Solution
Solution
1015CMD303055240003 MD
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-
(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%
2) A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed 14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 9 m. How
much work is done by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent (g = 9.8 m/s2)?
(1) –19.6 J
(2) –4.9 J
(3) –10 J
(4) –9.8 J
3) A uniform chain has a mass m and length ℓ. It is held on a frictionless table with of its length
hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4) A uniform chain (mass M, length L) is released from rest from a smooth horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. Velocity of the chain at the instant it completely comes out of the table will be.
v=
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
v=
5) On a particle placed at origin a variable force F = –ax (where a is positive constant) is applied. If
U(0) = 0 then graph between potential energy of particle U(x) and x is best rep. by :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6) The figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of
spring constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A
40 g mass is released from rest at a height of 5m on the curved track. The maximum compression of
(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 10 cm
7) The spring of an ideal spring is 400 N/m. If it is stretched by 10 cm from its natural length, then
the energy stored in the spring will be :
(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 16 J
8) A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 20π
rad/s to 40π rad/s in 10 sec. How many rotations did it made in this period :-
(1) 50
(2) 150
(3) 100
(4) 250
9) For a body, angular velocity and its radius vector is , then its velocity
is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10) Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10m apart at any instant. Velocity of 'P' is 6m/s and that of
Q is 8m/s at 30° angle with the line joining P and Q. Calculate angular velocity of P w.r.t. Q :-
11) A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force which the track
(1) 3 mg
(2) mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) cube will not reach the point 2.
12) A particle is moving around a circular path with uniform angular speed (ω). The radius of the
circular path is (r). The acceleration of the particle is :–
(1)
(2)
(3) vω
(4) vr
13) A particle moving along a circular path. The angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant respectively are , , , c .
Which of the following relation is/are correct :–
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) a,b,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,c
(4) a,c,d
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 5 N
(1) 6N
(2) 24N
(3) 2N
(4) 20 N
17) A force makes an angle of 60° with horizontal direction. If its horizontal component is 40N, then
its vertical component will be -
(1) 20 N
(2)
(3)
(4)
18) The water equivalent of a 400 g copper calorimeter (specific heat = 0.1 cal/g°C)
(1) 40g
(2) 4000g
(3) 200g
(4) 4g
19) A block of ice at –10ºC is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100ºC. Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20) Equal amount of heat energy are transferred in to equal mass of ethyl alcohol and water. The
rise in temperature of water is 25°C. The temperature rise of ethyl alcohol will be-
(specific heat of ethyl alcohol is one half of the specific heat of water)
(1) 12.5°C
(2) 25°C
(3) 50°C
(4) None
21) 300 gm of water at 25°C is added to 100 gm of ice at 0°C. The final temperature of the mixture
is
(1)
(2)
(3) –5°C
(4) 0°C
23)
(1) 6K/5
(2) 5K/2
(3) 12K/5
(4) 11K/5
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) ∞
(4) 0 to 1
27) It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a fire than it is on the side of fire it mainly
because :-
28) The emission spectra of a body at temperature 327°C and 627°C is shown. If A1 and A2 be the
(1) 81/16
(2) 9/4
(3) 27/8
(4) 16/81
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30) Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest specific heat ? The temperature v/s time graph
is shown
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All have equal specific heat
31) The mixture of two non-reacting gases A and B is in a container, at a constant temperature. Gas
A is diatomic and B is monoatomic. The ratio of molecular masses of A and B is 4, their ratio of the
rms speeds is :-
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 :
(4) :1
32) The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
33)
(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None
(1) 9.95
(2) 8.85
(3) 9.99
(4) 9.85
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
SECTION-B
1) A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law v = k
where k is constant and S is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by all the forces
which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.
(1)
W = mk4t2
(2)
W = m2k4t2
(3)
W = mk4t4
(4)
W = mk4t4
2) A body of mass 2 kg is situated at a height 5 m above the ground. Its potential energy is reported
as 70 J. Potential energy of a 3 kg body situated at height 1 m above ground will be reported.
