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CJ2020D

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to Indian law, including topics such as the right to property, directive principles of state policy, and various articles of the Indian Constitution. It covers aspects of civil procedure, parliamentary procedures, and legal principles such as estoppel and the presumption of documents. The questions are designed for an examination setting, testing knowledge of legal provisions and concepts.

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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
51 views33 pages

CJ2020D

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to Indian law, including topics such as the right to property, directive principles of state policy, and various articles of the Indian Constitution. It covers aspects of civil procedure, parliamentary procedures, and legal principles such as estoppel and the presumption of documents. The questions are designed for an examination setting, testing knowledge of legal provisions and concepts.

Uploaded by

brijendrasing1
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. laifRr dk vf/kdkj___________gS 1.

Right to property is a _________

A) ewy vf/kdkj A) Fundamental Right

B) fof/kd vf/kdkj B) Legal Right

C) lkekftd vf/kdkj C) Social Right

D) jkT; ds uhfr funsZ”kd rRo D) Directive Principle of the State

2. Hkkjr ds lafo/kku ds varxZr fuEufyf[kr 2. Which of the following is not


esa ls dkSu] jkT; ds uhfr funsZ”kd fl)karksa mentioned in Directive Principles
esa of.kZr ugha gS\ of State Policy under The
Constitution of India?
A) thfodk ds Ik;kZIr lk/ku dk vf/kdkj A) Right to adequate means of
B) leku dk;Z ds fy, leku osru dk livelihood
vf/kdkj B) Right to equal pay for equal
work
C) vUrjkZ’Vªh; “kkafr vkSj lqj{kk dh
C) Promotion of international
vfHko`f) peace and security
D) pkSng o’kZ dh vk;q rd ds cPpksa ds D) Free and compulsory
fy, fu%”kqYd ,oa vfuok;Z f”k{kk education for children upto
fourteen years of age

3. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 340 esa fufgr 3. Article 340 of the Indian
gS Constitution deals with

A) Backward Classes
A) fiNM+k oxZ vk;ksx
Commission
B) pquko vk;ksx B) Election Commission
C) Union Public Service
C) la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx
Commission

D) foRr vk;ksx D) Finance Commission

C74E - 2020 5D
4. laln ds nksuksa lnuksa dh la;qDr cSBd 4. Joint sitting of both Houses of
dh v/;{krk dh tkrh gS % Parliament is chaired by

A) jk’Vªifr }kjk A) President of India


B) jkT;lHkk ds lHkkifr }kjk B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

C) yksdlHkk ds v/;{k }kjk C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

5. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds varxZr mPpre 5. Under The Constitution of India,


U;k;ky; ds U;k;k/kh”k dks gVkus dh the procedure for the removal of
a Supreme Court Judge is given
izfØ;k nh xbZ gS
in
A) vuqPNsn 126
A) Article 126
B) vuqPNsn 127
B) Article 127
C) vuqPNsn 124(4) C) Article 124(4)
D) vuqPNsn 124(6) D) Article 124(6)

6. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 352 esa fufgr 6. Article 352 of the Indian
gS Constitution deals with

A) fuokZpu vk;ksx A) Election Commission


B) Finance Commission
B) foRr vk;ksx
C) Proclamation of Emergency
C) vkikrdky dh mn~?kks’k.kk
D) Union Public Service
D) la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx Commission

C74E - 2020 6D
7. dsUnzh; ljdkj ds fo#) fd, x, okn esa 7. In a suit against the Central
izfroknh ds :Ik esa ukfer fd, tkusokyk Government the authority to be
izkf/kdkjh gksrk gS named as defendant is

A) The President
A) jk’Vªifr
B) The Prime Minister
B) iz/kku ea=h
C) The Minister of concerned
C) lacaf/kr foHkkx dk ea=h department

D) Hkkjr la?k D) The Union of India

8. mPp U;k;ky; ds v/khuLFk fdlh 8. Under Section 100 of Civil


U;k;ky; }kjk vihy esa ikfjr izR;sd Procedure Code 1908, second
fMØh dh flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk 1908 appeal lies to the High Court from
dh /kkjk 100 v/khu f}rh; vihy mPp every decree passed in appeal by
U;k;ky; esa gks ldsxh] ;fn varfuZfgr gSA any subordinate Court to the
High Court if it involves
A) fof/k ls lacaf/kr iz”u A) Question of Law

B) rF; ls lacaf/kr iz”u B) Question of Fact


C) Mixed Question of Law and
C) fof/k ,oa rF; ls lacaf/kr fefJr iz”u
Fact
D) fof/k dk lkjoku iz”u D) Substantial Question of Law

9. feF;k ;k rax djus okys nkoksa ,oa izfrj{kkvksa 9. The maximum amount which a
ds izfrdkjkRed [kpZ gsrq U;k;ky;] flfoy Court may order for payment of
izfØ;k lafgrk] 1908 ds v/khu vf/kdre compensatory cost in case of false
fdruh jkf”k ds fy, vkns”k ikfjr dj or vexatious claims or defence
ldrk gS\ under Civil Procedure Code 1908
is
A) #- 10,000/-
A) Rs. 10,000/-
B) #- 3,000/-
B) Rs. 3,000/-
C) #- 5,000/- C) Rs. 5,000/-
D) #- 25,000/- D) Rs. 25,000/-

C74E - 2020 7D
10. flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk esa fu.kZ; ds iwoZ 10. Under which provision of Civil
dqdhZ dk izko/kku dgkaW fn;k x;k gS\ Procedure Code, Attachment
before Judgement is provided?
A) vkns”k 26 fu;e 04 A) Order 26 Rule 04
B) vkns”k 39 fu;e 02 B) Order 39 Rule 02
C) vkns”k 38 fu;e 05 C) Order 38 Rule 05
D) vkns”k 40 fu;e 01 D) Order 40 Rule 01

11. flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk] 1908 ds vkns”k 11. Order 5 of the Civil Procedure
5 esa micaf/kr gS Code 1908 provides for

A) LohdkjksfDr A) Admission

B) lkf{k;ksa dk cqyk;k tkuk vkSj mudh B) Summoning and attendance


mifLFkfr of witness
C) lEeuksa dk fudkyk tkuk vkSj mudh
C) Issue and service of summons
rkfeyh
D) vfHkopu D) Pleadings

12. flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk 1908 ds mica/kksa 12. Pleading can be amended under
ds varxZr vfHkopuksa dk la”kks/ku fd;k which of the provisions of Civil
tk ldrk gS : Procedure Code 1908 :

A) dsoy fopkj.k U;k;ky; ds le{k A) Before the trial Court only

B) dsoy izFke vihyh; U;k;ky; ds B) Before the first Appellate


le{k Court only

C) dsoy f}rh; vihyh; U;k;ky; ds C) Before the second Appellate


le{k Court only

D) fopkj.k U;k;ky; izFke vihyh; D) Before either the trial Court,


U;k;ky; vFkok f}rh; vihyh; first Appellate Court or
U;k;ky; esa ls fdlh Hkh ds le{k second Appellate Court

C74E - 2020 8D
13. flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk 1908 ds mica/kksa 13. Attachment of a portion of salary
ds varxZr osru ds izH kkx dh dqdhZ can be continued as a provision
of the Code of Civil Procedure,
vf/kdre vof/k ds fy, tkjh jgsxh 1908 for a maximum period of

A) 6 ekg rd
A) 6 months
B) 12 ekg rd B) 12 months
C) 24 ekg rd C) 24 months

D) 36 ekg rd D) 36 months

14. Preliminary decree can be passed


14. izkjafHkd fMØh dh tk ldrh gS\
in a suit

A) caVokjs ds fy, okn esa A) For partition


B) For possession and mesne
B) dCtk ,oa e/;orhZ ykHk ds okn esa
profit
C) lk>snkjh ds okn esa C) For partnership
D) All of the above
D) mi;qZDr lHkh esa

15. fdlh vkns”k dh voKk ;k mldks Hkax 15. The period of detention in civil
djus ij flfoy dkjkxkj esa______ls imprisonment as a consequence
of disobedience or breach of any
vukf/kd vof/k ds fy, fu#) fd;k
injunction shall not exceed _____
tk;sxk % &
A) One month
A) ,d ekg
B) Three months
B) rhu ekg
C) Six months
C) N% ekg
D) ,d lky D) One year

C74E - 2020 9D
16. yksd iwrZ ds ckn ds fy, micaf/kr fd;k 16. A suit in respect of Public
x;k gS Charities is provided under

A) /kkjk 41 flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk A) Section 41 of CPC

B) /kkjk 92 flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk B) Section 92 of CPC

C) /kkjk 100 flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk C) Section 100 of CPC

D) /kkjk 91 flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk D) Section 91 of CPC

17. tgkaW fdlh i{kdkj dh e`R;q lquokbZ dh 17. Where a party dies after
lekfIr ij fdUrq fu.kZ; mn~?kksf’kr djus conclusion of the hearing and
ds iwoZ gksrh gS rks before pronouncment of the
judgement,

A) okn dk mi”keu gksxk A) The suit shall abate


B) The suit shall not abate
B) okn dk mi”keu ugha gksxk
C) It will be deemed that the
C) ;g ekuk tk,xk fd fu.kZ; i{kdkj judgement has been
dh e`R;qq gksus ds igys mn~?kksf’kr fd;k pronounced before death of
x;k the party
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

18. dksbZ i{kdkj flfoy izfØ;k lafgrk ds 18. If a party who has obtained an
varxZr vfHkopu esa la”kks/ku djus dh order to amend the pleadings
vuqefr izkIr djus ds vkns”k ds fdrus under Civil Procedure Code, if not
amended after, expiration of how
fnu rd vfHkopu esa la”kks/ku ugha djrk]
many days shall not be permitted
rks U;k;ky; dh vuqefr ds fcuk og
to amend the same without the
la”kks/ku ugha dj ldsxk : leave of the Court?

A) 14 fnu A) 14 days
B) 15 fnu B) 15 days

C) 30 fnu C) 30 days

D) 45 fnu D) 45 days

C74E - 2020 10D


19. focU/k D;k gS\ 19. What is estoppel?

A) fdUgha rF;ksa dks izekf.kr djus ls A) Prohibition from proving a


certain fact
izfr’ks/k
B) Prohibition from claiming a
B) laifRr dk nkok djus ls izfr’ks/k certain property
C) fdlh O;fDr dks jksduk C) To stop a person
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

20. mfpr vfHkj{kk ls izLrqr 30 o’kZ iqjkus 20. Thirty years old document if
nLrkostksa ds laca/k esa produced from a proper custody

A) U;k;ky; buds fu’ikfnr fd, tkus A) Court shall presume its


dh mi/kkj.kk djsxk execution

B) U;k;ky; buds fu’iknu fd, tkus B) Court may presume its


dh mi/kkj.kk dj ldsxk execution

C) mi/kkj.kk varfuZfgr ugha C) Presumption not involved

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

21. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 8 esa 21. Which of the following is not
fuEukafdr esa ls ,d “kkfey ugha gS included in Section 8 of the
Indian Evidence Act?
A) gsrqd
A) Motive
B) vk”k;
B) Intention
C) rS;kjh C) Preparation
D) vkpj.k D) Conduct

C74E - 2020 11D


22. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e dh fdl /kkjk 22. Under which section of Indian
ds rgr fdlh yksd lsod dks “kkldh; Evidence Act, a public servant
fo”okl esa nh xbZ lalwpuk dks izdV shall not be compelled to disclose
djus ds fy, ck/; ugha fd;k tk ldrk communications made to him in
gS\ official confidence?

A) /kkjk 123 A) Section 123


B) /kkjk 124 B) Section 124
C) /kkjk 125 C) Section 125

D) /kkjk 126 D) Section 126

23. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e dh fuEu esa ls 23. Which of the following section of
dkSu lh /kkjk vkijkf/kd ekeyksa ls Indian Evidence Act does not deal
lacaf/kr ugha gS\ with criminal matters?

A) /kkjk 25 A) Section 25
B) Section 23
B) /kkjk 23
C) Section 53
C) /kkjk 53
D) Section 30
D) /kkjk 30

24. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e ds varxZr fdrus 24. The Court can presume about the
o’kZ iqjkus bysDVªkfud vfHkys[k ij fMftVy legality of digital signature on the
gLrk{kj dh oS|rk ds ckjs esa U;k;ky; electronic record under Indian
mi/kkj.kk dj ldrk gS\ Evidence Act when it is

A) 30 o’kZ iqjkuk A) 30 years old

B) 03 o’kZ iqjkuk B) 03 years old

C) 05 o’kZ iqjkuk C) 05 years old

D) 06 o’kZ iqjkuk D) 06 years old

C74E - 2020 12D


25. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu lk ,d lgh lqesfyr 25. Which one of the following is not
ugha gS\ correctly matched?

A) Opinions of experts - Sec. 45


A) fo”ks’kKksa dh jk; & /kkjk 45 lk{;
of the Evidence Act.
vf/kfu;e
B) f}rh;d lk{; & /kkjk 62 lk{; B) Secondary Evidence - 62 of the
Evidence Act.
vf/kfu;e
C) lw pd iz” u & /kkjk 141 lk{; C) Leading Question - Sec. 141
vf/kfu;e of the Evidence Act.

D) lkf{k;ksa dh la[;k & /kkjk 134 lk{; D) No. of witness - Sec. 134 of
vf/kfu;e the Evidence Act.

26. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e dh fdl /kkjk 26. Under which section of the Indian
ds varxZr ^jsl tsLVs^ dk fl)kar fn;k Evidence Act the principle of
x;k gS\ “Res Gestae” is given

A) /kkjk 60 A) Section - 60
B) /kkjk 25 B) Section - 25
C) /kkjk 24 C) Section - 24

D) /kkjk 06 D) Section - 06

27. Hkkjrh; lk{; vf/kfu;e izR;{k :Ik ls 27. Indian Evidence Act does not
mYys[k ugha djrk gS :- expressly mention about :-

A) ekSf[kd lk{; dk A) Oral Evidence


B) nLrkosth lk{; dk B) Documentary Evidence
C) f}rh;d lk{; dk C) Secondary Evidence
D) ifjfLFkfrtU; lk{; dk D) Circumstantial Evidence

C74E - 2020 13D


28. izkbosV nLrkost D;k gS \ 28. What is private document ?

A) Document executed in a
A) ifjokj esa fu’ikfnr nLrkost
family
B) xksiuh; nLrkost B) Secret document
C) izkbosV O;fDRk dh vfHkj{kk dk nLrkost C) Document in custody of
private person
D) yksd nLrkost dks NksM+ dj vU;
D) Document other than a public
nLrkost
document

29. naM izfØ;k lafgrk dh /kkjk 161 ds 29. When under section 161 of the
varxZr iqfyl }kjk dFku dc vfHkfyf[kr code of criminal procedure is
fd;k tkrk gS\ statement recorded by the
Police?
A) fopkj.k ds nkSjku
A) During trial
B) foospuk ds iwoZ B) Before investigation
C) tkaWp ds nkSjku C) During enquiry
D) During investigation
D) foospuk ds nkSjku

30. l= U;k;ky; ds le{k fopkj.k dh izfØ;k 30. The procedure for trial before a
n.M izfØ;k lafgrk dh______/kkjkvksa esa Court of session is provided
micfU/kr under Section______of the code of
Criminal Procedure
A) /kkjk 262 ls 265 n.M izfØ;k lafgrk
A) Sec. 262 to sec. 265 of CrPC
B) /kkjk 238 ls 250 n.M izfØ;k lafgrk
B) Sec. 238 to sec. 250 of CrPC
C) /kkjk 251 ls 269 n.M izfØ;k lafgrk C) Sec. 251 to sec. 269 of CrPC
D) /kkjk 225 ls 237 n.M izfØ;k lafgrk D) Sec. 225 to sec. 237 of CrPC

C74E - 2020 14D


31. og dkSu lh vf/kdre vof/k ftlesa ,d 31. What is the maximum period an
dk;Zikyd eftLVªsV ,d vfHk;qDr dks Executive Magistrate may
vfHkj{kk esa fu#) dj ldsxk \ authorize the detention of an
accused in custody?
A) 24 ?kaVs ls vuf/kd A) Not exceeding 24 hours
B) 3 fnuksa ls vuf/kd B) Not exceeding 3 days
C) 7 fnuksa ls vuf/kd C) Not exceeding 7 days

D) 15 fnuksa ls vuf/kd D) Not exceeding 15 days

32. ;fn vijk/k 1 o’kZ ls vuf/kd vof/k ds 32. For the purpose of taking
fy, dkjkokl ls n.Muh; gS rks U;k;ky; cognizance of an offence, what
ml vijk/k dk laKku fdl ifjlhek period of limitation is prescribed
for an offence carrying
dky dh lekfIr ds Ik”pkr~ ugha djsxk\
punishment not exceeding one
year by the court
A) 6 ekg
A) 6 months
B) 1 o’kZ
B) 1 year
C) 3 o’kZ C) 3 years
D) mi;qZDr ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

33. n.M izfØ;k lafgrk ds fdl /kkjk ds 33. Under which section of CrPC.
varxZr ,d eftLVªsV LFkkuh; vUos’k.k ds Magistrate may direct a local
fy, funsZ”k tkjh dj ldrk gS \ investigation?

A) /kkjk 133 A) Section 133

B) /kkjk 139 B) Section 139

C) /kkjk 145 C) Section 145

D) /kkjk 146 D) Section 146

C74E - 2020 15D


34. n.M izfØ;k lafgrk ds fdl /kkjk ds 34. A statement recorded under
varxZr vfHkfyf[kr dFku] dFkudrkZ }kjk which section of CrPC need not
gLrk{kfjr fd;k tkuk vko”;d ugha gS\ be signed by the maker ?

A) 164 A) 164
B) 313 B) 313
C) 161 C) 161

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dkbZS ugha D) None of the above

35. n.M izfØ;k lafgrk dh /kkjk 160 ds 35. A person can be summoned as a
varxZr ,d O;fDr dks lk{kh ds :i esa witness under section 160 of the
fdlds }kjk cqyk;k tk ldrk gS\ CrPC by

A) fdlh Hkh iqfyl vf/kdkjh }kjk A) Any police officer

B) ml iqfyl vf/kdkjh }kjk tks ekeys B) The police officer


dh foospuk dj jgk gSA investigating the case

C) Fkkuk izHkkjh }kjk C) The station house officer

D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

36. U;k;k/kh”kksa ,oa yksd lsodksa dk vfHk;kstu 36. The prosecution of Judges and
esa micaf/kr gS public servants are provided in

A) /kkjk 179 naM izfØ;k lafgrk esa A) Section 179 CrPC

B) /kkjk 192 naM izfØ;k lafgrk esa B) Section 192 CrPC

C) /kkjk 197 naM izfØ;k lafgrk esa C) Section 197 CrPC

D) /kkjk 297 naM izfØ;k lafgrk esa D) Section 297 CrPC

C74E - 2020 16D


37. ,d vfHk;qDr vius cpko esa l{ke lk{kh 37. An accused person may be a
gks ldrk gS] naM izfØ;k lafgrk 1973 competent witness in his own
ds varxZr defence under the code of
Criminal Procedure 1973; in
A) /kkjk 312 esa
A) Section 312
B) /kkjk 313 esa
B) Section 313
C) /kkjk 315 esa
C) Section 315
D) /kkjk 316 esa D) Section 316

38. naM izfØ;k lafgrk dh /kkjk 190(2) ds 38. Under section 190(2) of CrPC
varxZr fdlh f}rh; oxZ eftLVªsV dks who may empower any
vijk/kksa dk laKku ysus ds fy, dkSu Magistrate of second class to take
l”kDr dj ldrk gS\ cognizance of offences ?

A) mPp U;k;ky; A) High Court

B) l= U;k;ky; B) Court of sessions

C) eq[; U;kf;d eftLVªsV C) Chief Judicial Magistrate

D) mi;qZDr esas ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

39. naM izfØ;k lafgrk ds fuEukafdr /kkjkvksa 39. Under which one of the following
esa ls fdl /kkjk ds varxZr ,d f}rh; sections of CrPC., Magistrate
oxZ eftLVªVs la f {kIr fopkj.k dj second class can conduct
ldrk gS\ summary trial?

A) /kkjk 260 esa A) Section 260

B) /kkjk 261 esa B) Section 261

C) /kkjk 262 esa C) Section 262

D) /kkjk 263 esa D) Section 263

C74E - 2020 17D


40. naM izfØ;k lafgrk dh fdl /kkjk esa ihfM+rksa 40. Treatment of the victim has been
ds mipkj gsrq vijk/k fof/k ¼la”kks/ku½ incorporated under CrPC by
vf/kfu;e 2013 ls tksM+s x, gS Criminal Law (Amendment) Act
2013, under
A) /kkjk 357(A)
A) Section 357(A)
B) /kkjk 357(B)
B) Section 357(B)
C) /kkjk 357(C) C) Section 357(C)

D) /kkjk 357 D) Section 357

41. vijk/k ds dkSu ls 2 vko”;d rRo gS \ 41. Which are the two essential
elements of an offence?
A) gsrqd ,oa d`R;
A) Motive and Act
B) gsrqd ,oa nks’k fl)h B) Motive and Conviction
C) gsrqd ,oa {kfr C) Motive and Injury

D) rS;kjh ,oa n.M D) Preparation and Punishment

42. vigj.k ds vijk/k ds fy, O;fDr ftls 42. For the offence of abduction of
vigj.k fd;k tkrk gS gksuk pkfg, :- person, abducted must be :-

A) vo;Ld A) Minor

B) o;Ld B) Major

C) o;Ld ;k vo;Ld C) Minor or major

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 18D


43. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu lk ^^dkuwu ds 43. Which of the following is an
“kklu^^ vkSj ^^U;k;ikfydk dh Lora=rk^^ essential part of 'Rule of Law' and
'Independence of Judiciary' ?
dk ,d vfuok;Z vax gS\
A) Judicial Review
A) U;kf;d leh{kk
B) Impartial appointment of
B) U;k;k/kh”kksa dh fu’i{k fu;qfDr Judges
C) egkfHk;ksx C) Impeachment
D) mPpre U;k;ky; dh iz k ja f Hkd D) Original Jurisdiction of
vf/kdkfjrk Supreme Court

44. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 25 ds [k.M 44. According to Clause 1 of Art : 25


1 ds vuqlkj /keZ dh Lora=rk fdl fgr of the Indian Constitution, the
ds v/khu gS\ freedom of religion is subject to
the interest of ______
A) lkoZtfud O;oLFkk
A) Public order
B) uSfrdrk
B) Morality
C) LokLF; C) Health
D) mi;qZDr lHkh D) All of the above

45. fuEukafdr esa ls fdlesa jkT; yksd lsok 45. Which among the following has
vk;ksx ds dk;ksZa dk foLrkj djus dh the power to extend the functions
“kfDr gS\ of the State Public Service
Commission ?
A) jkT;iky
A) The Governor
B) jkT; fo/kku eaMy B) The State Legislature
C) eq[; ea=h C) The Chief Minister
D) egkf/koDrk D) The Advocate General

C74E - 2020 19D


46. lafo/kku dk dkSu lk la”kks/ku vf/kfu;e 46. Which of the following
,d O;fDRk dks 2 ;k 2 ls vf/kd jkT;ksa Amendment Act of the
Constitution provides for the
dk jkT;iky fu;qDr djus dk vf/kdkj
appointment of one person as
nsrk gS\ Governor of two or more states?

A) f}rh; A) 2nd
B) r`rh; B) 3rd

C) iape C) 5th

D) lIre D) 7th

47. u;s izns”k ds l̀tu ,oa mldh lhekvksa ds 47. Power to constitute new states
fu/kkZj.k dk vf/kdkj ________ fufgr and determination of its
gS boundaries vests in______

A) laln esa A) Parliament

B) jk’Vªifr esa B) President

C) jkT;iky esa C) Governor

D) loksZPp U;k;ky; esa D) Supreme Court of India

48. ^^jk’Vª dh ,drk vkSj v[k.Mrk^^ “kCnksa dk 48. The words "Unity and Integrity of
lekos”k Hkkjr ds lafo/kku dh mn~nsf”kdk the Nation" were incorporated in
the Preamble of The Constitution
esa fdl la”kks/ku ds ek/;e ls gqvk gS\
of India by which Amendment?
A) 41 oka A) 41
B) 42 oka B) 42
C) 43 oka C) 43

D) 44 oka D) 44

C74E - 2020 20D


49. laifRr varj.k vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 12 49. Section 12 of the Transfer of
Property Act is not applicable :-
ogkWa ykxw ugha gksxh] tgkaW :-
A) Where the transfer is by way
A) varj.k foØ; }kjk gqvk gS of sale
B) Where the transfer is by way
B) varj.k nku }kjk gqvk gS of gift
C) varj.k iV~Vs ij gqvk gS C) Where the transfer is by way
of lease
D) varj.k fofue; }kjk gqvk gS D) Where the transfer is by way
of exchange

50. /kkjk 52 laifRr varj.k vf/kfu;e esa of.kZr 50. Which one of the following is not
an essential condition for
^yafcr okn^ ds ykxw gksus ds fy, fuEu esa
application of Rule of “Lis
ls dkSu vko”;d “krZ ugha gS\ Pendens” under section 52 of the
Transfer of Property Act.
A) okn ;k dk;Zokgh dk yafcr gksuk
A) Pendency of a suit or
B) l{ke U;k;ky; esa yafcr gksuk Proceeding
B) Pendency in a competent
C) okn dk nqjfHklaf/kiw.kZ gksuk court
C) Suit must be collusive
D) varj.k nwljs i{k ds vf/kdkjksa dks D) Alienation must affect the
izHkkfor djusokyk gksA rights of the other party

51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vuq ;ksT; nkok 51. Which of the following is not an
actionable claim?
ugha gS\
A) Right to a Provident Fund
A) Hkfo’; fuf/k [kkrs dk vf/kdkj Account
B) ,y,ych dh ijh{kk esa opux`ghrk ds B) Promise to pay Rs. 5000/-, if
mRrh.kZ gksus ij #- 5000/- Hkqxrku the promisee succeeds in
djus dk opu L.L.B. Examination.
C) opux`ghrk }kjk fdlh fof”k’V yMdh C) Agreement to pay Rs. 2000/-
if the promisee marries a
ls fookg djus ij #- 2000/- Hkqxrku particular woman.
djus dk djkj D) Right to claim benefit of a
D) lafonk tks nkf;Ro ls ;qfXer ds ykHk contract coupled with a
dk nkok djus dk vf/kdkj liability.

C74E - 2020 21D


52. dksbZ vkosnu i= ftlds fy, dksbZ ifjlhek 52. Any application for which no
vof/k micfU/kr ugha gS, izLrqr fd;k tk period of application is provided
ldrk gS :- can be filed within :-

A) 3 o’kZ ds Hkhrj A) 3 years

B) 1 o’kZ ds Hkhrj B) 1 year

C) 6 ekg ds Hkhrj C) 6 months

D) fdlh Hkh le; D) At anytime

53. fo}s’kiw.kZ vfHk;kstu ds vk/kkj ij {kfriwfrZ 53. The period of limitation for a suit
dk nkok izLrqr djus gsrq ifjlhek gS :- for damages on account of
malicious prosecution is :-
A) 3 o’kZ
A) 3 years
B) 1 o’kZ B) 1 years
C) 2 o’kZ C) 2 years

D) 5 o’kZ D) 5 years

54. ifjlhek vof/k izkjaHk gksrh gS:- 54. The law of limitation runs from
the :-

A) okn i= ds ykSVkus dh frfFk ls A) Date the plaint is returned


B) Date of the order which plaint
B) okn ykSVk, tkus ds vkns”k fnukad ls
is directed to be returned.

C) ifjfLFkfr;ksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS C) Depends upon the


circumstances
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 22D


55. /kkjk 17 ifjlhek vf/kfu;e ds nk;js esa 55. Section 17 of the Limitation Act
vkrk gS takes within its ambit

A) diV A) Fraud
B) «kqfV B) Mistake
C) Nqikuk C) Concealment
D) mi;qZDr lHkh D) All the above

56. ifjlhek vf/kfu;e dh fuEukafdr /kkjkvksa 56. Which of the following sections of
esa ls dkSu lh /kkjk oknh ;k izfroknh Limitation Act deals with effect of
izfrLFkkfir djus ;k tksM+us dk izHkko dk substituting or adding new
micU/k djrh gS\ plaintiff or defendant ?

A) /kkjk 18 A) Section 18

B) /kkjk 19 B) Section 19

C) /kkjk 20 C) Section 20

D) /kkjk 21 D) Section 21

57. lafonk vf/kfu;e dh dkSu lh /kkjk 57. Which section of the Contract Act
mivfHkdrkZ dks ifjHkkf’kr djrh gS\ defines “Sub Agent” ?

A) /kkjk 190 A) Section 190

B) /kkjk 191 B) Section 191

C) /kkjk 192 C) Section 192

D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 23D


58. Hkkjrh; lafonk vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 20 ds 58. The nature of an agreement
varxZr fd, x, djkj dh izd`fr gksxh made under the provisions of
Section 20 of the Indian Contract
A) oS /k Act would be :-

B) voS /k A) Valid
B) Invalid
C) “kwU; C) Void

D) “kwU;dj.kh; D) Voidable

59. Hkkjrh; lafonk vf/kfu;e dh fdl /kkjk 59. “Contract of Indemnity” is defined
esa {kfriwfrZ dh lafonk ifjHkkf’kr gS in which section of Indian
Contract Act ?
A) /kkjk 124
A) Section 124
B) /kkjk 125
B) Section 125
C) /kkjk 126 C) Section 126
D) /kkjk 127 D) Section 127

60. Hkkjrh; lafonk vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 24 ds 60. Under Section 24 of Indian


va rxZr fuEufyf[kr dkSu lk djkj Contract Act which one of the
“kwU; gS following agreements is void ?

A) ;fn diV ls dkfjr gS A) If caused by fraud

B) ;fn izihMu ls dkfjr gS B) If caused by coercion

C) ;fn izfrQy fof/k fo#) gS C) If consideration is unlawful

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 24D


61. “izfrHkw dk nkf;Ro ewy _.kh ds nkf;Ro 61. “The liability of the surety is
ds lefoLrh.kZ gS ” ;g Hkkjrh; lafonk co-extensive with that of the
vf/kfu;e ds varxZr micfU/kr gS principal debtor.” It has been
provided under Indian Contract
Act :-
A) /kkjk 126 esa
A) In Section 126
B) /kkjk 127 esa
B) In Section 127
C) /kkjk 128 esa
C) In Section 128
D) /kkjk 129 esa D) In Section 129

62. HkkMk fu;a=d vfuEu Js.kh dk gksxk 62. The Rent controller shall be not
below the rank of :-
A) rglhynkj ls
A) Tahsildar
B) lgk;d v/kh{kd ls
B) Assistant Superintendent
C) fMIVh dysDVj ls C) Deputy Collector
D) flfoy tt ls D) Civil Judge

63. NRrhlx< HkkM+k fu;a=.k vf/kfu;e 2011 63. The right available to a tenant
ds var xZr fdlh fof”k’V dks iz kIr under the Chhattisgarh Rent
vf/kdkj izko/kkfur gS :- Control Act 2011 is provided in :-

A) vf/kfu;e dh vuqlwph 1 esa A) Schedule 1 of the Act

B) vf/kfu;e dh vuqlwph 2 esa B) Schedule 2 of the Act

C) vf/kfu;e dh vuqlwph 3 esa C) Schedule 3 of the Act

D) vf/kfu;e dh vuqlwph 4 esa D) Schedule 4 of the Act

C74E - 2020 25D


64. NRrhlx<+ HkkM+k fu;a=.k vf/kfu;e 2011 64. Which of the following sections of
dh fuEu esa ls dkSu lh /kkjk ^vknru the Chhattisgarh Rent Control
O;frØeh^ dks ifjHkkf’kr djrh gS Act, 2011 defines “Habitual
defaulter” ?
A) /kkjk 2(1)
A) Section 2(1)
B) /kkjk 2(3)
B) Section 2(3)
C) /kkjk 2(4) C) Section 2(4)
D) /kkjk 2(5) D) Section 2(5)

65. jftLVª h dj.k vf/kfu;e 1908 ds 65. Which of the following is


izko/kkuksa ds varxZr fuEu esa ls fdl compulsorily registerable under
nLrkost dk jftLVªhdj.k vfuok;Z gS the provision of the Registration
Act 1908 ?

A) olh;r A) Will

B) nRrd i= B) Deed of Adoption


C) Debenture
C) _.ki=
D) Gift deed of immovable
D) LFkkoj laifRr dk nku i= property

66. jftLVªhdj.k vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 17 fuEu 66. Section 17 of the Registration Act
provides for :-
iznku djrk gS
A) nLrkostsa ftudk jftLVªhdj.k gh ugha A) documents which are not at all
dj ik,aWxsA registrable

B) nLrkostsa ftudk vfuok;Z rkSj ij B) documents which are


jftLVªhdj.k djuk gS compulsorily registrable

C) nLrkostsa ftudk jftLVªhdj.k djuk C) documents the registration of


oSdfYid gS which is optional

D) nksuksa (A) vkSj (C) D) both (A) & (C)

C74E - 2020 26D


67. jftLVªhdj.k vf/kfu;e 1908 ds varxZr 67. Under Registration Act 1908, a
olh;r dks jftLVªhdj.k ds fy, izLrqr Will can be ‘Presented for
fd;k tk ldrk gS :- Registration’ within :-

A) fu’iknu ls pkj ekg esa A) Four months of its execution

B) fu’iknu ls N% ekg esa B) Six months of its execution

C) fu’iknu ls nks ekg esa C) Two months of its execution

D) fdlh Hkh le; D) At anytime

68. jftLVªhdj.k vf/kfu;e 1908 esa varxZr 68. Under Registration Act 1908; on
iqu% jftLVªhdj.k ij jftLVªh izHkko”khy Re-Registration, the Registration
gksxk shall be effective:-
A) From the date of its original
A) ewy jftLVªh fnukad ls Registration

B) iqu% jftLVªhdj.k gsrq izLrqfr B) From the date of Presentation


fnukaad ls for Re-Registration
C) From the date of
C) iqu% jftLVªhdj.k fnukaad ls Re-Registration
D) From the Date which the
D) jftLVªkj }kjk fu;r fnukad ls
Registrar fixes

69. dksVZ Qhl vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 7(10) ds 69. According to section 7(10) of the
vuqlkj fofufnZ’V vuqikyu ds okn esa Court Fee Act, court fee in the suit
U;k;”kqYd ns; gksxk for specific performance would be

A) According to amount of
A) izfrQy ds jkf”k ds vuqlkj consideration
B) oknh dh bPNkuqlkj B) According to desire of the
plaintiff
C) U;k;ky; ds foosd ij
C) Upon discretion of court
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 27D


70. dksVZ Qhl vf/kfu;e 1870 dh /kkjk 19 70. Section 19 of the Court Fee Act
ls lacaf/kr gS 1870 relates to

A) U;k; “kqYd dh okilh A) Refund of Court fee

B) U;k; “kqYd dk ifjgkj B) Remission of Court fee

C) U;k; “kqYd ls NwV C) Exemption of Court fee

D) dfri; nLrkostksa dks U;k; “kqYd D) Exemption of Court fee of


ls NwV certain document

71. NRrhlx< HkwjktLo lafgrk dh dkSu lh 71. Which section of Chhattisgarh


/kkjk ‘dksVokjksa ’ dh fu;qfDr ls lacaf/kr gS Land Revenue Code deals with
the appointment of ‘Kotwar’:-

A) /kkjk 225 A) Section 225


B) /kkjk 229 B) Section 229

C) /kkjk 230 C) Section 230

D) /kkjk 234 D) Section 234

72. NRrhlx< HkwjktLo lafgrk] 1959 ds 72. According to Chhattisgarh Land


vuqlkj dkSu jktLo vf/kdkjh ugha gS\ Revenue Code 1959, who is not a
Revenue officer ?
A) dysDVj A) Collector

B) cUnkscLr vf/kdkjh B) Settlement officer


C) Superintendent of Land
C) Hkw&vfHkys[k v/kh{kd Records
D) jktLo fujh{kd D) Revenue Inspector

C74E - 2020 28D


73. NRrhlx< Hkw jktLo dh /kkjk 2¼lh½ eas 73. “Agriculture Year“, as defined in
ifjHkkf’kr ^Ñf’k o’kZ^ izkjaHk gksrk gS :- section 2(c) of the Chhattisgarh
Land Revenue Code 1959
A) 1 tuojh ls commences :-

B) 1 vizsy ls A) From 1st January


B) From 1st April
C) 1 tqykbZ ls C) From 1st July
D) 1 flracj ls D) From 1st September

74. fuEu esa ls NRrhlx< Hkw jktLo lafgrk 74. Which one of the following
dh fdl /kkjk esa Qlyksa ds u’V gks tkus sections of the Chhattisgarh
ij Hkw jktLo dh ekQh ;k mlds fuyacu Land Revenue Code 1959
dh O;oLFkk gS\ provides for remission or
suspension of Land Revenue on
A) /kkjk 142 failure of crops ?

B) /kkjk 143 A) Section 142


B) Section 143
C) /kkjk 144
C) Section 144
D) /kkjk 145 D) Section 145

75. NRrhlx< Hkw&jktLo lafgrk 1959 ds 75. As per Chhattisgarh Land


vuqlkj mu leLr Hkwfe ^ftuij Hkw jktLo^ Revenue Code 1959, who shall
dk fu/kkZj.k ugha fd;k x;k gS] Hkw jktLo make the assessment of “Land
Revenue” on all lands on which
dk fu/kkZj.k fdlds }kjk fd;k tk;sxk \
the assessment has not been
made ?
A) rglhynkj
A) Tahsildar
B) mi[k.M vf/kdkjh
B) Sub Divisional Officer
C) dysDVj C) Collector

D) dfe”uj D) Commissioner

C74E - 2020 29D


76. NRrhlx< vkcdkjh vf/kfu;e 1915 ds 76. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act
varxZr ns”kh efnjk vkSj fons”kh efnjk 1915 who has the power to
fdls ekuk tk,xk ;g ?kksf’kr djus dh declare as to what shall be
“kfDr fdls gS\ deemed to be country liquor and
Foreign liquor ?
A) dsUnzh; ljdkj dks
A) Central Government
B) jkT; ljdkj dks
B) State Government
C) eq[; jktLo izkf/kdkjh dks C) Chief Revenue Authority
D) vkcdkjh vf/kdkjh dks D) Excise Officer

77. NRrhlx< vkcdkjh vf/kfu;e 1915 ds 77. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act
varxZr rkM+h 1915 Tari means :-

A) fdlh Hkh izdkj ds rkM+ ds isM ls A) Fermented juice drawn from


fudkyk x;k fdf.or jl any kind of palm tree.

B) fdlh Hkh izdkj ds rkM+ ds isM+ ls B) Unfermented juice drawn


fudkyk x;k vfdf.or jl from any kind of palm tree

C) “A” vkSj “B” nksuksa C) Both “A” and “B” above

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

78. NRrhlx< vkcdkjh vf/kfu;e 1915 ds 78. Provision for enhanced


varxZr dfri; vijk/kksa ds Ik”pkrorhZ punishment in case of subsequent
nks’k fl)h ds fy, of.kZr n.M dk conviction for certain crimes
punishable under Chhattisgarh
izko/kku gS :-
Excise Act 1915 is provided
A) /kkjk 34(1) esa under :-

A) Section 34(1)
B) /kkjk 34(2) esa
B) Section 34(2)
C) /kkjk 36 esa
C) Section 36
D) /kkjk 45 esa D) Section 45

C74E - 2020 30D


79. NRrhlx< vkcdkjh vf/kfu;e 1915 dh 79. Section 66 of the Chhattisgarh
/kkjk 66 lacaf/kr gS Excise Act 1915 relates to:-

A) Limitation of suits
A) oknksa ds fy, ifjlhek
B) Recovery of Government dues
B) “kklu dks ns; /kuksa dh olwyh
C) Power of State Government to
C) vf/kfu;e ds micU/kksa ls NwV nsus dh exempt from the provisions of
jkT; ljdkj dh “kfDr the Act

D) okj.V ds fcuk ryk”kh ysus dh “kfDr D) Power to search without


warrant

80. /kkjk 138 ijØkE; fy[kr vf/kfu;e 80. When is an offence under Section
1881 dk vijk/k dc ”keuh; gS 138 of Negotiable Instruments
Act 1881 compoundable ?
A) tc pS d dh jkf”k 5,00,000/-
# rd gks A) If the cheque amount is upto
Rs. 5,00,000/-
B) tc psd dh jkf”k 10,00,000/-
B) If the cheque amount is
# rd gks
Rs. 10,00,000/-
C) tc pSd dh jkf”k 20,00,000/- C) If the cheque amount is upto
# rd gks Rs. 20,00,000/-

D) pSd fdlh Hkh jkf”k ds fy, gks D) Cheque for any amount

81. “kCnkoyh ^bysDVªkfud izk:Ik esa pSd^ 81. The term ‘a Cheque in the
ijØkE; fy[kr vf/kfu;e 1881 es a electronic form’ is defined in
ifjHkkf’kr gS :- Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
under :-
A) /kkjk 6(a) esa
A) Section 6(a)
B) /kkjk 6(b) esa B) Section 6(b)
C) /kkjk 6 ds 1(a) dk Li’Vhdj.k C) Explanation 1(a) of Section 6
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

C74E - 2020 31D


82. ijØkE; fy[kr vf/kfu;e 1881 dh 82. Under Section 138 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act 1881,
/kkjk 138 ds varxZr fu/kkZfjr vf/kdre
the maximum punishment
ltk gS prescribed is

A) ,d o’kZ rd dk dkjkokl vkSj psd A) Imprisonment upto One year


and fine upto the amount of
dh jkf”k rd tqekZuk cheque
B) nks o’kZ rd dk dkjkokl vkSj psd B) Imprisonment upto Two
dh jkf”k rd tqekZuk years and fine upto the
amount of cheque
C) nks o’kZ rd dk dkjkokl vkSj psd C) Imprisonment upto Two
dh jkf”k dk nks xquk rd tqekZuk years and fine upto the twice
the amount of cheque
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
D) None of the above

83. ijØkE; fy[kr vf/kfu;e 1881 ds 83. As per Negotiable Instruments


vuqlkj fofue; i= gS Act 1881, a ‘Bill of Exchange’ is:-

A) Hkqxrku dk l”kZr opu A) A Conditional promise to pay


B) An Unconditional order to pay
B) Hkqxrku gsrq fu%”krZ vkns”k
C) An Unconditional promise to
C) Hkqxrku gsrq fu%”krZ opu pay
D) None of the above
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

84. ijØkE; fy[kr vf/kfu;e 1881 dh 84. A ‘Demand Draft’ is defined


/kkjk ds varxZr fMekaM M—k¶V ifjHkkf’kr gS under section________of the
Negotiable Instruments Act 1881

A) /kkjk 17 A) Section 17
B) /kkjk 18(B) B) Section 18(B)

C) /kkjk 85(A) C) Section 85(A)

D) /kkjk 7 D) Section 7

C74E - 2020 32D


85. fofufnZ’V vuqrks’k vf/kfu;e dh /kkjk 6 85. A suit for possession of an
ds varxZr LFkkoj laifRr ds dCtk ds immovable property under
fy, okn yk;k tk ldrk gS section 6 of the Specific Relief Act
can be filed within:-
A) csn[kyh ls 6 ekg ds Hkhrj
A) 6 months of dispossession
B) csn[kyh ls 1 o’kZ ds Hkhrj
B) 1 year of dispossession
C) csn[kyh ls 3 o’kksZa ds Hkhrj
C) 3 years of dispossession
D) csn[kyh ls 12 o’kksZa ds Hkhrj D) 12 years of dispossession

86. fofufnZ’V vuqrks’k vf/kfu;e dh fdl 86. Under which Section of Specific
/kkjk eas fdlh fy[kr dks Hkkxr%] jn~n Relief Act 1963, the provision for
fd, tk ldus dk izko/kku fd;k x;k gS partial cancellation of an
A) /kkjk 31 instrument is made

B) /kkjk 27 A) Section 31
B) Section 27
C) /kkjk 32
C) Section 32
D) /kkjk 29
D) Section 29

87. v/;k; 6 fofufnZ’V vuqrks’k vf/kfu;e ds 87. A declaration made under


v/khu dh xbZ ?kks’k.kk,aW ca/kudkjh gS Chapter 6 of Specific Relief Act
1963, is binding on
A) okn ds i{kdkj ij
A) The parties to the suit
B) i{kdkjksa ds ek/;e ls nkok djus
okys O;fDr B) Person claiming through the
Parties to the suit
C) mi;qZDr A vkSj B nksuksa
C) Both A and B above
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

88. fofufnZ’V vuqrks’k vf/kfu;e 1963 dh 88. Which of the following sections of
dkSulh /kkjk mu ekeyksa ls lacaf/kr gS the Specific Relief Act 1963, deals
ftlesa vkns”k ukeatwj fd;k tk ldrk gS with cases where an injunction
\ may be refused ?
A) /kkjk 38 A) Section 38
B) /kkjk 39 B) Section 39
C) /kkjk 41 C) section 41
D) /kkjk 42 D) Section 42

C74E - 2020 33D


89. ^ywV^ dk iz;kl Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk dh 89. Under which section of IPC
fdl /kkjk ds varxZr n.Muh; gS\ attempt to commit Robbery is
punishable ?
A) /kkjk 392
A) Section 392
B) /kkjk 393 B) Section 393
C) /kkjk 395 C) Section 395

D) /kkjk 396 D) Section 396

90. Hkkjrh; naM lafgrk dk dkSu lk izko/kku 90. Which provision of the Indian
dgrk gS&^dksbZ dk;Z vijk/k ugha gS tks 7 Penal Code says, “Nothing is an
o’kZ ls de vk;q ds f”k”kq }kjk dh tkrh offence which is done by a child
gS under 7 years of age”?

A) Section 79
A) /kkjk 79
B) /kkjk 80 B) Section 80

C) /kkjk 82 C) Section 82

D) /kkjk 85 D) Section 85

91. Hkkjrh; lafgrk dh fuEu esa ls dkSu lh 91. Which one of the following
/kkjk vkijkf/kd cy ls lacaf/kr gS\ provision of Indian Penal Code
relates to “Criminal Force”?

A) /kkjk 349 A) Section 349


B) /kkjk 350 B) Section 350
C) /kkjk 351 C) Section 351
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of above

C74E - 2020 34D


92. fuEu esa ls Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk dh dkSu 92. Which one of the following section
lh /kkjk djsUlh uksVksa vFkok cSd uksVksa ds of the Indian Penal Code relates
dwV dj.k ds vijk/k ls lacaf/kr gS\ with punishment for
counterfeiting currency notes or
Bank notes ?
A) /kkjk 489A
A) Section 489A
B) /kkjk 489B
B) Section 489B
C) /kkjk 489C C) Section 489C
D) /kkjk 489D D) Section 489D

93. ,d iqfyl vf/kdkjh ,d O;fDr ls d¨VZ 93. If a police officer arrested and
dk tekur vkns”k is”k djus ds ckn Hkh detained a person in the lockup
fxj¶rkj dj ykWd vi esa fu#) djrk despite producing the bail order
gS] iqfyl vf/kdkjh nks’kh gS :- from the Court, police officer is
guilty of :-
A) vigj.k A) Abduction
B) lnks’k vojks/k B) Wrongful restraint
C) lnks’k ifjjks/k C) Wrongful Confinement
D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of the above

94. fdlh L=h ls ySafxd vuqxzg ds fy, ekaWx 94. A demand or request for sexual
;k vuqjks/k Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk ds varxZr favour from a woman is a
n.Muh; vijk/k gS :- punishable offence under Indian
Penal Code Under :-
A) /kkjk 354(A) esa
A) Section 354(A)
B) /kkjk 354(B) esa
B) Section 354(B)
C) /kkjk 354(C) esa C) Section 354(C)

D) /kkjk 354(D) esa D) Section 354(D)

C74E - 2020 35D


95. Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk dh fdl /kkjk ds 95. Under which section of the IPC,
varxZr lkewfgd cykRlax dk vijk/k Gang rape is punishable?
n.Muh; gS\
A) Section 376(A)
A) /kkjk 376(A)
B) Section 376(B)
B) /kkjk 376(B)
C) Section 376(C)
C) /kkjk 376(C)
D) Section 376(D)
D) /kkjk 376(D)

96. Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk ds /kkjk 499 ds 96. Under section 499 of Indian
varxZr ekugkuh ds vijk/k ds fy, fdrus Penal Code how many exceptions
viokn izko/kkfur gS\ are provided for the offence of
defamation?
A) 5
A) 5
B) 8 B) 8
C) 9 C) 9

D) 10 D) 10

97. fuEu esa ls Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk dh dkSu 97. Which one of the following
lh /kkjk izdksiu ij LosPNk migfr dkfjr sections of the Indian Penal Code
relates to punishment for
djus ds n.M ls lacaf/kr gS\
voluntarily causing hurt on
A) /kkjk 324 provocation ?

B) /kkjk 332 A) Section 324


B) Section 332
C) /kkjk 334
C) Section 334
D) /kkjk 323 D) Section 323

C74E - 2020 36D


98. fuEu esa ls Hkkjrh; n.M lafgrk dh dkSu 98. Which one of the following section
of Indian Penal Code relates with
lh /kkjk fjf’V ds vijk/k ds n.M ls
punishment for mischief ?
lacaf/kr gS\

A) /kkjk 426 A) Section 426

B) /kkjk 427 B) Section 427

C) /kkjk 428 C) Section 428

D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha D) None of above

99. laifRr varj.k vf/kfu;e dh fdl /kkjk 99. Under which section of the
esa laifRr varj.k ifjHkkf’kr gS\ Transfer of property Act “Transfer
of Property” is defined ?
A) /kkjk 5
A) Section 5
B) /kkjk 6
B) Section 6
C) /kkjk 7 C) Section 7
D) /kkjk 8 D) Section 8

100. ;fn nku dk izfrxzg.k djus ls iwoZ 100. If the donee dies before the
acceptance of the gift, the gift is
vknkrk dh e`R;q gks tkrh gS] ogkaW nku
gksrk gS
A) Illegal
A) voS/k B) Valid
B) oS/k C) Void
C) “kwU; D) Voidable
D) “kwU;dj.kh;

C74E - 2020 37D

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