PART ONE RADIOLOGY EXAM 2017

1- Structure pass along with the aorta through the aortic diaphragmatic hiatus:
a) IVC.
b) Esophagus.
c) Thoracic duct.
d) Vagal nerve.
e) Phrenic nerve

2- Case about avulsion than a question about The insertion of Sartorius muscle:
a) inferior pubic ramus.
b) lesser trochanter.
c) anterior superior iliac spine.
d) anterior inferior iliac spine.

3- case scenario asking about which muscle is attached to the anterior inferior
iliac spine:
a) Sartorius muscle
b) rectus femoris.

4- Patient complains of………….ENT surgeon can’t see the facial nerve on CT, what
Medial to lateral is the vein with medial relation to facial nerve which the surgeon can follow?
AVN
a) Facial artery.
b) Facial vein.
c) Retromandibular vein.

5- Pes anserinus components:

a) Sartorius, Gracillis and Semtindinosus.
Say grace before tea
6- Young patient prior to kidney transplant, a screening US was done and showed
echoic tubular structure at the middle pole of the aorta posteriorly. What could
it be?
a) Left retro-aortic renal vein.

7- What determines the predominance in arterial supply of the heart?

A) Acute marginal artery.
B) Diagonal.
C) Posterior interventricular.
D) Left anterior descending artery.

8- The coronary sinus drains in:

a) Rt atrium.
b) Left atrium.
c) Left ventricle.
d) Left ventricle.
 9- Which of the following is the most tensor of the vocal cords:
a) Cricothyroid.
b) Lateral cricoarytenoid.
c) Throarytenoid.
d) Obliqure arytenoid.
e) posterior cricoarytenoid.

10- Which of the following is a common cause for free fluid in the anterior
pararenal:
a) Perforated deudenum.
b) Aortic injury.

11- Ossification of elbow:

a) capitellum, radial head, medial epicondyle, trochlea, olecranon, lateral
epicondyle

Check 12- Which separate the right and left hepatic lobes:
a) middle of the gallbladder fossa. What divides medial and lateral
b) faliciform Ligament. left lobe:
c) Right and left portal veins. Left hepatic v
Ligamentum teres
d) Left hepatic vein.

13- Azygos and hemi-azygos joins at:

a) T1.
b) T2.
c) T5.
d) T8.

14- What is the correct order of the cavernous sinus structures, from top to
bottom:
a) CN III, CN IV, CN VI, V1 then V2 of CN V.

15- Regarding anatomy relation of the head of the pancreas to SMV:

a) Anterior.
b) Posterior.
c) left side.
d) right side.

16- The normal attenuation of liver in non enhanced study is :

a) 20 – 30 Hu.
b) 40 – 65 Hu.

17- Segmental anatomy of LT upper lobe:

a) Apicopsterior, anterior.
b) Apical, posterior, anterior.
18- Elderly patient with bilateral lower limb edema, on auscultation had bilateral
crackles and dullness on percussion, chest xray revealed bilateral pleural
effusion what will you see on CT:
1- Reticulation.
2- Smooth septal lines.
3- Peri-hilar nodularities.
4- Traction bronchiectasis.
5- Multiple masses.

19- 56 year-old male with asymmetry at chest wall otherwise normal, denies any
surgical history, physical examination showed a mild degree of chest wall
asymmetry. CXR demonstrated a unilateral hyperlucent hemithorax. What is
the most likely diagnosis:
a) Poland syndrom.
b) PTX.
c) Swyer-james syndrome.
d) Mastectomy.
e) Pleural effusion.

20- case scenario >> doctor wants CT chest for >> what is the most important
location for aortic injury:
a) Descending aorta.
b) Aortic isthmus.
c) At diaphragmatic hiatus.
d) Aortic arch.

21- Sign of Pneumomediastinum:

a) inverted V shaped.
b) deep sulcus.
c) air cresent
d) Spinnaker.

22- Case – what suggest acute rather than chronic pulmonary embolism:
a) tram tracking
b) crescent thrombus adherent to wall
c)calcification
d) increase artery size

23- Best way to evaluate lung fatty lesion is do CT with:

A) Bone algorithm
B) Lung window
C) 1 mm thickness Soft tissue window.
D) 1 mm thickness with sharp filter.

24- Patient suspected Pulmonary embolism, the most appropriate initial exam:
a) Chest x ray.
b) CT angio.
25- US findings in main renal artery stenosis:
a) increase Peak systolic velocity 180.
b) Fast intra renal artery systolic acceleration.
c) Slow intra renal artery systolic acceleration.
d) Reversal systolic of 0.5.

