Homework Hematology

1.What is the process of formation and development of blood cells?

➢ Hematopoiesis is the formation of blood cells from stem cells in the bone marrow,
producing red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells, regulated by growth
factors.
2. What is hematopoiesis?

➢ Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation, occurring mainly in the

bone marrow. It involves the differentiation of stem cells into red blood cells,
white blood cells, and platelets.

3. Where does hematopoiesis primarily occur in adults?

➢ In adults, hematopoiesis primarily occurs in the bone marrow.

4. Which of the following blood cells is NOT produced during hematopoiesis?

➢ Osteoclasts
5. In embryonic development, where does hematopoiesis first occur?
➢ In embryonic development, hematopoiesis first occurs in the yolk sac during the
early stages.
6. Which organ becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis during the fetal stage?
➢ During the fetal stage, the liver becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis.
7. What is the primary stimulus for increased leukopoiesis?
➢ The primary stimulus for increased leukopoiesis (the production of white blood
cells) is the presence of infections or inflammatory signals.
8. What is erythropoiesis?
➢ Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells (erythrocytes) from
precursor cells in the bone marrow. It is primarily regulated by the hormone
erythropoietin (EPO), which is produced by the kidneys in response to low
oxygen levels in the blood.
9. Where does erythropoiesis primarily occur in adults?

➢ In adults, erythropoiesis primarily occurs in the bone marrow, especially in the

flat bones (such as the sternum, ribs, and pelvis) and the ends of long bones (such
as the femur and humerus).

10. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in erythropoiesis?

 ➢ The correct sequence of stages in erythropoiesis (the formation of red blood cells)
is:
1. Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)
2. Common myeloid progenitor (CMP)
3. Proerythroblast
4. Basophilic erythroblast
5. Polychromatic erythroblast
6. Orthochromatic erythroblast
7. Reticulocyte
8. Mature erythrocyte (red blood cell)

This process occurs primarily in the bone marrow.

11. Which hormone regulates erythropoiesis?

➢ The hormone that regulates erythropoiesis is erythropoietin (EPO). It is

primarily produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood
(hypoxia). EPO stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.

12. Which molecule in erythrocytes is responsible for oxygen transport?

➢ The molecule in erythrocytes responsible for oxygen transport is hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it through the bloodstream to
tissues throughout the body.
13. What is the primary function of erythropoietin (EPO)?
➢ The primary function of erythropoietin (EPO) is to stimulate the production of
red blood cells in the bone marrow in response to low oxygen levels.
14. Erythropoietin is mainly produced by which organ in adults?
➢ In adults, erythropoietin (EPO) is mainly produced by the kidneys.
15. Erythropoietin acts on which of the following precursor cells in the bone marrow?
➢ Erythropoietin (EPO) acts on erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow,
specifically on proerythroblasts, promoting their maturation into red blood cells
(erythrocytes).
16. Which growth factor stimulates red blood cell production at the CFU-E stage?

➢ Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates red blood cell production at the CFU-E stage.

17. What is the lifespan of red blood cells?

➢ The lifespan of red blood cells (erythrocytes) is approximately 120 days.
18. What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte in the human body?
 ➢ The average lifespan of an erythrocyte (red blood cell) in the human body is about
120 days.
19. What is the shape of a mature erythrocyte?

➢ A mature erythrocyte (red blood cell) has a biconcave disc shape. This shape
increases surface area for oxygen exchange and allows the cell to be flexible as it
passes through small capillaries.

20.During erythropoiesis, at which stage does hemoglobin production predominantly

occur?

➢ Hemoglobin production predominantly occurs at the normoblast stage during

erythropoiesis.

21. What happens during the reticulocyte stage of erythropoiesis?

➢ During the reticulocyte stage, the cell is released into the bloodstream, where it
loses its RNA and becomes a mature erythrocyte.
22. Which of the following is the main function of erythrocytes?

➢ The main function of erythrocytes (red blood cells) is to transport oxygen from
the lungs to the tissues and carry carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the
lungs for exhalation.

