AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL

17/01/2024 Code-A_Phase 1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power, System of Particles & Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, The p-Block Elements (Group-15 to 16), The d and f-Block
Elements
Botany : The Living World, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Biological
Classification
Zoology : Biomolecules-II, Evolution, Breathing and Exchange of Gases

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. In the figure shown if limiting friction for block 2. If a force is applied to a body externally, then
is 10 N then friction acting on the block is it’s momentum’s
(1) Magnitude must vary
(2) Direction must vary
(3) Magnitude may remain constant
(4) Magnitude must remain constant

(1) 10 N
3. The dimension of linear impulse is given as
(2) 5 N
(1) [M0 L–1 T–2 ]
(3) 8 N
(2) [LT–1 ]
(4) 2 N
(3) [ML1 T–1 ]
(4) [M–1 L2 T–3 ]

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
4. The relationship
dp
= m
dv
where symbols 11. The angular velocity of a body is
dt dt →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
have usual meaning is valid for ω = (2 i + j + 5k) rad/s under a torque
(1) System of variable mass →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
τ = (5 i + 2 j + 3k) N-m acting on it.
(2) System of fixed mass
(3) Any kind of system The instantaneous rotational power is
(1) 27 W
(4) No system
(2) 10 W
(3) 18 W
5. The potential energy of a system decreases
if (4) 24 W
(1) Conservative forces do positive work
on the system 12. A light rod of length 90 cm is placed as
(2) Conservative forces do negative work shown. If two forces F1 and F2 is applied for
on the system equilibrium as shown, the ratio of F1 and F2
(3) Conservative forces do no work on the is
system
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6. A body at rest can have

(1) Kinetic energy
(2) Momentum
(3) Potential energy
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) 2:9
(2) 9:2
7. If a vector ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + j +k is perpendicular to the (3) 4:7
ˆ ˆ ˆ
vector ai + j − k , then value of the (4) 7:2
constant a is
(1) Zero
13. The moment of inertia of a body depends on
(2) 1
(1) The mass of body
(3) 2
(2) The distribution of mass in the body
(4) 3
(3) The position of axis of rotation of body
(4) All of these
8. A particle moves along x axis from x = 0 to x
= 2 m under the influence of force F = (7 –
2x + 3x2 )N. The work done during this is 14. Force couple acting on a rigid body
produces
(1) 18 J
(1) Linear motion
(2) 30 J
(2) Rotational motion
(3) 25 J
(3) Vibrational motion
(4) 10 J
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9. A ball is dropped from height 10 m on the

ground. If coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then 15. A particle of mass 2 kg located at the
the height of the ball after 2nd bounce is
ˆ ˆ
position ( i + j) m has a velocity
(1) 0.625 m ˆ ˆ ˆ
2( i – j + k) m/s. Z-component of its
(2) 1.25 m
(3) 2.5 m angular momentum about origin is
(1) Zero
(4) 5 m
(2) +8
(3) 12
10. Statement A: Energy is cause for doing
work and work is the effect. (4) –8
Statement B: Energy is scalar quantity but
power is a vector quantity.
(1) A and B are correct
(2) A and B are incorrect
(3) A is correct and B is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and B is correct

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
16. →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
21. If the given system is in equilibrium then
A force F = (2 i + 4 j + 6k) N displaces tension T as shown in figure is
a particle from P(2, 3, 4) to Q(5, 6, 8) then the
work done by this force is
(1) 20 J
(2) 42 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 24 J

17. If angle between the force acting on a body

and displacement of the body is obtuse then
the work done by the force is
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(1) 50 N
(3) Infinite
(2) 30 N
(4) Both (1) and (3) are possible
(3) 40 N
(4) 65 N
18. The centre of mass of two masses m1 and
x
m2 moves by a distance 6 , when mass m1
22. Choose the correct statement with regard to
is moved by distance x and m2 is kept fixed. the limiting friction.
The ratio m2 /m1 is (1) Direction of force of limiting friction is
(1) 4:1 always opposite to the direction in
(2) 3:1 which the body is on the verge of
moving over the other
(3) 6:1
(2) It depends on nature of material of the
(4) 5:1 surfaces in contact
(3) It is independent of apparent contact
19. Consider a uniform rope PQ of length 20 m area, as long as normal reaction
as shown in figure. The value of tension between two bodies in contact remains
force acts at point O if 20 N force acts at end same
P of rope (4) All of these

23. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough

table of coefficient of friction 0.2 as shown in
figure. Find out the pushing force F for which
block just moves. (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 20 N
(2) 2N
(3) 15 N
(4) 10 N

(1) 25
N
20. If the external force acting on a body has 7

zero resultant, the body (2) 30

N
(1) Must not move 7

(3) 50
N
(2) Must move 7

(3) Must not accelerate (4) 250

N
17
(4) May accelerate

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
24. Two particles are connected with a light 28. A unit vector perpendicular to each of the
spring. For the instant depicted by figure vectors 2ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + 4 j − 6k and 2 i − 4 j + 2k is
calculate the kinetic energy of the system.
(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ
2 ( i + j + 2k)

(2) – ˆ ˆ ˆ
√3 ( i + j + k)

(3) √3
ˆ ˆ ˆ
( i + j − k)
2

(1) 22.5 J (4) 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ

− ( i + j + k)
(2) 62.5 J √3

(3) 20 J
(4) 44.5 J 29. The variation of potential energy U, of a
body moving along x-axis, varies with its
position (x) as shown in figure.
25. A : The work done by spring force in closed
path is always zero.
R : Spring force is conservative in nature.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
The body will be in equilibrium state at
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) A and B
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (2) B and C
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) C and A
is false (4) D and B
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 30. Choose the option representing the correct
relation between units.
26. A particle P strikes the inclined smooth (1) 1 erg = 107 joule
plane horizontally and rebounds vertically (2) 1 joule = 107 erg
as shown in figure. If the angle θ is 60° then
coefficient of restitution is (3) 1 joule = 105 erg
(4) 1 erg = 105 joule

