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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
31 views60 pages

Solution

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry questions, primarily multiple-choice format, covering various topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, and molecular structure. Each question presents a scenario or concept, followed by four possible answers. The questions are designed for assessment purposes, likely for a physics or chemistry examination.

Uploaded by

vktanmay0
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08-09-2024

1015CMD303055240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

2) A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed 14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 9 m. How
much work is done by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent (g = 9.8 m/s2)?

(1) –19.6 J
(2) –4.9 J
(3) –10 J
(4) –9.8 J

3) A uniform chain has a mass m and length ℓ. It is held on a frictionless table with of its length
hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A uniform chain (mass M, length L) is released from rest from a smooth horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. Velocity of the chain at the instant it completely comes out of the table will be.
v=
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
v=

5) On a particle placed at origin a variable force F = –ax (where a is positive constant) is applied. If
U(0) = 0 then graph between potential energy of particle U(x) and x is best rep. by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of
spring constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A
40 g mass is released from rest at a height of 5m on the curved track. The maximum compression of

the spring will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 10 cm

7) The spring of an ideal spring is 400 N/m. If it is stretched by 10 cm from its natural length, then
the energy stored in the spring will be :

(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 16 J

8) A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 20π
rad/s to 40π rad/s in 10 sec. How many rotations did it made in this period :-

(1) 50
(2) 150
(3) 100
(4) 250

9) For a body, angular velocity and its radius vector is , then its velocity

is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10m apart at any instant. Velocity of 'P' is 6m/s and that of
Q is 8m/s at 30° angle with the line joining P and Q. Calculate angular velocity of P w.r.t. Q :-

(1) 0.7 rad/sec


(2) 0.1 rad/sec
(3) 7 rad/sec
(4) 1 rad/sec

11) A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force which the track

exerts on the cube at point 2 is :

(1) 3 mg
(2) mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) cube will not reach the point 2.

12) A particle is moving around a circular path with uniform angular speed (ω). The radius of the
circular path is (r). The acceleration of the particle is :–

(1)

(2)

(3) vω
(4) vr

13) A particle moving along a circular path. The angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant respectively are , , , c .
Which of the following relation is/are correct :–
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a,b,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,c
(4) a,c,d

14) If is a unit vector along x-axis and , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The resultant of forces shown in figure is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 5 N

16) Out of following which resultant not possible by 10 N & 15 N

(1) 6N
(2) 24N
(3) 2N
(4) 20 N

17) A force makes an angle of 60° with horizontal direction. If its horizontal component is 40N, then
its vertical component will be -

(1) 20 N

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) The water equivalent of a 400 g copper calorimeter (specific heat = 0.1 cal/g°C)

(1) 40g
(2) 4000g
(3) 200g
(4) 4g

19) A block of ice at –10ºC is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100ºC. Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Equal amount of heat energy are transferred in to equal mass of ethyl alcohol and water. The
rise in temperature of water is 25°C. The temperature rise of ethyl alcohol will be-
(specific heat of ethyl alcohol is one half of the specific heat of water)

(1) 12.5°C
(2) 25°C
(3) 50°C
(4) None
21) 300 gm of water at 25°C is added to 100 gm of ice at 0°C. The final temperature of the mixture
is

(1)

(2)

(3) –5°C
(4) 0°C

22) The thermal conductivity of a rod depends on.

(1) Material of rod


(2) Length
(3) Mass
(4) Cross sectional area of rod

23)

The SI unit of thermal conductivity is-

(1) J s-1 m K-1


(2) J s m-1 K-1
(3) J s m-1K
(4) J s-1 m-1K-1

24) Find thermal current (iT) :-

(1) 200 J/sec.


(2) 400 J/sec.
(3) 3200 J/sec.
(4) 800 J/sec.

25) Find equivalent thermal conductivity :–

(1) 6K/5
(2) 5K/2
(3) 12K/5
(4) 11K/5

26) For an ideal conductor of heat, the value of k is -

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) ∞
(4) 0 to 1

27) It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a fire than it is on the side of fire it mainly
because :-

(1) Heat is radiated upwards


(2) Air conducts heat upwards
(3) Convection takes more heat upwards
(4) Conduction, convection and radiation all contribute significantly in transferring heat upwards

28) The emission spectra of a body at temperature 327°C and 627°C is shown. If A1 and A2 be the

area under the two curves, the ratio of (A2/A1) :-

(1) 81/16
(2) 9/4
(3) 27/8
(4) 16/81

29) On reducing temperature of surface to one third, amount of radiation becomes :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest specific heat ? The temperature v/s time graph

is shown

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All have equal specific heat

31) The mixture of two non-reacting gases A and B is in a container, at a constant temperature. Gas
A is diatomic and B is monoatomic. The ratio of molecular masses of A and B is 4, their ratio of the
rms speeds is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 :
(4) :1

32) The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33)

For above graph find =

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None

34) Find the approximate value of :-

(1) 9.95
(2) 8.85
(3) 9.99
(4) 9.85

35) The sum of the series is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law v = k
where k is constant and S is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by all the forces
which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.

(1)
W = mk4t2

(2)
W = m2k4t2

(3)
W = mk4t4

(4)
W = mk4t4

2) A body of mass 2 kg is situated at a height 5 m above the ground. Its potential energy is reported
as 70 J. Potential energy of a 3 kg body situated at height 1 m above ground will be reported.