23. Which type of hemoglobin is found the most in adults?

➢ The most common type of hemoglobin found in adults is hemoglobin A (HbA). It

makes up about 95-98% of the hemoglobin in adult red blood cells.

24. Normal adult Hb A contains which polypeptide chains?

➢ Normal adult hemoglobin A (HbA) contains two alpha (α) polypeptide chains
and two beta (β) polypeptide chains.

25. During which step in heme biosynthesis does iron insert into the heme structure?
➢ Iron inserts into the heme structure during the step catalyzed by the enzyme
ferrochelatase.
26. Where is heme synthesized in the body?
➢ Heme is synthesized primarily in the bone marrow and, to a lesser extent, in the
liver.
27. Where do heme and globin chains combine to form hemoglobin?
 ➢ Heme and globin chains combine to form hemoglobin in the bone marrow,
specifically in developing erythroblasts.
28. What is the form of iron in heme biosynthesis?
➢ In heme biosynthesis, the form of iron is ferrous iron (Fe²⁺), which is
incorporated into the protoporphyrin IX structure to form heme.
29. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?

➢ The major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body is ferritin.
Ferritin is primarily stored in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

30. What role does transferrin play in erythropoiesis?

➢ Transferrin transports iron to developing red blood cells in the bone marrow for
heme and hemoglobin synthesis.
31. What part of the hemoglobin molecule binds oxygen?
➢ Oxygen binds to the iron in the heme group of the hemoglobin molecule. Each
hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules, one for each heme
group.
32. Which molecule is critical for oxygen transport in red blood cells?

➢ The molecule critical for oxygen transport in red blood cells is hemoglobin.

33. How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule carry?
➢ One hemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen molecules.
34. What is thrombopoiesis?
➢ Thrombopoiesis is the process of producing platelets in the bone marrow,
regulated by thrombopoietin (TPO).
35. Where does thrombopoiesis primarily occur in the human body?
➢ Thrombopoiesis primarily occurs in the bone marrow.
36. Which precursor cell in the bone marrow gives rise to platelets?
➢ The precursor cell in the bone marrow that gives rise to platelets is the
megakaryocyte.
37. What is the lifespan of a normal platelet in circulation?
➢ The lifespan of a normal platelet in circulation is about 7 to 10 days.
38. Which growth factor triggers megakaryocyte maturation during thrombopoiesis?

➢ The growth factor that triggers megakaryocyte maturation during thrombopoiesis

is thrombopoietin (TPO).

39. Which growth factor enhances the differentiation of megakaryocytes during

Thrombopoiesis?
➢ The growth factor that enhances the differentiation of megakaryocytes during
thrombopoiesis is interleukin-6 (IL-6).
40. What is the primary site of thrombopoiesis in the human body?
➢ The primary site of thrombopoiesis in the human body is the bone marrow.
41. Thrombopoietin is primarily produced by which organs?
➢ Thrombopoietin is primarily produced by the liver and kidneys.
42. Which growth factor besides thrombopoietin plays a supportive role in
thrombopoiesis?
➢ Besides thrombopoietin, interleukin-3 (IL-3) supports thrombopoiesis.
43. What is the primary function of the demarcation membranes in megakaryocytes?

➢ The primary function of demarcation membranes in megakaryocytes is to form

compartments that separate into platelets.

44. What is the approximate lifespan of a megakaryocyte before it releases platelets?

➢ The approximate lifespan of a megakaryocyte before it releases platelets is 5 to 7
days.
45. What is the role of platelets in the body?
➢ Platelets help in blood clotting and wound healing by forming clots at injury
sites.
46. What is the main function of leukocytes?
➢ The main function of leukocytes is to fight infections and protect the body.
47. Which of the following is the most abundant type of leukocyte in the blood?
➢ The most abundant type of leukocyte in the blood is the neutrophil.
48. Which leukocyte is agranular?
➢ Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular leukocytes.
49. Which type of leukocyte is involved in allergic reactions and releases histamine?
➢ The type of leukocyte involved in allergic reactions and that releases histamine is
the basophil.
50. What is the primary function of lymphocytes?
➢ The primary function of lymphocytes is to mediate immune responses.
51. Which leukocyte transforms into macrophages in tissues?

