ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (21CIV59) – QUESTION BANK

MODULE - 01
1. The term Environment has been derived from the French word which means
to encircle or surround
a) Environ b) Oikos c) Geo d) Aqua
2. The term environment was introduced by
a) Jacob Van Verkul b) Tyler Miller c) Gilbertson d) Eugene P Odum
3. The word Environment is derived from
a) Greek b) French c) Spanish d) English
4. Environment is the life support system that includes
a) Air b) Water c) Land d) All of the above
5. The objective of environmental education is
a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) To teach environmentally appropriate behavior
c) Create an environmental ethic d) All of the above
6. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least
storage capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere
7. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters
of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere and Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere d) Biosphere and Lithosphere
8. Amount of CO2 content in atmospheric air is normally
a) 0.21% b) 0.416% c) 0.318% d) 0.428%
9. Among fresh water availability on earth, the percentage of groundwater is about
a) 0.2% b) 0.5% c) 0.8% d) 1.0%
10. Percentage of fresh water available on earth is
a) 2.8 % b) 2.2% c) 0.6 % d) 2.15 %
11. About…..............% of the earth is covered by water
a) 53% b) 19% c) 71% d) 33%
12. Among the fresh water available on earth, the percentage of surface water is about
a) 50% b) 10% c) 5% d) < 1%
13. The rain forms represented by snow, dew, fog and mist is known as
a) Dry deposition b) wet deposition c) acid rain d) none
14. The temperature in the stratosphere ranges between
a) 250 C to 550 C b) -560 C to -20 C c) 100 C to -50 C d) none
15. Troposphere mainly consists of
a) CO2 b) H2 c) O3 d) O2 and N2
16. The volume of nitrogen present in the troposphere is
a) 85% b) 78% c) 21% d) 5%
17. Inverse condition is the
a) Increase in temperature with altitude b) Decrease in temperature with altitude
c) Increase in temperature with latitude d) Decrease in temperature with latitude
18. Carbon content is higher in
a) Soil b) atmosphere c) water d) living matter
19. Atmosphere consists of 79 per cent Nitrogen and 21 per cent Oxygen by
a) Volume b) Weight c) Density d) All the three
20. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone d) Helium
21. UV-C radiation lies in the region
a) 315 to 400 nm b) < 280 nm c) > 280 nm d) 280 to 315 nm
22. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere
23. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is
a) Oceans b) Atmosphere c) biosphere d) Fossil fuels
24. Which among the components is termed as a life zone on the earth?
a) Atmosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Biosphere d) Stratosphere
25. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials or the surface of the earth
b) The thin Shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the
living things
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d) All of the above
26. Loss of water content through plants into atmosphere is called
a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Vaporization d) Hydraulic cycle
27. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Nutrients d) All of above
28. The word Ecology is proposed by
a) Ernst Haeckel b) Helena Curtis c) Charles Southwick d) Charles
Alton
29. The science that deals with the relationship of various organisms with
their environment is known as
a) economics b) geology c) ecology d) anthropology
30. Habitat refers to
a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live
b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c) Both a & b d) None of a or b
31. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
a) Fungi b) Solar light c) Temperature d) Humidity
32. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is
a) Bi-directional b) Cyclic c) Unidirectional d) Multidirectional
33. Which Pyramid is always upright?
a) Energy b) Biomass c) Producers d) Food chain
34. In complex ecosystem existence of species diversity is
a) Poor b) High c) Medium d) None
35. The organisms who directly feed on producers are called
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Decomposers d) Saprophytes
36. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Food Chain b) Carbon cycle c) Hydrological cycle d)
Anthropogenic system
37. Which of the below is a producer in an ecosystem?
a) Plants and some bacteria capable of producing their own food b) Animals c)
Human beings d) Fish
38. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b) Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon bonds.
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem
d) Respiration process releases energy
39. In aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton can be considered as a
a) Consumer b) Producer c) Saprophytic organisms d) Macro consumer
40. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by
a) Industrialization b) Agriculture c) Nature d) Urbanization
41. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by
a) Producer b) Consumer c) Decomposer d) All of the above
42. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called
a) Prey b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Detritus
43. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are
a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants b) Herbivores c)
Carnivores
d) Bacteria and other micro-organisms
44. Abiotic components include
 a) Soil b) Temperatures c) Water d) All the above
45. Which of the fo1lowing is true?
a) Green plants are self nourishing b) Producers depends on consumers
c) Biotic components includes all nonliving components d) Herbivores depend on
Carnivores
46. Primary consumer is
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Macro consumers d)
Omnivores
47. A predator is
a) An animal that is fed upon b) An animal that feeds upon another animal
c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals d) A primary consumer
48. Access to food is mainly determined by
a) Household income b) Food assistance programs c) Human resources d)
Society/Community
49. Which among the following is a climatic factor?
a) Pressure b) Humidity c) Temperature d) All of the above
50. Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?
a) Forest b) Grass land c) Desert d) All of the above
51. Ecological pyramids are studies of
a) Pyramid of numbers b) Pyramid of biomass c) Pyramid of energy d) All of the
above
52. A trophic level of organism represents
a) An organism’s position in a biomass b) An organism’s position in food chain
c) Group of organisms in the food chain d) An organism’s position in an ecosystem
53. Factors responsible for balanced ecosystem are
a) Balance between predator and prey b) Balance between vegetation, herbivores and
carnivorous
c) Balance between competing species and biotic factors d) All of the above
54. A food web consists of
a) A portion of a food chain b) an organisms position in a food chain
c) Interlocking food chains d) a set of similar consumers
55. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Man is not dependent on nature
b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per ones wish
c) Energy can be convened from one form to another, but some percentage is lost
into the Env
d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused.
56. Which of the following is not a desirous chemical in a good habitat?
 a) Oxygen b) Carbon di-oxide c) Sulphur di-oxide d) Nutrients
57. An ecosystem is a region in which
a) Dead organism interact with their environment b) Living organism do not interact
with their environment c) Living organism interact with their environment d) All
these
58. The perfect equilibrium existing in the biosphere between the various organisms
is known as
a) Environmental balance b) Ecological Balance c) Ecological cycle d) None of
these
59. The term ecosystem was first proposed by
a) Jacob Van Verkul b) A.G. Transley c) Costana d) Marie Gibbs
60. The two major components of ecosystem are
a) Adiabatic & isotropic b) Ecological & climatological c) Cyclic & biologic
d) Abiotic & biotic
61. Biotic components include
a) All living organisms b) Water, minerals and gases c) Self-nourishing green plants
d) Light, temperature, etc
62. Food chain is divided into basic categories
a) Four b) Three c) Five d) Seven
63. The transfer of energy and nutrients from one feeding group of organisms
to another in a series is called
a) Energy chain b) Food chain c) Balanced ecosystem d) Food web
64. A simple food chain starts with
a) green plants b) waste of organisms and dead organisms
c) both of these d) none of these
65. In a food chain humans are
a) Primary consumers b) Secondary consumers
c) Primary and secondary consumers d) Producers
66. Tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels is
known as
a) Bioremediation b) Biomagnifications c) Biopiracy d)
Biorhythm
67. Biodiversity is a measure of variation at the level.