(1) 30 J
(2) 21 J
(3) –15 J
(4) zero

3) A particle is projected with a speed . The coefficient of friction between the particle
and the hemispherical plane is μ = 0.5. Then, the initial acceleration of the particle is :

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3)
(4)

4) If F = 2x2 – 3x – 2, then choose correct option :-

(1) x = – 1/2 is position of stable equilibrium


(2) x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium
(3) x = – 1/2 is position of unstable equilibrium
(4) x = 2 is position of neutral equilibrium

5)

An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 2 cm moves along the groove steadily and completes
7 revolutions in 100 s. What is the linear speed of the motion :–

(1) 2.3 cm/s


(2) 0.88 cm/s
(3) 0.44 cm/s
(4) none of these

6) The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum of length L is m. If the bob is left from its horizontal
position then the speed of the bob and the tension in the thread in the lowest position of the bob will

be respectively :–

(1) and 3 mg
(2) 3 mg and

(3) 2 mg and
(4) 2 gL and 3 mg

7) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

8) Two rods of the same material have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 and length in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
temperature difference between their ends is same, the ratio of heat conducted by them in a given
time is

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 8 : 1

9) A body radiates energy 5W at a temperature of 127°C. If the temperature is increased to 927°C,


then it radiates energy at the rate of :-

(1) 410 W
(2) 81 W
(3) 405 W
(4) 200 W

10) A body takes 5 min. to cool from 90°C to 80°C. If the room temp. is 25°C. How much time it will
take to cool from 80°C to 70°C.

(1) 10 min.
(2) 4 min.
(3) 5 min.
(4) 6 min.

11) Two gases A and B have same temperature. Density of A is twice the density of B but molar mass
of B is twice as that of A. The ratio of pressures of gases A and B is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

12)

The momentum of a moving particle is given by P = t ln t. Net force acting on this particle is defined

by the equation The net force acting on the particle is zero at time

(1) t = 0

(2)

(3)

(4) t = 1

13) The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is :-

(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 3/5
14) Assertion (A) : Definite Integral of a function is defined as area between the curve and axis.
Reason (R) : Definite integral of a function is always positive.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

15)

Find 2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +.........+ 38 =

(1) 200
(2) 300
(3) 100
(4) 400

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following species has dipole-induced dipole attractive force ?

(1) CO2 + SO3


(2) He + Ne
(3) CO2 + SO2
(4) Cl2 + Ne

2) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) O-nitrophenol > P-nitrophenol ⇒ V.P


(2) O-nitrophenol < P-nitrophenol ⇒ B.P

(3)

(4) H2O < HF ⇒ B.P

3) Which show highest lattice energy ?

(1) CsI
(2) MgO
(3) CaS
(4) NaF

4) Which of the following molecule have pπ–pπ bond but not have pπ – dπ bond?
(1) SO2
(2)
(3) SO2Cl2
(4) SO3

5) Which among the following will not form any bond ?

Orbitals Internuclear axis


(1) s + px x
(2) px + px x
(3) py + dxy z
(4) pz + dyz y
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0ºC. This is due to its-

(1) Very high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond


(2) Low ionisation potential
(3) High atomic weight
(4) High vapour pressure

7) The diamagnetic group of species is/are :-

(1) N2 C2 O2
(2)
– +
(3) C2 CN NO
(4) NO CO

8) Which molecule does not belongs to 2S-2P mixing in M.O.T. ?

(1) B2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) O2

9) Which is not correct condition of atomic orbitals in MOT ?

(1) Atomic orbitals of equal energy.


(2) Atomic orbitals must belong to same element.
(3) Atomic orbitals have same symmetry.
(4) Atomic orbitals must overlap to maximum extent.
10) Which is correct order of O–O bond length ?

(1) O2 > O3 > H2O2


(2) H2O2 > O3 > O2
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

11) Acetic acid exist as a dimer in benzene due to :-

(1) Presence of car boxy group


(2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Vander Waal force
(4) Covalent bond

12) Which of following M.O. is non symmetrical :-

(1) σ 1s
(2) σ 2pz
(3) π 2px
(4) σ* 2pz

13) Which is most soluble in benzene or CCl4.

(1) LiCl
(2) LiF
(3) BeF2
(4) BeCl2

14) For the reactions


A B Kc = 2
B C Kc = 4
C D Kc = 6
Kc For the reaction, A D is ?

(1) (2 + 4 + 6)
(2) (2 × 4) / 6
(3) (4 × 6) / 2
(4) 2 × 4 × 6

15) Equal moles of H2 and I2 are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80% of the
hydrogen is converted to HI, the Kc at this temperature is.

(1) 64
(2) 16
(3) 0.25
(4) 14

16) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium.


NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
If some inert gas is added at constant volume, then the

(1) equilibrium shifts in the backwards direction


(2) equilibrium shifts in the forwards direction
(3) equilibrium remains unaffected
(4) the value of Kp is increased

17) Match the following equilibria :

Column-I Column-II

rate of melting = rate of


(A) H2O(ℓ)⇌H2O(vap) (p)
freezing

(B) (q) rate of evaporation = rate of condensation

rate of sublimation= rate of


(C) Ice ⇌ water (r)
solidification/deposition
(1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r)
(2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p)
(3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
(4) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p)

18) If the initial pressure of N2 and H2 mixture in a closed apparatus is 100 atm. At equilibrium 20%
of the mixture reacts then total pressure at the same temperature would be -

(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 85
(4) 80

19) 2 moles of gas A2 are mixed with 2 moles of gas B2 in a flask of volume 1 lit. If at equilibrium 0.5
moles of A2 are obtained. Then find out Kp for reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 36

20) For the reversible reaction :


N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + Heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction :
(1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
(2) By decreasing the pressure
(3) By decreasing the concentrations of N2(g) and H2(g)
(4) By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

21) Consider the equilibrium set up:


2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
What will be the effect of the following on the equilibrium of the reaction?
(i) Addition of H2
(ii) Addition of CH3OH
(iii) Removal of CO
(iv) Removal of CH3OH

(i)-Forward direction,
(ii)-Backward direction,
(1)
(iii)-Backward direction,
(iv)-Forward direction
(i)-Backward direction
(ii)-Backward direction,
(2)
(iii)-Forward direction,
(iv)-Forward direction
(i)-Forward direction
(ii)-Forward direction,
(3)
(iii)-Backward direction,
(iv)-Backward direction
(i)-Backward direction
(ii)-Forward direction,
(4)
(iii)-Forward direction,
(iv)-Backward direction

22) For the given reaction A + B → P, the order of reaction with respect to A and B are :

Rate
[A] [B]
(Mol L–1 s–1)

(1) 1.0 1.0 0.25

(2) 2.0 1.0 0.50

(3) 1.0 2.0 0.25


(1) Zero in A and one in B
(2) One in A and Zero in B
(3) One in both A and B
(4) Zero in both A & B

23) A reaction on increasing the concentration of reactant by 8 times, the rate of reaction gets
doubled. The order of reaction is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Reaction 2A + B + 2C → D follows three steps in its mechanism


2A + B → X (slow)
X + C → Y (fast)
Y + C → D (fast)
What is the molecularity of the rate determining step and the total order of the reaction :

(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 3
(3) 5,2
(4) 5,3

25) What is the approximate half life of a substance if 87.5% of any given amount of the substance
disintegrate in 69 minutes, if it follows a zero order kinetics ?

(1) 23 min
(2) 40 min
(3) 160 min
(4) 200 min

26) A radioactive sample decreases by 75% after 10 years. What will be the half life of sample ?

(1) 5 years
(2) 2 years
(3) 3 years
(4) 10 years

27) In which of the following order reactions Half life period will not depends on initial
concentration of reactant :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) All of the above

28) The rate constant of which of the following reactions is independent of concentration of the
reactants?

(1) First order reactions


(2) Zero order reactions
(3) Second order reactions
(4) All of these

29) For the reaction , the rate . Therefore, the rate

is given as:

(1) 10–4 Ms–1


(2) 104 Ms–1
(3)
(4)

30) The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as follows

The reaction is :-

(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
(3) 2C + 3D → 4A + B
(4) 4A + B → 2C + 3D

31)

For a first order reaction, the value of rate constant for the reaction is :

A(g) → 3B(g) + C(g) If here P0 is the initial pressure of reactant and Pt is pressure of reaction
mixture at time t.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

In a zero-order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature
is increased from 20°C to 90°C, the rate of the reaction will becomes

(1) 64 times
(2) 128 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 512 times

33) Fluoride ion is isoelectronic with :-


(1) Ne
(2) O2–
(3) N3–
(4) All of these

34) Isotone of is/are -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

35) In Rutherford's experiment, if 90 particles are deflected at an angle of 90°, then the no. of
particles deflected at on angle of 120° will be :-

(1) 120
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 10

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is correct order of extent of H-bonding (No. of H-Bond)

(1) HF > H2O > H2O2


(2) H2O2 > H2O > HF
(3) H2O > H2O2 > HF
(4) All are incorrect

2) Identify the incorrect order :-

(1) C – C < C = C < C ≡ C ; Bond length


(2) Li+ (aq) < Be+2(aq.) ; Hydrated radius
(3) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF ; Lattice energy
(4) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2 ; Covalent character

3) Which of the following species are planar.


(1) I3 , XeF2, ClF3
– +
(2) H2O, OCl , ICl2

(3) XeF5 , XeF4, BF3
(4) All are correct

4) Lowest energy geometry of ClF3 is :-


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) How many molecule/species do not exist ?


Be2, B2, , , Ne2, , PH5, PF5, ,

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

6) Consider the two gaseous equilibrium involving SO2 and the corresponding equilibrium constants
at 299 K

SO2 (g) + O2 (g) SO3 (g) ; K1


4SO3 (g) 4 SO2 (g) + 2O2 (g) ; K2
The value of the equilibrium constant are related by :-

(1)
K2 =

(2) K2 =

(3)
K2 =
K2 =
(4)

7) AB dissociates as 2AB(g) 2A(g) + B2(g)


When the initial pressure of AB is 500 mm, the total pressure becomes 625 mm when the
equilibrium is attained. Calculate KP for the reaction assuming volume remains constant.