(1) 30 J
(2) 21 J
(3) –15 J
(4) zero
3) A particle is projected with a speed . The coefficient of friction between the particle
and the hemispherical plane is μ = 0.5. Then, the initial acceleration of the particle is :
(1) g
(2) 2g
(3)
(4)
5)
An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 2 cm moves along the groove steadily and completes
7 revolutions in 100 s. What is the linear speed of the motion :–
6) The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum of length L is m. If the bob is left from its horizontal
position then the speed of the bob and the tension in the thread in the lowest position of the bob will
be respectively :–
(1) and 3 mg
(2) 3 mg and
(3) 2 mg and
(4) 2 gL and 3 mg
7) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is :-
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°
8) Two rods of the same material have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 and length in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
temperature difference between their ends is same, the ratio of heat conducted by them in a given
time is
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 8 : 1
(1) 410 W
(2) 81 W
(3) 405 W
(4) 200 W
10) A body takes 5 min. to cool from 90°C to 80°C. If the room temp. is 25°C. How much time it will
take to cool from 80°C to 70°C.
(1) 10 min.
(2) 4 min.
(3) 5 min.
(4) 6 min.
11) Two gases A and B have same temperature. Density of A is twice the density of B but molar mass
of B is twice as that of A. The ratio of pressures of gases A and B is :-
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
12)
The momentum of a moving particle is given by P = t ln t. Net force acting on this particle is defined
by the equation The net force acting on the particle is zero at time
(1) t = 0
(2)
(3)
(4) t = 1
(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 3/5
14) Assertion (A) : Definite Integral of a function is defined as area between the curve and axis.
Reason (R) : Definite integral of a function is always positive.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
15)
Find 2 + 6 + 10 + 14 +.........+ 38 =
(1) 200
(2) 300
(3) 100
(4) 400
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
(3)
(1) CsI
(2) MgO
(3) CaS
(4) NaF
4) Which of the following molecule have pπ–pπ bond but not have pπ – dπ bond?
(1) SO2
(2)
(3) SO2Cl2
(4) SO3
6) Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0ºC. This is due to its-
(1) N2 C2 O2
(2)
– +
(3) C2 CN NO
(4) NO CO
(1) B2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) O2
(1) σ 1s
(2) σ 2pz
(3) π 2px
(4) σ* 2pz
(1) LiCl
(2) LiF
(3) BeF2
(4) BeCl2
(1) (2 + 4 + 6)
(2) (2 × 4) / 6
(3) (4 × 6) / 2
(4) 2 × 4 × 6
15) Equal moles of H2 and I2 are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80% of the
hydrogen is converted to HI, the Kc at this temperature is.
(1) 64
(2) 16
(3) 0.25
(4) 14
Column-I Column-II
18) If the initial pressure of N2 and H2 mixture in a closed apparatus is 100 atm. At equilibrium 20%
of the mixture reacts then total pressure at the same temperature would be -
(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 85
(4) 80
19) 2 moles of gas A2 are mixed with 2 moles of gas B2 in a flask of volume 1 lit. If at equilibrium 0.5
moles of A2 are obtained. Then find out Kp for reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 36
(i)-Forward direction,
(ii)-Backward direction,
(1)
(iii)-Backward direction,
(iv)-Forward direction
(i)-Backward direction
(ii)-Backward direction,
(2)
(iii)-Forward direction,
(iv)-Forward direction
(i)-Forward direction
(ii)-Forward direction,
(3)
(iii)-Backward direction,
(iv)-Backward direction
(i)-Backward direction
(ii)-Forward direction,
(4)
(iii)-Forward direction,
(iv)-Backward direction
22) For the given reaction A + B → P, the order of reaction with respect to A and B are :
Rate
[A] [B]
(Mol L–1 s–1)
23) A reaction on increasing the concentration of reactant by 8 times, the rate of reaction gets
doubled. The order of reaction is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 3
(3) 5,2
(4) 5,3
25) What is the approximate half life of a substance if 87.5% of any given amount of the substance
disintegrate in 69 minutes, if it follows a zero order kinetics ?
(1) 23 min
(2) 40 min
(3) 160 min
(4) 200 min
26) A radioactive sample decreases by 75% after 10 years. What will be the half life of sample ?
(1) 5 years
(2) 2 years
(3) 3 years
(4) 10 years
27) In which of the following order reactions Half life period will not depends on initial
concentration of reactant :-
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) All of the above
28) The rate constant of which of the following reactions is independent of concentration of the
reactants?
is given as:
The reaction is :-
(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
(3) 2C + 3D → 4A + B
(4) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
31)
For a first order reaction, the value of rate constant for the reaction is :
A(g) → 3B(g) + C(g) If here P0 is the initial pressure of reactant and Pt is pressure of reaction
mixture at time t.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
32)
In a zero-order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature
is increased from 20°C to 90°C, the rate of the reaction will becomes
(1) 64 times
(2) 128 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 512 times
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both
35) In Rutherford's experiment, if 90 particles are deflected at an angle of 90°, then the no. of
particles deflected at on angle of 120° will be :-
(1) 120
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 10
SECTION-B
–
(1) I3 , XeF2, ClF3
– +
(2) H2O, OCl , ICl2
–
(3) XeF5 , XeF4, BF3
(4) All are correct
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
6) Consider the two gaseous equilibrium involving SO2 and the corresponding equilibrium constants
at 299 K
(1)
K2 =
(2) K2 =
(3)
K2 =
K2 =
(4)
(1) 500
(2) 125
(3) 750
(4) 375
8) 1 mol of CH3COOH and 1 mol of C2H5OH reacts to produce of CH3COOC2H5. The equilibrium
constant is :
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 4
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 4
10) Rate constant for a reaction is 2×10–2 × s–1. If the concentration of the reactant after 25 s is
0.5 M. Then initial concentration must be :-
(1) 1.0 M
(2) 1.25 M
(3) 2 M
(4) 0.5 M
11) A first order reaction is 40 percent complete in 20 minute. The approximate time required for
the reaction to be 50 percent complete will be :
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 5 minutes
(3) 27 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
12) Rate constant varies with temperature by the equation log10K = 5 – . We can conclude that
(R = 8.314 Jmol–1K–1) :-
13) For x → y, K1 = 1010 e–500/T and for w → z, K2 = 1012 e–1000/T at what temperature 'T' both reactions
will have same value of K :-
(1) 500 K
(2) 1500 K
(3) 500/4.606 K
(4) 5000/2.303 K
(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
(4) All of the above
BIOLOGY-I
SECTION-A
1) Consider the following four statements I, II, III and IV and select the correct statement:
I. Mendelian experiments have a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that
he collected.
II. Recessive allele influences the appearance of the phenotype even in the presence of a dominant
allele.
III. Mendel analysed qualitative characters in garden pea.
IV. In F2-generation of a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to
their parental types and shows blending inheritance.
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
3)
Choose the correct option regarding F1 -
5)
The character which can express only in homozygous condition in case of garden pea is :-
(A) Constricted pod shape
(B) Green seed colour
(C) Axial flower position
6)
An organism have AaBbRrTt genotype how many types of gametes can be produced ?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 32
7) Both traits of a character in a monohybrid cross are recovered as such in the F2 generation
though one of these is not seen at the F1 generation. This interpretation is based on the :
8) Statement-I : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar
except for one character with contrasting traits.
Statement-II : Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants were dwarf, like one of its parents;
none were tall.
(1) Only ii
(2) ii & iii
(3) iii, iv & v
(4) All are correct
11)
(1) Transition
(2) Transversion
(3) Chromosomal aberration
(4) Frame shift mutation
(1) a and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) a and d
(4) a, c and d
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three
16) The fruit fly has 2n = 8 in each cell. If the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, then find out
the number of chromosomes at the end of S-phase and anaphase respectively ?
(1) 8, 16
(2) 8, 32
(3) 16, 8
(4) 16, 16
(1) In some social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis to form gametes
(2) Mitotic division take place only in the apical meristem
(3) Mitosis helps to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Mitosis helps in cell repair.
(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Both (1) & (2)
21) Assertion (A): DNA replication does not takes place before meiosis II.
Reason (R): Already double amount of DNA is present in cell after meiosis I as compare to G-1
phase.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
22) The figures below show three stages (A, B, C) of mitotic division. Select the option giving correct
23)
Column-I Column-II
Dissolution of syneptonemal
(B) Pachytene (ii)
complex
25)
26) How many cell organelles in given list are with one membrane :-
Lysosome Mitochondria Ribosome
Centrosome Golgi complex Plastid
Peroxisome RER
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
27)
Given diagram showing flagellum's internal structure. In which of the following all the four parts
labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified?
A B C D
28) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?
