15/03/2025 Code-B_Phase-1

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Chemistry: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Botany: Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations
Zoology: Structural Organization in Animals, Biomolecules

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

PHYSICS

1. A particle moving on a circular path experiences centripetal 3. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with speed v = 20 m s–1
force F. If the radius of circle is reduced to half and its strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall as
angular speed becomes twice, then centripetal force on it shown. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.05 seconds,
becomes then average force acting on the ball is
(1) 2F

(2) F

(3) 8F
(4) 4F

2. A heavy chain of length L, lies on top of a horizontal table. If

the coefficient of friction between the chain and the table is
0.20, then maximum length of chain that can hang over
edge of the table is

(1)
3
L
4

(1) 173.2 N
(2) 4

5
L

(2) 346.2 N
(3)
L

6
(3) 200 N
(4)
7

8
L (4) 100 N

1
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

4. Given below are two statements: 7. Which of the following graph shows the correct variation of
Statement-I: A block is at rest on an inclined plane as kinetic energy (KE) and linear momentum (P) of a particle?
shown. If the coefficient of friction between the block and
inclined plane is μ, then frictional force acting on block is
mgsinθ.
Statement-II: The net contact force on the block is mg.
(1)

(2)

In the light of the above statements, choose the most

appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3)
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

5. A horizontal force of 10 N is just sufficient to hold a block

stationary against a vertical wall. If coefficient of friction
between the block and wall is 0.25 then the weight of the
block will be
(4)

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

8. A block of mass 2 kg is free to move along x-axis. Initially it
is at rest and thereafter it is subjected to time-dependent
force F(t) along x-direction, whose variation with time (t) is
shown. The kinetic energy of particle at t = 4 s will be

(1) 5.2 N
(2) 2.5 N
(3) 6.8 N
(4) 4.5 N
6. A particle of mass 1 kg is projected with a speed of 20 m s–
1 in vertically upward direction. The work done by force of
gravitation during the time while particle goes up will be (1) 8 J
(Ignore the effect of air resistance)
(2) 12 J
(1) –100 J
(3) 24 J
(2) –200 J
(4) 16 J
(3) –50 J
(4) –400 J

2
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

9. A light rope is wrapped around a pulley (disc) of mass 4 kg 12. →

and radius 20 cm which is free to rotate about it’s axis on a A force F

ˆ
= (2 î + 3 ĵ + 4k) N is acting at point
hinge. A block of mass 2 kg is tied with free end of the rope ˆ ˆ ˆ
(2 i + 2 j + 2k) m . The magnitude of its torque about origin
and released as shown. If there is no slipping of rope then will be
match the column I and column II.
–
(1) 4√6 Nm
–
(2) 2√6 Nm
–
(3) 6√2 Nm
–
(4) 3√2 Nm

13. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude

which is always perpendicular to velocity of particle. Some
statements are given below based on above information.
(a) Velocity of particle is constant.
Column (b) Kinetic energy of particle is constant
Column I
II (c) The acceleration of particle is variable
(d) Angular momentum of the particle about the centre is
The velocity in (m/s) of the block at t = 2 s
a. (i) 100 constant.
will be
The correct statement(s) is/are
The angular velocity (rad/s) of the pulley
b. (ii) 50 (1) (b) and (c) only
at t = 2 s, nearly is
Kinetic energy (J) of the block at, t = 2 s (2) (b) and (d) only
c. (iii) 10
will be (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) 14. A 50 kg girl uses ladder to climb 30 m above ground in 2
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) minutes. The average power consumed by the girl is [g = 10
ms–2]
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(1) 120 W
SAD_LYFFF
10. A particle SAD_LYFFF
of mass m is performing uniform circular motion. If SAD_LYFFF
its radius is doubled and kinetic energy is reduced to one (2) 100 W
fourth, its angular momentum will
(3) 80 W
(1) remain same
(4) 125 W
(2) become double
15. A person of mass 60 kg is standing on a platform attached
(3) become half to rope and pulley as shown. If mass of platform is 40 kg
and the system is at rest, then normal reaction on the feet of
(4) become four times
person will be
11. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass M and
radius R about a line parallel to the axis of cylinder and
tangential to the surface of cylinder will be
2

(1) 3M R

(2) 7M R

(3) 2M R

(4)
2
5M R

(1) 20g
(2) 15g
(3) 10g
(4) 5g

3
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

16. Given below are two statements: 21. A body of mass m moving with velocity v suddenly breaks
Statement-I: A person standing freely in a bus experiences into two pieces. One part having mass m

4
remains
backward push when bus start suddenly. stationary. The velocity of the other part will be
Statement-II: An inertial frame must always remain at rest.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (1) v
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(2) 2v
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) 3v

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

4

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (4) 4v

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 22. The system shown below is in equilibrium. The correct
option regarding T1 and T2 is [T1 & T2 are tensions in the
17. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough horizontal
surface where coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.25 and strings]
coefficient of static friction is 0.3. If an external force, F = 5 N
is applied on the block then frictional force acting on the
block will be

(1) 4 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 6 N
(1) T1 > T 2
(4) Zero
(2) T2 > T 1
18. When two blocks kept at rest initially start-moving towards
each other due to their mutual interaction, their (3) T1 = T 2