(1) 500
(2) 125
(3) 750
(4) 375

8) 1 mol of CH3COOH and 1 mol of C2H5OH reacts to produce of CH3COOC2H5. The equilibrium
constant is :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 4

9) A + B C + D. If initially the concentration of A and B are both equal but at equilibrium,


concentration of D will be twice of that of A, then what will be the equilibrium constant of the
reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4

10) Rate constant for a reaction is 2×10–2 × s–1. If the concentration of the reactant after 25 s is
0.5 M. Then initial concentration must be :-

(1) 1.0 M
(2) 1.25 M
(3) 2 M
(4) 0.5 M

11) A first order reaction is 40 percent complete in 20 minute. The approximate time required for
the reaction to be 50 percent complete will be :

(1) 10 minutes
(2) 5 minutes
(3) 27 minutes
(4) 40 minutes

12) Rate constant varies with temperature by the equation log10K = 5 – . We can conclude that
(R = 8.314 Jmol–1K–1) :-

(1) Pre exponential factor A is 5


(2) Ea is 4 kcal/mol
(3) Pre exponential factor A is 105
(4) Ea is 19.212 kcal/mol

13) For x → y, K1 = 1010 e–500/T and for w → z, K2 = 1012 e–1000/T at what temperature 'T' both reactions
will have same value of K :-

(1) 500 K
(2) 1500 K
(3) 500/4.606 K
(4) 5000/2.303 K

14) Activation energy of a reaction is :-

(1) The energy released during the reaction


(2) The energy evolved when activated complex is formed.
(3) Minimum extra amount of energy needed to overcome the potential barrier of reaction
(4) The energy needed to form 1 mole of the product

15) Calculate the frequency of radiation having wavelength 1 Å ?

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
(4) All of the above

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following four statements I, II, III and IV and select the correct statement:
I. Mendelian experiments have a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that
he collected.
II. Recessive allele influences the appearance of the phenotype even in the presence of a dominant
allele.
III. Mendel analysed qualitative characters in garden pea.
IV. In F2-generation of a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to
their parental types and shows blending inheritance.

(1) I and III


(2) III and IV
(3) II and IV
(4) II and III

2) In a monohybrid cross, pure homozygous plants in F2 generation will be :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

3)
Choose the correct option regarding F1 -

(1) All offsprings are similar to both parents genotypically


(2) All offsprings are similar to both parent phenotypically
(3) All offsprings are similar to either parent genotypically
(4) All offspring are not similar to either parent genotypically

4) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments for :-

(1) Seven years (1865-1872)


(2) Seven years (1856-1863)
(3) Seven years (1853-1860)
(4) Fourteen years (1853-1867)

5)

The character which can express only in homozygous condition in case of garden pea is :-
(A) Constricted pod shape
(B) Green seed colour
(C) Axial flower position

(D) Yellow pod colour


(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and C

6)

An organism have AaBbRrTt genotype how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 32

7) Both traits of a character in a monohybrid cross are recovered as such in the F2 generation
though one of these is not seen at the F1 generation. This interpretation is based on the :

(1) Law of dominance


(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Law of incomplete dominance

8) Statement-I : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar
except for one character with contrasting traits.
Statement-II : Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants were dwarf, like one of its parents;
none were tall.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct


(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

9) Which is incorrect for genetic code:


(i) The codon is triplet
(ii) 64 codons code for amino acids
(iii) Genetic code is unambiguous
(iv) Genetic code is nearly universal
(v) AUG has dual functions

(1) Only ii
(2) ii & iii
(3) iii, iv & v
(4) All are correct

10) Which suspect would you charge with the crime ?

(1) Both suspect 1 & 2


(2) Only suspect 1
(3) Only suspect 2
(4) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2

11)

Type of mutation which occur in sickle cell anaemia :-

(1) Transition
(2) Transversion
(3) Chromosomal aberration
(4) Frame shift mutation

12) Find out the correct statements from the followings–


(a) In lac-operon structural genes are regulated by a common promoter and regulatory gene
(b) In lac-operon one regulatory gene (the a-gene) is present
(c) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it regulates switching on and off
of the operon
(d) The y-gene of lac-operon codes for transacetylase

(1) a and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) a and d
(4) a, c and d

13) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-


(A) The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(B) In animal cells during the s-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole
duplicates in the nucleolus
(C) Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same so mitosis is also
called as equational division.
(D) Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic
complement.
How many of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

14) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to reduction division?

(1) Diakinesis is marked by terminalization of chiasmata


(2) Splitting of centromere occurs is anaphase-I
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in prophase-I
Interkinesis is short lived phase which is followed by prophase-II, a much simpler phase than
(4)
prophase-I

15) During quiescent phase of cell cycle

(1) Cell remain metabolically active


(2) Cell does not divide
(3) DNA replication can occur
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) The fruit fly has 2n = 8 in each cell. If the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, then find out
the number of chromosomes at the end of S-phase and anaphase respectively ?

(1) 8, 16
(2) 8, 32
(3) 16, 8
(4) 16, 16

17) Which of the following statements are true about telophase-


(a) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
(b) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform
(c) Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles
(d) Chromosomes arranged at equator

(1) Only a and b are correct


(2) a, b and d are correct
(3) a, b and c are correct
(4) a, b, c, d all are correct

18) Select the incorrect statements:

(1) In some social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis to form gametes
(2) Mitotic division take place only in the apical meristem
(3) Mitosis helps to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Mitosis helps in cell repair.

19) Sister chromatids separate during :

(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Both (1) & (2)

20) Select incorrect statements :-


(i) Interphase represents the phase between two successive M phase.
(ii) The interphase though called the resting phase is the time during which the cell is preparing for
division.
(iii) Yeast cell complete cell cycle in 90 hr.