a) genetic b) species c) ecosystem d) all of the above

 68. Terrestrial biodiversity is usually greater near the .
a) north pole b) south pole c) equator d) tropic of cancer

69. The age of earth is about billion years.

a) 3.04 b) 3.54 c) 4.05 d) 4.54

70. Following is usually measured at the species diversity level.

a) ecological diversity b) taxonomic diversity c) morphological diversity d)
functional diversity
71. Diversity of all living things depends on
a) geography b) presence of other species c) soils d) all of the above

72. A biodiversity hotspot

a) is a region with a high level of endemic species b) that have experienced great habitat loss
c) both (A) and (B) d) none of the above

73. Biodiversity is directly involved in

a) water purification b) recycling nutrients c) providing fertile soil d) all of the above

74. The most studied group is

a) birds b) mammals c) both (A) and (B) d) fishes

75. Following step(s) can conserve the forest cover

a) prevent forest fire b) prevention of overgrazing by cattle

c) hunting and poaching should be banned d) all of the above

76. In which of the following place we can find the cold deserts?
a) Bangalore b) Chennaic) Himalaya d) Rajasthan

77. How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

a) By minimizing the human activity b) By pouring water to desert area
c) By deforestation d) By killing organisms

78. Which kind of soil we can found on the surface of Thar desert?
a)Rocky b) Moist c) Fertile d) Aeolian
MODULE – 02

1. Energy is measured in
a) Blu b) Bhu c) Btu d) Ntu
2. One Joule of energy is equivalent to
a) 0.2389 calories b) 23.89 calories c) 238.9 calories d) 2.389 calories
3. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a) Fossil fuels b) Solar energy c) Tidal wave energy d) Wind energy
4. The total percentage of non-renewable energy sources available is
a) 18 b) 82 c) 30 d) 6
5. Good example of renewable energy sources is
a) Hydro power b) Coal c) Oil d) All these
6. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following
a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind Power d) Wave power
7. Which of following is a non Which of the -conventional source of energy?
a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Biogas d) All of the above
8. Solar radiation consists of
a) UV b) Visible light c) Infrared d) All of these
9. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by
a) Burning b) Cooling c) Sublimation d) Melting
10.Natural gas contains
a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen c) Methane d) nitrogen
11.Use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) came into effect from
a) Dec 2000 b) Dec 2002 c) Dec 2004 d) Dec 2006
12.The basic element of fossil fuel is
a) Sulphur b) Phosphorous c) Carbon d) Oxygen