➢ Monocytes transform into macrophages when they migrate into tissues.

52. Which type of leukocyte directly attacks infected or cancerous cells?

➢ Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells) directly attack infected or cancerous cells.
53. Which leukocyte plays a central role in the adaptive immune response?
 ➢ T lymphocytes (T cells) play a central role in the adaptive immune response.
54. Which of the following is not a type of lymphocyte?
➢ Neutrophils
55. Which type of white blood cell is the first to respond to infection?
➢ The neutrophil is the first type of white blood cell to respond to infection.
56. Which of the following is true about lymphoid leukopoiesis?
➢ Lymphoid leukopoiesis is the process of producing lymphocytes in bone marrow
and lymphoid organs.
57. What is the major role of eosinophils?

➢ Eosinophils combat parasite infections and help regulate allergic reactions.

58. What protein in eosinophils is highly toxic to larval parasites?

➢ The protein in eosinophils that is highly toxic to larval parasites is major basic
protein (MBP).

59. What proteins are found in basophils?

➢ Basophils contain histamine, heparin, and leukotrienes, which promote
inflammation and allergic reactions.
60. What does the term "basophilia" refer to?
➢ Basophilia refers to an increase in the number of basophils in the blood, often
associated with allergic reactions, chronic inflammation, or certain blood
disorders.
61. What is the role of heparin in basophils?
➢ Heparin in basophils acts as an anticoagulant, preventing blood clotting.
62. Where are monocytes located?
➢ Monocytes are located in the bloodstream and migrate to tissues to become
macrophages.
63. Where are macrophages located?
➢ Macrophages are located in tissues throughout the body, including the liver,
lungs, and spleen.
64. How long can monocytes survive in the bloodstream?
➢ Monocytes survive in the bloodstream for about 1 to 3 days.
65. What is the developmental sequence of granulocytes?
➢ The developmental sequence of granulocytes is:
1. Hematopoietic stem cell
2. Myeloid progenitor
3. Granulocyte-monocyte progenitor
 4. Myeloblast
5. Promyelocyte
6. Myelocyte
7. Metamyelocyte
8. Band cell
9. Mature granulocyte (neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil)

66. Which leukocyte is the largest in size?

➢ The largest leukocyte is the monocyte.
67. Which of the following leukocytes are agranulocytes?
➢ Lymphocytes and monocytes are the agranulocytes, meaning they lack visible
granules in their cytoplasm.
68. Which lymphocyte subset directly kills virus-infected cells?
➢ The lymphocyte subset that directly kills virus-infected cells is the cytotoxic T
lymphocyte (CTL), also known as CD8+ T cells.
69. Which cell surface markers are typically used to identify T-helper cells?

➢ T-helper cells are typically identified by the CD4 cell surface marker.

70. Where do monocytes take place?

➢ Monocytes are found in the bloodstream and migrate to tissues to become
macrophages.
71. Where do macrophages take place?
➢ Macrophages are found in tissues throughout the body, including the liver, lungs,
and spleen.
72. How long can monocytes survive in the blood?
➢ Monocytes can survive in the blood for about 1 to 3 days before migrating into
tissues.
73. Which leukocyte transforms into macrophages in tissues?

➢ Monocytes transform into macrophages when they migrate into tissues.

74. What is the lifespan of red blood cells?

➢ The lifespan of red blood cells (erythrocytes) is approximately 120 days.
75. Which growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated
with kidney disease?
➢ The growth factor produced in the kidneys that is used to treat anemia associated
with kidney disease is erythropoietin (EPO).
76. Which erythroid precursor has no nucleus seen?
 ➢ The erythroid precursor with no nucleus is the reticulocyte.

