CUESTIONARIO CCNA 200-301 (2024)

1 Which QoS tool can you use to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended
for data traffic?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• WFQ
• PQ
• WRED
• FIFO

2 What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
• connects each switch to every other switch in the network
• provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
• includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

3 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice

and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• Option A
• Option D
• Option C
• Option B
4 What are network endpoints?
elecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• a threat to the network if they are compromised
• act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network
• enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet
• support inter-VLAN connectivity

5 What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture?
(Choose two)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements
• provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications
• serves as the network aggregation point
• is the backbone for the network topology
• physical connection point for a LAN printer

6 What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• VTP
• egress traffic
• DTP
• ingress traffic

7 Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a
unique MAC address
• A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the
manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the
hardware
• The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with
administrative privileges
• The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address
• An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
• A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the
network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the
host on the network.
8 A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees
do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used
occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• platform-as-a-service
• infrastructure-as-a-service
• software-as-a-service
• business process as service to support different types of service

9 Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to
allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• role-based access control
• multifactor authentication
• physical access control
• biometrics
10 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and
SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

• interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk

encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

• interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk

encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

• interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation

dot1q switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation
dot1q switchport mode trunk

11 Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• 500
• 301
• 200
• 404
12 Refer to the exhibit. Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected
to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the
routing table of R4?
 Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• The path through R2, because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
• The path through R3, because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and
BGP
• The path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110
• The path through R2, because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

13 Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch
• The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
• Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch
that is separate from the hypervisor
• The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage

14 A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be
configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• a DHCP Relay Agent
• DHCP Snooping
• DHCP Binding
• a DHCP Pool

15 Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber
path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB.
What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

 • High usage is causing high latency
• An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA
• The sites were connected with the wrong cable type
• Interface errors are incrementing
16 An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What
command sequence must be implemented?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• switch(config-line)#lldp port-description
• switch(config-if)#lldp port-description
• switch#lldp port-description
• switch(config)#lldp port-description

17 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• S1
• S4
• S2
• S3

18 What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a
time
• Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server
hardware
• Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources
• Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment

19 Refer to the exhibit. A frame from VLAN1 of switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame
received on VLAN2. What causes this behavior?
 Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• trunk mode mismatches
• native vlan mismatches
• allowing only vlan 2 on the destination
• VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

20 Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• control plane
• policy plane
• management plane
• data plane

21 Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• software-as-a-service
• platform-as-a-service
• infrastructure-as-a-service
• business process as service to support different types of service

22 Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the corresponding
networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
23 With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the
client?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate
• Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8
• Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8
• Accept: application/json
24 What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools
• allows application developers to interact with the network
• facilities communication between the controller and the applications
• facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware
25 How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network
• a cable connected to a physical switch on the network
• wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network
• a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network
26 Which network action occurs within the data plane?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)
• compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
• make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC
• reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

27 Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two)

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• PBR
• PQ
• FRTS
• CBWFQ
• CAR

28 What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• 00:00:0c:07:ac:01
• 00:00:0c:43:2e:08
• 00:00:0crfHfrff
• 43:2e:08:00:00:0c
 • ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
29 Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
• Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
• Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
• Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
30 What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
• acts as a central point for association and authentication servers
• moves packets between different VLANs
• moves packets within a VLAN
• selects the best route between networks on a WAN
31 Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless
environment?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• WPA2 + AES
• WPA + TKIP
• WEP
• WPA + AES
32 How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• MAC address forwarding
• Port blocking
• Collision avoidance.
• TTL

33 When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption
of the entire original IP packet?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• IPsec tunnel mode with AH
• IPsec transport mode with ESP
• IPsec transport mode with AH
• IPsec tunnel mode with ESP
34 Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Support the NAT protocol
• Reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses
• Conserve public IPv4 addressing
• Preserve public IPv6 address space

35 When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame
handed?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
• Broadcast to all ports
• Flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated
 • Forwarded to the first available port
36 Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to
a remote server?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• TFTP
• SMTP
• DTP
• FTP
37 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the
expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a
switch?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN
connectivity.
• The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in
VLAN 50.
• The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the
phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.
• The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the
phone has no VLAN connected.
38 What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is
entered on the CLI?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled
• initiates a ping request to the URL
• prompts the user to specify the desired IP address
• sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