(1) Only (i)


(2) Only (ii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) (i) & (ii)

21) Assertion (A): DNA replication does not takes place before meiosis II.
Reason (R): Already double amount of DNA is present in cell after meiosis I as compare to G-1
phase.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

22) The figures below show three stages (A, B, C) of mitotic division. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents?

(1) B – Individual chromosomes can no longer be seen


(2) A – Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) C – Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) B – Chromosomes consist of one chromatid

23)

Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Zygotene (i) Terminalisation of chiasmata

Dissolution of syneptonemal
(B) Pachytene (ii)
complex

(C) Diakinesis (iii) Synapsis

(D) Diplotene (iv) Crossing over


(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

24) If n = 48 in a plant cell then what is possible in metaphase-I of meiosis ?

(1) 48 Bivalents, 96 centromere, 192 chromatids


(2) 96 Bivalents, 192 centromere, 384 chromatids
(3) 48 Bivalents, 48 centromere, 96 chromatids
(4) 24 Bivalents, 48 centromere, 96 chromatids

25)

Find out incorrect information regarding given figure :-


(1) a - Cell orgenelle doubles
(2) b - Tubulin synthesis
(3) c - Chromosome doubles in number
(4) d - Cytokinesis

26) How many cell organelles in given list are with one membrane :-
Lysosome Mitochondria Ribosome
Centrosome Golgi complex Plastid
Peroxisome RER

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27)

Given diagram showing flagellum's internal structure. In which of the following all the four parts
labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified?

A B C D

Radial Central Peripheral Plasma


(1)
Spoke Microtubule Microtubule Membrane

Plasma Central Peripheral


(2) Bridge
Membrane Sheath Microtubule

Plasma Peripheral Central


(3) Bridge
Membrane Microtubule Microtubule

Radical Plasma Central Peripheral


(4)
Spoke Membrane Microtubule Microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis


(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

29) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II
Flat membrane sac
(a) Cristae (i)
in stroma
Infoldings
(b) Cisternae (ii)
in mitochondria
Disk shaped sacs
(c) Thylakoids (iii)
in Golgi apparatus
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii

30) The correct order of size among following :-

(1) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses > Bacteria


(2) Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO > Viruses
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Bacteria > Viruses
(4) Eukaryotic cell > Viruses > PPLO > Bacteria

31) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Mitochondria, unless specifically stained are not easily visible under the microscope
(2) Physiological activity of cells determines the number of mitochondria per cell
Mitochondrion, a power house of cell has DNA, RNA, ribosomes and enzyme. So it can survive
(3)
outside the cell
(4) Mitochondria divide by fission
32) Assertion : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
Reason : Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Anything less then a complete structure of all cells does not ensure independent living
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell
(3) Robert Brown discovered cell
(4) Cell is the basic structur and functional unit of all organisms

34) Match column I with column II and find the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monoploidy (1) 2n – 1

(B) Monosomy (2) 2n + 1

(C) Nullisomy (3) 2n + 2

(D) Trisomy (4) 2n – 2

(E) Tetrasomy (5) n

(6) 3n
(1) (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)
(2) (A)–(5), B–(2), (C)–(4), (D)–(1), (E)–(3)
(3) (A)–(6), B–(5), (C)–(3), (D)–(4), (E)–(2)
(4) (A)–(2), B–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(6), (E)–(5)

35) The process of translation requires the transfer of genetic information from :-

(1) A polymer of amino acids to a polymer of carbohydrates.


(2) A polymer of deoxy nucleotides to a polymer of nucleotides.
(3) A polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids.
(4) A polymer of amino acids to proteins.

SECTION-B

1) A true breeding plant is :

(1) near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind


(2) always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution
(3) one that is able to breed on its own
(4) produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants

2) A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently
germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype :-

(1) 900
(2) 600
(3) 1200
(4) 300

3) In monohybrid cross proportion of 3 : 1 explains:

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Unit factor

4) Type of gene mutation which involves replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (OR)
The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is :-

(1) Transduction
(2) Transversion
(3) Translocation
(4) Transcription

5)

Real Inducer of the lac operon is :

(1) Lactose
(2) Allolactose
(3) Glucose
(4) Galactose

6)

Given below is the representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation :


What kind of mutation represented ?

(1) Deletion
(2) Reciprocal translocation
(3) Inversion
(4) Duplication
7) The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specializes structure in the centromere region
of each chromosome called the __________.

(1) Telomere
(2) centriole
(3) Chromatin
(4) Kinetochore

8) If at the end of mitosis a cell has 12 chromosomes, then how many chromosomes will be there in S
phase:

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 24
(4) Cannot be predicted

9) Which event is not common between interphase and interkinesis ?

(1) Growth in cell


(2) RNA synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

10) At which stage of meiosis, do these events occurs

Formation of
Bivalents core Terminalisation
synaptonemal
clearly visible of chiasmata
complex

(1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene

(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis

(3) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis

(4) Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following is not a significance of meiosis ?

(1) Helps in conservation of specific chromosome number in each species


(2) Increase in genetic variability
(3) Helps in evolution
(4) Helps in growth of organism

12) Synapsis occurs between :-


(1) Two homologous chromosomes
(2) A male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) Spindle fibres and centromere

13) In which phase of cell cycle the amount of DNA in a diploid cell become four times as compared
to a haploid cell ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2, S & M
(4) Go

14) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct identification
together with the correct event ?