77. Which of the following is an erythroid progenitor?

➢ Colony-Forming Unit-Erythroid (CFU-E)
78. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast?
➢ Orthochromatic normoblast
79. At which normoblastic stage does hemoglobin production begin?
➢ Hemoglobin production begins at the early normoblast stage.
80. What is the mature RBC?
➢ The mature red blood cell (RBC) is called an erythrocyte. It is a biconcave disc
without a nucleus and is responsible for oxygen transport.
81. What is the major function of neutrophils?
➢ The major function of neutrophils is to phagocytize and destroy bacteria.
82. How many types of granules are found in neutrophils?

➢ Neutrophils contain three types of granules:

1. Primary (azurophilic) granules
2. Secondary (specific) granules
3. Tertiary granules

83. Which proteins are contained in basophils?

➢ Basophils contain histamine, heparin, proteoglycans, cytokines (e.g., IL-4, IL-13),
and enzymes like tryptase.
84. What is basophilia?
➢ Basophilia is an increased number of basophils in the blood, often linked to
allergies, inflammation, infections, or blood disorders.
85. What does heparin in basophils do?
➢ Heparin in basophils prevents blood clots and supports inflammation.
86. What is the primary role of eosinophils?
➢ Eosinophils combat parasites and mediate allergic reactions.
87. Which leukocyte is primarily responsible for producing antibodies?

➢ B lymphocytes (B cells) are the leukocytes primarily responsible for producing

antibodies.

88. Which cell surface markers are typically used to identify T-helper cells?
➢ T-helper cells are identified by the CD4 and CD3 markers.
89. Which leukocyte transforms into macrophages in tissues?
➢ Monocytes transform into macrophages when they migrate into tissues.
90. Which type of leukocyte directly attacks infected or cancerous cells?
➢ Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ T cells) directly attack infected or cancerous cells.
91. What is the lifespan of a normal red blood cell in circulation?
➢ The lifespan of a normal red blood cell in circulation is about 120 days.
92. What is the primary role of platelets?
➢ Platelets help with blood clotting to prevent bleeding.
93. What is the form of iron in heme biosynthesis?
➢ The form of iron in heme biosynthesis is ferrous iron (Fe²⁺).
94. Which place is heme synthesized?
➢ Heme is synthesized primarily in the bone marrow and the liver.
95. Which protein is highly toxic for larval parasites that is contained in eosinophils?
➢ Eosinophils contain a protein called major basic protein (MBP), which is highly
toxic to larval parasites.
96. Which one of the following is a function of macrophage?
➢ Phagocytosis
97. What is the role of platelets in the body?

➢ Platelets help with blood clotting and tissue repair.

98. Which precursor cell in the bone marrow gives rise to platelets?

➢ Platelets arise from megakaryocytes, which are precursor cells in the bone
marrow.

99. What is the lifespan of a normal platelet in circulation?

➢ The lifespan of a normal platelet in circulation is about 7 to 10 days.
100. Which growth factor triggers megakaryocyte maturation during thrombopoiesis ?

➢ Thrombopoietin (TPO) is the growth factor that triggers megakaryocyte

maturation during thrombopoiesis.

Homework of Instrumental analytical Chemistry

1. What is the primary purpose of a pharmacopoeia?

➢ A pharmacopoeia ensures the quality, safety, and consistency of medicines by

providing official standards for their composition, strength, purity, and
preparation.

2. What is Pharmacopoeias?
 ➢ Pharmacopoeias are official publications that set standards for the quality, purity,
strength, and preparation of medicines and their ingredients.
3. What is typically included in a pharmacopoeial monograph?

➢ A pharmacopoeial monograph typically includes:

1. Title and Description: Name and physical characteristics of the substance or
product.
2. Identification Tests: Methods to confirm the substance's identity.
3. Purity Tests: Limits for impurities and contaminants.
4. Strength/Assay: Quantitative determination of the active ingredient.
5. Specifications: Standards for physical and chemical properties (e.g., pH,
solubility).
6. Storage Conditions: Guidelines for proper storage to maintain stability.
7. Packaging and Labeling: Requirements for safe and accurate usage.
8. Methods of Analysis: Detailed procedures for testing.

4. What is Qualitative analysis?

➢ Qualitative analysis identifies the components or composition of a substance
without measuring their quantity.
5. What is the instrument of spectrophotometry?