31. The force acting on a particle of mass 5 kg at

t = 4 s for the following v–t graph is

(1) e =
1

(2) e =
1
(1) 5 N
3

(3) 1 (2) Zero

e =
4
(3) 20 N
(4) e =
1

5 (4) 15 N

27. Potential energy of a particle is given as U = 32. A conveyer belt is moving with constant
2x2 – 5. The value of force at x = 2 m is velocity 3 m/s. If sand is poured at the rate of
9 kg/s on the belt then the force required to
(1) 8 N
move the belt with same constant velocity is
(2) 4 N (1) 10 N
(3) 5 N (2) 12 N
(4) 6 N (3) 27 N
(4) Zero

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
33. The momentum of a body depends on time 35. A : In an inelastic collision between two
as P = (2t3 + t2 – 1) Ns. The force acting on bodies, the relative speed of the bodies after
the body at t = 2 s is collision is less than the relative speed
(1) 20 N before the collision.
R : In an inelastic collision linear momentum
(2) 28 N of the system remain conserved.
(3) 2 N (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) 14 N the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
34. An engine pumps water of density ρ through (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
a hose pipe. Water leaves the hose pipe the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
with a velocity v. Find the rate at which
kinetic energy is imparted to water (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) 1 ρAv3 is false
2
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) 1
ρAv statements
2

(3) ρAv
(4) 1 ρAv2
3

SECTION-B

36. According to Newton's 3rd law of motion 38. The value of coefficient of restitution for
(1) Action arises before reaction perfectly elastic collision is
(2) Reaction arises before action (1) 1
(3) Action and reaction always act on (2) Zero
same bodies (3) 1
2
(4) Action and reaction always act on
(4) 1
different bodies √2

37. The reading of spring balance as shown in 39. A body with mass 1 kg moves with velocity
figure is [g = 10 m/s2 ] →
ˆ ˆ
v = (2 i + 4 j ) ms–1 . Then its kinetic
energy is
(1) 8 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 6 J

40. If a body is released from a certain height,

during its fall
(1) Both potential and kinetic energy of the
(1) 30 N
body decrease
(2) 20 N
(2) Both potential and kinetic energy of the
(3) 40 N body increase
(4) 10 N (3) Its potential energy increases and
kinetic energy decreases
(4) Its kinetic energy increases and
potential energy decreases

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
41. The work done by the gravity on a body 47. A particle of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 5
moving upwards is m/s in a direction 37° from horizontal and 1
(1) Zero kg with velocity 10 m/s in a direction 53°
from horizontal as shown in figure
(2) Negative
(3) Positive
(4) Can be zero or positive

42. Moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of

mass M and radius R about its geometric
axis is
(1) 1 M R2
2
Calculate velocity of centre of mass.
(2) 1
MR
2
(1) ( 14 ˆ 2 ˆ
4
i − j ) m/s
3 3
(3) MR2
(2) 2 ˆ 14 ˆ
(4) 3 M R2 (
3
i −
3
j) m/s
2

(3) (
5 ˆ
i −
7 ˆ
j) m/s
3 3
43. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls
on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has (4) (
7 ˆ
i −
5 ˆ
j) m/s
speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed 3 3

to stop it?
(1) 3 J 48. A person of mass 40 kg is standing on a
(2) 30 kJ plank of length 10 m. If person moves on the
(3) 2 J other side of plank find distance moved by
plank.
(4) 1 J

44. The moment of inertia of a flywheel is 4 kg

m2 . What angular acceleration will be
produced in it by applying a torque of 10 N-
m on it? (1) x=2m
(1) 2.5 rad/s2 (2) x=4m
(2) 5 rad/s2 (3) x=5m
(3) 3 rad/s2 (4) x=1m
(4) 2 rad/s2
49. Work done by friction is
(1) Always zero
45. The torque that must be applied to a 50 kg
flywheel of radius of gyration 40 cm to give it (2) Always positive
an angular acceleration of 2 rad/s2 is (3) May be positive, negative or zero
(1) 8 Nm (4) Always negative
(2) 16 Nm
(3) 6 Nm 50. The coefficient of friction between a body
(4) 18 Nm and ground is 0.75 then, the angle of friction
can vary from
(1) 0° to 90°
46. The minimum velocity with which a body of
(2) 0° to 37°
mass m must enter a vertical circular loop of
radius R at the lowest point of loop so that it (3) 0° to 53°
can complete the loop, is (4) 37° to 53°
−−−−
(1) √8gR
−
−−
(2) √gR

−−−−
(3) √5gR

−−−−
(4) √3gR

CHEMISTRY

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL

SECTION-A

51. Formal charge on oxygen atoms 1 and 2 57. In the hydrocarbon,

respectively in the following structure is 4 3 2 1

CH3 − CH = C = CH2 , the state of

hybridisation of carbon atoms 1, 2 and 4
respectively are
(1) sp2 , sp, sp3
(2) sp2 , sp2 , sp3
(1) 1 and zero
(2) 1 and 2 (3) sp, sp, sp3
(3) –1 and 1 (4) sp2 , sp, sp2
(4) 1 and –1
58. The hybridisation of PCl5 in solid state
52. Which of the following molecules has (1) sp3 d
highest dipole moment?
(2) sp3 d2
(1) NF3
(3) sp3 and sp3 d2
(2) NH3
(3) BF3 (4) sp3 and sp2