26- One is acute sign of DVT:

a) Dilated vein caliber.
b) Decreased caliber of vein.
c) Thrombus attached to the wall.
d) Multiple collateral veins.

27- Upper abdominal pain with incidental finding of adrenal lesion with fat density:
a) Adrenal Adenoma.
b) Adrenal myolipoma.
c) Pheochromocya.
D) Adrenal metastasis.

28- Liver lesion with characteristics of hemangioma (forgot the exact description).
What to do next:
a) Do nothing.
b) Biopsy.
c) MRI.
d) follow it up.

29- Young married female. CT showed heterogeneous hyprevascular liver lesion

with hemorrhage. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Hamartoma.
b) Adenoma.
c) FNH.
d) metastasis.

30- Patient underwent colonoscopy , presented with severe pain not relieved by
bascuban , what to do next:
a) Double contrast enema
b) Single water soluble contrast.

31- Spigelian hernia defect in: Rectus abdominis and semilunar line ?

a) Internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles.

b) Rectus muscle.
c) Rectus muscle and external oblique muscle.
d) aporonosis between between external oblique and transvalis muscle.
32- patient post chemo catheterization 3 hours with hypotension and right groin
swelling:
a) AV fistula
b) Dissection
c) Aneurism.
d) Hematoma.

33- Young patient with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia with Erlenmeyer

flask deformity of the bone and multiple intramedullary infarctions, what is the
most likely diagnosis:
a) Thalassemia.
b) Gaucher’s disease.
c) Osteoporosis.
d) Lymphoma.

34- Cause of widening of the symphysis pubis:

a) Alkaptenuria
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Hyperparathyrodism

35- year old male with ivory vertebra what is the most likely:
a) Osteoid osteoma. Young = lymphoma
b) lymphoma. Adult = paget

c) Prostate mets.
d) Paget’s disease.

36- Lytic mixed sclerotic lesion with interrupted periosteal reaction and large soft
tissue swelling in distal femur, what to do next:
a) Follow up femur x ray after 6 months
b) CT chest and bone scan
c) Joint aspiration
d) take a biopsy

37- Claustrophobic patient with cord compression, the best MRI sequence is:
a) Sagittal T1.
b) Axial T 1.
c) Sagittal STIR postcontrast images.
d) Sagittal T2WI.

38- The best MRI sequence to evaluate pigmented villonodular synovitis:

a) STAIR
b) T1
c) T2
d) Gradient.
39- characteristics of lymphoma:
a) Calcification.
b) Hemorrhage.
c) Necrosis is uncommon in immunocompramized patients..
d) Periventricular area.
e) No enhancement.

40- Patient has chemosis, myosis, anhydrosis, ophthalmplegia. Where is the lesion
in the brain that can cause this:
a) Lower side of the neck.
b) Cavernous sinus.

41- A patient with maxillary sinus mass extended to the Pterygopalatine fossa:
a) angiofibroma.
b) angiosarcoma.

42- Case of adult patient with hyper dense brain mass and wide base toward the
parietal bone, in post contrast it shows uniform enhancement. What is the
Diagnosis:
a) Meningioma.

43- Case of old patient CP mass extending to the internal auditory canal with cyst
and solid component. What is the Diagnosis:
a) Meningioma
b) Shwanoma
c) Cavernoma

44- Bilateral thalamic hypodensities indicate thrombosis of :

a) superior sagittal sinus.
B) straight sinus.
C) transverse sinus.

45- Contraindication for salivary gland scintigraphy:

a) Purulent discharge.
b) calculus.

46- A 29 year old female patient, non pregnant, complaining of RLQ pain,
ultrasound showed hyperechoic lesion with echogenic shadow and nodule in
the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Enteric cyst.
b) Endometrioma.
c) Dermoid cyst.
e) Duplication cyst.
47- Case patient on HSG shows 1 vagina, 1 cervix and 2 uterus:
a) bicorniate.
b) didphylus.
c) arcuate.
d) septate.

48- 50 year old lady with breast mass, what to do :

a) mammography.
b) Ultrasound.
c) MRI.
d) CT.

49- Best view of milky calcification in mammography:

a) magnification.
b) true lateral.

50- Best view in mammography:

a) CC.
b) MLO.

51- Regarding forbidden area in mammography:

a) axillary.
b) fibrogalndular.
c) pectorals major muscle ….