13.The fossil fuel which causes maximum environmental pollution due to its use in generation of
thermal power is
a) Coal b) Oil c) Natural gas d) None of these

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14.Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is
a) Middle East countries b) America c) China d) India 15.Which of the
following source of energy is less eco-friendly? a) Biogas b) Wind c)
Nuclear d) solar
16. Harnessing the wind energy is done by
a) Wind Mill b) Ball mill c) Flour Mill d) Pig mill
17. Coal is a dirty fuel to burn, mainly because it emits
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) sulphur-di-oxide 18.About ¾ of
the coal deposits are found in
a) Karnataka b) Tamil nadu c) Kashmir d) Bihar & Orrissa
19.Wind Farms are located in
a) River basin b) Plain area c) Hilly area d) Valley area
20.Wind energy generation depends on
a) Direction of wind b) Velocity of wind c) Humidity d) Precipitation
21. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by
a) Solar radiation b) Wind c) Nuclear fuels d) tidal waves
22. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant?
a) Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill
b) Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
c) Release of toxic gases during processing d) All of these
23. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is
a) U -235 b) U-238 c) U-245 d) U-248
24. Nuclear power is being produced from
a) Carbon-14 b) nuclear fission c) petroleum combustion d) natural gas
25. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at
a) Bhadravathi b) Sandur c) Raichur d)Kaiga
26.Biomass consists of
a) Lignin b) Hemi cellulose c) Cellulose d) All of the above 27.Biogas is
produced by
a) Microbial activity b) Harvesting crop c) Both a & b d) None of the above
28.Biomass power generation uses
a) Crops b) Animal dung c) Wood d) All of these
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29.Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of
a) Methane and Carbon dioxide b) Methane and hydrogen sulphide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide d) None of the above
30.Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Sunlight d) All of the above
31.Cow Dung can be used
a) as Manure b) for production of Bio gas c) as fuel d) all of the above 32.India’s
position in bio gas plants globally
a) 5th b) 2nd c) 4th d) 7th
33.Electromagnetic radiation energy is an energy in the form of
a) Light b) Wave b) Heat d) All these
34.The source of Electromagnetic radiation is
a) Sun b) Wind c) Tide d) Water
35. Electromagnetic radiation propagates energy with a velocity of
a) 3 x 106 m/sec b) 3 x 108 m/sec c) 3 x 1010 m/sec d) 3 x 1012 m/sec
36. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by
a) Solar photo voltaic system b) Solar diesel hybrid system
c) Solar thermal system d) solar air heater
37. Electromagnetic radiation can cause
a) Plague b) Malaria c) Cancer d) Dengue Fever
38. Energy obtained from Earth’s hot interior is called
a) Thermal energy b) Biomass energy c) Geo-thermal energy d) None of these
39. In Hydropower plants power is generated by
a) Hot springs b) Wind c) Sun d) Water 40.Mini hydro-
power plants can generate energy upto
a) 100 MW b) 1000 MW c) 15 MW d) 500 MW
41. Which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented?
a) Goa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu
42. Tidal power plants are not preferred by environmentalists because
a) Tidal power is a renewable source
b) Tidal power can be developed only in coasts

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c) Tidal power stations bring about major ecological changes in sensitive coastal
ecosystem
d) Both b & c
43. Which is considered as the energy of the future?
a) Wind b) Hydrogen c) Ocean d) None of these
44. Problems of Hydrogen fuel cell is
a) storage and distribution b) availability of hydrogen c) creates pollution d)
None of the above
45. Hydrogen can be produced commercially by
a) Cracking of ammonia b) Electrolysis of water c) Both a & b d) Gasification
46. Hydrogen is found on earth in combination with
a) Sulphur b) Helium c) Copper d) Oxygen 47.Hydrogen
energy can be tapped through
a) heat pumps b) fuel cells c) photovoltaic cells d) gasifiers
48.The sources of Hydrogen are
a) Biomass b) Coal c) Water d) All these
49.Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel?
a) CNG b) Kerosene c) Coal d) Petrol

50. Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a) Crop patterns are rotated b) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation c)
Erosion of soil d) None of the above

51. The Impact of construction of dams

a) Submerges forest b) Loss of wild life habitat

c)Damages downstream ecosystem d) All of the above

52. Mining means
a) To conserve & preserve minerals b) to check pollution due to mineral resources
c) To extract minerals and ores d) None
53. Sustainable development means
a) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs
b) Progress in human well beings.
c). Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources,
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d) All the above
54. What would you do to prevent environmental damage?
a) Plant trees b) Halt deforestation c) Control pollution d) All of the above

