AIPMT - 2009

Q.6 A block of mass M is attached to the lower end

Q.1 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given
by [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be : of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a

(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass

(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 is released from rest with the spring initially

(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 unstretched. The maximum extension produced

(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2 in the length of the spring will be :

(1) Mg/2k (2) Mg/k
Q.2 A particle starts its motion from rest under the
action of a constant force. If the distance covered (3) 2 Mg/k (4) 4 Mg/k
in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the
first 20 seconds is S2 then : Q.7 Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position
(1) S2 = S1 (2) S2 = 2S1 vectors î + 2ˆj + k̂ and − 3î − 2 ĵ + k̂ , respectively.
(3) S2 = 3S1 (4) S2 = 4S1 The centre of mass of this system has a position
vector :
Q.3 A bus is moving with a speed of 10ms–1 on a
(1) − î + ˆj + k̂ (2) − 2î + 2k̂
straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km (3) − 2î − ˆj + k̂ (4) 2î − ˆj − 2k̂
from the scooterist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus ?
Q.8 Four identical thin rods each of mass M and
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 length l, from a square frame. Moment of inertia
(3) 40 ms–1 (4) 25 ms–1 of this frame about an axis through the centre of
the square and perpendicular to its plane is :
Q.4 The mass of lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in 1 2 4 2
(1) Ml (2) Ml
the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its 3 3
acceleration is : 2 2 13 2
(3) Ml (4) Ml
(1) 14 ms–2 upwards 3 3
(2) 30 ms–2 downwards
Q.9 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is
(3) 4 ms–2 upwards
rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
(4) 4 ms–2 downwards
vertical to its plane with a constant angular
Q.5 An explosion blows a rock into three parts Two velocity ω, If two objects each mass m be
parts go off at right angles to each other. These attached gently to the opposite ends of a
two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of diameter of the ring, the ring, will then rotate
12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a with an angular velocity :
velocity of 8 ms–1. If the thirds part files off with ωM ω(M − 2m)
(1) (2)
a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be : M+m M + 2m
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg ωM ω(M + 2m)
(3) (4)
(3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg M + 2m M
 .
Q.10 A body, under the action of a force Q.15 The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform
r
F = 6î − 8 ĵ + 10k̂ , acquires an acceleration of cross-sectional area A are kept at two
temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). The rate of
1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be :
dQ
(1) 10 2 kg (2) 2 10 kg heat transfer, , through the rod in a steady
dt
(3) 10 kg (4) 20 kg state is given by :
r
Q.11 If F is the force acting on a particle having dQ kA (T1 − T2 )
r r (1) =
position vector r and τ be the torque of this dt L
force about the origin, then : dQ kL(T1 − T2 )
r r (2) =
r r dt A
(1) r ⋅ τ = 0 and F ⋅ τ ≠ 0
r r r r dQ k (T1 − T2 )
(2) r ⋅ τ ≠ 0 and F ⋅ τ = 0 (3) =
r r dt LA
r r
(3) r ⋅ τ > 0 and F ⋅ τ < 0
dQ
r r r r (4) = kLA(T1 – T2)
(4) r ⋅ τ = 0 and F ⋅ τ = 0 dt
Q.12 The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice Q.16 In thermodynamic processes which of the
the shaded are SAB. It t1 is the time for the following statements is not true ?
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
(1) In an adiabatic process PVγ = constant
move from A to B then
(2) In an adiabatic process the system is
m v insulated from the surroundings
B C (3) In an isochoric process pressure remains
constant
S
D (4) In an isothermal process the temperature
A
remains constant

(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2 Q.17 A black body at 227ºC radiates heat at the rate
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2 of 7 cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727ºC, the
Q.13 An engine pumps water continuously through a rate of heat radiated in the same units will be :
hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and (1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 112
m is the mass per unit length of the water jet.
What is the rate which kinetic energy is imparted Q.18 The internal energy change in a system that has
to water ? absorbed 2 k cal of heat and done 500 J of work
is :
1 2 2 1
(1) mv (2) mv3 (1) 7900 J (2) 8900 J
2 2
(3) 6400 J (4) 5400 J
1
(3) mv3 (4) mv2
2 Q.19 The driver of a car traveling with speed 30
Q.14 A body of mass 1 kg of thrown upwards with a m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency
velocity 20 m/s. It momenetarily comes to rest 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330
after attaining a height of 18m. How much m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard
energy is lost due to air friction ? by driver is :
(g = 10 m/s2) (1) 500 Hz (2) 550 Hz
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J (3) 555.5 Hz (4) 720 Hz
Q.20 A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic Q.24 Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and
motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force.
period T. The speed of the pendulum at Mass per unit length of both the strings is same
x = a/2 will be : and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings
vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is :
πa 3 πa 3
(1) (2)
T 2T (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 8

πa 3π 2 a
(3) (4)
T T Q.25 Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of
breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
Q.21 Which one of the following equations of motion
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
represents simple harmonic motion ?
combination will be :
(1) Acceleration = kx
C V
(2) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2 (1) 3C, 3V (2) ,
3 3
(3) Acceleration = – k (x + a)
V C
(4) Acceleration = k(x + a) (3) 3C, (4) , 3V
3 3
Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive
Q.26 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per metre is bent
to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The
Q.22 The electric field part of an electromagnetic resistance between its two diametrically
wave in a medium is represented by : opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure,
Ex = 0 is :
N  rad   − 2 rad  
Ey = 2.5 cos  2π × 10 6  t –  π × 10 x 
C  m   s   A B

Ez =0. The wave is :

(1) 6 Ω (2) 0.6 πΩ (3) 3 Ω (4) 6 πΩ
(1) Moving along –x direction with frequency
106 Hz and wavelength 200m
(2) Moving along y direction with frequency Q.27 A bar magnet having a magnetic movement of
2π×106 Hz and wavelength 200m 2 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal
plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10–4
(3) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
T exists in the space. The work done in taking
Hz and wavelength 100m
the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to
(4) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
the field to a direction 60º from the field is :
Hz and wavelength 200m
(1) 2 J (2) 0.6 J (3) 12 J (4) 6 J