(1) C-Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.


(2) B-Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
(3) A-Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed.
(4) C-Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome.

15) Colchicine prevent the A formation in B stage and induces C in plant. What are A, B
and C respectively :-

(1) A-Microtubule, B-Anaphase, C-Polyploidy


(2) A-Microfilament, B-Metaphase, C-Polyploidy
(3) A-Spindle fiber, B-Metaphase, C-Polyteny
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Sequence of nucleotide on DNA segment from 5' to 3' is ATG GTG TGG TAA on transcription if
produce an m-RNA. Find out the sequence of amino acid in polypeptide chain after translation
process by this m-RNA.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Given the diagram of the lac operon showing an operon of inducible enzymes. Identify

components and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).

A-Galactosidase, B-Permease,
(1) C-Transacetylase, D-Repressor protein,
E-Inducer (lactose)
A-Galactosidase, B-Permease,
(2) C-Transcetylase, D-Inducer (lactose),
E-Repressor protein
A-Galactosidase, B-Transacetylase,
(3) C-Permease, D-Repressor protein,
E-Inducer (lactose)
A-Permease, B-Transacetylase,
(4)
C-Galactosidase, D-Repressor protein, E-Inducer (Lactose)

3) Find out the sequence of binding of the following amino acyl – t–RNA complexes during
translation to an m–RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence. 3'
ATACCCATGGGG 5'. Choose the answer showing the correct order of alphabets :–

(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) d, a, b, c
(3) a, b, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d

4) Steps in DNA finger printing are :-

A, B, C, D and E in the flow chart are :-

A - Electrophoresis
B - Restriction endonuclease
(1) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Labelled VNTR probe
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(2) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Labelled VNTR probe
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(3) C - Labelled VNTR probe
D - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(4) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Autoradiography
E - Labelled VNTR probe

5) Match column-I to column-II :-

Codon Amino acid

(A) AAA (i) Glycine

(B) CCC (ii) Lysine

(C) UUU (iii) Phenylalanine

(D) GGG (iv) Proline

(v) Tyrosine
Options :-
(1) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-v, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-i

6) What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting ?

(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva

7)

Which is correct –
(i) t-RNA has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the codon.
(ii) t-RNA has an amino acid acceptor end
(iii) t-RNA are specific for each amino acid
(iv) For initiation, there is specific t-RNA that is reffered to as initiator t-RNA

(v) For termination there is specific t-RNA that is reffered to as terminator t-RNA
(1) i, ii
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, v

8) Assertion (A) :- Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation-


Reason (R) :- Repressor protein binds to operator region and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

9) Which of the following is incorrect for satellite DNA?

(1) High degree of polymorphism


(2) It is not inherited from parent to children
(3) It is used in DNA fingerprinting for genetic variation
(4) Does not code for any protein

10) Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Fibrosis

11) Respiratory rhythm centre lie in :

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons

12) IICM muscle contract during–

(1) Normal inspiration


(2) Forceful inspiration only
(3) Forceful expiration only
(4) Both forceful expiration and forceful inspiration

13) The volume of thoracic cavity is increased by–

(1) Relaxation of diaphragm muscles and contraction of external intercostal muscles.


(2) Contraction of expiratory muscles.
(3) Relaxation of both diaphragm and external inter costal muscles.
(4) Contraction of inspiratory muscles.

14) Relaxation of the Diaphragm and external intercostal muscle causes

(1) Normal inspiration


(2) Normal Expiration
(3) Forceful inspiration
(4) Forceful Expiration
15) Which of the following factors favour the formation of Oxyghaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) ↓, ↑, Temperature↑, H⊕ concentration↑


(2) ↑, ↓,Temperature↑, H⊕ concentration↑
(3) ↓, ↓,Temperature↓, H⊕ concentration↓
(4) ↑, ↓,Temperature↓, H⊕ concentration↓

16) In ventricular systole, blood is pumped into -

(1) Oxygenated into Pulmonary arteries and deoxygenated into Dorsal aorta
(2) Oxygenated into Dorsal aorta deoxygenated into Pulmonary arteries
(3) Oxygenated into and Vena cava and deoxygenated into Pulmonary veins
(4) Oxygenated into Pulmonary veins and deoxygenated into Vena cava

17) Heart beat is accelerated by

(1) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine


(2) Cranial nerves and adrenaline
(3) Cranial nerves and acetylcholine
(4) Sympathetic nerves and thyroxine

18)

Which of the following cell associated with allergic reaction.

(1) Eosinophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neurophil
(4) Monocyte

19) Thromboplastin is secreted by :-

(1) Platelets
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Helper T-cells
(4) Mast cells

20)

Amount of stroke volume is approx.