55. Mineral is
a) organic matter b) naturally occurring inorganic substance
c) synthetic compound d) none
56. India has the largest shares of which of the following
a) Manganese b) Mica c) Copper d) Diamond
57. Mineral resources are
a) Renewable b) Available in plenty c) Nonrenewable d) None
58. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?
a) Asbestos b) feldspar c) Calcite d) Nitrogen
59.The earth’s land surface covered by forest is about
a) 1/4 b) 2/3 c) 1/3 d) 1/5
60. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in _
a) Western Ghats b) Bandipur c) Nagarahole d) Mangalore
61. Forests are effective sinks of
a) Oxygen b) Carbon di-oxide c) Nitrogen oxides d) all
62. Forests are extremely important because they
a) Provide clean water and clean air b) Provide habitat for wild life
c) Provide recreation and a change from the hectic urban d) all of the above 63.What
percentage of its geographical area of a country should be under forest cover?
a) 23% b) 43% c) 13% d) 33%
64. During photosynthesis, trees produce
a) Oxygen b) Carton Dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Monoxide
65. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their
a) Stems b) roots c) leaves d) buds
66. The natural resource, among the following which is a renewable resource is
a) fossil fuel b) metallic minerals c) non-metallic minerals d) forests

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 Module 3
1. Eutrophication is
a) an improved quality of water in lakes b) a process in carbon cycle
c) the result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies d) a water purification technique
2. Major purpose of most of the Dams around the world is
a) Power generation b) Drinking water supply c) Flood control d) irrigation
3. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agriculture practice?
a) Using chemical fertilizers b) Using insecticides c) Organic farming d) None of the above

4. Urban solid waste is known as

a) Garbage b) rubbish c) refuse d) all
5. Which of the following is the ill- effect of urbanization?
a) Decrease in agriculture land b) Loss of greener c) Loss of water bodies d) All these
6. Major problem/s due to industrialization is /are
a) Urbanization b) Migration of people c) Development of slums d) All these
7. Which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialization in general?
a) Solid waste b) Water pollution c) Air pollution d) Economics
8. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year
a) 1974 b) 1984 c) 1994 d) 1979
9. Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused due to leakage of
a) Methyl Iso Cyanate (MIC) b) Sulphur dioxide c) Mustard gas d) Methane
10. Mining means
a) To conserve & preserve minerals b) to check pollution due to mineral resources
c) To extract minerals and ores d) None
11. Mining of ores is done by
a) Sub-surface mining b) Tunneling c) only sub-surface mining d) both a and b
12. The pollution caused by transportation/ vehicular activities depends on
a) Type of the vehicles engine b) Age of the vehicle c) Traffic congestion d) All of the above
13. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?
a) Scoping b) Screening c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) All of the above
14. Surface runoff can be stored in
a) Ponds b) Reservoirs c) both a and b d) none

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 15. Which among the following is a perennial river
a) Mahanadi b) Pinner c) Narmada d) Tapti
16. Water supply for domestic consumption in Indian towns as per BIS
a) 150 lpcd b) 120 lpcd c) 135 lpcd d) 200 lpcd
17. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to
a) Phosphates b) Sulphates c) Arsenic d) Nitrates
18. Excessive Nitrates (above 45 mg/L) in drinking water causes
a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue baby disease d) Gastro Enteritis
19. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking waters as per the Indian Standards?
a) 6 to 9 b) 6.5 to 7.5 c) 6 to 8.5 d) 6.5 to 8.5
20. Water without fluoride causes
a) Corrosion b) Dental cavities c) Scale formation d) Tooth decay
21. Fluorosis is caused due to
a) No fluoride intake b) Excess fluoride intake c) Low fluoride intake d) None of these
22. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a) 1.0 milligram per liter b) 1.25 milligram per liter
c) 1.50 milligram per liter d) 1.75 milligram per liter
23. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause
a) Blue babies b) Fluorosis c) Taste and odour d) Intestinal irritation
24. Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of
a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead
25. The organ of a baby usually damaged by lead poisoning is
a) Kidney b) lungs c) liver d) heart
26. Maximum total hardness allowed in drinking water is
a) 600 mg/L b) 1000 mg/L c) 650 mg/L d) 750 mg/L
27. Temporary hardness of water is due to
a) chloride hardness b) manganese hardness c) calcium hardness d) carbonate hardness
28. Cholera & typhoid are caused by
a) Worms b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
29. Malaria is
a) water borne disease b) mosquito induced disease c) both a and b d) none
a) Protozoa b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Fungus
30. In water treatment alum is used for
a) softening b) Coagulation c) filtration d) disinfection
31. Aeration of water removes