Q.23 A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The

Q.28 The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
wave travels in the +ve direction of x-axis with a
of charge – 2µc in a magnetic field of 2T acting
speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete
in y direction, when the particle velocity is
waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The
equation describing the wave is ( 2î + 3ˆj) × 106 ms–1, is :
(1) y = (0.02)m sin (7.58x – 1005 t) (1) 8N in z – direction
(2) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85x + 1005 t) (2) 8N in z – direction
(3) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x – 2010 t) (3) 4N in z – direction
(4) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010 t) (4) 8N in y – direction
 Q.29 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform Q.33 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field,
magnetic field 0.04T with its plane perpendicular a charged particle moves with constant speed V
to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop in a circle of radius R. The time period of
starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in rotation of the particle :
the loop when the redius is 2 cm is : (1) Depends on both v and R
(1) 1.6 πµv (2) 3.2 πµv (2) Depends on v and not on R
(3) 4.8 πµv (4) 0.8 πµv (3) Depends on R and not on v
(4) Is independent of both v and R
Q.30 The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given
by V = – x2y – xz3 + 4 Q.34 Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit
r connected to an a.c. source of emf ε is :
The electric field E at that point is :
r 2
(1) E = î (2 xy − z 3 ) + ĵxy 2 + k̂ 3z 2 x  1 
(1) ε 2 R R 2 +  Lω − 
 Cω 
r
(2) E = î (2 xy + z 3 ) + ĵx 2 + k̂ 3xz 2
  1  
2
r (2) ε 2 R R 2 +  Lω −  
(3) E = î 2 xy + ˆj( x 2 + y 2 ) + k̂ (3xz − y 2 )   Cω  

r
(4) E = î z + ˆjxyz + k̂z 2
  1  
2
(3) ε 2 R 2 +  Lω −   R
  Cω  
Q.31 See the electrical circuit shown in this figure.
Which of the following equations is a correct   1  
2
ε 2 R 2 +  Lω −  
equation for it ?   Cω  
(4) 
R R

∈1 r1
i1 Q.35 Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b,
and c(a < b < c) and have surface charge
i2 densities σ, –σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB
r2 ∈2 and VC denote the potentials of the three shells,
then, for c = a + b, we have :
(1) ∈1– (i1 + i2)R + i1r1 = 0
(1) VC = VB = VA (2) VC = VA ≠ VB
(2) ∈1– (i1 + i2)R – i1r1 = 0
(3) VC = VB ≠ VA (4) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA
(3) ∈2–i1r2 – ε1 – i1r1 = 0
(4) –∈2– (i1 + i2)R + i2r2 = 0
Q.36 A student measures the terminal potential
difference (V) of a cell (of emf ε and internal)
Q.32 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω resistance r) as a function of the current (I)
shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 flowing through it. The slope and intercept
amp passes through it. It can be converted into of the graph between V and I, then respectively
an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by : equal to :
(1) Putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω (1) – ∈and r (2) ∈ and – r
(2) Putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω (3) – r and ∈ (4) r and – ∈
(3) Putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω
(4) Putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω
 Q.37 A rectangular, a square, a circular and an Photo current
elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are
moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a b
r a
constant velocity, V = v ⋅ î . The magnetic field is c
directed along the negative z-axis direction. The Retarding potential Anode potential
induced emf, during the passage of these loops, (1) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident
come out of the field region, will not remain radiations same frequencies having same
constant for : intensity.
(1) any of the four loops (2) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident
(2) The rectangular, circular and elliptical loops radiations of different frequencies and
different intensities
(3) The circular and the elliptical loops
(3) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident
(4) Only the elliptical loop
radiations of same frequencies but of
different intensities
Q.38 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the (4) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident
north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is : radiations of different frequencies and
(1) Attracted by both the poles different intensities

(2) Repelled by both the poles Q.42 The number of beta particles emitted by a
radioactive substance is twice the number of
(3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by
alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting
the south pole
daughter is an :
(4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by
(1) Isotope of parent (2) Isobar of parent
the south pole
(3) Isomer of parent (4) Isotone of parent
Q.39 The number of photoelectrons emitted for light
of a frequency v (higher than the threshold Q.43 The ionization energy of the electron in the
frequency v0) is proportional to : hydrogen atom in its grounds state is 13.6 eV.
The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to
(1) Frequency of light (v)
emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum
(2) v – v0
wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
(3) Threshold frequency (v0) the transition between :
(4) Intensity of light (1) n = 4 to n = 3 states
(2) n = 3 to n = 2 states
Q.40 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is
produced by a helium neon laser. The power (3) n = 3 to n = 1 states
emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons (4) n = 2 to n = 1 states
arriving per second on the average at a target
Q.44 In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a
irradiated by this beam is :
projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches
(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 9 × 1017 a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the
(3) 3 × 1016 (4) 9 × 1015 distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of
the projectile is :
Q.41 The figure shows a plot of photo current versus (1) Directly proportional to mass M1
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for (2) Directly proportional to M1 × M2
three different radiations. Which one of the
(3) Directly proportional to Z1Z2
following is a correct statement ?
(4) Inversely proportional to Z1
 Q.45 In the nuclear decay given below : (1) (i), (iii), (iv)
A A−4 A−4 (2) (iii), (iv), (ii)
A
ZX
→ Z+1 Y 
→ Z−1 B* 
→ Z−1 B
(3) (iv), (i), (iii)
The particles emitted in the sequence are : (4) (iv), (ii), (i)
(1) α,β,γ (2) β,α,γ (3) γ,β,α (4) β,γ,α
Q.50 A transistor is operated in common-emitter
configuration at VC = 2V such that a change in
Q.46 The mean free path of electrons in a metal is
the base current from 100 µA to 200 µA
4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on
produces a change in the collector current from
an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is :
metal will be in units of V/m : (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 150
7 7
(1) 5 × 10 (2) 8 × 10
(3) 5 × 10–11 (4) 8 × 10–11 Q.51 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be -
Q.47 Sodium has body centred packing. Distance
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol
between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice
(3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
parameter is :
(1) 8.6 Å (2) 6.8 Å (3) 4.3 Å (4) 3.0 Å Q.52 Oxidation number of P in PO 34− , of S in SO 24−

and that of Cr in Cr2 O 72− are respectively :

Q.48 A p–n photodiode is fabricated from a (1) +3, +6 and +6
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can (2) +5, +6 and +6
detect a signal of wavelength : (3) +3, +6 and +5
(1) 496 Å (2) 6000 Å (4) +5, +3 and +6
(3) 4000 nm (4) 6000 nm
Q.53 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell or
an atom is determined by the following :
Q.49 The symbolic representation of four logic gates (1) 2n2
are given below : (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 2
(i)
(4) 4l – 2

(ii) Q.54 Which of the following is not permissible

arrangement of electrons in an atom ?
(iii) 1
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –
2
(iv) 1
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –
2
1
The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND (3) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +
2
gates are respectively :
1
(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = –
2
 .
AIPMT - 2009
Q.55 From the following bond energies : Q.60 For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3,
H – H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1 d[ NH 3 ]
–1
If = 2 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1, The value of
C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol dt
C – C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1 −d[H 2 ]
would be -
C – H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol –1 dt

Enthalpy for the reaction, (1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