(4) CH4
59. In given molecules highest % s-character of
C atom is observed in
53. The ratio of σ bonds and π bonds in
(1) C2 H2
Benzene is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) C2 H4
(2) 4 : 1 (3) C3 H6
(3) 4 : 3 (4) C3 H8
(4) 5 : 3
60. The hybridisation state of central atom in
54. Incorrect statement is SF6 is
(1) H2 O2 molecule contains both polar and (1) sp3 d2
non-polar bonds (2) sp3 d3
(2) XeO4 contains equal number of σ
(3) dsp2
bonds and π bonds, all the 'π' bonds
are pπ – dπ bonds (4) sp3
(3) Number of 109°28′ angles in CH4 are
six 61. Hydride of group 15 elements of highest
(4) In PCl5 molecules all ‘P-Cl’ bond boiling point is
length are equal (1) NH3
(2) PH3
55. Which among the following molecule is not (3) SbH3
planar?
(4) BiH3
(1) BeCl2
(2) SO3
62. Hydride of group-15, of highest reducing
(3) XeF4
character is
(4) SF4 (1) NH3
(2) BiH3
56. Which of the following molecules has an odd (3) SbH3
electron?
(4) PH3
(1) H2 O
(2) CH4
(3) NH3
(4) NO

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
63. On heating (NH4 )2 Cr2 O7 , which of the 70. Match List-I with List-II
following is not formed?
List-I List-II
(1) NH3 Ions Magnetic moment in BM
(2) N2 −−
(A) Mn2+ (P) √24
(3) H2 O
−−
(4) Cr2 O3 (B) Zn2+ (Q) √35

–
(C) Cu2+ (R) √3

64. Catalyst used in Haber process for the

synthesis of ammonia is (D) Fe2+ (S) 0
(1) Co Choose the correct option
(2) Fe (1) (A) → P; (B) → Q; (C) → R; (D) → S
(3) Ni (2) (A) → Q; (B) → S; (C) → R; (D) → P
(4) Cu (3) (A) → S; (B) → R; (C) → Q; (D) → P
(4) (A) → Q; (B) → P; (C) → S; (D) → R
65. The neutral oxide of Nitrogen is
(1) N2 O5 71. Enthalpy of atomization is minimum for
(2) N2 O (1) Ti
(3) N2 O4 (2) Cr
(4) NO2 (3) Mn
(4) Co
66. Which among the following is not formed
during Ostwald’s process? 72. Which oxide of Mn is most acidic in nature?
(1) N2 O (1) MnO
(2) NO (2) MnO2
(3) NO2 (3) Mn2 O7
(4) HNO3 (4) Mn2 O3

67. The P–P–P bond angle in white 73. The acidic strength of oxyacids follow the
phosphorous is order
(1) 90° (1) HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(2) 180° (2) HClO3 < HClO2 < HOCl
(3) 60° (3) HClO3 > HClO2 < HOCl
(4) 120° (4) HClO3 < HClO2 > HOCl

68. Which of the following is not a transition

74. Which of the following statements regarding
element?
conc. sulphuric acid is not correct?
(1) Sc
(1) It is reduced to SO2 on reaction with
(2) Zn Cu.
(3) Cu (2) It is a strong dehydrating agent
(4) Mn (3) It can be used to manufacture more
volatile acids from their corresponding
69. Number of unpaired e– in Cr2+ ion is salts
(1) 1 (4) The absorption of SO2 in sulphuric acid
produces oleum
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4 75. Iodide ions oxidise by ozone into
(1) IO−
(2) IO
−
3

(3) I2
(4) IO
−
2

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
76. When hot and concentrated NaOH reacts 81. Actinoid contraction is more than lanthanoid
with Cl2 , the major products formed are contraction because
(1) NaCl + NaClO (1) Energy of 4f and 5f orbitals are same
(2) NaCl + NaClO3 (2) 5f orbitals are more diffused as
compared to 4f orbitals
(3) NaClO + NaClO3
(3) Actinoids show greater range of
(4) NaCl + NaClO2 oxidation states than lanthanoids
(4) Actinoids are highly reactive
77. In which of the following compounds,
peroxide linkage is present?
82. Potassium manganate (K2 MnO4 ) is formed
(1) H2 S4 O6 when
(2) H2 SO3 (1) Chlorine gas is passed into aq. KMnO4
(3) H2 S2 O8 solution
(4) H2 S2 O7 (2) Potassium permanganate reacts with
conc. H2 SO4
(3) Manganese dioxide is fused with KOH
78. Which of the following has bleaching action in air
due to its reducing property?
(4) KMnO4 reacts with Cl2 in acidic
(1) O3
medium
(2) H2 O2

(3) Cl2
83. The most stable oxidation states of Eu, Ce
(4) SO2
and Pm are respectively
(1) +2, +4, +3
79. The species which is green in colour is (2) +4, +4, +2
(1) MnO − (3) +4, +2, +3
4

(2) CrO
2− (4) +3, +3, +3
4

(3) MnO
2−
4
84. H-bonding is absent in
(4) Cr2 O
2−
(1) H2 O
7

(2) NH3
80. Most basic hydroxides among the following (3) HCl
is (4) CH3 OH
(1) Eu(OH)3
(2) Er(OH)3
85. The correct order of hybridization of the
(3) Tm(OH)3 central atom in the following species,
+
(4) Yb(OH)3 SF4 , NH , XeOF4 , IF 7 respectively is
4

(1) 3 3 3
sp d, sp , sp d , sp d
2 3 3

(2) 3 2 3
sp d, dsp , sp d , sp d
2 3 3

(3) 3 2 3
sp d , sp , sp d, sp d
3 3 3

(4) 3 3 3
sp d, sp , sp d , sp d
2 3 2

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following is coloured due to d-d

transition?
(1) KMnO4
(2) Na2 CrO4
(3) Cu2 O
(4) [Ti(H O) ]3+
2 6

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
87. Consider the following statements : 94. Given below are two statements one is
I. Enthalpy of atomisation of vanadium is labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
maximum among 3d-series elements Reason (R)
II. Nickel is denser than iron Assertion (A) : B—F bond in BF3 is polar.
III. Co+3 ion can act as good oxidising agent Reason (R) : Dipole moment of BF3 is zero.
for Cr+2 ion, reducing itself to Co+2 ion and In the light of above statements choose the
oxidising Cr+2 to Cr+3 correct answer
The correct statement(s) is(are) (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) Only (I) & (III) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Only (III)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) Only (II) the reason is not the correct
(4) (I), (II) and (III) explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
88. P4 + NaOH + H2 O → Products is false
Products are (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) H3 PO4 + PH3 statements

(2) NaH2 PO2 + PH3

95. Given below are two statements one is
(3) Na2 HPO2 + PH3
labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
(4) Na3 PO4 + PH3 Reason (R)
⊕

Assertion (A) : N H4 is tetrahedral in shape.

89. H3 PO3 on heating gives Reason (R) : Bond angle H – N – H in
⊕
(1) H3 PO4 N H4 is 109° 28'.
(2) PH3 In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer
(3) H3 PO2
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) Both (A) and (B) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
90. In crown sulphur (S8 ), number of ‘S-S’ (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
bond(s) is/are the reason is not the correct
(1) 6 explanation of the assertion
(2) 7 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(3) 8
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) 9 statements

91. Compare the stability of the following 96. Given below are two statements one is
+ −
species : H2 , H2 and H2 labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
(1) − + Reason (R)
H < H < H2
Assertion (A) : Sc3+ ion is colourless.
2 2

(2) + −
H2 < H
2
< H
2 Reason (R) : Sc3+ ion has zero electron in
(3) H
+
< H
−
< H2 d-subshell.
2 2
In the light of above statements choose the
(4) H
+
< H2 < H
−
correct answer
2 2

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and

92. The bond order in Li2 molecule is the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(1) 1
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) 1.5 the reason is not the correct
(3) 2 explanation of the assertion
(4) 2.5 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
93. The species which does not exist is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(1) H2
(2) He2
(3) C2
(4) O2

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
97. Given below are two statements one is 99. Select the incorrect statement regarding
labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as XeO3 .
Reason (R) (1) It is colourless compound
Assertion (A) : Zn shows +2 oxidation state
in all of its compounds. (2) Explosive in nature
Reason (R) : Zn has completely filled d- (3) Physical state is solid
subshell. (4) Formed by the partial hydrolysis of
In the light of above statements choose the XeF6
correct answer
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of 100. Which of the following inter-halogen
the assertion compounds does not exist?
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) IF7
the reason is not the correct (2) CIF3
explanation of the assertion
(3) ICI
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false (4) BrCl7

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

statements

98. XeF4 on hydrolysis gives

(1) Xe
(2) XeO3
(3) HF
(4) All of these

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Select the option in which all the taxa 103. Select the incorrect option for binomial
belongs to same taxonomic category? nomenclature
(1) Primata, Insecta, Diptera (1) Two components are generic name
(2) Muscidae, Sapindales, Poaceae and specific epithet
(3) Mammalia, Dicotyledonae, Insecta (2) Specific epithet generally starts with a
small letter
(4) Chordata, Hominidae, Poales
(3) Biological names are taken from latin
language
102. Keys are (4) The name of the discoverer is printed in
(1) Used for identification of plants only italics
(2) Based on a pair of contrasting
characters
(3) Generally theoretical in nature
(4) Same for all taxonomic categories

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
104. Choose the incorrect match. 110. All of the following are the advantages of
(1) Indian Botanical Garden – Situated in seeds to angiosperms, except
Lucknow (1) Providing a rich food source for other
(2) Monographs – Contains information on organisms
any one taxon (2) Better adaptive strategies for dispersal
(3) Museum – Contains preserved animals to new habitat
and plants (3) Protection to young embryo
(4) Herbarium – Repository of plant (4) Generation of new genetic combination
specimens for future use
111. Cleistogamy refers to the condition in which
105. In which among the following taxonomic (1) Pollinators are not required
categories, organisms share less number of
(2) Flowers are absent
common characters than that of order?
(3) Flowers always remain open
(1) Family
(4) Flowers are gamopetalous
(2) Species
(3) Class
(4) Genus 112. Amoeboid protozoans differ from all the
other protozoan because they
(1) Use cilia for locomotion
106. In mature pollen grain, generative cell differs
(2) Have two types of nuclei
from vegetative cell, as the former
(3) Use flagella for movement
(1) Has abundant food reserve
(4) Use pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus
(3) Has dense cytoplasm and it is spindle
shaped 113. The basidiospores
(4) Is bigger in size than latter (1) Are produced on basidium
(2) Are asexual spores
107. Match the column I with column II and select (3) Are diploid in nature
the correct option. (4) Are endogenously produced spores
Column I Column II
a. Pleiotropy (i) Human skin colour 114. Choose the correct sequence of events with
Polygenic respect to fungal sexual cycle.
b. (ii) Phenylketonuria (1) Plasmogamy → Meiosis → Karyogamy
inheritance
Incomplete (2) Meiosis → Karyogamy → Plasmogamy
c. (iii) Blood group ‘AB’
dominance (3) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Meiosis
Co- Gene for starch (4) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis
d. (iv)
dominance grain size in pea
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 115. After entering the embryo sac, the pollen
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) tube releases two male gametes into
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) The cytoplasm of the central cell
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) The antipodal cells
(3) The cytoplasm of the egg cell
(4) The cytoplasm of the synergids
108. Aristotle classified the animals on the basis
of
(1) Natural affinities among them 116. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis is
(2) Phylogenetic relationships referred to
(3) Absence or presence of red blood (1) Formation of pollen mother cell from
microspore
(4) Morphological characters
(2) Formation of male gametes in the
pollen grain
109. Which of the following is not true for (3) Germination of pollen grain on the
deuteromycetes? stigma
(1) Asexually reproduce by conidia (4) Formation of microspores by meiotic
(2) Mycelium is septate and unbranched division in pollen mother cell
(3) Some members are saprophytic or
parasite while a large number of them
are decomposers of litter
(4) Commonly known as imperfect fungi

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
117. For artificial hybridisation, emasculation is 123. Study the given pedigree chart. This
done if pedigree is not possible for the traits like
(1) Female parent bears bisexual flowers
(2) Parent plants are dioecious
(3) Male parent bears unisexual flowers
(4) Flowers of female parent have all the
sterile stamens

118. Read the following statements and select

(1) Haemophilia
the correct ones for pollen grains.
(a) About 25-50 µm in diameter (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Surrounded by a single layered wall (3) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Intine has prominent germ pores due to (4) Phenylketonuria
absence of cellulose
(d) Are well preserved due to presence of
sporopollenin 124. Which among the following is not the basis
(1) a & d only of classification of kingdom fungi into various
classes.
(2) a, b & d
(1) Mode of spore formation
(3) a, c & d
(2) Mode of nutrition
(4) c & d only
(3) Fruiting bodies
(4) Morphology of mycelium
119. Hilum represents the junction between
(1) Funicle and ovary wall
125. The recessive allele
(2) Ovule and funicle
(1) May produce non-functional enzyme
(3) Chalaza and integument
(2) Is unmodified allele
(4) Funicle and micropyle
(3) Produces normal enzyme
(4) Expresses itself only in heterozygous
120. β-Thalassemia is controlled by a single condition
gene HBB, which is present on
chromosome
(1) 11 126. Sickle cell anemia is due to replacement of
(2) 9 A by B occurs at the sixth position of
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(3) 16 beta globin chain of haemoglobin molecule.
Select the option that correctly fills A and B.
(4) 12
(1) A-Valine; B-Glutamic acid
(2) A-Phenylalanine; B-Tyrosine
121. An exception to Mendelian principle, where
both alleles express themselves equally in (3) A-Tyrosine; B-Phenylalanine
heterozygous condition is (4) A-Glutamic acid; B-Valine
(1) Incomplete dominance
(2) Codominance 127. Causal agent of bovine spongiform
(3) Pleiotropism encephalopathy
(4) Polygenic inheritance (1) Contains RNA as genetic material
(2) Is devoid of proteins
122. Which of the given is not true for Down’s (3) Is abnormally folded protein
syndrome? (4) Contains dsDNA
(1) Occurs due to failure of segregation of
chromatids of an autosome 128. A woman has AB blood group. She marries
(2) Affected individual have only one copy to a man with blood group B whose mother
of chromosome 21 had blood group O. Calculate the probability
(3) Affected individual have short stature of their first child to be with blood group AB.
(4) Its inheritance cannot be shown via (1) 1
16
pedigree chart
(2) 1

(3) 1

(4) 1

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
129. The term linkage was given by 132. Read the following statements and mark the
(1) W. Sutton correct option.
Statement A: Bacteria as a group show the
(2) T. Boveri
most extensive metabolic diversity.
(3) G. Mendel Statement B: Archaebacteria differ from
(4) T.H. Morgan other bacteria in having a different nuclear
membrane structure and is responsible for
their survival in extreme condition.
130. Read the following statements.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(a) Code for a pair of contrasting traits
(b) They are slightly different forms of the (2) Only statement B is correct
same gene. (3) Both the statements are correct
(c) True breeding line for a trait will have (4) Both the statements are incorrect
either both alleles dominant or both alleles
recessive
(d) Both the alleles in a zygote are always 133. All of the following are common features
contributed by one parent between the members of Ascomycetes and
Which ones are true for alleles? Deuteromycetes, except
(1) Only (a) & (d) (1) Formation of conidia
(2) Only (a), (b) & (c) (2) Can be decomposers
(3) Only (c) & (d) (3) Production of sexual spores
(4) Only (b) & (d) (4) Septate and branched mycelium

131. Select the option for those statements which 134. Function of endosperm is
are true for Punnett square. (1) To provide nutrition to the developing
(a) Developed by a British geneticist. embryo
(b) Used to calculate the probability of all
(2) To give rise to the root apex
possible genotypes of offsprings.
(c) Useful for monohybrid crosses only. (3) To protect the egg cell
(d) It is a mathematical formula which helps (4) To form the seed coat
to calculate the types of gametes.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
135. Egg apparatus of embryo sac consists of
(2) (a) and (d) (1) Two egg cells and one synergid
(3) (b) and (d) (2) One egg cell and two synergids
(4) Only (a) and (b) (3) One egg cell and two antipodal cells
(4) One egg cell and one synergid

SECTION-B

136. In a cross performed by T.H Morgan 138. Identify the organisms on the basis of given
considering eye colour and wings size in information and select the correct option.
Drosophila what is the probability of males (i) They are the chief produces in the
having miniature wings in F2 generation? oceans.
(1) 62.8% (ii) Their walls are embedded with silica.
(2) 37.2% (1) Diatoms
(3) 1.3% (2) Mycoplasma
(4) 50% (3) Euglenoids
(4) Methanogens

137. Who united the knowledge of chromosomal

segregation with Mendelian principles and
called it the Chromosomal Theory of
Inheritance?
(1) T.H. Morgan
(2) Sutton
(3) Mendel
(4) Correns

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
139. Choose the incorrect option for sickle cell 145. Match the following column I with column II
anemia. and choose the correct option.
(1) Individual with heterozygous genotype Column I Column II
will be unaffected but will be the carrier a. Scutellum (i) An undifferentiated
of the disease sheath which
(2) Caused due to substitution at the sixth encloses root cap
codon of beta globin gene from GUG to b. Coleoptile (ii) A portion of
GAG embryonal axis
(3) This disease can be transmitted to above the level of
offspring if both the parents are cotyledon
heterozygous for the gene c. Coleorhiza (iii) Situated towards
(4) The mutant haemoglobin molecule one side of the
undergoes polymerization under low embryonal axis
oxygen tension d. Epicotyl (iv) A hollow foliar
structure which
140. Klinefelter’s syndrome inflicted individuals encloses shoot
apex and leaf
(1) Are sterile primordia
(2) Show trisomy of chromosome 21
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Have karyotype of 45 + XO
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Are short statured with partially open
mouth (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

141. Which among the following properties is

exclusively present in the human beings? 146. Read the following Assertion (A) and
(1) Self-consciousness Reason (R) and then choose the correct
option.
(2) Reproduction Assertion (A): A papaya plant prevents both
(3) Cellular organisation autogamy and geitonogamy.
(4) Metabolism Reason (R): A papaya plant has either male
flowers or female flowers but not both.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
142. All of the following are in the order explanation of A
Polymoniales, except
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not a
(1) Potato correct explanation of A
(2) Datura (3) Only A is true but R is false
(3) Wheat
(4) Both A and R are false
(4) Petunia

147. Choose the correct statement regarding the

143. Choose the incorrect match. primary endosperm nucleus.
(1) Syncarpous – Pistil are fused together (1) It develops into embryo
(2) Rice – Loose pollen viability within 30 (2) Its formation involves fusion of three
minute of their release gametes
(3) Antipodal cells – Situated at micropylar (3) Its formation involves the fusion of three
end haploid nuclei
(4) Nucellus – Have abundant reserve (4) It is a product of double fertilisation in
food material gymnosperm

144. Which among the given plant features

promotes autogamy but not geitonogamy or
xenogamy?
(1) Monoecious condition
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Dioecious condition
(4) Bisexual flowers

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
148. Identify the following statements as True (T) 150. According to R.H. Whittaker, which character
or False (F) and select the correct option. is absent in kingdom Animalia but present in
A. Asexual reproduction in fungi is by kingdom Plantae?
spores, like oospores ascospores and (1) Eukaryotic cell types
basidiospores.
(2) Cell wall
B. In Albugo, the mycelium is aseptate and
coenocytic. (3) Nuclear membrane
C. Aplanospores are non-motile asexual (4) Tissue body organisation
spores in phycomycetes.
A B C

(1) F T F

(2) T F F

(3) F T T

(4) T F T

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

149. Male honeybee

(1) Is developed parthenogenetically
(2) Has same chromosome number as that
of female bee
(3) Has father but not grandfather
(4) Is diploid

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Which among the following is a connotation 152. Select the incorrect statement.
of ‘theory of special creation’ ? (1) Key concepts of Darwinian theory of
(1) The Earth is about 4000 years old. evolution are branching descent and
(2) The Universe is almost 20 billion years natural selection
old. (2) Use and disuse of organs, inheritance
(3) The atmosphere of primitive Earth was of acquired characters are key
reducing in nature. concepts of Lamarckism
(4) The formation of life was preceded by (3) Evolution for Darwin was gradual while
chemical evolution for deVries, mutation caused speciation
and hence called it saltation
(4) Ramapithecus was more ape-like while
Dryopithecus was more man-like

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
153. Which of the following did not exist on 158. Observe the structure given below.
primitive Earth in free form just before the
origin of life?
(1) CO2
(2) NH3
(3) O2
X represents a/an
(4) CH4 (1) Ionic linkage
(2) Peptide bond
154. Assertion (A) : Before industrialization, (3) Glycosidic bond
there were more white winged moths on
(4) Ester bond
trees than melanised moths.
Reason (R) : Dark color in moths evolved
due to a mutation induced by chemicals 159. Read the following statements w.r.t. co-
present in industrial smoke. factors and choose the correct option.
In the light of above statements, select the Statement A: Catalytic activity is lost when
correct option the co-factor is removed from the enzyme.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true Statement B: Co-factors play a crucial role
and the Reason is the correct in the catalytic activity of the enzyme.
explanation of the Assertion (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
the Reason is not the correct (3) Only statement A is correct
explanation of the Assertion
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 160. An enzyme has enzyme commission
statements number 2.1.1.6.
This enzyme belongs to the class of
enzymes catalyzing which of the following
155. At high temperature, enzymes become A reactions?
while at low temperature enzymes remain in (1) S – G + S′ → S + S′ – G
B state. Select the correct option for A
and B respectively. (2)
(1) Inoperative, active
(2) Inactivated, active
(3) Denatured, inactive (3) CO2 + H2 O ⇌ H2 CO3
(4) Inactivated, hyperactive (4) S reduced + S′ oxidised → S oxidised +
S′ reduced

156. A common feature of peptide and glycosidic

bond is that they 161. How many of the factors given in the box
below will affect the activity of enzymes?
(1) Connect carbohydrate moieties
(2) Are formed by dehydration Temperature, pH, Substrate concentration,
Enzyme concentration, Activation energy
(3) Are present in chitin
(4) Connect amino acids (1) Five
(2) Four
157. How many amino acids and peptide bonds (3) Three
respectively are present in a pentapeptide? (4) Two
(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 4
(3) 5, 3
(4) 4, 5

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
162. Choose the incorrect match 166. Which of the following phenomenon
Haem is a occurring during inspiration, is responsible
– prosthetic group in causing an increase in the volume of the
(1) Catalase thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis?
and is a part of
active site (1) Contraction of external inter-costal
muscles
Zinc is a cofactor
– which forms (2) Contraction of diaphragm
(2) Carboxypeptidase
coordination (3) Contraction of internal inter-costal
bonds muscles
Nicotinamide (4) Relaxation of diaphragm
– Contains vitamin
(3) adenine
niacin
dinucleotide
167. Conditions that favours the dissociation of
Contains oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin are
– hydrogen (1) High pCO2 , High pO2
(4) Peroxidase
peroxide as
prosthetic group (2) High H+ concentration, High pCO2

(1) (1) (3) High temperature, Low H+

(2) (2) concentration
(3) (3) (4) High pO2 , High pH
(4) (4)
168. Select the option which includes the
163. Below given are the features of a structure conducting parts of human respiratory
‘X’ involved in the regulation of respiration. system.
(a) Neural signals from this centre can (1) External nostrils, terminal bronchioles
reduce the duration of inspiration. (2) Secondary bronchi, alveolar duct
(b) It can moderate the functions of
(3) Tertiary bronchi, alveoli
respiratory rhythm centre.
(c) It is present in the pons region of the (4) Terminal bronchioles, alveoli
brain.
Select the option that correctly identifies ‘X’. 169. The figure shows diagrammatic
(1) Pneumotaxic centre representation of human lungs along with
(2) Respiratory rhythm centre other respiratory structures. Select the option
(3) Chemosensitive area that gives the correct match of the labelling
with its function.
(4) Appetite centre

164. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide at the

tissue level is
(1) More than that of pO2 in systemic veins
(2) Equals to the pO2 in pulmonary veins
(3) Less than that of pCO2 in the
atmosphere
(4) More than that of pO2 at alveoli level

165. Match column I with column II and select the

correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Total lung (i) ERV + TV +
capacity IRV
b. Vital capacity (ii) ERV + RV (1) E → It is covered by a double layered
pleura with pleural fluid in between
c. Functional (iii) RV + ERV +
residual TV + IRV (2) F → It is in relaxed state during
capacity inspiration
d. Expiratory (iv) TV + ERV (3) C → Pharynx opens through the larynx
capacity into this region
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) A → It is a bony box which helps in
sound production
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
170. All of the following exchange O2 with CO2 175. The total amount of CO2 transported under
by simple diffusion over their entire body normal conditions in humans through blood
surface, except plasma is
(1) Spongilla (1) 7 %
(2) Hydra (2) 22 %
(3) Planaria (3) 77 %
(4) Periplaneta (4) 70 %

171. Organism ‘X’ belongs to the second largest 176. Consider the reaction given below:
phylum of kingdom Animalia whereas 1 2
− +
organism ‘Y’ is a vertebrate, characterized CO2 + H2 O ⇄ H2 C O3 ⇄ HCO
3
+H

by the creeping or crawling mode of Select the correct option.

locomotion. The habitat of ‘X’ is (1) The reaction proceeds towards the
aquatic. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and select the right direction when the levels of the
preferred mode of respiration of them carbondioxide are low
respectively. (2) The enzyme catalysing the reaction 1
(1) Branchial respiration and cutaneous belongs to the VIth class of enzymes
respiration
(3) The above reaction occurs mainly in
(2) Buccopharyngeal respiration and the blood plasma.
pulmonary respiration
(4) The reaction proceeds in the reverse
(3) Branchial respiration and pulmonary direction at the site where exchange of
respiration gases occurs in between the blood and
(4) Cutaneous respiration and atmospheric air
buccopharyngeal respiration

177. In a hypothetical population of 1000 people,

172. Which among the following structures is the tests of blood type genes show that 160
part of conducting zone of respiratory system have genotype AA, 480 have the genotype
in humans but is not supported by the AB and 360 have the genotype BB.
incomplete cartilaginous rings? Calculate the frequency of allele B and
(1) Initial bronchioles select the correct option.
(2) Tertiary bronchi (1) 0.40
(3) Alveolar ducts (2) 0.60
(4) Terminal bronchioles (3) 0.10
(4) 0.02
173. Assertion (A) : With the increase in
substrate concentration, the velocity of the 178. All of the following are examples of evolution
enzymatic reaction rises at first, the reaction due to involvement of Homo sapiens,
ultimately reaches a maximum velocity except
(Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further (1) Decrease in the number of white
rise in concentration of the substrate. winged moths post-industrialization
Reason: (R) The enzyme molecules are
(2) Development of drug resistant
fewer than the substrate molecules and after
microbes
saturation of the molecules, there are no free
enzyme molecules to bind with the (3) Variations in the beaks of finches of
additional substrate molecules. Galapagos islands
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Herbicide resistance varieties of crops
correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
179. Darwin's finches are an example of
correct explanation of (A)
(a) Natural selection
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (b) Divergent evolution
the correct explanation of (A) (c) Adaptive radiation
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false (d) Analogy
(4) (A) is true and (R) is false Select the correct option.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
174. The numerical value of which of the
following pulmonary capacities is least in a (3) (a), (c) and (d)
healthy human at rest? (4) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Expiratory capacity
(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Inspiratory capacity
(4) Vital capacity