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 a) suspended solids b) dissolved gases c) dissolved salts d) none
32. India has the largest shares of which of the following
a) Manganese b) Mica c) Copper d) Diamond
33. Deep deposits of minerals are removed by
a) Surface mining b) Subsurface mining c) Open pit mining d) Dredging
34. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?
a) Asbestos b) feldspar c) Phosphate d) Nitrogen
35. Forests prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their
a) Stems b) roots c) leaves d) buds
36. Environmental pollution is due to
a) Rapid Urbanization b) deforestation c) Afforestation d) a & b
37. Domestic sewage is
a) Waste water generated from kitchens and bathrooms b) Waste water generated from industries
c) Waste water from residential areas d) None of these
38. Which of the following are natural sources of environmental pollution?
a) Automobiles b) Sewage c) Earth quake d) Industries
39. Non-point source of water pollution is caused by
a) Pipes b) Sewers c) Ditches d) Mining wastes
40. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants?
a) Plastics b) Domestic sewage c) Detergent d) All
41. The liquid waste from baths and kitchens is called
a) Sullage b) Domestic sewage c) Storm waste d) Run off
42. BOD Means
a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Chemical oxygen demand c) Biophysical oxygen demand d) All
43. Physical pollution of water is due to
a) Dissolved oxygen b) Turbidity c) pH d) none of these
44. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from
a) Soil b) Waste water c) Groundwater d) Both Soil and Groundwater
45. Discharge of industrial wastes cause
a) Depletion of dissolved oxygen b) Destruction of aquatic life
c) Impairing of biological activity d) All these
46. Smog is
a) Natural phenomenon b) Combination of smoke and fog c) Colorless d) All of the above
47. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) wet scrubber c) Catalytic converter d) all of the above

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 48. “Minamata Disease” is caused due to
a) Lead b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Cadmium
49. Important sources of land pollution are
a) Industrial wastes b) Agricultural practices c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
50. Many people died in London during 1952 due to
a) Smog b) Fog c) Mist d) Smoke
51. The unit of measuring noise/sound is
a) Decibels b) Joule c) ppm d) µs
52. Definition of Noise is
a) Loud sound b) Unwanted sound c) Constant sound d) Sound of high frequency
53. Noise pollution limits at residential area
a) 45dB b) 80dB c) 55 dB d) 90 dB
54. Demography is the study of
a) Animals behavior b) Population growth c) River d) None of these
55. The meaning of global warming is
a) Increase in the temperature of climate b) Planet hotter than earth c) Solar radiation d) Cooling effect
56. The protocol that reduces green house gas emissions are
a) Kyoto protocol b) Cartagena protocol c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna protocol
57. Major causes of Ground water depletion a) Over pumping b) Decrease in recharge c) Both a & b d)None
58. The major contributors, to the acid are
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Nitrogen oxides c) both a & b d) None
59. In which year did the Hon’ble supreme court of India made environment education
compulsory subject at all levels of education?
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002 d) 2003
60. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
a) Govt. of India b) NGOs c) Individual d) All
61. Earth Day is held every year on
a) June 5th b) November 23rd c) April 22nd d) January 26th
62. World Environment day is on
a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August
63. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 1974
64. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1981 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 1974
65. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year

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a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 2004
66. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1994 d) 1972
67. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1974 c) 1980 d) 1972
68. The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 deals with:
a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) All.
69. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the
Article:
a) 51-A b) 48-A c) 47 d) 21
70. The objective of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 is:
a) To preserve the biodiversity b) To maintain essential ecological and life supporting
systems
c) Protection & conservation of wild life d) All
71. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of
a) Environmental (Protection) Act 1986

b) Air (Prevention & Control) Act 1981

c) Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1974

d) None of the above.

72. The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) was established in the year
a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 ) 1976
73. Which of the followings is NGO?
a) Narmada Bachao Andolan b) CPCB c) KSPCB d) None
74. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents?
a) Center for Science & Environment b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Indian Environmental Association d) None