H H H H (2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
C=C + H–H → H–C–C–H
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
H H H H

will be :
Q.61 For the reaction A + B → products, it is
(1) 553.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 1523.6 kJ mol–1
observed that :
(3) –243.6 kJ mol–1 (4) –120.0 kJ mol–1
(1) On doubling the initial concentration of A
only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
Q.56 The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide (2) On doubling the initial concentration of both
is 1.77×10–5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the
ammonium chloride - rate of the reaction.
(1) 5.65 × 10–12 (2) 5.65 × 10–10 The rate of this reaction is given by :
(3) 6.50 × 10–12 (4) 5.65 × 10–13 (1) rate = k[A] [B]
(2) rate = k[A]2[B]
Q.57 Given : (3) rate = k[A][B]2
(i) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, Eº = 0.337 V (4) rate = k[A]2[B]2
2+ – +
(i) Cu + e → Cu , Eº = 0.153 V
Electrode potential Eº for the reaction, M
Q.62 The equivalent conductance of solution of a
32
Cu+ + e– → Cu, will be :
weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 and at
(1) 0.38 V (2) 0.52 V
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2, The
(3) 0.90 V (4) 0.30 V dissociation constant of this acid is -
(1) 1.25 × 10–4
–
Q.58 What is the [OH ] in the final solution prepared (2) 1.25 × 10–5
by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0
(3) 1.25 × 10–6
mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2 ? -
(4) 6.25 × 10–4
(1) 0.12 M (2) 0.10 M
(3) 0.40 M (4) 0.0050 M
Q.63 A 0.0020 M aqueous solution of an ionic
Q.59 The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a compound Co(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at
substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond energy per – 0.00732ºC. Number of moles of ions which
molecule is 4.0 × 10–19 J. The kinetic energy of 1 mole of ionic compound produces on being
the molecule per atom will be : dissolved in water will be : (kf = 1.86ºC/m) -
(1) 4.0 × 10–20 J (2) 2.0 × 10–20 J (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 2.2 × 10 –19
J (4) 4 × 10 –19
J (3) 3 (4) 4
 Q64. In the reaction Q.69 In which of the following molecules / ions BF3,
BrO3− (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ → 3Br2(l) + 3H2O(l) NO −2 , NH −2 and H2O, the central atom is sp2
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is hybridized ?
related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions
as following (1) BF3 and NO −2

d(Br2 ) 3 d (Br − ) (2) NO −2 and NH2

(1) =
dt 5 dt
(3) NH −2 and H2O,
d(Br2 ) 3 d (Br − )
(2) =–
dt 5 dt (4) NO −2 and H2O
d(Br2 ) 5 d (Br − )
(3) =–
dt 3 dt Q.70 Among the following which is the strongest
d(Br2 ) 5 d(Br − ) oxidizing agent ? -
(4) =
dt 3 dt (1) Cl2 (2) F2
(3) Br2 (3) I2
Q.65 Lithium metal crystallizes in a body centred
cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit
Q.71 According to MO theory which of the following
cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of
lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of
lithium will be :
increasing bond order :
(1) 300.5 pm (2) 240.8 pm
(3) 151.8 pm (4) 75.5 pm (1) N 2− < N 22− < N 2 (2) N 2− < N 2 < N 22−

(3) N 22− < N 2− < N 2 (4) N 2 < N 22− < N −2

Q.66 The dissociation constants for acetic acid and
HCN at 25ºC are 1.5 × 10–5 and 4.5 × 10–10,
respectively. The equilibrium constant for the Q.72 In the case of alkali metals, the covalent
equilibrium –
character decreases in the order :
CN– + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO–
(1) MI > MBr > MCl > MF
would be :
(1) 3.0 × 104 (2) 3.0 × 105 (2) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(3) 3.0 × 10 –5
(4) 3.0 × 10 –4 (3) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(4) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
Q.67 The values of ∆H and ∆S for the reaction,
C(graphite) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and Q.73 Which of the following oxides is not expected
170 JK–1 respectively. This reaction will be to react with sodium hydroxide ?
spontaneous at - (1) BeO (2) B2O3 (3) CaO (4)SiO2
(1) 510 K (2) 710 K
(3) 910 K (4) 1110 K Q.74 Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low
potentials and high currents. If 4.0 × 104
Q.68 Half-life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 amperes of current is passed through molten
seconds. The specific rate constant of the Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is
reaction is : produced ? (Assume 100% current efficiency,
at. mass of Al = 27 g mol–1) -
(1) 5.0 × 10–2 s–1 (3) 5.0 × 10–3 s–1
(1) 1.3 × 104 g (2) 9.0 × 103 g
(4) 0.5 × 10–2 s–1 (4) 0.5 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 8.1 × 104 g (4) 2.4 × 105 g
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.75 The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in Q.81 Which one of the elements with the following
the sequence : outer orbital configurations may exhibit the
(1) Ga < In < Al < Tl (2) Al < Ga < In < Tl largest number of oxidation states ?
(3) Tl < In < Ga < Al (4) In < Tl < Ga < Al (1) 3d24s2 (2) 3d34s2
(3) 3d54s1 (4) 3d54s2
Q.76 Copper crystallizes in a face-centred cubic lattice
Q.82 Which of the following molecules acts as a
with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the
Lewis acid ?
radius of copper atom in pm ?
(1) (CH3)3N (2) (CH3)3B
(1) 108 (2) 128 (3) 157 (4)181
(3) (CH3)2O (4) (CH3)3P
Q.77 What is the dominant intermolecular force or
bond that must be overcome in converting liquid
Q.83 Amongst the element with following electronic
CH3OH to a gas -
configurations, which one of them may have the
(1) London dispersion force highest ionization energy ?
(2) Hydrogen bonding (1) [Ne]3s23p1 (2) [Ne]3s23p3
(3) Dipole-dipole interaction (3) [Ne]3s23p2 (4) [Ar]3d104s2 4p3
(4) Covalent bonds

Q.84 The straight chain polymer is formed by –

Q.78 Which of the following complex ions is expected
(1) hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed by
to absorb visible light ?
condensation polymerization
(At no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
(2) hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed by
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+ condensation polymerization
(3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (3) hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by
condensation polymerization
Q.79 Out of TiF62− and CoF63− , Cu2Cl2 and NiCl 24− (4) hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition
(Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the polymerization
colourless species are : - Q.85 The IUPAC name of the compound having the
(1) CoF63− and NiCl 24− formula CH≡C–CH=CH2 is -
(1) 1-butene-3-yne (2) 3-buten-1-yne
(2) TiF62− and CoF63−
(3) 1-butyn-3-ene (4) but-1-yn-3-ene
(3) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl 24−
Q.86 Which of the following compounds will exhibit
(4) TiF62− and Cu2Cl2 cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism ?
(1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butene
Q.80 Which of the following does not show optical (3) 2-Butanol (4) 2-Butyne
isomerism -
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ Q.87 H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid
+ gives :
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]
H
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]o (1) 2 C=O (2) 2CO2
+ H
(4) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]
(en = Ethylenediamine) CHO
(3) 2HCOOH (4)
CHO
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.88 Consider the following reaction Q.93 Structures of some common polymers are given
PBr alc. KOH which one is not correctly presented ?
Ethanol 3 → X   → Y
(1) Nylon 66
(i ) H SO room temperature
 2 4     → Z; – NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4 – CO –
(ii ) H 2 O, Heat 2