(1) Velocities are equal and opposite (4) T1 = 0

(2) Acceleration is equal and opposite 23. A cyclist riding the bicycle at a speed of 108 kmph takes a
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
turn around a circular road of radius 150 m without
(3) Their kinetic energies are equal
skidding. The angle with the horizontal plane of circular
(4) Their linear momentum is equal and opposite
motion at which cyclist will bend is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
19. Change in kinetic energy of a body is equal to
(1) 45o
Work done by conservative forces acting on the body
(1)
only (2) 90
∘ −1
− tan (
3
)
5

Work done by non-conservative forces acting on the

(2)
body only (3) 90
∘ −1
+ tan (
5
)
3

(3) Work done by external forces acting on the body only

(4) Work done by all the forces acting on the body (4) 90
∘ −1
+ tan (
3

8
)

20. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) 24. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree with a
and Reason (R) constant acceleration. If the breaking strength of the branch
Assertion (A): If a body is in equilibrium while suspended is 75% of the weight of the monkey, then minimum
vertically with the help of a string then tension in the string acceleration with which the monkey can slide down without
balances the weight of the body.
breaking the branch is
Reason (R): Static friction force is a self adjusting force.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given (1) g
below.
(2)
3g

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 4

(1)
explanation of (A). g
(3) 2

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) g
explanation of (A). (4) 4

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false and (R) is also false.

4
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

25. → → 29. Consider a car and a bus of mass M1 and M2 respectively.

If A = 2ˆi + 3ˆj − k
ˆ
and ˆ ˆ ˆ
B = i + j + αk are perpendicular If they are moving with same velocity, then the ratio of their
vectors, then the value of α will be stopping distance under the influence of same retarding
(1) 3 force will be

(2) 2 (1)
M1

M2

(3) 5
(2) 1
(4) 7 2
M1

26. A body of mass m is projected with velocity u, at an angle θ (3) 2

M
2

from horizontal with the ground. When it is at the maximum

height, then instantaneous power delivered by gravitational (4)
M1

force will be 2M2

(1) Zero 30. Choose the correct relation among the following for vectors
→ → →

(2)
mgu cot θ
A , B and C .
√2

mgu tan θ
(1) → → → →

(3) √2
A ⋅ B = B ⋅ A

→ → → → → → →
mgu (2) A ⋅(B + C ) = A ⋅ B + A ⋅ C
(4) 2√2

(3) → →
27. A particle attached to a string of length R undergoes vertical A ⋅ A = A

circular motion. If u is the velocity imparted in the horizontal

(4) Both (1) and (2)
direction at lowest point A, then the condition for the particle
to leave the circle is 31. → →
a and b are the magnitudes of a and b respectively. If
→ → → →
a ⋅ b = 0, then magnitude of a × b is
−−
(1) √ab

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF (2)

ab

2
SAD_LYFFF
(3) ab
(4) Zero
−−−−
(1) 0 < u ≤ √2gR
32. A bomb, at rest explodes itself. The centre of mass of the
−−−− −−−− system (assume no gravity)
(2) √2gR < u < √5gR

−−−−
(1) Describes a parabola
(3) u ≥ √5gR
(2) Moves vertically upward
−−−−
(4) u ≥ √7gR
(3) Moves horizontally
28. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly inelastic (4) Remains at rest
collision is
33. If a man standing on the periphery of a stationary disc (free
(1) 1 to rotate about its centre) starts walking in the anticlockwise
direction along the boundary, then
(2) 0
(1) The disc remains stationary
(3) 0.5
(2) The disc rotates in the clockwise direction
(4) –1
(3) The disc rotates in the anticlockwise direction
The disc rotates in either anticlockwise direction or
(4)
remain at rest

5
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

34. The angular momentum [in kg m2 s–1] of a particle of mass 38. A torque τ = 6t acts on a body, where τ is in N m and t is in
5 kg, moving with a speed of 20 m/s in a straight line (as seconds. The total angular impulse acting on the body in
shown in figure), about the origin is time interval t = 0 to t = 2 s is

(1) 22 kg m2/s

(2) 2 kg m2/s

(3) 12 kg m2/s

(4) 10 kg m2/s

39. A flywheel is rotating about its main geometrical axis with

angular speed ω0. The ratio of linear velocities of two points
(1) –
100√2
on the wheel at a distance R and R
from centre
3

(2) Zero respectively [R = radius of flywheel] is

(3) 300 (1) 3 : 1

(4)
300 (2) 1 : –
√3
√2

(3) 1 : 2
35. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 50 rad/s,
an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N m. The (4) 1 : 1
power of engine is
40. In a vertical circular motion as shown in figure, if particle of
−−
−
(1) 36 kW mass m is imparted a speed √6gl at the lowest point, then
(2) 18 kW tension in the string of length l at the topmost point will be

(3) 9 kW
(4) 3 kW
36. An external force of P = 10 N is acting on a block A as
shown in the given figure where blocks A and B have
massesSAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
of 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. Find the force exerted SAD_LYFFF
by B on A.
(1) mg
mg
(2) 2

(3) 3

2
mg

(4) 2mg
(1) 2 N 41. A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collide with
another body of mass 6 kg. If two bodies stick together after
(2) 10 N
collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of the system is
(3) 6 N
(1) Zero
(4) 7 N
(2) 288 J
37. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating (3) 172.8 J
disc is given by the equation θ(t) = 3t3 – 4t2. The torque on
the wheel becomes zero at (4) 144 J

(1) t = 2 s

(2)
2
t = s
3

(3) t = 4 s

(4) t =
4

9
s

6
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

42. In which of the following figures, the work done by force 44. Which of the given forces is a pseudo-force?
→
F in displacing an object through a distance d is positive? (1) Normal force
→ →
(θ is the angle between F and d ) (2) Friction force
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Centrifugal force
45. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 :
(1) 3. They are connected in parallel and the net force constant
is k′, then k′ will be equal to
(1) k
(2) 11k
(3) 7k
(4) 9k

(2)

(3)

(4)
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
43. Which of the following can be negative?
(a) Potential energy
(b) Mechanical energy
(c) Kinetic energy
(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, b
(4) a, b, c

CHEMISTRY

7
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

46. Consider the following reaction, 49. Which among the following does not undergo Hell-Volhard-
Zelinsky reaction?

(1)

Major product (A) is,

(1) (2)

(3)

(2)

(4)

50. Which of the following organic compound(s) undergo(es)

(3) disproportionation reaction with conc. NaOH?
(A) Propionaldehyde
(B) Formaldehyde
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF (C) Butanone SAD_LYFFF
(D) Benzaldehyde
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) and (D) only
(4)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

47. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : (CH3)3C – Cl undergoes hydrolysis
reaction by SN1 mechanism.
⊕

Reason (R) : (CH ) C3 ​ is very stable carbonium ion.

3

In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
48. Which of the following is not a chiral molecule?
(1) 2-Bromobutane
(2) 2-Hydroxybutanoic acid
(3) sec-Butyl alcohol
(4) isobutyl alcohol

8
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

51. 53. Which among the following is a meso compound?

(1)

Product Q in the above reaction is

(1) (2)

(2) (3)

(4)
(3)

54. 1, 1, 1-Trichloroethane on reaction with aqueous KOH

followed by treatment with H3O+, gives

(4) (1) Acetaldehyde

(2) Acetic acid

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF (3) Acetone SAD_LYFFF

52. The correct order of dipole moment of C-X bond in given (4) Ethyl alcohol
species is
55. Which of the following haloalkanes has slowest rate of SN2
(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I reaction?
(2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I (1) 2-chloro-3-methylpentane
(3) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3CI > CH3F (2) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane

(4) CH3F > CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl (3) 2-chloropentane
(4) 1-chloropentane
56. Chloroform on reaction with O2 in presence of light gives

(1) CO2

(2) COCl2
(3) CO
(4) CCl3 – CHO

9
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

57. The structure of the compounds having the common name 59. Consider the given reaction
Ethylidene chloride and Ethylene dichloride respectively Z nO−Cr2 O3

are C O + 2H2 −−−−−−→ X

200−300 atm

573−673 K

Incorrect statement about X is

(1)
(1) It is known as wood spirit
(2) It is highly poisonous in nature
(3) Its 40% solution is known as formalin

(4) It evolves H2 gas on reaction with sodium

(2)
60. Consider the following two statements.
Statement I: o and p-nitrophenols can be separated by
steam distillation.
Statement II: o-nitrophenol forms intramolecular hydrogen
bonding while p-nitrophenol forms intermolecular hydrogen
bonding.
(3) In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(4) CH2=CHCl and CH3CHCl2 (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct

58. In the following reaction, (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

61. Correct order of reactivity of NaHSO3 with the given

carbonyl compounds is

(1) PhCHO > CH3CHO > CH3COCH3

, the major product P is (2) CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > PhCHO

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
(3) PhCHO > CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO
(1) (4) CH3CHO > PhCHO > CH3COCH3

62. Pair of compounds which can be distinguished by haloform

test is
(2) (1) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2OH

(2) CH3CHO and CH3CH2COCH3

(3) CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2COCH3

(3) (4) CH3OH and CH3CH2CHO

(4)

10
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

63. Which of the following will be most easily decarboxylate on 66. The compound which undergoes SN1 reaction with fastest
heating? rate is

(1)
(1)

(2)

(2)
(3)

(4)
(3)

64. Which among the given molecules can exhibit

tautomerism?

(4)

67. Consider the following reaction and identify major product

(1) III only

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
(2) Both II and III
(3) Both I and II
(4) Both I and III

65. Sodium benzoate on heating with soda lime gives (1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)
68. The major product obtained when vapours of tertiary
alcohol is passed over heated copper at 573 K is
(1) an aldehyde
(2) an ketone
(3) a carboxylic acid
(4) an alkene

11
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

69. Anisole on reaction with HI majorly gives 71. Consider the following reaction,

(1)

Intermediate (A) is,

(1)
(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
70. Consider the following statements.
Statement (I) : Haloarenes are less reactive than
haloalkanes towards nucleophilic substitution reaction. 72. Complete the reaction,
Statement (II) : In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen
atom are in conjugation with π-electrons of the ring.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(1) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect
(2) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct
(3) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct
(2)
(4) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect

(3)

(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO

12
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

73. Consider the following sequence, 74. Consider the given sequence of reactions

Major product (B) is,

Major product (C) is

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)
(4)
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

75. Consider the following statements:

(a) Methanal is a gas at room temperature
(b) Methanal and ethanal are miscible with water in all
proportions
(c) Acetone does not form hydrogen bond with water
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only

13
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

76. Consider the following reaction and identify major product 77. Match compounds in List-I with their name in list-II and
(A) choose the correct answer
List-I List-II

a (i) Catechol

b (ii) Resorcinol

(1)
c (iii) Cresol

d (iv) Quinol

(2)

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

(3) 78. Consider the following sequence,

dil. NaOH Heat
CH3 COC H3 −−−→ (A) −
→ (B)

Major product (B) is

(1)
(4)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

79. Which among the following is most acidic in nature? 80. Identify the product (B) formed is the following reaction

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

(4)

81. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option.
List I List II

a. Fittig reaction i.

Reimer-Tiemann
b. ii.
reaction

Williamson
c. iii.
synthesis

Clemmensen
d. iv. R – X + R – O–Na+ →
reduction

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

15
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

82. Consider the following reactions 85. Identify major product (A) in the following reaction,
CH3CH2 – Br + AgNO2 → (A) + AgBr
CH3CH2 – Br + KNO2 → (B) + KBr
Major products (A) and (B) respectively are
(1) CH3CH2NO2 and CH3CH2ONO

(2) CH3CH2NO2 and CH3CH2NO2

(3) CH3CH2ONO and CH3CH2ONO

(4) CH3CH2ONO and CH3CH2NO2

83. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Compound Boiling point (K)
(a) Methoxyethane (i) 322
(1)
(b) Propan-1-ol (ii) 370
(c) Propanone (iii) 281
(d) Propanal (iv) 329
The correct match is
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
84. When ethyl bromide is treated with sodium in presence of (2)
dry ether it yields
(1) But-2-ene
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
(2) Ethane
(3) Ethene
(4) Butane

(3)

(4)

16
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

86. Consider the following reaction sequence, 87. Major product (A) formed in given reaction is

Major product (B) is (1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3) (4)

88. Which among the following ethers is most difficult to

prepare by Williamson’s synthesis?

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

(4)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) C2H5 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

17
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

89. Major product of the given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

90. Consider the following reactions,

Product (A) is

(1) CH3CH2CH2OH

(2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(4) CH3CH2COOH

BOTANY

91. Which of the following contributes to an increase in 93. Technology for biogas production was developed due to the
population density? efforts of
(1) Birth rate and emigration (1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(2) Death rate and immigration (2) Indian Agriculture Research Institute only
(3) Birth rate and immigration (3) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(4) Death rate and emigration Indian Agriculture Reasearch Institute and Khadi and
(4)
Village Industries Commission
92. Find the incorrect match.
94. Tertiary waste water treatment is a
Streptokinase – Used for patients who have undergone
(1)
myocardial infarction (1) Physical process only
(2) Sedimentation – Removal of grit from sewage water (2) Chemical process only
(3) Dragonflies – Are useful to get rid of mosquitoes (3) Physico-chemical process
Lactobacillus – Used for commercial production of (4) Biological process
(4)
vinegar

18
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

95. The main source of biofertilizers are 100.Which of the following is odd w.r.t. roles played by predators
(a) Bacteria in an ecosystem?
(b) Cyanobacteria
They acts as ‘conduits’ for transfer of energy across
(c) Fungi (1)
trophic levels
(d) Adenovirus
Select the correct ones. (2) They keep prey populations under control
(1) a, c and d They render the host more vulnerable to predation by
(3)
(2) a, b and c making it physically weak

(3) a, b and d They help in maintaining species diversity in a

(4)
community
(4) b, c and d
101.Toddy is fermented sap of
96. The biocontrol agents, baculoviruses are
(1) Yeast
(1) Living organisms that attack plant arthropods
(2) Date palm
Pathogens that have negative impacts on plants, birds
(2) (3) Coconut
or even on non-target insects
(4) Caryota urens
Viruses of the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus, which are
(3)
effective against all pathogens in plants. 102.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘BOD’
Excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow During biological treatment, microbes consume the
(4) (1)
spectrum insecticidal applications major part of organic matter, thereby increasing the BOD
97. Sea anemone attached to the body of hermit crab is an It is the amount of oxygen that would be consumed if all
example of (2) the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidised by
bacteria
(1) Commensalism
(2) Protocooperation It is indirectly a measure of organic matter present in the
(3)
wastewater
(3) Amensalism
The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting
(4)
(4) Parasitism potential
98. SelectSAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. parasitism 103.Which of the SAD_LYFFF
following statements regarding Ganga and
Yamuna Action Plan is/are true?
(1) Cuscuta – Is commonly found growing on hedge plants
(a) These plans were initiated by the Ministry of
(2) Liver fluke – Found inside human body Environment and forests for saving these major rivers of our
country from pollution.
(3) Female mosquito – Derives blood from humans (b) It was proposed to build large number of sewage
(4) Ticks – Feed on the external surface of dogs treatment plants, so that only treated sewage may be
discharged in the rivers.
99. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (c) To control water borne diseases by means of water
statements and mark the correct answer from the options treatment process.
given below Select the correct answer from the following options.
Assertion (A): Competition is a detrimental population
interaction in which the superior species may dominate and (1) (b) and (c) only
eliminate the inferior species. (2) (c) only
Reason (R): Experimental removal of the superior
competitor leads to increase in the population of the inferior (3) (b) only
species in a given area. (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

19
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

104.Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and 109.Resource partitioning is an important mechanism of
select the correct option.
(A) Leavening of the bread is caused by the secretion of (1) Competitive exclusion
three enzymes by yeast-Amylase, Maltase and Zymase. (2) Competitive co-existence
(B) In tertiary treatment of water, UV rays are not used for
sewage treatment. (3) Competitive release
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis is a microbial agent used to (4) Competitive interference
control butterfly caterpillars.
(D) Blue green algae add organic matter to the soil, thus 110.Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contains number of
increasing its fertility and alkalinity. vitamins especially
(1) A(T), B(F), C(T), D(F) (1) Vitamin K
(2) A(T), B(T), C(F), D(F) (2) Vitamin D
(3) A(T), B(F), C(T), D(T) (3) Vitamin B12
(4) A(F), B(T), C(F), D(T) (4) Vitamin A
105.Which of the following is the most active, non-symbiotic 111. Match the following columns and select the correct option
nitrogen fixer in rice fields?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Rhizobium (a) Trichoderma polysporum (i) Statins
(2) Aulosira (b) Streptococcus (ii) Citric acid
(3) Azospirillum (c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Cyclosporin A
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Streptokinase
(4) Glomus

106.Read the following statements. (1) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)

Statement (A): Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal
variation in light intensity and duration as cues for timing (2) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
their foraging, reproductive and migration activities.
(3) (a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
Statement (B): Thermoregulation is energetically
expensive for many organisms like shrews and humming (4) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(ii)
birds.
SAD_LYFFF
In the light of the above statements mark theSAD_LYFFF
correct option. SAD_LYFFF
112.Some alcoholic beverages like whisky and brandy cannot
be produced without the process of distillation because
(1) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct
(1) These beverages are not formed from natural products
(2) Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation become
(3) Only statement (B) is correct (2)
inactive at higher temperature
(4) Only statement (A) is correct Brewer’s yeast dies when the alcohol concentration
(3)
reaches about 13 percent
107.Exponential growth results in a ______ when we plot
population density N in relation to time. There is no role of microbes in producing such
(4)
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. beverages
(1) Straight line parallel to the time axis 113.Read the following statements and select the correct
(2) Hyperbolic curve option regarding lactic acid bacteria (LAB).
Statement-A : LAB produce acids that coagulate and
(3) Parabolic curve completely digest the milk proteins.
Statement-B : LAB play very beneficial role in checking
(4) J-shaped curve
disease-causing microbes in our stomach.
108.Barnacles growing on the back of whale is (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Protocooperation (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Commensalism (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Mutualism (4) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Competition
114.The symbiotic mycorrhizal association does not benefit the
plant in enhancing
(1) Resistance to root-borne pathogens
(2) Drought tolerance
(3) Resistance to loss of water through transpiration
(4) Phosphate uptake capacity

20
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

115.Swiss cheese is ripened by 119.Identify the parts A, B and C w.r.t biogas plant and select the
correct option.
(1) Penicillium roquefortii
(2) Penicillium camembertii
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(4) Penicillium notatum

116.Number of deaths in the population during a given period is

called
(1) Natality
(2) Mortality
(3) Immigration
(4) Emigration
(1) A – Sludge, B – N2, C – Gas holder
117.Choose the incorrect option w.r.t expanding population.
(2) A – Gas holder, B – H2, H2S, C – Digester
Pre-reproductive individuals are more than reproductive
(1)
individuals (3) A – Digester, B – N2O2, C – Gas holder
(2) It is represented by an upright triangular age pyramid (4) A – Digester, B – H2S, C – Sludge
(3) Such a population shows negative growth
120.In the exponential growth equation N = N ert, e represents
t 0
Post-reproductive individuals are proportionately fewer
(4)
than reproductive individuals (1) Population density after time t
118.Select the correct statement for a population growing in a (2) Population density at time zero
habitat with limited resources.
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
a. It grows in exponential fashion.
b. Population growth does not maintain equilibrium with (4) The base of natural logarithms
carrying capacity.
121.Allen’s rule states that
c. Equation = (b − d) × N describes a growth pattern
dN

SAD_LYFFFdt
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
Mammals from colder climates have longer ears and
resulting in a J-shaped curve. (1)
d. It shows initially a lag phase, followed by the phases of limbs to maximise heat loss
acceleration and deceleration and finally an asymptote. Mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and
(2)
(1) a, b and c limbs to minimise heat loss

(2) a and c only Mammals from tropical climates have shorter ears and
(3)
limbs to minimise heat loss
(3) c only
Warm blooded animals have larger body size in colder
(4) d only (4)
climate than in hotter area
122.Amensalism is a type of interspecific interaction where
(1) One species benefits without affecting the other
(2) Both the species are benefitted by the interaction
(3) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(4) Neither of the species is harmed
123.If 5 individuals of a population of 50 fruit flies died in an
interval of one week, the death rate of the population during
this period (in terms of individuals per fruit fly per week) will
be
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.11
(4) 0.15

21
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

124.Salt concentration in inland water is 129.Which of the following are correct examples of population
interactions, which show, ‘+’ ‘–‘ pattern?
(1) 30 – 35 parts per thousand (a) Cuckoo laying its eggs in a crow nest
(2) 35 – 50 parts per thousand (b) Penicillium inhibiting growth of surrounding bacteria
(c) Pisaster and invertebrates in the American Pacific Coast
(3) 10 parts per thousand (d) Flamingoes and zooplanktons
(4) < 5 parts per thousand (e) Abingdon tortoise and goats
Select the correct ones
125.Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. integrated pest
(1) a, c and e only
management.
It involves tactics for control of single pest on one or (2) b, d and e only
(1)
more crops (3) a, c and d only
It uses the most effective, economically safest, (4) b, d and c only
ecologically sustainable and sociologically acceptable
(2) 130.The organisms used in bread and beer production is
combination of physical, chemical and biological
methods to limit the harmful effect of crop pests (1) Yeast
The overall objective of IPM is to maximise nutrient (2) Lactic acid bacteria
(3)
content in the crops for pests
(3) Candida
IPM uses pest resistant or tolerant varieties, predator
(4) and pathogens, use of parasites, summer ploughing, (4) Penicillium
late planting for controlling plant pests
131.Blood cholesterol lowering agent statins are produced by
126.Which of the following bacteria fix N2 only in free living a/an
condition?
(1) Bacterium
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Fungus
(2) Nostoc
(3) Cyanobacterium
(3) Anabaena
(4) Alga
(4) Rhizobium
132.Mark the correct statement w.r.t. the figure given below.
127.WhichSAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
of the following is odd w.r.t. the response of SAD_LYFFF
organisms to abiotic factors.
In bacteria, thick walled spores help them to survive
(1)
unfavourable conditions.
Many animals particularly birds during winter undertake
(2)
long-distance migration to hospitable areas.
In higher plants, every vegetative structure helps to tide
(3)
over periods of stress.
(4) Bears undergo hibernation during winter.
128.Density of population (N) at time t can be correctly
expressed as
(1) N(t + 1) = Nt + [(B + E) – (D + I)] It is an aerobic tank that shows growth of useful
(1)
microbes into flocs
(2) N(t + 1) = Nt × [(B + I) – (D + E)]
It is an anaerobic sludge digester that has anaerobic
(3) N(t + 1) = Nt + [(B + D) – (E + I)] (2) bacteria, that digest the bacteria and fungi present in
sludge
(4) N(t + 1) = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
The given figure depicts physical process which
(3)
involves the removal of small and large particles
It is an activated sludge digester which digests the
(4)
sludge aerobically

22
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

133.The correctly matched population interaction is 135.Match the list I with List II.
Species A Species B Name of interaction List II ( Name of
List I (interacting species) the
(1) + – Mutualism
interaction)
(2) – + Competition An orchid growing as an epiphyte
a. (i) Parasitism
(3) – – Predation on a mango branch
(4) + – Parasitism Flamingoes in South American
b. (ii) Mutualism
lakes and resident fishes
(1) (1) c. Marine fishes and copepods (iii) Commensalism
(2) (2) Relationship between a fungus
d. and photosynthetic algae or (iv) Competition
(3) (3) cyanobacteria in lichens.
(4) (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given below
134.Find the correct graphical representation of organismic (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
response w.r.t. conformers. (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(1)

(2)
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

(3)

(4)

23
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

ZOOLOGY

136.A heteropolymer which exists as the most abundant protein 141.During hibernation, frog respires with
in the animal world
(1) Lungs only
(1) Is absent in blood
(2) Moist skin
(2) Acts as a transport protein for glucose
(3) Buccal cavity only
(3) Is irregularly arranged in tendons
(4) External gills and lungs
(4) Is tightly packed in areolar tissue
142.Match column I with column II.
137.A secondary metabolite whose monomeric unit is glucose Column I Column II
and is present in the cell walls of plants
a. Trypsin (i) Fights infectious
(1) Possess a N-terminal end at the left side agents
(2) Gives blue-black colour upon treatment with iodine b. Antibody (ii) Responsible for
sensory reception
(3) Has a non-reducing right end c. Receptor (iii) Proteinaceous
(4) Does not contain complex helices in its structure enzyme
d. Water (iv) Abundant chemical
138.The sugar present in DNA is a in living organisms
(1) Hexose sugar Select the correct option.

(2) Pentose sugar in which oxygen is present at 2nd carbon (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) Monosaccharide (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(4) Dissaccharide (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
139.Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: The type of co-factor that interacts with 143.Choose the correct match.
SAD_LYFFF
peroxidase is actually an organic compound SAD_LYFFF
which is tightly SAD_LYFFF
bound to the apoenzyme. Prosthetic group – Transiently associated with protein
(1)
Statement B: Catalase and carboxypeptidase possess part of an enzyme
same type of inorganic co-factor like haem. (2) Co-enzyme NAD – Contains vitamin riboflavin
(1) Both statements are correct Metal ion – Forms coordination bonds with the side
(3)
(2) Both statements are incorrect chains at the active site of an enzyme

(3) Only statement A is correct Apoenzyme – Non-protein part of a catalytically active

(4)
enzyme
(4) Only statement B is correct
144.The structure of protein which provides positional
140.Bidder's canal is present in A of frog and is responsible information of amino acids is ‘X’ that possess
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
for transportation of B to C that comes out of kidneys (1) Hydrogen bonds
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯
and opens into cloaca.
Choose the option which fills the blanks A, B and C (2) Peptide bonds
correctly. (3) Disulphide bonds
A B C (4) Ester bonds
1. Testis Sperms Ureters
145.Read the following statements.
2. Kidney Urine Ureters Statement (A): Zwitterion of all the amino acids exists at the
3. Kidney Sperms Urinogenital duct basic pH only.
Statement (B): In the solutions of different pH, the structure
4. Testis Sperms Urinogenital duct of amino acid changes.
Select the correct option.
(1) (1)
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(2) (2)
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(3) (3)
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) (4)
(4) Only statement (B) is correct

24
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

146.How many endocrine glands among the following are found 152.While analysing the chemical composition of the living
in frog? tissue, the sample is generally grinded with the help of
Thyroid, Thymus, Pineal body, Adrenals, Gonads, mortar and pestle in
Parathyroid, Pituitary
(1) CH3COOH
Choose the correct option.
(2) Cl3CCOOH
(1) Seven
(2) Six (3) NaCl

(3) Five (4) CH3(CH2)14COOH

(4) Four 153.Read the following statements and choose the option with
correct statements only.
147.Transition state structure in an enzyme catalysed reaction (a) Enzyme activity increases above the optimum
has/is temperature.
(a) Low stability (b) Enzymes get denatured at high temperature.
(b) Low potential energy (c) Competitive inhibitor competes with the product formed.
(c) High potential energy (d) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily
(d) High stability inactive state.
(e) An intermediate structural state
Select the option with correct set. (1) (a) and (c)

(1) Only (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)

(2) Only (b), (d) and (e) (3) (a) and (b)

(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (e) 154.Frog's eyes are protected under water by the presence of

148.The walls of internal organs like stomach and intestine have (1) Retina
muscle fibres that are (2) Movable upper eyelid
(1) Cylindrical and branched (3) Nictitating membrane
(2) Fusiform and syncytial (4) Immovable lower eyelid
SAD_LYFFF
(3) Tapered at both ends and uninucleated SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
155.Assertion (A): Vitamins are crucial component of many co-
(4) Cylindrical and unbranched enzymes.
Reason (R): Vitamins form permanent, coordination bonds
149.Glucose can be ultimately metabolised aerobically or with the substrate and enzyme.
anaerobically along similar metabolic pathways to form any In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
of the following end products except
Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
(1) Ethanol (1)
explanation of the (A)
(2) Pyruvic acid Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct
(2)
(3) Lactic acid explanation of the (A)

(4) Glutamic acid (3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
150.Select the correct match regarding the mouthparts present
in cockroach. 156.In primary structure of a protein, methionine is located at left
(1) Labrum – Lower lip end of polypeptide chain while glutamic acid is located at
right end. Which of the following statements is true with
(2) Labium – Upper lip respect to above mentioned protein?
(3) Hypopharynx – Acts as tongue (1) Methionine is a C-terminal amino acid
(4) Maxillae – Bear photoreceptors (2) Glutamic acid is the first amino acid of the chain
151.Statement, which is correct w.r.t. double helical structure of (3) Glutamic acid is N-terminal amino acid
DNA given by Watson and Crick:
(4) Methionine is the first amino acid of the chain
(1) A of one strand bonds with G of another strand
(2) C of one strand bonds with T of another strand
The backbone is formed by sugar-phosphate-sugar
(3)
chain
The nitrogen bases are projected more or less parallel
(4)
to this backbone but face outside

25
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

157.Aggregates of cell membranes as vesicles after 164.Which of the following biomolecules has both glycosidic
homogenisation are obtained in which fraction after and ester bonds?
chemical analysis of a living animal tissue?
(1) Adenine
(1) Acid-soluble fraction
(2) Guanosine
(2) Acid-insoluble fraction
(3) Cytidylic acid
(3) Filtrate fraction
(4) Acetic acid
(4) Micromolecular fraction
165.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. catalytic action of an
158.In female cockroach, genital pouch is formed by _______ enzyme.
sterna.
The first step is binding of substrate to active site of
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. (1)
enzyme
(1) Only 7th and 8th The substrate always binds irreversibly with the enzyme
(2)
and prevents the latter from breaking down its bonds
(2) 7th, 8th and 9th
The binding of substrate with enzyme leads to the
(3) Only 6th and 7th (3)
formation of transient enzyme substrate complex