➢ A spectrophotometer measures light absorption or transmission at specific

wavelengths.

6. What is the electromagnetic spectrum the most dangerous to humans?

➢ Ionizing radiation (gamma rays, X-rays, high-energy UV) is the most dangerous,
as it can damage DNA and cells.
7. What is UV-Vis spectrophotometry?

➢ UV-Vis spectrophotometry is a technique that measures the absorption of

ultraviolet and visible light by a sample to analyze its chemical composition.

8. What are the component instruments of UV-Vis spectrophotometry?

➢ The main components of a UV-Vis spectrophotometer are:

1. Light Source: Typically a deuterium lamp (for UV) and a tungsten lamp (for
visible light).
2. Monochromator: Selects specific wavelengths of light.
3. Sample Holder: Holds the sample to be analyzed.
 4. Detector: Measures the intensity of light after passing through the sample.
5. Display/Readout: Shows the absorbance or transmittance data.

9. Which sample container is suitable for the UV-Vis region?

➢ Quartz cuvettes are used for UV measurements, and glass cuvettes are used for
visible light measurements.

10. How many types of spectrophotometer does it have?

➢ There are two main types of spectrophotometers:

1. Single-beam spectrophotometer
2. Double-beam spectrophotometer

11. What is Transmittance (T)?

➢ Transmittance (T) is the fraction of light that passes through a sample. It is
expressed as the ratio of transmitted light to incident light.
12. What is the associated link of Beer Lambert law in UV-vis spectrophotometry?
➢ The Beer-Lambert law relates the absorption of light to the concentration of the
absorbing substance and the path length. In UV-Vis spectrophotometry, it is given
by:

A = εlc

Where:

● A is the absorbance,
● ε is the molar absorptivity (or molar absorption coefficient),
● l is the path length of the sample (usually in cm),
● c is the concentration of the substance.

It helps determine the concentration of a substance based on its absorbance at a specific

wavelength.

13. What is the main purpose of a UV-Vis spectrophotometer?

➢ The main purpose of a UV-Vis spectrophotometer is to measure the absorption of
ultraviolet and visible light by a sample to analyze its concentration and chemical
composition.
14. What is Chromatography?
 ➢ Chromatography is a technique used to separate mixtures into their individual
components based on differences in their movement through a medium.

15. What is the stationary phase in TLC?

➢ In Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC), the stationary phase is typically a thin

layer of silica gel or alumina coated on a flat surface, such as a glass or plastic
plate.

16. What is the stationary phase in HPLC?

➢ In High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), the stationary phase is
typically a solid or gel-packed column, often made of silica or polymer material.
17. What is chromatography primarily used for?

➢ Chromatography is primarily used for separating, identifying, and analyzing

components of a mixture.

18. Which solvent is used as a nonpolar mobile phase in HPLC?

➢ In HPLC, hexane is commonly used as a nonpolar mobile phase solvent.
19. What kind of non-polar stationary phase have been used?
➢ In HPLC, C18 (octadecylsilane) is a common non-polar stationary phase.
20. What are the four main parts of the LC system?
➢ The four main parts of an LC (Liquid Chromatography) system are:
1. Mobile Phase Reservoir: Contains the liquid solvent.
2. Pump: Delivers the mobile phase through the system.
3.Column: Holds the stationary phase where separation occurs.
4. Detector: Measures the separated components as they elute from the column.
21. In gradient elution, what factor(s) usually change during the separation?
➢ In gradient elution, the composition of the mobile phase (polarity or solvent
strength) usually changes during the separation.
22. What is the primary purpose of Thin-Layer Chromatography (TLC)?
➢ The primary purpose of Thin-Layer Chromatography (TLC) is to separate,
identify, and analyze components in a mixture.
23. What is the role of the solvent (mobile phase) in TLC?

➢ The solvent (mobile phase) in TLC carries the sample components up the
stationary phase, enabling their separation based on differences in affinity and
solubility.
24. What is the significance of developing a TLC plate in a closed chamber?

➢ A closed chamber ensures consistent solvent vapor for uniform sample migration
in TLC.