The product Z is : (2) Teflon

(1) CH3CH2–OH ( CF2 – CF2 )n

(2) CH2 = CH2 (3) Neoprene

(3) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3 – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – CH2 –
(4) CH3CH2–O–SO3H Cl n
(4) Terylene

Q.89 Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of – OOC – – COOCH2 – CH2 –n
anhydrous AlCl3 to form -
(1) Xylene Q.94 Predict the product :
(2) Toluene NHCH3 + NaNO2 + HCl → Product
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Benzylchloride
OH

Q.90 Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene N–CH3

(1)
by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and
conc. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as
a/an - CH3
(1) catalyst N–N=O
(2)
(2) reducing agent
(3) acid
CH3
(4) base
N–NO2
(3)
Q.91 Which of the following reactions is an example
of nucleophilic substitution reaction ? NO
(1) RX + Mg → RMgX NHCH3 NHCH3
(2) RX + KOH → ROH + KX
NO
(4) +
(3) 2RX + 2Na → R – R + 2NaX
(4) RX + H2 → RH + HX NO

Q.92 Which one of following is employed as a Q.95 Propionic acid with Br2 / P yields a dibromo
tranquilizer ? product, Its structure would be -
(1) Chlorpheninamine Br
(2) Equanil (1) CH3–C–COOH (2) CH2Br–CHBr–COOH
(3) Naproxen Br
(4) Tetracycline
Br
(3) H–C–CH2COOH (4) CH2Br–CH2–COBr
Br
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.96 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with Q.100 Which of the following hormones contains
chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and iodine ?
produces - (1) Thyroxine (2) Insuline

(1) Cl (3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline

CH Cl
CCl3 Q.101 Which one of the following has haplontic life
Cl cycle ?
(2) Cl C Cl (1) Wheat (2) Funaria
CH2Cl (3) Polytrichum (4) Ustilago

Cl
Q.102 T.O.Diener discovered a :
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Free infection DNA
(3) Cl C Cl
(3) Free infectious RNA
H
(4) Infectious protein
OH
(4) Cl C Cl
Q.103 Mannitol is the stored food in -
Cl
(1) Gracillaria (2) Chara
Q.97 Consider the following reaction :
(3) Porphyra (4) Fucus
CH 3Cl
Phenol Zn
dust

→ X     → Y
Anhydrous AlCl3

Alkaline KMnO
Q.104 Which one of the following is a vascular
    
4 → Z, the product Z is :
cryptogram ?
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene
(1) Cedrus (2) Equisetum
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
(3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia
Q.98 The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of
the hydrocarbon – Q.105 Phylogenetic system of classification is based
CH3 CH3 on:
CH3–C–CH=CH–CH–C≡CH (1) Floral characters
7 6 5 4 2 1
CH3 (2) Evolutionary relationships
is in the following sequence : (3) Morphological features
(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3 (4) Chemical constituents
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3

Q.99 The segment of DNA which acts as the Q.106 Which one of the following groups of animals is
instrument manual for the synthesis of the bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?
protein is : (1) Sponges
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide (2) Coelentrates (Cnidarians)
(3) Ribose (4) Gene
(3) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(4) Ctenophores
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.107 Peripatus is a connecting link between : Q.113 Middle lamella is composed mainly of :
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera (1) Phosphoglycerides (2) Hemicellulose
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes (3) Muramic acid (4) Calcium pectate
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda Q.114 Cytoskeleton is made up of :
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
Q.108 Which one of the following pairs of animals (2) Calcium carbonate granules
comprises 'Jawless fishes' ?
(3) Callose deposits
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(4) Cellulose microfibrils
(2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu
Q.115 The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes junctions are found in :
(1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue
Q.109 If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
its outer surface without damaging its gut, the
fluid that comes out is :
Q.116 The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
(1) Slimy mucus (2) excretory fluid
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
(3) Coelomic fluid (4) haemolymph found in -
(1) tip of the nose (2) vertebrae
Q.110 Plasmodesmata are : (3) nails (4) ear ossicles
(1) Connection between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells Q.117 The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface
(3) Locomotory structures of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is :
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal
plasmalemma
(3) Glandular (4) Ciliated

Q.111 Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant Q.118 Given below is a schematic break-up of the
contains : phases / stages of cell cycle :

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Light-independent reaction enzymes
(3) Light-dependent reaction enzymes
(4) Ribosomes

Q.112 Synapsis occurs between :

(1) two homolog chromosomes
(2) a male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
Which one of the following is the correct
(4) spindle fibres and centromere indication of the stage / phase in the cell cycle ?
(1) A-Cytokinesis (2) B-Metaphase
(3) C-Karyokinesis (4) D-Synthetic phase
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.125 Sickel cell anemia is :
Q.119 What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous (1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non- with a nucleus
contiguous fashion (2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) It is nearly universal (3) Caused by substitute of valine by glutamic
acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) It is degenerate
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of
Q.120 Removal of introns and joining the exons in a
DNA
defined order in a transcription unit is called :
(1) Capping (2) Splicing Q.126 Study the pedigree chart given below :
(3) Tailing (4) Transformation
Q.121 Semiconservative replication of DNA was first
demonstrated in :
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
What does it show ?
(3) Escherichia coli
(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
like haemophilia
Q.122 Whose experiments cracked the DNA and (2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a metabolism like phenylketonuria
"triplet" ?
(3) Inheritance of a condition like
(1) Beadle and Tatum phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei trait
(3) Hershey and Chase (4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant possible
Q.127 The most popularly known blood grouping is
Q.123 Point mutation involves :
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not
(1) Deletion ABC, because "O" in it refers to having :
(2) Insertion (1) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(3) Change in single base pair (2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(4) Duplication (3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for
A and B types
Q.124 In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) (4) One antibody only-either anti-A and anti-B
the black-coloured from became dominant over on the RBCs
the light-coloured form in England during
industrial revolution. This is an example of - Q.128 Select the incorrect statement from the
following :
(1) Inheritance of darker colour character
acquired due to the darker environment (1) Baldness is a sex limited trait
(2) Natural selection whereby the darker forms (2) Linkage is an exception to the principle of
were selected. independent assortment in heredity.
(3) Appearance of the darker coloured (3) Galactosemia is an inborn error of
individuals due to very poor sunlight metabolism
(4) Protective mimicry (4) Small population size results in random
genetic drift in a population
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.129 Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts Q.136 The floral formula K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) is
in - +
(1) Cashew nut and litchi that of :
(1) Tobacco (2) Tulip
(2) Groundnut and pomegranate
(3) Soybean (4) Sunnhemp
(3) Walnut and tamarind
(4) French bean and coconut
Q.137 An example of axile placentation is -
(1) Marigold (2) Argemone
Q.130 An example of a seed with endosperm,
(3) Dianthus (4) Lemon
perisperm and caruncle is -
(1) Castor (2) Cotton
Q.138 In barley stem vascular bundles are -
(3) Coffee (4) Lily
(1) Closed and radial (2) Open and scattered
(3) Closed and scattered (4) Open and in a ring
Q.131 Guard cells help in :
(1) Fighting against infection Q.139 Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately
(2) Protection against grazing termed :-
(3) Transpiration (1) Anabolic (2) Catabolic
(4) Guttation (3) Parabolic (4) Amphibolic