39 What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state
• Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.
• Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state
• Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately
• Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change
notifications
40 Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two)
Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Eliminating training needs
• Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing
• Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning
• Reducing hardware footprint
• Policy-derived provisioning of resources

41 What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Forwards multicast hello messages between routers
• Sends the default route to the hosts on a network
• Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing
• Ensures a loop-free physical topology
42 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• Switch 2
• Switch 3
• Switch 1
• Switch 4

43 An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host.

What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• hypervisor
• switch
• router
• straight cable
44 Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• forwarding
• learning
• listening
• blocking

45 Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• server virtualization
• virtual device contexts
• network port ID visualization
• virtual routing and forwarding
46 What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• It enables BPDU messages
• It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
• It immediately enables the port in the listening state
• It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
47 Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it
send the packet?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• 192.168.12.2
• 192.168.14.4
• 192.168.15.5
• 192.168.13.3
48 Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• lldp reinit 5
• lldp holdtime 5
• lldp reinit 5000
• lldp timer 5000
49 What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet
is legitimate?
 Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• load balancer
• Layer 2 switch
• LAN controller
• firewall

50 What is a benefit of VRRP?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.
• It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the
source.
• It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.
• It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then
makes the final forwarding decision.
51 What does physical access control regulate?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• access to servers to prevent malicious activity
• access to specific networks based on business function
• access to computer networks and file systems
• access to networking equipment and facilities
52 Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any
interface?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• lldp holdtime
• lldp reinit
• lldp timer
• lldp tlv-select

53 Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding
networking types on the right.

54 Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another
switch?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes
down
• After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
 • Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast
storms
• VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch
automatically
55 What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus
• It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus
• It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture
• It centralizes the data plane for the network
56 Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol
• Neighbor Discovery Protocol
• Cisco Discovery Protocol
• Internet Group Management Protocol
57 Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic
Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• The link is becomes an access port
• The link is in an error disables stale
• The link becomes a trunkport
• The link is in a downstate.

58 Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B.
Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?
 Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk
• There is a native VLAN mismatch
• Access mode is configured on the switch ports.
• The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN
59 Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it
is reliable
• The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent
• The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap
• The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a
configured interval
60 What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
• Onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components
• Physical workstations are configured to share resources
• Wireless connections provide the sole access method to services
61 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity
between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with
VLANs 10, 11, 12 and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

• Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for inter-VLAN routing
• Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation
• Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation
• Add PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication

62 How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• Activate all ports and place in the default VLAN
• Configure extended VLANs
• Manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP
• Enable dynamic ARP inspection

63 How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:
• separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain
• give it a value in the private VLAN range
• assign it as VLAN 1
• configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link
64 Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.
65 Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of
receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

• Layer 2 switch
• Firewall
• Load balancer
• Router

66 An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows
the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
• infrastructure-as-a-service
• platform-as-a-service
• software-as-a-service
• network-as-a-service

67 What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to
a southbound API?
• XML
• Java
• OpenFlow
• REST
68 Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a
switch? (Choose two)
• Cookbook
• Task
• Recipe
 • Playbook
• Model

69 An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels.
What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
• OEAP Split Tunnel
• 11ac MU-MIMO
• Client Band Select
• Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
70 An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor
discovery is disabled.

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network
devices?
• Disable autonegotiation
• Enable LLDP globally
• Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface
• Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

71 Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received
on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

• The frame is processed in VLAN 11

• The frame is processed in VLAN 1
• The frame is dropped
• The frame is processed in VLAN 5
72 What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
• After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that
cable type
• The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed
faster by a switch
• After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data
• Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster
73 What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
• achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
• runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
• housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client
• handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
• runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
74 A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The
network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including
voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy
integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology
should be recommended?
• VSAT
• ISDN
• Ethernet WAN
• Frame Relay
75 Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
• applying security policies
• enforcing routing policies
• marking interesting traffic for data polices
• attaching users to the edge of the network
76 Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute-value pairs?
• array
• string
• object
• Boolean
77 Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose
two)
• The device is placed into the Unmanaged state.
• The device is placed into the Managed state.
• The device is placed into the Provisioned state.
• The device is assigned to the Global sit
• The device is assigned to the Local site.
78 When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway
is automatically distributed?
• default-gateway
• ip helper-address
• default-router
• dns-server
79 Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right. Not
all functions are used.
80 Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1: priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