Column-I Column-II
Flat membrane sac
(a) Cristae (i)
in stroma
Infoldings
(b) Cisternae (ii)
in mitochondria
Disk shaped sacs
(c) Thylakoids (iii)
in Golgi apparatus
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - i
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii
(1) Mitochondria, unless specifically stained are not easily visible under the microscope
(2) Physiological activity of cells determines the number of mitochondria per cell
Mitochondrion, a power house of cell has DNA, RNA, ribosomes and enzyme. So it can survive
(3)
outside the cell
(4) Mitochondria divide by fission
32) Assertion : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
Reason : Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) Anything less then a complete structure of all cells does not ensure independent living
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell
(3) Robert Brown discovered cell
(4) Cell is the basic structur and functional unit of all organisms
34) Match column I with column II and find the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
(6) 3n
(1) (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)
(2) (A)–(5), B–(2), (C)–(4), (D)–(1), (E)–(3)
(3) (A)–(6), B–(5), (C)–(3), (D)–(4), (E)–(2)
(4) (A)–(2), B–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(6), (E)–(5)
35) The process of translation requires the transfer of genetic information from :-
SECTION-B
2) A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently
germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype :-
(1) 900
(2) 600
(3) 1200
(4) 300
(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Unit factor
4) Type of gene mutation which involves replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (OR)
The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is :-
(1) Transduction
(2) Transversion
(3) Translocation
(4) Transcription
5)
(1) Lactose
(2) Allolactose
(3) Glucose
(4) Galactose
6)
(1) Deletion
(2) Reciprocal translocation
(3) Inversion
(4) Duplication
7) The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specializes structure in the centromere region
of each chromosome called the __________.
(1) Telomere
(2) centriole
(3) Chromatin
(4) Kinetochore
8) If at the end of mitosis a cell has 12 chromosomes, then how many chromosomes will be there in S
phase:
(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 24
(4) Cannot be predicted
Formation of
Bivalents core Terminalisation
synaptonemal
clearly visible of chiasmata
complex
13) In which phase of cell cycle the amount of DNA in a diploid cell become four times as compared
to a haploid cell ?
(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2, S & M
(4) Go
14) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct identification
together with the correct event ?
15) Colchicine prevent the A formation in B stage and induces C in plant. What are A, B
and C respectively :-
BIOLOGY-II
SECTION-A
1) Sequence of nucleotide on DNA segment from 5' to 3' is ATG GTG TGG TAA on transcription if
produce an m-RNA. Find out the sequence of amino acid in polypeptide chain after translation
process by this m-RNA.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2) Given the diagram of the lac operon showing an operon of inducible enzymes. Identify
A-Galactosidase, B-Permease,
(1) C-Transacetylase, D-Repressor protein,
E-Inducer (lactose)
A-Galactosidase, B-Permease,
(2) C-Transcetylase, D-Inducer (lactose),
E-Repressor protein
A-Galactosidase, B-Transacetylase,
(3) C-Permease, D-Repressor protein,
E-Inducer (lactose)
A-Permease, B-Transacetylase,
(4)
C-Galactosidase, D-Repressor protein, E-Inducer (Lactose)
3) Find out the sequence of binding of the following amino acyl – t–RNA complexes during
translation to an m–RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence. 3'
ATACCCATGGGG 5'. Choose the answer showing the correct order of alphabets :–
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) d, a, b, c
(3) a, b, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d
A - Electrophoresis
B - Restriction endonuclease
(1) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Labelled VNTR probe
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(2) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Labelled VNTR probe
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(3) C - Labelled VNTR probe
D - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
E - Autoradiography
A - Restriction endonuclease
B - Electrophoresis
(4) C - Nitrocellulose or Nylon
D - Autoradiography
E - Labelled VNTR probe
(v) Tyrosine
Options :-
(1) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-v, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-i
(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva
7)
Which is correct –
(i) t-RNA has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the codon.
(ii) t-RNA has an amino acid acceptor end
(iii) t-RNA are specific for each amino acid
(iv) For initiation, there is specific t-RNA that is reffered to as initiator t-RNA
(v) For termination there is specific t-RNA that is reffered to as terminator t-RNA
(1) i, ii
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
10) Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased :-
(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Fibrosis
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons
(1) Oxygenated into Pulmonary arteries and deoxygenated into Dorsal aorta
(2) Oxygenated into Dorsal aorta deoxygenated into Pulmonary arteries
(3) Oxygenated into and Vena cava and deoxygenated into Pulmonary veins
(4) Oxygenated into Pulmonary veins and deoxygenated into Vena cava
18)
(1) Eosinophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neurophil
(4) Monocyte
(1) Platelets
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Helper T-cells
(4) Mast cells
20)
(1) 120 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 5 lit.