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0
 Module 4 & 5

1. The rain forms represented by snow, dew, fog and mist is known as
a) Dry deposition b) wet deposition c) acid rain d) none
2. The temperature in the stratosphere ranges between
a) 250 C to 550 C b) -560 C to -20 C c) 100 C to -50 C d) none
3. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Ozone d) Helium
4. UV-C radiation lies in the region
a) 315 to 400 nm b) < 280 nm c) > 280 nm d) 280 to 315 nm
5. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?
a) Scoping b) Screening c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) All of the above
6. E.I.A can be expanded as
a) Environment & Industrial Act b) Environment & Impact Activities
c) Environmental Impact Assessment d) Environmentally Important Activity
7. E.I.A is related to
a) Resource conservation b) Efficient equipment/process c) Waste minimization
d) All of the above
8. Environmental impact assessment
a) is a study of feasibility of a project
b) is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human action
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
9. EIA study will help
a) Maximizing the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b) To estimate the future needs of the society c) To smooth implementation of the project
d) To cope up with rapid growth of population
10. Sustainable development
a) Discourages environmentally economic growth b) Encourages environmentally economic
growth
c) Encourages environmentally harmful and unsustainable forms of economic growth
d) All the above
11. Sustainability requires
a) Conservation of resources b) Minimizing depletion of non-renewable resources
c) Using sustainable practices for managing renewable resources d) All the above
12. The idea of sustainable development was defined for the first time by the world commission on
economic development
a) 1985 b) 1987 c) 1989 d) 1991
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 13. Sustainable development means
a) Meeting present needs without compromising on the future needs
b) Progress in human well beings.
c). Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide the resources,
d) All the above
14. The ground water availability depends on
a) Amount of rain fall. b) Geological formations c) Run off d) All of the above

15.Surface runoff can be stored in

a) ponds b) reservoirs c) both a and b d) none

16.Excessive Nitrates (above 45 mg/L) in drinking water causes

a) Fever b) Cough & chill c) Blue baby disease d) Gastro Enteritis

17.Water without fluoride causes

a) Corrosion b) Dental cavities c) Scale formation d) Tooth decay

18.Fluorosis is caused due to

a) No fluoride intake b) Excess fluoride intake c) Low fluoride intake d) None of these

19.What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?

a) 1.0 milligram per liter b) 1.25 milligram per liter
c) 1.50 milligram per liter d) 1.75 milligram per liter

20.Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause

a) Blue babies b) Fluorosis c) Taste and odour d) Intestinal irritation

21.Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of

a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead

22.The organ of a baby usually damaged by lead poisoning is

a) Kidney b) lungs c) liver d) heart

23.Population explosion will cause

a) Biodiversity b) Stress on ecosystem c) More employment d) None of these

24.Population explosion will cause

a) Socio economic problems b) Food scarcity c) Energy crisis d) All these

25.The meaning of global warming is

a) Increase in the temperature of climate b) Planet hotter than earth c) Solar radiation d) Cooling
effect

26.Global warming may bring about the following change in the climate of the earth
a) Increase in the rain fall b) Desertification c) Drought d) All of the above

27.Green house effect causes

a) Rise in temperature of earth b) Increase in rainfall c) Lowering of acid rain
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 d) Lowering of temperature of earth

28.The protocol that reduces green house gas emissions are

a) Kyoto protocol b) Cartagena protocol c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna
protocol

29.Global Warming could affect

a) Climate b) Increase in Sea level c) Melting of glaciers d) All the above
The term 29. acid rain was coined in the year
a) 1952 b)1852 c) 1652 d) 1752

30. The pH value of the acid rain water is less than

a) 5.7 b) 7.0 c) 8.5 d) 7.5

31.The highest pH value of acid rain recorded was

a) 4.5 b) 5.7 c) 7.2 d) 3.0

32.Acidity in rain is measured by

a) Barometer b) Hygrometer c) Ammeter d) pH meter

33.The primary cause of the acid rain around the world is

a) CFC b) SO2 c) CO d) O3

34.Acid rain affects

a) Materials b) Plants c) Soil d) All these

35.Acid rains are more prominent in

a) Temperate regions b) Tropical regions c) Arid regions d) Equally prominent in all
regions

36.Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

a) Urbanization b) industrialization c) increase in vehicle population d) none of the above

37.The important gaseous pollutants contributing to acid rain are

a) SO2 and NOx b) CO2 and H2S c) NOx and O3 d) None of these

38.Acid rain can be controlled by

a) Reducing S02 and N02 emissions. b) Reducing oxygen emission.
c) Increasing number of lakes. d) Increasing the forest cover.

39.Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to

a) Global warming. b) Air pollution c) Ozone depletion d) Afforestation.

40.The effect of acid rain

a) Reduces soil fertility. b) increases atmospheric temperature.
c) Causing respiratory problems d) skin cancer

41.Ozone layer is present in

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
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42.Ozone layer thickness is measured in
a) PPM b) PPB c) Decibels d) Dobson Units

43.Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around
a) 230 DU b) 300 DU c) 400 DU d) 500 DU

44.Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a) Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog b) Ozone protects us from the harmful UV
radiation of sun c) Ozone is highly reactive d) All of the above

45.Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is

a) Oxygen b) CFC c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane

46.Each Chlorine free Radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules.
a) l000 b) 10,000 c) 1,00,000 d) 100
47.Freons are
a) HFC b) CFC c) NFC d) Hydrocarbons.