• Branch-3
• Branch-1
• Branch-2
• Branch-4
81 Refer to the exhibit. Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from
10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
 • It uses a route that is similar to the destination address
• It floods packets to all learned next hops
• It discards the packets
• It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned
82 Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
• frame-relay packet switching
• broadband cable access
• dedicated point-to-point leased line
• Integrated Services Digital Network switching
83 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1.
Which action is taken by S1?

• It forwards it out G0/3 only

• It drops the frame
• It forwards it out interface G0/2 only
• It is flooded out every port except G0/0
84 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a
router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
 • access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq scp
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq https
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

85 Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two)

• 192.168.1.64
• 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.254
• 192.168.1.17
• 192.168.1.61
86 How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of
0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
• It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.
• It drops the frame immediately.
• It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.
• It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.
87 Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and
applications running over the network?
• OpenFlow
• Southbound API
• REST API
• NETCONF
88 What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
• It provides variable latency
• Each device is separated by the same number of hops
• It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports
• Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth
89 An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a
trunk link. Which command should be used?
 • switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
• switchport mode trunk
• switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
• switchport trunk native vlan 10
90 Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
• using a non-default native VLAN
• Dynamic ARP Inspection
• 802.1x
• DHCP snooping
91 A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement
is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting
client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto

key generate ec keysize 1024
B. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto
key generate rsa modulus 1024
C. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto
key generate ec keysize 2048
D. R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto
key encrypt rsa name myKey

• Option A
• Option C
• Option D
• Option B

92 Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

• 84
• 110
• 128
• 192
• 193
93 When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. By default, the router will
send informational messages (level 6). That means it will send all the syslog messages from level
0 to 6.
 • 0
• 2
• 4
• 6
94 What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
• processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the
network
• determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks
• forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection
• explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain
95 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75
SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97
SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D
SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19
 • SW1
• SW2
• SW4
• SW3
96 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port
configured with last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the
requirement?

• interface gi0/1
no cdp enable

• interface gi0/1
clear cdp table

• interface gi0/0
no cdp advertise-v2

• interface gi0/0
no cdp run
97 What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
• software-as-a-service
• services as a hardware controller
• control and distribution of physical resources
• infrastructure-as-a-service
98 What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
• 2.048 Mbps
• 34.368 Mbps
• 1.544 Mbps
• 43.7 Mbps
99 What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
• They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
• They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
• They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
• They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

100 When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward
requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
• DHCP server
• DHCP relay agent
• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPOFFER
101 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network?
(Choose two)
• static routing
• single-homed branches
• dynamic routing
• dual-homed branches
• asychronous routing

102 What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is
considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?
• data link
• access
• core
• network
• network access

103 Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right

104 An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to
trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
 • configure switchport nonegotiate
• configure switchport mode dynamic auto
• configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable
• configure switchport mode dynamic desirable
105 What must be considered when using 802.11a?
• It is compatible with 802.11g and 802.11-compliant wireless devices
• It is used in place of 802.11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required
• It is chosen over 802.11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary
• It is susceptible to interference from 2.4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens
106 If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how
does it process the frames?
• The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request
is sent.
• The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.
• The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission
request is sent.
• The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

107 Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on
the same SSID?
• Authentication Request
• Reassociation Request
• Probe Request
• Association Request

108 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between
Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command
accomplishes this task?

• switchport access vlan 67

• switchport trunk allowed vlan 67
• switchport private-vlan association host 67
• switchport trunk native vlan 67

109 Refer to the exhibit. An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0
and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied?
 • Option B
• Option C
• Option D
• Option A

110 In which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when
additional access ports are required?
• A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
• A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
• A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
• A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch