(a2 – b2)
2 ....(2)
Also 2h = x1 + x2
2k = y1 + y2
from (2) (x1 + x2)2 + (y1+y2)2– 4(x1 x2 + y1y2) = 4(a2 – b2)
4 (h2 + k2) – 4 (2b2) = 4 (a2 – b2)
x2 + y2 = a2 +b2 Circle
Alternative: Equation of director circle with centre (h, k)
(x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = a2 + b2
(0, 0) lies on it h2 + k2 = a2 + b2 locus is x2 + y2 = a2 + b2 ]
Q.29 (D)
(P) a=3;b=2
x cos y sin
T: 1
3 2
x = 0 ; y = 2 cosec
2 sin
chord A'P, y= ( x 3)
3(cos 1)
2 sin
put x = 0 y = = OM
1 cos
Now OQ2 – MQ2 = OQ2 – (OQ – OM)2 = 2(OQ)(OM) – OM2 = OM{ 2(OQ) – (OM) }
2 sin 4 2 sin 4 sin 2(1 cos ) (1 cos 2 )
= =
1 cos sin 1 cos 1 cos sin (1 cos )
4(1 cos )(2 1 cos )
= =4
(1 cos )(1 cos )
a 2b2 a 2 . a 2 (e 2 1)
(Q) p1p2 = 2 = = 6;
a b2 a 2 e2
2a 2
6 a2 = 9 a = 3
3
hence 2a = 6
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 11
x 2 y2
(R) hyperbola 1
16 48
(S) Product of the feet of the perpendiculars is equal to the square of its semi minor axes.]
Q.30 (A)
x 2 y2
(P) 1
16 25
16 3
e 1
25 5
3
be 5 3
5
2a 2 2 16 32 4k
b 5 5 5
k=8
(Q) Any point of ellipe
x 2 y2
6
2
1 is 6 cos , 2 sin
distance from origin 6 cos 2 sin 2 2
1 1
cos 2 cos
2 2
a
(R) ae 8
e
1
a 2 8
2
3 16
a 8 a
2 3
b 2 a1 1 e 2
2
16 1
b
2
1
3 4
64
b2
3
8
b
3
k 8
(S) By definition of ellipse
CENTERS : MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / PUNE / NAGPUR / BOKARO / DUBAI # 12
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