Q.132 Manganese is required in : Q.140 Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of -

(1) Chlorophyll synthesis (1) Gram (2) Sorghum
(2) Nucleic acid synthesis (3) Mustard (4) Soybean
(3) Plant cell wall formation
(4) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis Q.141 Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue
and cuticle is characteristic of :
Q.133 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in :
(1) Hydrophytes (2) Xerophytes
(1) Chlorobium (2) Chromatium
(3) Mesophytes (4) Epiphytes
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Rhodospirillum

Q.142 Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is

Q.134 A fruit developed from hypanthodium
distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by :
inflorescence is called :
(1) Position of protoxylem
(1) Caryopsis (2) Hesperidium
(2) absence of secondary xylem
(3) Sorosis (4) Syconus
(3) Absence of secondary phloem
(4) Presence of cortex
Q.135 The annular and spirally thickened conducting
elements generally develop in the protoxylem
when the root or stem is - Q.143 Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
formation of :
(1) Differentiating
(1) ATP
(2) Maturing
(2) NADPH
(3) Elongating
(3) ATP and NADPH
(4) Widening
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.144 In a standard ECG which one of the following Q.151 a young infant may be feeding entirely on
alphabets is the correct represention of the mother's milk which is white in colour but the
respective activity of the human heart ? stools which the infant passes out is quite
(1) P-depolarisation of the atria yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?
(1) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
(2) R-repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Intestinal juice
(3) S-start of systole
(3) Bile pigments passed through bile juice
(4) T-end of diastole
(4) Undigested milk protein casein
Q.145 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of
the excretory products of -
Q.152 Globulins contained in human blood plasma are
(1) Frog (2) Man
primarily involved in -
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach (1) Clotting of blood
Q.146 Which one of the following pairs of food (2) Defence mechanisms of body
compounds in humans reaches the stomach (3) Osmotic balance of body fluids
totally undigested - (4) Oxygen transport in the blood
(1) Starch and cellulose (2) Protein and starch
(3) Starch and fat (4) Fat and cellulose Q.153 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :
Q.147 Which one of the following is correct pairing of (1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor
a body part and like kind of muscle tissue that calcium
moves it ? (2) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
(1) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle (3) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(2) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle (4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(3) Biceps of upper arm – smooth muscle fibres calcium

(4) Abdominal wall – smooth muscle

Q.154 Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a
Q.148 Compared to blood our lymph has :
portion of human male reproductive system.
(1) More RBCs and less WBCs
Select the correct set of the names of the parts
(2) No plasma labelled A, B, C, D.
(3) Plasma without proteins
(4) More WBCs and no RBCs
Q.149 What will happen if the stretch receptors of the
urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?
(1) There will be no micturition
(2) Urine will continue to collect normally in A B C D
bladder
(1) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(3) Micturition will continue vesicle gland
(4) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(2) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbouretharal
Q.150 Which part of human brain is concerned with the vesicle gland
regulation of body temperature ?
(3) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(1) Hypothalamus deferens vesicle gland
(2) Medulla Oblongata
(4) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral Prostate
(3) Cerebellum deferens vesicle gland
(4) Cerebrum
 .
Q.155 Which one of the following is the correct Q.160 One of the synthetic auxin is :
matching of three items and their grouping (1) IBA (2) NAA (3) IAA (4) GA
category ?
Q.161 Which one of the following acids is a derivative
Items Groups of carotenoids ?
(1) Cytosine, uracil, Pyrimidines (1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole butyric acid
thiamine
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid
(2) Malleus, incus, Ear ossicles
Q.162 Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by :
cochlea
(1) Sucker (2) Runner
(3) ilium, ischium Coxal bones of
pubis pelvic girdle (3) Offset (4) Rhizome