48.Chloro Fluro Carbon’s (CFC) are

a) Non toxic b) Non flammable c) Non carcinogenic d) All the above

49.Ozone layers absorbs

a) UV rays b) Infra red rays c) Cosmic rays d) CO

50.Ozone hole was first discovered over

a) Arctic` b) Antarctica c) tropical region d) Africa

51.CFCs have been used as

a) Solvent b) refrigerants c) blowing agents for polymer forms d) all of these

52.World Ozone day is being celebrated on

a) September 5th b) October 15th c) September 16th d) September 11th

53.The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is

a) Vienna protocol b) Kyoto protocol c) Cartagena protocol d) Montreal protocol

54.Ozone depletion causes

a) Snow blindness b) Photochemical smog c) acid rain d) vomiting
55. Earth Day is held every year on
a) June 5th b) November 23rd c) April 22nd d) January 26th
56 World Environment day is on
a) 5th May b) 5th June c) 18th July d) 16th August
57. The leader of Chipko movement is:
a) Sunderlal Bahuguna b) Medha Patkar c) Vandana Shiva d) Suresh Heblikar
58. First World Environmental Conference was held at
a) Stockholm, 5th June 1972 b) Johannesburg, 5th1 June 1972 c) Rio-de-genero, 5th June 1992 d)
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none
59. ISO 14000 standards deal with:
a) Pollution Management b) Risk management c) Environmental Management d) none of the
above
60. Example of Passive sensors a) Camera b) Laser c) Sonar d) None

61. Components of GIS a) Software b) Hardware c) Data d) All

62. Environmental Toxicology derived from ---------- Word

63. Meaning of the word Toxican -----------

64. The science that deals with the study of the adverse effects chemicals/physical agents may produce in
living organisms under specific conditions of exposure called Toxicology

65. Rachel Carson is considered the mother of environmental toxicology

66. In 1984–85, the first edition of the WHO Guidelines for Drinking-water Quality was published

67. In 1994 UN General, assembly voted to designate September 16 as “World Ozone day”
68. Ozone layer was discovered by a French physicists CHARLES FABRY and HENRI BUISSON in
1913.
69. Acid rain Remove useful nutrients from the soil, slows the growth of plants, particularly trees
70. The term was first coined by ROBERT ANGUS SMITH in the year 1852
71. The major contributors, to the acid are Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides
72. Any man-made scheme or facility that adds water to an aquifer may be considered to be an artificial
recharge system.
73. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emissions are
a) Kyoto protocol b) Cartagena protocol c) Montreal protocol d) Vienna
protocol

74. Earth Day is held every year on

a) June 5th b) November 23rd c) April 22nd d) January 26th
75. Fluorosis is caused due to
a) No fluoride intake b) Excess fluoride intake c) Low fluoride intake d) None of these
76.What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a) 1.0 milligram per liter b) 1.25 milligram per liter
c) 1.50 milligram per liter d) 1.75 milligram per liter
77.Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause
a) Blue babies b) Fluorosis c) Taste and odour d) Intestinal irritation
78.Disfigurement in the teeth is caused by excessive amount of
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 a) Mercury b) Nitrate c) Fluoride d) Lead
79.The organ of a baby usually damaged by lead poisoning is
a) Kidney b) lungs c) liver d) heart