(4) Only 9th and 10th After the product is formed, the free enzyme can bind to
(4)
another molecule of substrate
159.Select the incorrect match w.r.t. male frogs.
166.Bones have___A___and___B___ground susbstance rich
(1) Liver and pancreas - Digestive glands in collagen fibres which give bone its___C___
Choose the option that fill the blanks correctly
(2) Circulatory system - Closed type
A B C
(3) Cloaca - Passage for faecal matter, urine and sperms
(1) Hard Pliable Strength
(4) Conus arteriosus - Dorsal side of heart (2) Solid Pliable Flexibility
160.The property that is found in muscle fibres and not in nerve (3) Solid Non-Pliable Stretchability
fibres which enables muscle fibers to shorten its length, is
(4) Hard Non-Pliable Strength
(1) Conductivity
SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF (1) (1) SAD_LYFFF
(2) Contractility
(2) (2)
(3) Excitability
(3) (3)
(4) Insulation
(4) (4)
161.Communication junctions at some fusion points allow which
of the given muscles to contract as a unit? 167.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
americana.
(1) Striated, voluntary muscles
Anterior end of the head bears appendages forming
(2) Unstriated, involuntary multiunit muscles (1)
piercing and sucking type of mouth parts.
(3) Voluntary, skeletal muscles (2) Anal cerci are present in both males and females.
(4) Striated, involuntary muscles (3) Only male possesses titillator.
162.The brush-bordered epithelial cells useful for absorptive 100-150 yellow coloured thin Malpighian tubules are
functions in humans are mainly present in (4)
present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
(1) PCT of nephron and lining of intestine 168.How many of the structures given in the box below are
(2) Ducts of salivary glands and dry surface of skin examples of connective tissue?
Cartilage, Bone, Tendon, Ligament, Neuroglia, Blood
(3) Alveoli and fallopian tubes
Choose the correct option.
(4) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(1) Three
163.Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by
(2) Four
mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds
belong to class named (3) Five
(1) Hydrolases (4) Six
(2) Lyases
(3) Dehydrogenases
(4) Isomerases

26
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

169.In a double stranded DNA molecule, 19% of bases were 174.Which among the following options represents correct set
shown to be adenine. The percentage of other three bases of aromatic amino acids?
expected to be present in this DNA are
(1) Glutamic acid, Valine
(1) G = 19%, C = 31%, T = 31%
(2) Alanine, Lysine
(2) G = 31%, C = 31%, T = 19%
(3) Valine, Serine
(3) G = 19%, C = 19%, T = 31%
(4) Tryptophan, Phenylalanine
(4) G = 19%, C = 31%, T = 19%
175.Muscle fibres X in response to stimulation, then Y and
170.Select the correct match. ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
return to their original state in a coordinated fashion.¯¯¯¯¯
(1) Glycerol – Tetrahydroxypropane Identify X and Y and select the correct option.
X Y
Arachidonic acid – 19 carbon compound including
(2) (1) Lengthen Shorten
carboxyl carbon
(2) Shorten Contract
(3) Phospholipid – Lecithin
(3) Contract Relax
(4) Palmitic acid – Molecular weight more than 1000 Da
(4) Relax Shorten
171.Select the option representing only the correct statements
(1) (1)
w.r.t. morphology of frogs.
(a). A membranous tympanum is present on either side of (2) (2)
their eyes.
(b). They do not have webbed digits in hind limbs for (3) (3)
swimming. (4) (4)
(c). Mucous glands are present in their highly vascularised
skin. 176.Select the correct match.
(d). Their body is divisible into head, neck and trunk.
(1) Unicellular glandular epithelium – Salivary gland
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) Ciliated epithelium – Columnar cells bearing villi in GIT
(2) (b) and (d)
Multicellular glandular epithelium – Goblet cells of
(3)
(3) (a) and (b) alimentary canal
(4) (c) SAD_LYFFF
and (d) SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF
(4) Cuboidal epithelium – Epithelium of PCT of nephron

172.Choose the correct statement. 177.In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut in correct
sequence and choose the correct option.
Nucleic acids like DNA and RNA are found in the acid-
(1) soluble fraction upon chemical analysis of a living (1) Mouth → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Crop → Gizzard
tissue.
(2) Mouth → Crop → Gizzard → Oesophagus → Pharynx
N-acetylglucosamine, a modified amino sugar is one of
(2) (3) Mouth → Gizzard → Crop → Pharynx → Oesophagus
the monomer of a heteropolymer ‘chitin’.
(4) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard
If the phosphate group is removed from cytidylic acid,
(3)
the resulting molecule would be cytidine. 178.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the nervous system of
If sugar group is removed from cytosine, the resulting frogs.
(4)
molecule would be cytidine. There are 10 pairs of cranial nerves arising from the
(1)
brain.
173.Read the following statements.
Statement (A): Chondrocytes are enclosed in small The midbrain is characterised by a pair of olfactory
cavities within the matrix secreted by them. (2)
lobes.
Statement (B): Osteocytes are present in spaces called
lacunae. (3) The brain is enclosed in cranium.
Select the correct option. Hind brain consists of cerebellum and medulla
(4)
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect oblongata.

(2) Only statement (A) is correct

(3) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

27
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-02B

179.S – G + S' → S + S' – G

Which of the following category of enzymes will catalyse
this reaction?
(1) Lyases
(2) Isomerases
(3) Transferases
(4) Ligases
180.Assertion (A) : Biocatalysts present in our body accelerate
the rate of biochemical reactions.
Reason (R) : Biocatalysts decrease activation energy of the
reaction.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true

SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF SAD_LYFFF

28