(4) Actin, myosin, Muscle proteins Q.163 Which one of the following plants is
rodopsin monoecios ?
Q.156 Which one of the following statement is true (1) Papaya (2) Marchantia
regarding digestion and absorption of food in (3) Pinus (4) Cycas
humans : Q.164 Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by induced by
salivary amylase in our mouth (1) Differentiation of mammary glands
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
proenzyme pepsinogen (3) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
(3) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta
through intestinal mucosa with the help of Q.165 Which of the following is the correct matching
carrier ions like Na+ of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles (1) Menstruation Breakdown of
that are transported from intestine into blood myometrium and
ovum not fertilized
capillaries
(2) Ovulation LH and FSH attain
Q.157 Which one of the following correctly described
peak level and sharp
the location of some body parts in the earthworm fall in the secretion
Pheretima ? of progesterone
(1) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16–18 (3) Proliferative Rapid regeneration
segments phase of myometrium and
maturation of
(2) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments. Grafian follicle
(3) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4–7 segments (4) Development Secretory phase and
(4) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental of corpus increased secretion
luteum of progesterone.
septum of 14th and 15 th segments.
Q.166 Which one of the following is the most likely
Q.158 Elbow joint is an example of :
root cause why menstruation is not taking place
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Pivot joint
in regularly cycling human female ?
(3) Hinge joint (4) Gliding joint (1) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
Q.159 Which one of the following is considered (2) Fertilization of the ovum
important in the development of seed habit ? (3) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
(1) Free-living gametophyte endometrial lining
(2) Dependent sporophyte (4) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
(3) Heterospory hormones in the blood stream
(4) Haplontic life cycle
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.167 The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages Q.174 The correct sequence of plants in hydrosere is :
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature (1) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla →
human testis is : Pistia → Scirpus
(1) Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-
(2) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia →
sperms
Hydrilla → Volvox
(2) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-
(3) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus →
sperms
Lantana → Oak
(3) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-
(4) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla →
sperms
Oak → Lantana
(4) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-
sperms Q.175 A country with a high rate of population growth
took measures to reduce it. The figure below
Q.168 A change in the amount of yolk and its
shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B
distribution in the egg will effect :
twenty years apart. Select the correct
(1) Fertilization
interpretation about them : –
(2) Formation of zygote
(3) Pattern of cleavage
(4) Number of blastomeres produced
Q.169 When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive
food low in proteins and calories, the infants
below the age of one year are likely to suffer
from :
(1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
(3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor
Q.170 Which one of the following types organisms
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
ecosystem ?
(1) Frog (2) Phytoplankton
(3) Fish (4) Zooplankton
Q.171 Which one of the following has maximum
genetic diversity in India ?
(1) Tea (2) Teak
(3) Mango (4) Wheat
Q.172 Montreal protocol aims at :
(1) Control of CO2 emission (1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has
(2) Reduction of ozone depleting substances occurred in the growth rate
(3) Biodiversity conservation (2) "A" is more recent shows slight reduction in
(4) Control of water pollution the growth rate
Q.173 Chipko movement was launched for the (3) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized
protection of - growth rate
(1) Wet lands (2) Grasslands (4) "B" is more recent showing that population
(3) Forests (4) Livestock is very young
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.176 Step taken by the Government of India to control Q.182 Which of the following is not used as a
air pollution include : biopesticide ?
(1) Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural (1) Xanthomonas Campestris
Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and (2) Bacillus thringiensis
trucks
(3) Trichoderma harzianum
(2) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (4) Nuclear Polyhedral Virus (NPV)
(3) Compulsary PUC (Pollution Under Control) Q.183 Which of the following plant species you would
certification of petrol driven vehicles which select for the production of bioethanol ?
tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons (1) Jatropa (2) Brassica
(4) Permission to use only pure diesel with a (3) Zea Mays (4) Pongamia
maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for Q.184 Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen
vehicles fixer ?
Q.177 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
(1) Azolla (2) Glomus
water :
(1) Increases when sewage gets mixed with (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
river water Q.185 A health disorder that results from the
(2) Remains unchanged when algal bloom deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
occurs characterized by (i) a low metabolic rate (ii)
(3) has no relationship with concentration of increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to
oxygen in the water retain water in tissues is :
(4) Gives a measure of Salmonella in the water (1) Cretinism (2) Hypothyroidism
Q.178 DDT residues are rapidly passed through food (3) Simple goiter (4) Myxoedema
chain causing biomagnification because DDT is : Q.186 Which one of the following statement is
(1) Water soluble correct ?
(2) Lipo soluble
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(3) Moderately toxic
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are
(4) Non-toxic to aquatic animals
given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Q.179 Global agreement in specific control strategies to
reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, (3) Benign tumours show the property of
was adopted by : metastasis
(1) The Vienna Convention (4) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(2) Rio de Janeiro Conference Q.187 Which of following is a pair of viral diseases ?
(3) The Montreal Protocol
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(4) The Kyoto Protocol
(2) Ringworm, AIDS
Q.180 Somaclones are obtained by : -
(1) Genetic engineering (3) Common Cold, AIDS
(2) Tissue culture (4) Dysentery, Common Cold
(3) Plant breeding
Q.188 A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized
(4) Irradiation Genetic engineering
by administering :
Q.181 Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease
and its causal organism ? (1) Weakned germs
(1) Root-knot of vegetables : Meloidogyne sp (2) Dead germs
(2) Late blight of potato : Alternaria solani (3) Preformed antibodies
(3) Black rust of wheat : Puccinia graminis (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(4) Loose smut of wheat : Ustilago nuda
 AIPMT - 2009
Q.189 Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick Q.196 What is true about Bt toxin ?
relief from - (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(1) Headache (2) Allergy (2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into
(3) Nausea (4) Cough active form in the insect gut
Q.190 Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with (3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
the deficiency of : Bacillus
(1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the
(2) Dopamine pest to sterillise it and thus prevent its
multiplication.
(3) Glutamic acid
Q.197 The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(4) Acetylcholine
deficiency may be cured permanently by
Q.191 which one of the following is commonly used in
transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ? (1) Enzyme replacement therapy
(1) Penicillium expansum (2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
(2) Trichoderma harzianum lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Meloidogyne incognita (3) Administering adenosine deaminase
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens activators
Q.192 The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely (4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing
used in contemporary biology as - ADA into cells at early embryonic stages

(1) Source of industrial enzyme Q.198 There is no DNA in :

(1) Hair root
(2) Indicator of water pollution
(2) An enucleated ovum
(3) Insecticide
(3) Mature RBCs
(4) Agent for production of dairy products
(4) A mature spermatozoan
Q.193 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
Q.199 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to :
matched ?
(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid
(1) Textile – amylase
(3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
(2) Detergents – lipase
Q.200 Tiger is not a resident in which one of the
(3) Alcohol – nitrogenase
following National Park ?
(4) Fruit juice – pectinase
(1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor
Q.194 Polyethylene glycol method is used for :
(3) Sunderbans (4) Gir
(1) Energy production from sewage
(2) Gene transfer without a vector
(3) Biodiesel production
(4) Seedless fruit production
Q.195 Transgenic plants are the ones -
(1) Grown in artificial medium after
hybridization in the field
(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial
medium
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to
a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artifical
medium
 AIPMT - 2009
ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2009)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 4 1 4 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 3
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 1 4 1 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 3 2 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 1
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 2 2
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 4 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 1 1 1 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 2
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 4

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

r r r
F  MLT −2  –1 –2
5. P1 + P2 + P3 = 0
1. [P] = =  2
 = [ML T ]
A r r r
 L  | P3 | = | P1 + P2 |
1 2
2. s= at m×4= P12 + P22
2
2
s2  20  = 12 2 + 16 2
=   =4
s1  10  m = 5 kg
s2 = 4s1 6. Loss in grav. PE = gain in spring PE
At maximum elongation
3. Sr = vrt 1 2
Mgx = kx
1000 = (v – 10) × 100 2
v = 20 m/s 2Mg
x =
k
r r r
4. ΣF = ma m r + m 2 r2
7. R cm = 1 1 = – 2 î – ˆj + k̂
⇒ T – mg = ma m1 + m 2

T − mg
a= = 4 m/s2
m
 AIPMT - 2009
 Ml 2 2 17. P ∝ T4
l
8. I = 4 ×  + M   the parallel axis
 12  2   4
P2  1000 
= 
4
P1  500 
theorem = Ml 2
3 P2 = 16P1 = 112