(1) 120 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 5 lit.
(4) 70 ml
21) Typical 'LUB and DUP' sounds heard during heartbeat are due to :-

(1) Closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves


(2) Closing of semilunar valves
(3) High blood pressure in aorta
(4) Closure of bicuspid-tricuspid valves and semilunar valves respectively

22) Origin of heartbeat and its conduction is represented by :-

(1) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres


(2) Purkinje fibres → AV node → SA node → Bundle of His
(3) SA node → Purkinje fibres → AV node → Bundle of His
(4) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres

23) First heart sound is

(1) Lubb sound at the end of Systole


(2) Lubb sound at the beginning of ventricular systole.
(3) Dub sound at the end of systole
(4) Dub sound at the beginning of ventricular systole

24)

What will happen during ventricular systole


(A) Bicuspid and tricuspid value are open
(B) Bicuspid and tricuspid value are closed
(C) Semiluner wall open
(D) Semiluner wall closed

(1) B and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

25) In rabbit alveolar ducts originate from :-

(1) Bronchi
(2) Trachea
(3) Bronchiole
(4) Respiratory bronchiole

26)

'Oxygen dissociation curve shift to left' means that

(1) Decrease in affinity between O2 and Hb


(2) Increase in affinity between O2 and Hb
(3) Dissociation of HbO2
(4) P50 value increases

27)

Amount of blood pumped by heart into body per minute is

(1) Cardiac out put


(2) Ventricular out put
(3) Stroke volume
(4) Atrial out put

28) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder of Alveoli.


Reason : One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is increased.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

29)

Pulse pressure is :-

(1) Systolic pressure – Diastolic Pressure


(2) Diastolic pressure – Systolic pressure
(3) Ventricular diastolic pressure – Atrial systolic pressure
(4) Atrial systolic pressure – Ventricular diastolic pressure

30) Tidal volume and Inspiratory reserve volume of an person is 500 mL and 2500 mL respectively.
What will be his inspiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 mL ?

(1) 2000 mL
(2) 1800 mL
(3) 3000 mL
(4) 4200 mL

31) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

(1) i-incorrect, ii-incorrect, iii-incorrect, iv-correct


(2) i-incorrect, ii-correct, iii-incorrect, iv-correct
(3) i-correct, ii-correct, iii-incorrect, iv-correct
(4) i-correct, ii-incorrect, iii-correct, iv-incorrect

32)

Mixing of oxygenated and de-oxy genated blood occur in the ventricle of :-

(1) Scoliodon
(2) Frog
(3) Rabbit
(4) Pigeon

33) Which of the following option correctly matches with the diagram ?

A-pulmonary vein, C-pulmonary artery


(1)
D-Dorsal aorta, E-Vena cava
A-pulmonary artery, B-pulmonary vein
(2)
F-Great veins, D-Dorsal aorta
E-Body parts, B-Lungs
(3)
A-pulmonary vein, C-pulmonary artery
F-Vena cava, C-pulmonary vein
(4)
D-Dorsal aorta, A-pulmonary artery

34) Besides RBC, blood plasma also carries O2 in solutions. The % is :-

(1) 3.9%
(2) 1–2%
(3) 2–3%
(4) 3–6%

35) Select the correct match pair.

(1) Primary bronchi – Supported by complete cartilaginous rings.


(2) Trachea – Thin elastic cartilaginous flap called epiglottis which cover the gullet
(3) Sponges – Exchange of gases by simple diffusion
(4) Alveoli – Supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.

SECTION-B

1) Depending upon ease of extraction membrane protein can be classified as :-

(1) Saturated and unsaturated


(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(3) Integral and peripheral
(4) Acidic and basic

2) Glycosilation is start in :-

(1) Cisternae of golgibody


(2) Tubule of golgibody
(3) Cisternae of ER
(4) Vesicle of ER

3) Which one of the following is the function of lysosome ?

(1) Autophagy
(2) Formation of acrosome
(3) Storage of water
(4) Protein synthesis

4) Algal cell wall consists of–

(1) Mannans, galactans and lignins.


(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, galactans and mannas
(4) Cellulose, pectins and hemicellulose

5) If one strand of DNA contain following nitrogen base : then find out
sequence of nitrogen base in t RNA

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Which of the following is related to degeneracy of genetic code ?


(1) Some amino acids coded by only one codon.
(2) One codon coding for only one amino acid.
(3) One amino acid coded by more than one codon.
(4) One codon coding for many amino acids.

7) Blood from head, neck and arms enters the heart through :-

(1) Superior vena cava


(2) Inferior vena cava
(3) Pulmonary artery
(4) Pulmonary vein

8) The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into ventricles by about :

(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

9)

Conduction of cardiac impulse slowest in :-

(1) S.A. node


(2) Purkinje fiber
(3) A.V. node
(4) Bundle of his

10)

Given diagram depicts the circulation in :-

(1) fishes
(2) mammals
(3) reptile
(4) amphibian

11)

Neurogenic heart present in :-


(1) Frog
(2) Snake
(3) Star fish
(4) Cockroach

12) Which of the following representions is correct about blood transfusion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

The rate of conduction of impulse in the conduction pathway of heart, is fastest in :-

(1) S.A. node


(2) A.V. node
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Purkinje's fibres

14) Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula & value :-

Respiratory
Formula Value
capacities

(1) Functional residual capacity ERV + RV 2300 ml

(2) Vital capacity ERV+RV+IRV 4600 ml

(3) Total lung capacity RV+IRV+ERV 5800 ml

(4) Inspiratory capacity TV+IRV 1600 ml


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15)

Match column-A with column-B and choose correct option :-

Column-A Column-B
PO2
(a) (i) 45 mmHg
(Atmosphere)
PO2
(b) (oxygenated (ii) 40 mm Hg
blood)
(c) PCO2 (Tissue) (iii) 95 mmHg
PCO2
159.
(d) (oxygenated (iv)
mmHg
blood)
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 3 3 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 1 4

BIOLOGY-II
SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 1 2
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

L1 = L
Percentage increase in rotational energy

= =

=
= 800%

2)

Energy loss =
= 4.9 J

3) Weight of overhanging part of the chain

The weight acts at the centre of gravity of the overhanging part, i.e., below the surface of
the table.