(4) 70 ml
21) Typical 'LUB and DUP' sounds heard during heartbeat are due to :-
24)
(1) B and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and D
(1) Bronchi
(2) Trachea
(3) Bronchiole
(4) Respiratory bronchiole
26)
27)
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
29)
Pulse pressure is :-
30) Tidal volume and Inspiratory reserve volume of an person is 500 mL and 2500 mL respectively.
What will be his inspiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 mL ?
(1) 2000 mL
(2) 1800 mL
(3) 3000 mL
(4) 4200 mL
31) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
32)
(1) Scoliodon
(2) Frog
(3) Rabbit
(4) Pigeon
33) Which of the following option correctly matches with the diagram ?
(1) 3.9%
(2) 1–2%
(3) 2–3%
(4) 3–6%
SECTION-B
2) Glycosilation is start in :-
(1) Autophagy
(2) Formation of acrosome
(3) Storage of water
(4) Protein synthesis
5) If one strand of DNA contain following nitrogen base : then find out
sequence of nitrogen base in t RNA
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6)
7) Blood from head, neck and arms enters the heart through :-
8) The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into ventricles by about :
(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%
9)
10)
(1) fishes
(2) mammals
(3) reptile
(4) amphibian
11)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
13)
14) Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula & value :-
Respiratory
Formula Value
capacities
15)
Column-A Column-B
PO2
(a) (i) 45 mmHg
(Atmosphere)
PO2
(b) (oxygenated (ii) 40 mm Hg
blood)
(c) PCO2 (Tissue) (iii) 95 mmHg
PCO2
159.
(d) (oxygenated (iv)
mmHg
blood)
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
ANSWER KEYS
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 4
SECTION-B
Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 2
SECTION-B
Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 3 3 4
BIOLOGY-I
SECTION-A
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 3
SECTION-B
Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 1 4
BIOLOGY-II
SECTION-A
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 3
SECTION-B
Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 1 2
SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1)
L1 = L
Percentage increase in rotational energy
= =
=
= 800%
2)
Energy loss =
= 4.9 J
The weight acts at the centre of gravity of the overhanging part, i.e., below the surface of
the table.
4)
5)
As F=
U=
U=+ ⇒ U = kx2
6)
mgh = kx2
40 × 10–3 × 10 × 5 = × 400 x2
8)
N = 150 revolution
9)
11)
COME : K1 + U1 = K2 + U2
N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg
12)
14)
Resultant =
= 20 N
16)
15 – 10 ≤ R ≤ 15 + 10
5 ≤ R ≤ 25
2N is not possible
17) F cos 60 = 40
F = 80
Fvt = F sin 60
=
19) Initial temperature must be negative and 3 time phase heating and 2 times phase change
occur.
20)
Qwater = QE
(ΔT)E = 50°C
25)
5Keq = 12K
Keq =
27) By theory
28) TA = 327 + 273 = 600 K, TB = 627 + 273 = 900 K
Area ∝ T4
29)
E ∝ T4
31)
vrms =
So, vrms ∝
=1:2
33)
= Area =
34)
= 9.95
35)
S∞ = 1 + + .... =
36)
WALL = ΔK.E.
U = 3×10 (1 – x) = –15 J
38)
fk = μN
fk = 2μmg
maT = 2μmg
aΤ = 2μg (←)
=g
41)
0 + mgh = mv2 + 0
v2 = 2gL ⇒ v =
T = mg + = mg + = 3mg
43)
44)
46)
47)
49)
50) Tn = a + (n – 1) d
38 = 2 + (n – 1)d
n = 10
CHEMISTRY
57) NCERT, Pg. # 109
76)
t75% = 2 × t50%
79)
then
0
P –P=
so
82) µ = 2
90)
Be2, Ne2, PH5,
95) x = k t
x = 2 × 10–2 × 25
x = 0.5 M
a – x = 0.5
a – 0.5 = 0.5
a=1M
100)
BIOLOGY-I
101)
NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54
102)
NCERT-XII, Pg.# 56
108)
NCERT-XII, Pg.# 54
113)
114)
115)
120)
124)
132)
NCERT-XI, Pg.# 88
BIOLOGY-II
164)
180)
NCERT Pg.#186
183)
186)
NCERT-XI, Pg.# 93
193)
199)