25. What is the significance of the Beer-Lambert law in UV spectrophotometry?

➢ The Beer-Lambert law is significant in UV spectrophotometry as it relates

absorbance to concentration, allowing the quantitative determination of substances
in a sample.

26. Explain the role of the monochromator in a UV spectrophotometer.

➢ The monochromator in a UV spectrophotometer isolates specific wavelengths of
light for accurate measurement of a sample's absorbance.
27. What is the importance of using UV spectrophotometry in the pharmaceutical
industry?
➢ UV spectrophotometry is important in the pharmaceutical industry for drug
analysis, quality control, purity testing, and determining the concentration of
active ingredients.
28. What is chromatography, and how does it separate components of a mixture?
➢ Chromatography separates mixture components by differing affinities for the
stationary and mobile phases.
29. Describe the role of the stationary phase and the mobile phase in
chromatography.
➢ The stationary phase separates components, while the mobile phase moves them
through the system.
30. How does the polarity of compounds influence their separation in
chromatography?

➢ In chromatography, polar compounds interact more with polar phases, moving

slower, while non-polar compounds move faster.

31. What is the difference between thin-layer chromatography (TLC) and column
Chromatography?

➢ TLC uses a flat plate for separation, while column chromatography uses a vertical
column. TLC is faster and used for small-scale analysis, while column
chromatography is suited for larger quantities and more detailed separations.

32. In HPLC, explain the role of the pump, injector, column, and detector.
 ➢ In HPLC:
● The pump delivers the mobile phase at a controlled flow rate.
● The injector introduces the sample into the mobile phase.
● The column contains the stationary phase, where separation occurs.
● The detector measures the separated components as they elute from the column.

33. What are the different types of detectors commonly used in chromatography,
and how do they work (e.g., UV/Vis detector, flame ionization detector)?

➢ Common chromatography detectors include:

● UV/Vis Detector: Measures light absorbance by separated components at specific
wavelengths.
● Flame Ionization Detector (FID): Detects ions formed during combustion of
organic compounds in a flame.
● Refractive Index Detector (RID): Measures changes in the refractive index of the
mobile phase as components elute.
● Conductivity Detector: Detects changes in the electrical conductivity of the
eluting solution.

34. How does the mobile phase composition influence the separation in
chromatography?
➢ The mobile phase composition affects solubility and interactions, influencing the
retention and separation of components.
35. What is the role of the solvent in thin-layer chromatography (TLC), and how
does it
affect the development of the chromatogram?

➢ The solvent in TLC (mobile phase) helps carry the sample up the stationary phase.
Its polarity affects the separation by influencing how far each component travels,
impacting the chromatogram's development.

36. What are some applications of chromatography in the pharmaceutical industry?

➢ Chromatography is used in the pharmaceutical industry for purity testing, quality

control, and identifying active ingredients and impurities.

37. How do you calculate the Rf value in thin-layer chromatography, and what
information does it provide?
 ➢ The Rf value in TLC is calculated as:
Rf = Distance traveled by the compound / Distance traveled by the solvent
front.
● It provides information about the compound's polarity and its interaction
with the stationary and mobile phases.

38. What is the significance of the peak area or height in chromatographic analysis,
and how Is it used to quantify components?
➢ The peak area or height in chromatographic analysis is proportional to the
concentration of a component. It is used to quantify components by comparing it
to a calibration curve.
39. What factors can lead to poor resolution in chromatographic separations?
➢ Poor resolution in chromatography can result from incorrect mobile phase,
improper flow rate, sample overloading, column issues, or temperature control
problems.
40. How would you interpret the chromatogram to identify the presence of different
Components?

➢ To interpret a chromatogram, identify different components by examining the

number of peaks, their retention times, and peak shapes. Each peak corresponds
to a component, and its position reflects the time it took to elute from the column.

41. What is reversed-phase chromatography, and how does it differ from

normal-phase
Chromatography?
➢ Reversed-phase chromatography uses a non-polar stationary phase and polar
mobile phase, while normal-phase uses a polar stationary phase and non-polar
mobile phase.