Gain in potential energy

∴ Work done = gain in potential energy = .

4)

From conservation of Mechanical energy

5)

As F=
U=

U=+ ⇒ U = kx2

6)

mgh = kx2

40 × 10–3 × 10 × 5 = × 400 x2

8)

N = 150 revolution

9)

11)

COME : K1 + U1 = K2 + U2

0 + mg (4R) = mv2 + mg (2R) ⇒ mv2 = 4mgR


Forces at position 2 :

N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg

12)

Uniform motion at = 0 and aC = ω2r = vω


So anet = acp = vω
13)

14)

15) Angle between vectors = 180° – 60° = 120°

Resultant =
= 20 N

16)

15 – 10 ≤ R ≤ 15 + 10
5 ≤ R ≤ 25
2N is not possible

17) F cos 60 = 40
F = 80
Fvt = F sin 60
=

19) Initial temperature must be negative and 3 time phase heating and 2 times phase change
occur.

20)

Qwater = QE

(ΔT)E = 50°C

25)

5Keq = 12K

Keq =

27) By theory
28) TA = 327 + 273 = 600 K, TB = 627 + 273 = 900 K
Area ∝ T4

29)

E ∝ T4

30) For constant heat flow rate (Q)


msdT = Qdt

For high specific heat, slope is lower that is for C.

31)

vrms =

So, vrms ∝

=1:2

33)

= Area =

34)

= 9.95

35)

S∞ = 1 + + .... =
36)

WALL = ΔK.E.

37) x = height of reference point w.r.t ground


70 = 2×10 (5 – x) ⇒ x = 1.5

U = 3×10 (1 – x) = –15 J

38)

fk = μN
fk = 2μmg
maT = 2μmg

aΤ = 2μg (←)

=g

41)

0 + mgh = mv2 + 0
v2 = 2gL ⇒ v =

T = mg + = mg + = 3mg

42) R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ


10 P2 = 4P2 + 2P2 + 4 P2 cos θ
4P2 =
cos θ =
θ = 45°

43)

44)

46)

47)

49)

Area between the curve and axis =


Definite integral of a function may be negative, positive or zero.

50) Tn = a + (n – 1) d
38 = 2 + (n – 1)d
n = 10

2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +........+ 38 = {2a + (n – 1)d}

CHEMISTRY
57) NCERT, Pg. # 109

58) NCERT, Pg. # 131, Fig. 4.21

59) NCERT, Pg. # 127

74) From slow step


r = K [A]2[B]1
Molecularity = 3
order = 3

76)

t75% = 2 × t50%

79)

81) A(gas) → 3B(gas) + C(gas)


P0 0 0
P0–P 3P P
Pt = P0 – P + 3P + P
Pt = P0 + 3P
3P = Pt – P0

then

0
P –P=

so

82) µ = 2

89) NCERT, Pg. # 117

90)
Be2, Ne2, PH5,

95) x = k t
x = 2 × 10–2 × 25
x = 0.5 M
a – x = 0.5
a – 0.5 = 0.5
a=1M

100)

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 56

103) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 56

104) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54

105) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 55

106) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 57

107) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 59

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54

109) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 96

110) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 107

111) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 97


112) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 101

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 127

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 122

116) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

117) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 124

118) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

119) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 126

121) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

122) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 123, 124

123) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 126

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 126

125) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

126) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 98, 99

127) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 99

128) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 95


129) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 97-98

130) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 89

131) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 88, 97

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 88

133) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 87

134) Genetics module

135) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 98

136) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54

137) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 57

138) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 56

139) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 97

140) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 101

141) Module-9, Pg.# 138

142) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 123

143) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

144) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 127

145) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 126

146) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 128

147) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 126


148) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

149) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 123

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 99

152) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 101

153) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 98

154) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 106

155) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 96

156) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 106

157) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 98

158) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 101

159) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 105

160) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 190

161) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 190

162) NCERT, Pg.# 185

163) NCERT, Pg.# 186

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 185, 186

165) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 189

166) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 199, 200


167) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 202

168) NCERT Pg.# 194

169) NCERT Pg.# 196

170) NCERT Pg.# 200

171) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 200

172) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 199

173) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 200

174) NCERT Pg.# 200

175) NCERT Pg.# 184

176) NCERT Pg.# 189

177) NCERT Pg.# 200

178) NCERT-XI Pg.# 191

179) NCERT Pg.# 202

180)

NCERT Pg.#186

181) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 187

183)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 188 Fig 14.3

184) NCERT Pg.# 189

185) NCERT Pg.# 184

186)
NCERT-XI, Pg.# 93

187) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 96

188) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 96

189) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 94

190) Module-9, Pg.# 121

191) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 96

192) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 198

193)

NCERT, Pg. # 199

194) NCERT, Pg.# 200

195) NCERT Pg.# 197

197) NCERT Pg.# 195

198) NCERT Pg.# 200

199)

NCERT Pg. # 187

200) NCERT Pg.# 188

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