52- Component of the intraductual terminal complex:

a) lactiferrus gland.
b) interlobar ductal gland.
c) adipose tissue
d) fibro glandular

53- which of the following stable fracture:

a) Jeffrsons
b) Burst
c) Avulasion
d) unilateral facet dislocation

54- The most common fracture in toddlers is:

a) Tibial.
b) Fibular.
c) Calcaneal.
d) Talar.
55- Child came through General physician with retinal mass, what to do next:
a) CT.
b) MRI
c) refer to ophthalmologist.

56- pediatric liver mass which is true:

a) Hepatoblastoma with normal alpha fetotropin.
b) Hepatoblastoma usually dead with congestive heart failure.
c) Hepatoblastoma is the most common extra-crainal tumor in pediatric.
d) Mesnchyal hemartoma …

57- What is the most common site of mediastinal mass in pediatrics:

a) Anterior mediastinum.
b) Posterior mediastinum.
c) Middle mediastinum.
d) chest wall.

58- infant with bowel obstruction, which is true:

a) No need for bowel preparation
b) Rectal enema injected manually
c) IV contrast to opacity the bowel and colon

59- Echogenic structure in fetus brain:

a) corpus collosum.
b) thalamus.
c) cuadte.
d) vermis.

60- Case of child to see peritoneal free air:

a) supine chest x ray.
b) lateral decubitus chest.
c) supine abdomen.
d) lateral decubitus abdomen.

61- Which is the best view for the metatarsal bones:

a) Oblique dorsoplantar view
b) Oblique view
c) Drosoplantar view.
d) AP view.

62- Which is the best view for the proximal tibiofibular joint:
a) AP.
b) AP with 15° internal rotation.
c) b) AP with 15° external rotation.
d) lateral.
63- Apical lordotic view:
A) Pt. pressed against the Bucky to stress on head, neck & chest
B) Pt. erect
C) Cranial 15
D) Cranial 45

64- In IVP to visualize the right viscoureteral junction:

a) Right anterior oblique.
b) Left anterior oblique.
c) Right posterior oblique.
d) Left posterior oblique.

65- What is the best view to see the right intervertebral foramena in C-spine:
a) Left anterior oblique.
b) Right anterior oblique.
c) Lateral.
d) AP.

66- To visualize the colonic flexures during barium enema:

A) LAO and RAO
B) lateral
C) left lateral decubitus.
D) right lateral decubitus.

67- Best view for lipohemarthrosis:

a) lateral
b) AP

68- Pediatric patient with foreign body, what to do:

a) AP
b) PA
c) lateral
d) bilateral decubitus.

69- Regarding lines:

a) EET is 1 cm below carina.
b) NGT in the lower esophagus
c) PICC insertion through brachiocephalic
d) Swanz – Ganz 5 cm in pulmonary artery

70- Which of the following is correct regarding hip lines:

a) shenton lines is seen along the superior border of superior pubic ramus
b) Higenreiner line is drown horizontally through the superior aspect of both
triradte cartilage
71- Chamberline line used to assess:
a) Basilar invagination.

72- Patient developed chest wheeze post-contras, what’s the immediate

medication to give:
a) Atropine.
b) Albuterol.
c) Epinephrine.
d) Antihistamine

73- What you will give for patient with renal insufficiency to prevent renal
nephrotoxicity:
a) CO2.
b) Nitrogen.
c) Low osmolar contrast medium.

74- Picture of cardiac MRI, what is the diagnosis:

a) Trans mural infarct
b) subendocardial infarct
c) Myocarditis
d) Ventricular aneurysm

75- The radiation dose to the critical organ in mSv is:

a) 0.05
b) 5
c) 10
d) 50

76- Most sensitive cells to radiation:

a) erythrocytes
b) erythroblasts
c) hepatoblasts
d) myocytes

77- Which is NOT Deterministic effect:

a) skin erythema.
b) hair loss.
c) leukemia.
d) cataract.

78- The most common source of scatter is:

a) The table.
b) The floor and walls.
c) Patient’s body.
79- Roentgn is:
a) air exposure to radiation.
b) soft tissue exposure to radiation

80- Best way to manage radiation exposure is by:

a) Increase shielding thickness.
b) Decrease distance from radiation source.

81- Dual filament is used to:

a) increase the tube current.
b) increase the heat.
c) spare.
d) Focal spot.

82- CT linearity is related to:

a) Mass density.
b) Electron density.
c) Linear attenuation coefficient.
d) Mass absorption coefficient.

83- Question about beam hardining:

a) bermesstulung.
b) Compton scatter.
c) Photoelectric.
d) Pair production.