9. Apply conservation of angular momentum. 18. dU = Q – W = 8400 – 500 = 7900 J

Li = Lf
MR2ω = (M + 2m)R2ω' c+u 
19. n' = ν 
Mω c−u 
ω' =
M + 2m
 330 + 30 
r = 600   = 720 Hz
10. F = 6î − 8ˆj + 10k̂  330 − 30 
r
|F| = 6 2 + 8 2 + 10 2 = 10 2
r 20. v = ω A2 − x 2
| F | 10 2
m = = = 10 2 kg
a 1 2π 2 a 2 πa 3
= a − =
r r r T 4 T
11. τ = r×F
r r r 21. In SHM, Frestoring ∝ – x
τ is perpendicular to r and F.
22. As the coefficient of x is negative, it is moving
along +ve x-axis and equating the equation
12. Kepler's 2nd law
Ey = 2.5 cos[(2π × 106)t – (π × 10–2)x]
 ∆A 
⇒   = constant with y = A cos(ωt – kx)
 ∆t  planet
ω = 2π × 106
A1 A
= 2 ω
t1 t2 ⇒ f = = 106 Hz
2π
2A A k = π × 10–2
⇒ =
t1 t2
2π
⇒ λ =
⇒ t1 = 2t2 k
dm du dm 2π
13. mv = × = = Rate of flowing mass = = 200m
du dt dt π × 10 − 2
dm v (mv) v mv 2 23. 5λ = 4
Fav = × = =
dt 2 2 2 4
λ=
dK mv 2 mv3 5
p= = ×v=
dt 2 3 2π 10π
k= = = 7.85
1 λ 4
14. Loss of energy = mv2 – mgh = 20 J
2 wave moves along positive X-direction
dQ kA (T1 − T2 )
15. For steady state =
dt L
16. Isochoric → Volume constant
 AIPMT - 2009
V V V 1 1  31.
24. ∆ν = – =  − 
2l 1 2l 2 2  l1 l 2 

1 T1 1 
=  − 
2 µ  l1 l 2 

C
25. In series, Ceq = ,
3
Veq = 3V
For loop (3)

26. Total resistance of wire = 12 Ω × 2π × 10–1 E1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1r1 = 0

= 2.4π For loop (4)

– E1 + i1r1 – i2r2 + E2 = 0
2.4π
Resistance of each half = = 1.2π For loop (1)
2
and as about diameter both parts are in parallel E2 – (i1 + i2) R – i2r2 = 0

1.2π 32. Ig = 1.0A, G = 60q, I = 5.0 A

Req. = = 0.6 πΩ
2 Ig
S = G
27. W = MB (cosθ1 – cosθ2) I − Ig

= 2 × 104 × 6 × 10–4 (cosθ – cos60º) 1.0

G = = 60
1 5.0 − 1.0
= 12 × =6J
2 = 15 Ω in parallel
r r r
28. F = q (ν × B)
2πm
= – 2 × 10–6 [(2î + 3ˆj) × 10 6 × 2 ĵ] 33. T=
2B
= – (8N) k̂ T is time period
34. Pav = Erms . Irms cos φ
dφ d
29. e = = (Bπr2) ε R ε2R
dt dt = ε. . =
z z z2
dr
= 2πrB ε2R
dt =
2
 1 
= 2 × π × 2 × 10–2 × 4 × 10–2 × 2 × 10–3 R 2 +  ωL − 
 ωC 
= 3.2 × 10–6 πVol = 3.2 πµV
35. qA = 4πa2σ,
2 3
30. V = – x y – xz + 4
qB = – 4πb2σ,
r  δ ˆ δ δ 
E = – V = –  î + j + k̂  qC = 4πc2σ, c = a + b
 δx δy δz 
1  qA qB qC 
2 3 VA =  + + 
( − x − xz + 4) 4π ∈0  a b c 

= (2xy + z3) î + x2 ĵ + 3xz2 k̂ 2σa

=
∈0

1  qA qB qC 
VB =  + + 
4π ∈0  a b c 
 AIPMT - 2009
σ a 2  n (n − 1)
=  − b + c 43. =6
∈0  b  2
 
⇒ n=4
σ  2 
= a + a  For maximum wavelength energy difference
∈0  b 
  between states should be minimum because
1  qA qB qC  hc
VC =  + +  λ=
4π ∈0  a b c  ∆E

 a2 − b  2σa So, transition state in n = 4 to n = 3

σ 
= + c =
∈0  c  ∈0
 
1 Z1Z 2
So, VC = VA ≠ VB 44. Energy =
4π ∈0 r0

36. E = V + Ir
β α γ
⇒ V = E – Ir 45. ZX
A
→ Z+1 Y A → Z−1 B A − 4 
 →

Comparing with y = mx + c A−4

Z−1 B
Slope = – r, intercept = E 46. qV = 2eV
⇒ 1.6 × 10 V = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 V
–19

37. Out of the four structures, when the circular and

⇒ V = 2V
elliptical loops come out from the field, equal
V
are is not traced in equal interval of time. So any E =
d
induced in both is not constant.
2V
⇒ E = = 5 × 107
−8
4 × 10
38. As diamagnetic substances have negative
intensity of magnetisation, they are weekly 3a
47. = 3.7 Å
repelled by the external field. 2
39. No. of photoelectrons emitted is independent of 2 × 3.7
⇒ a = = 4.3 Å
frequency but depends on intensity. 3
E hc
40. No. of photons = 48. λmax =
(hc / λ ) eV
9 × 10 −3 × 6.67 × 10 −7 1242 eVÅ
= = = 4960 Å
−34 8 2.5 eV
6.6 × 10 × 3 × 10
16
= 3 × 10
49.
41. As a and b have same stopping potential and c
has greater stopping potential, then vc > va = vb (OR) (NOT) (NAND)
as b and c have same saturation current and a has 50. ∆IB = 100 µA
lesser value.
∆IC = 5 mA
So Ia < Ib = Ic
∆I C 5 × 10 −3
A α A −4 2β A−4 β = = = 50
42. ZX → Z− 2 Y → Z P ∆I B 100 × 10 −6
As the resulting daughter and parent nucleus has
same atomic number. So they are isotope.
 AIPMT - 2009
51. H 2 + 1 / 2O 2 → H 2 O 58. 20 mL of 0.50 M HCl = 20×0.050 m mol
2g 16g 18g
= 1.0 m mol = 1.0 meq. of HCl
10g H2 required O2 = 80 which is not present 64 30 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2
g O2 required 8 g of H2 and H2 left = 2g. Thus,
= 30 × 0.1 m mol
O2 is the limiting reactant and H2 is excess
= 3m mol = 3 × 2 meq
reactant.
= 6 meq Ba(OH)2
Hence, H2O formed from 64 of O2
1 meq of HCl will neutralize 1 meq of Ba(OH)2
18
= × 64 Ba(OH)2 left = 5 meq.
16
Tatal volume = 50 mL
72
= 72 g = mole Ba(OH)2 conc. in final solution
18
= 4 mole 5
= N = 0.1 N = 0.05 M
50
52. PO 34− , oxidation no. of P ⇒ +5
[OH–] = 2 × 0.05 M = 0.10 M
SO 24− , oxidation no. of S ⇒ +6 Alternatively,