80 Which of the following reservoirs contains the most water?

atmosphere

biosphere

groundwater

lakes and rivers

1 Acid rain means

a) Heavy rain b) Drizzle c) Any precipitation d) None of these
2 Which of the following is not ill effect of acid rain?
a) Leaches nutrients from the soil b) It causes stone erosion
c) Killing of fishes d) Causes cataract
3 The primary cause of acid rain around the world is
a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Carbon monoxide d) Ozone
4 Which of the following is a source of SO2 in atmosphere?
a) Volcanoes b) Thermal power plants c) H2SO4 manufacturing d) All of
these
5 The pH of unpolluted rain water[Acid rain water] is about
a) 8.7 b) 3.7 c) 5.7 d) none if these
6 The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the acid rain is called
a) Transpiration b) Evapo transpiration c) Leaching d) Infiltration
7 Carbon dioxide reacts with moister in the atmosphere forming
a) CaHCO3 b) H2CO2 c) H2CO3 d) COHb
8 Reduction in brightness of the famous Tajmahal is due to
a) Global warming b) Acid rain c) Ozone depletion d) None of these
9 Ozone layer is present in
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d)
Thermosphere
10 Which of the following is the unit for measuring the thickness of ozone layer?
a) Decibels b) Dobson unit c) Centimeter d) None of
these
11 In the stratosphere, ozone is an effective filter capable of absorbing ultraviolet radiation
with wavelengths between
a) 200 and 315 nm b) 315 and 400 nm c) 100 and 150 nm d) 400 and
600 nm
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12 Which of the following UV radiation can rapidly damage biota of all types?
a) UV-A b) UV-C c) UV-B d) None of
these
13 zone layer thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around
a) 200DU b) 300DU c) 400DU d) 500DU
14 Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
a). Oxygen b) CFC c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane
15 Chlorofluro Carbon‟s [CFC] are
a) Nontoxic b) Nonflammable c) Non carcinogenic d) All the above
16 CFC‟s have been used as
a) Solvents b) Refrigerants c) Blowing agents for polymer foams d) All of these
17 The ODP of a specific chemical takes into account.
a) The reactivity of the species. b) Atmospheric lifetime of the species.
c) Molar mass of the species. d) All of these.
18 Which of the fallowing species has the zero ODP value?
a) CFCs b) HCFCs c) HFCs d) none of these
19 Which of the following statement is not correct for CFCs?
a) They are almost completely inert both chemically & biologically in the earth‟s
atmosphere.
b) At higher altitudes they are capable of undergoing UV photolytic decomposition.
c) They are very reactive in troposphere. d) None of these.
20 Each chlorine free radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules
a) 1000 b) 10,000 c) 1,00,000 d) 100
21 Freon‟s are
a) HFC b) CFC c) NFC d) Hydrocarbons
22 The ozone layer is located up to ----------------km above the earth surface.
a) 10 b) 50 c) 80 d) 100.
23 The steady decline of ozone in the stratosphere is called
a) Ozone destruction b) ozone hole or ozone thinning
c) ozone formation d) none of these
24 Ozone in troposphere is
a) Harmful b) Harmless c) Neutral d) None of
these
25 Formation of ozone layer is explained by
a) Rosenmund reaction b) Henderson‟s reaction
c) Chapman’s reaction d) Perkin‟s reaction
26 Ozone hole was first discovered over
a) Arctic b) Antarctica c) tropical region d) Africa
27 The equivalent of one Dobson unit is
a) 0.1mm b) 0.01 mm c) 0.1m d) 0.01mm
28 World Ozone day is being celebrated on
a) September 5th b) October 15th c) September 16th d) September
th
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29 Bhopal gas tragedy caused due to leakage of
a) Methyl Iso Cyanate b) Sulphur dioxide c) Mustard gas d) Methane
30 EIA can be expanded as
a) Environment and Industrial Act b) Environment and Impact Activities
c) Environmentally Important Activity d) Environmental Impact Assessment.
31 Which mass vaccination does WHO recommend after a disaster
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 a) cholera b) tetanus. c) measles d) none of the bove
32 Environmental (protection) Act was enacted in the year
a) 1986 b) 1992 c) 1984 d) 1974
33 Which of the following is a key element of EIA?
a) Scoping b) Screening c) Identifying and evaluating alternatives d) all
34 First of the major environmental protection acts to be promulgated in India was
a) The Wildlife Protection Act b) The air act
c) The environment act d) Noise pollution rules
35 Environmental protection is the responsibility of
a) Government b) Non-government organizations c) Individuals d) All
36 The wild life protection Act in India was passed in
a) 1978 b) 1972 c) 1986 d) 1992
37 Water ( Prevention and control of pollution) Act in India was passed in
a) 1974 b) 1982 c) 1986 d) 1990
38 The forest [ conservation] Act in India was passed in
a) 1977 b) 1980 c) 1982 d) 1988
39 Air [ Prevention and control of pollution] Act in India was passed in
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1981 d) 1990
40 Any environmental protection policy should be based on
a) No development b) Sustainable development
c) Exploitation of natural sources d) None of these
41 Centre for science and environment is
a) Non-government organization b) Government organization
c) International body setup by United Nations d) None of these
42 The goal of environmental education for all is
a) To create awareness b) To encourage participation
c) To make people knowledgeable d) All of these
43 Environmental education is must for
a) Children b) Women c) Everyone d)
Scientists
44 The leader of “Chipko Movement” is
a) Sunder lal bahuguna b) Medha parkar c) Vandana shiva d) None of these
45 “ Earth Day” is observed on
a) 1st December b) 5th June c) April 22nd d) 1st January
46 Which of the following is NGO
a) Narmada Bachao Andolan b) CPCB c) KSPCB d)
None
47 An important NGO involved in Global environmental protection is
a) UNICEF b) Green peace c) WHO d) CPCB
48 The first united national conference an human environment was held at
a) Stockholm b) New York c) Montreal d) Basal.
49 environmental pollution is a
a) States problem b) Global problem c) Countries problem d) regional problem
50 Silent Valley movement succeeded in
a) Waste management in sea coast
b) Canceling the state government Hydel project and saving the Lion-Tailed
Monkeys
c) Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala
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d) None of the above

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