84- Picture, automated exposure control if the patient is moved off the center,
what will that decrease:
a) patient dose.
b) scatter

85- Picture of CT of the lower pelvis with Intrauterine device, what is the artifact:
a) beam hardening

86- How would you check for ventricular-peritoneal shunt patency:

a) Tc –m99- DTPA.
b) Tc – m99- RBC.
c) Thalium.
d) Gallium.

87- In ventilation perfusion scan what give you high probability of PE:
a) two large filling defect…
b) two large matching defect
c) two large defect in perfusion not seen in chest x ray
d) tow small defect in perfusion not seen in chest x ray
88- Nuclear in GI bleeding:
a) progressive uptake in 3 hours
b) increase uptake in stomach
c) increase uptake in spleen
d) colonic uptake after 42 hour

89- Tracer for lymphadenopathy:

a) sulfur colloid.

90- Ventilation tracer:

a) Xe
b) MAAA

91- Regarding Tc-MAA is worked by:

a) capillary blockage

92- Tc-m99-RBC attached to what:

a) Alpha Hb.
b) Beta Hb.

93- Tracer of aortic graft:

a) Tc-99 HMPAO A or b?

b) 111- octride

94- In nuclear Tc Molybdenum contamination with aluminum is:

a) Chemical
b) Radiochemical
c) Radionuclide

95- Caliborater need to be checked:

a) weekly
b) monthly
c) annually
d) quarterly

96- PET SUV is independent of:

a) Patient to detector distance.

97- Mechanism of action of FDG:

98- Picture of ultrasound of the bowel, what is the name of the artifact:
a) commit tail
b) mirror
c) dirty shadow
d) posterior acoustic shadow
99- Picture of ultrasound of external iliac artery with color Doppler, how to fix the
image:
a) color gain
b) color scale
c) sample size
d) align the sample with artery

100- Best angel in ultrasound velocity:

a) 30
b) 60
c) 65
d) 80

101- Echo density is independent of:

a) Transducer shape.
b) Transducer diameter.
c) Transducer frequency.
d) Tissue depth.

102- To suppress CSF signal in MRI:

a) Inversion recovery.
b) Fat suppression.

103- Pic of MRI Which parameters will increase contrast but not increase the
patient dose:
a) increase mAs.
b) increase kVp.

104- Picture of MRI with alising artifact, how to reduce:

a) FOV
b) FOV + matrix
c) Anti alising
d) change distance.

105- Picture of MRI sequence diagram:

a) fast spin echo
b) spin echo
c) gradient

106- Measuring the velocity in case of aortic cortication using:

a) spin echo
b) FLUSH turbo
c) CIN
107- To improve cardiac MRI:
a) decrease pulse
b) lower heart rate

108- Most common cause of MRI artifact:

a) Magnet strength
b) Gradient strength

109- Signal to noise ratio (SNR) in MRI is decreased by:

a) Increase number of acquisitions.
b) Increase TR.
c) Increase magnetic strength field.
d) Decrease the slice thickness.

110- The effect of external paramagnetic on MRI given as contrast media:

a) Increase T1 relaxation time.
b) Decreases T1 relaxation time.
c) Increase proton density.
d) Decrease proton density.

111- You are conducting a study about HTN, the measurement 150 + 20, you
select confidence level 95%, what is the confidence interval:
a) 110 – 190
b) 130 – 170
c) 145 – 155 .?
d) 90 – 210

112- 16 year old cut her wrist to suicide, what you should do?
a) treat her and refer to psychiatrist
b) refer to other physician
c) refuse to treat
d) ignore

113- case study about how living in 500 meter high affect hypertension:
a) cohort
b) cross sectional
c) case control

114- Cohort study, exposed to factor, physician looking for cases who developing
disease , what is the measurement?
a) odds ratio
b) standard error
c) incidence ratio
d) prevalence ratio
115- The duty to provide fair access treatment and intervention:
a) autonomy
b) justice
c) beneficence
d) maleficence

116- Borrowing someone idea or words and failing to document the original:
a) palgrism
b) paraphrasing
c) editing
c) writers borrow

117- Medical errors mean:

a) ignorance
b) wrong diagnosis and treatment

118- Pediatric ages 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 10, 11 the variance s2 = 4, SD:

a) 8 +/- 2
b) 8 +/- 4
c) 9 +/- 2
d) 9 +/- 4

119- When consent in research is waived:

a) consider not necessary
b) if testes drug is safe
c) necessary in all situation

120- Measurement of different Wight, the range 75 +/- 10 kg, what is the
proportion of student weighing 65 – 85:
a) 95%
b) 50%
c) 30%
d) 68%

written by:
Ahmad Sindi