Cr2 O 72− , oxidation no. of Cr ⇒ +6 Ba(OH)2 + 2HCl → BaCl2 + 2H2O

2 m mol of HCl neutralize 1 m mole of
53. Maximum no. of electrons in any subshell
Ba(OH)2
= 4l + 2
1 m mol of HCl neutralize 0.5 m mol of
54. m value – l to + l
Ba(OH)2
55. ∆H = dissociation energy of reactant – Bond Ba(OH)2 left = 3 – 0.5 m mol = 2.5 m mol
dissociation of energy of product.
2.5
∆H = (606.10 + 4 × 410.5 + 431.37) [Ba(OH)2] = M = 0.05 M
50
– (6 × 410.50 + 336.49) or [OH]– = 2 × 0.05 = 0.1 M
= – 120.0 kJ/mol 59. KE = 4.4 × 10–19 – 4.0 × 10–19
Kw 10 −14 KE/molecule = 0.4 × 10–19
56. Kh = = = 5.65 × 10–10
Kb −5
1.77 × 10
0.4 × 10 −19
2+ – KE/atom =
57. Cu + 2e → Cu 2
Eº = 0.337 V = 2 × 10–20 J
∆G = – nFEºcell 1 −d[H 2 ] 1 [ NH 3 ]
60. =
= – 2 × F × 0.337 3 dt 2 dt
= – 0.674 −d[H 2 ] 3 d[ NH 3 ]
=
2+
Cu → Cu + e 2+ – dt 2 dt

Eº = – 0.153 V −d[H 2 ] 3
= × 2 × 10–4
dt 2
∆G = +1 × F × 0.153
Final = 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
61. Rate = k[A][B]2
Cu+ + e– → Cu
= k[2A][2B]2
∆G = – 0.52 V
= k × 8[A][B]2
∆G = – nFEºcell
Eºcell = 0.52 V
 AIPMT - 2009
AC 8 0.693 0.693
62. α= = 68. K= = = 0.5 × 10–3 S–1
A∞ 400 t1 / 2 1386

Ka = Cα2
69. Both BF3 and NO −2 is sp2 hybridized.
1 8 8
= × × 70. F2 → reduction potential very high so strongest
32 400 400
oxidizing agent.
= 1.25 × 10–5
63. ∆Tf = ikf . m 71. N2 = 14e = B.O. = 3

∆Tf N −2 = 15e = B.O. = 2.5

i=
k f .m
N 22− = 16e = B.O.= 2
0.00732 0.00732
= =
1.86 × 0.002 0.00372 72. MI > MBr > MCl > MF
i =2 Down the group increases covalent character
Compound will be [Co(NH3)5]NO5NO2]Cl 73. Since CaO itself is basic, It will not react with
Total possible ions = 2 NaOH
1 d (Br − ) 1 d (Br2 ) E
64. − = − 74. W = ×I×t
4 dt 3 dt 96500
d (Br2 ) 3 d (Br − ) 9
= − W = × 4.0 × 104 × 6 × 3600
dt 5 dt 96500
65. for bcc type of unit cell
= 8.1 × 104 g
3a = 4r 75. +I stability down the group increase due to inert
3 pair effect
r = a
4 Al < Ga < In < Tl
1.732 × 351
= 76. Cu → fcc lattice
4
= 151.98
1
66. Kc = K a (CH 3COOH ) ×
K a ( HCN )

1
= 1.5 × 10–5 ×
4.5 ×10 −10
4 4r = 2 a
≅ 3 ×10
1
r= a
67. For a spontaneous reaction 2 2
∆G = –ve
Or ar eq. ∆G = 0 1
r= × 361 = 128
∆H = T∆S 2 2
∆H
T =
∆S
77. Inter molecular force in alcohol is mainly
170 × 103
= H-bonding
170
= 1000 K
 AIPMT - 2009
78. Cr3+ → Is2, 2s22p6,3s23p63d3 86. CH3CH=CH–CH3
Can exists as
3d3
H–C–CH3

[Cr(NH3)6]3+ H–C–CH3
cis
3d3 4s 4p H–C–CH3
And
CH3–C–H
Trans
Unpaired Six lone pair of
electron ligand ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
CH2 OH
Unpaired electron shows colour so absorb visible 87. + HIO4 2HCHO + HIO3+H2O
light. CH2 OH

PBr3
88. CH3–CH2–OH CH3–CH2–Br
79. In both TiF62− and Cu 2 Cl 2 , these no d- Alc. KOH
(i) H2SO4
electrons or no unpaired electrons so, these are CH3–CH2–OH Room temp.
CH2=CH2
colourless. (ii) H2O, heat

80. As complexes of the type [MA3B3] can show

geometrical isomerism knows as facmer
89.
isomerism and not optical isomerism. So here
[Co(NH3)3Cl3]0 can not show optical isomerism. CH3

81. 7th group → largest number of oxidation state. Anhydrous

+ CH3Cl + HCl
AlCl3
82. (CH3)3B → is electron efficient compound, so Toluene
behaves as Lewis acid.
90. HNO3 on nitrating mixture acts as a base.
83. [Ne]3s23p3 has highest ionization energy
91. R – X + KOH → R – OH + KX
(half-filled)
X– replaced by OH– show nucleophilic
CH3 CH3 substitution reaction
84. OH–
nCl Si Cl nHO Si OH 92. Equanil is a diasaccharide [Everday life]
CH3 CH3 93. Neoprene is

CH3 – CH2 – C = CH – CH2 – CH2 –

Polymerise
O Si O
Cl n
CH3 n

85. CH ≡ C – CH = CH2 N CH3

4 3 2 1
94. + NaNO2 + HCl
1-butene-3-yne H
CH3
N
N O
 AIPMT - 2009
O OH
P
95. CH3–CH2–C–OH + Br2 CH3Cl
H.V.Z. reaction 97.
Zn dust Anhydrous
Br AlCl3

CH3–C–COOH OH COOH
Br Alkaline
KMnO4

Cl H
96. 98. C2 having → 2-σ bond → sp
O = C – CCl3 →
Cl H C3 having → 4-σ bond → sp3
C5 having → 3-σ bond → sp2
Cl CH Cl C6 having → 4-σ bond → sp3
CCl3 99. Gene
DDT 100. Thyroxine contains iodine. Its structure is
I I

HO O CH2–CH–COOH

NH2
I I