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
180. Which among the following pairs show 183. Which of the following is responsible for the
convergent evolution ? movement of O2 from the alveoli into the
(1) Banded – Koala blood in the pulmonary capillaries?
anteater (1) Active transport
(2) Marsupial – Bandicoot (2) Facilitated diffusion
mouse (3) Simple diffusion
(3) Flying squirrel – Flying (4) Osmosis
phalanger
(4) Spotted cuscus – Tiger cat
184. A French naturalist, even before Darwin,
(1) (1) explained his thoughts about the
(2) (2) mechanism of evolution by giving the
(3) (3) example of giraffes who in an attempt to
forage leaves on tall trees had to adapt by
(4) (4)
elongation of their neck. He proposed the
theory of
181. Most enzymes get damaged at high (1) Natural selection
temperatures above 40°C. However, (2) Inheritance of acquired characters
enzymes isolated from organisms who
normally live under extremely high (3) Panspermia
temperatures can retain their catalytic power (4) Spontaneous generation
even at high temperatures upto
(1) 80-90°C 185. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. Malthusian
(2) 140-150°C theory that influenced Darwin.
(3) 180-190°C (1) Population are nearly stable in size,
(4) 200-210°C except seasonal fluctuations.
(2) Natural resources are limited in nature.
182. A colony of bacteria containing two different (3) Every population has an inherent
varieties i.e., ‘A’ and ‘B’ is surviving in an capacity to increase its number
island since million years. During the course logarithmically if every individual of that
of evolution, the temperature of the island population reproduced maximally
rises due to global warming. Later, it was (4) Nature keeps a check of population by
observed by the scientists that the posing several challenges like
population of ‘B’ outgrowths the population diseases, food shortages, etc.
of ‘A’.
What conclusion among the following can
be made from this observation?
(1) Population ‘A’ has complete
dominance over population ‘B’
(2) Population ‘A’ is reproductively more fit
than that of ‘B’
(3) Fitness of ‘B’ is better than ‘A’ under the
new conditions
(4) Population of ‘A’ can survive better in
hostile environment

SECTION-B

186. What will be the total lung capacity of a 187. Read the following statements and select
person with tidal volume of 450 mL, vital the correct option.
capacity of 4000 mL, and a residual volume Statement A: The rate of diffusion of gases
of 1000mL? is inversely related to the thickness of
(1) 4500 mL diffusion membrane.
Statement B: Negative pressure breathing
(2) 5000 mL
is characteristic of mammals.
(3) 5500 mL
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) 6000 mL (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
188. The volume of air remaining in the lungs 194. Select the incorrect statement.
even after a forcible expiration cannot be (1) The jawless fish probably evolved
measured by the spirometer. around 350 mya.
Which among the following set of capacities
(2) Lobefins that belong to the
include this volume?
Osteichthyes are thought to be evolved
(1) TLC and VC into the first amphibians
(2) FRC and IC (3) Crocodilus is more closely related to
(3) TLC and FRC Aves than that of Chelone.
(4) VC and EC (4) Amphibians lay thick-shelled eggs
which do not dry up in sun unlike those
of reptiles
189. Every 2 L of oxygenated blood can deliver
about ‘X’ mL of oxygen to the tissues under
normal conditions in humans. Choose the 195. Consider the following features:
correct value for ‘X’. (a) Discovered in Java
(1) 80 (b) Probably were carnivores
(c) Existed about 1.5 mya
(2) 100
The above mentioned features are related to
(3) 12 (1) Homo habilis
(4) 120 (2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo erectus
190. After holding the breath for a while, we feel (4) Ramapithecus
the urge to breath due to the
(1) Increase in concentration of oxygen
196. Comprehend the features given below w.r.t.
(2) Increase in the pH of blood
dinosaurs.
(3) Increase in the carbon dioxide (a) Herbivore in nature
concentration (b) Plated back and spikes at the end of tail
(4) Decrease in H+ concentration The above mentioned features are
associated with
(1) Tyrannosaurus
191. The partial pressure of oxygen in all of the
following blood vessels is greater than that (2) Stegosaurus
of vena cava, except (3) Archaeopteryx
(1) Thoracic aorta (4) Pteranodon
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Pulmonary vein 197. In adult human haemoglobin, four
(4) Hepatic artery polypeptides interact with each other to
attain optimal activity by forming which of the
following structures of proteins?
192. In the section of a forest, there are more (1) Primary
medium sized plants than tall plants and
(2) Secondary
dwarf plants. Over a period of time, it was
observed that the number of dwarf and tall (3) Tertiary
plants is twice as that of medium sized (4) Quaternary
plants.
It is an example of
(1) Disruptive selection 198. Enzymes catalysing removal of groups from
substrates by mechanism other than
(2) Directional selection hydrolysis leaving double bonds are
(3) Stabilising selection categorised in which class as per IUB.
(4) Balanced selection (1) Class II
(2) Class III
193. Rhynia-like plants gave rise to ‘X’. ‘X’ is a (3) Class IV
genus of extinct land plants of Devonian (4) Class VI
period.
All of the following evolved from ‘X’, except
(1) Sphenopsids
(2) Ginkgos
(3) Gnetales
(4) Zosterophyllum

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NCERT Booster Test Series-2023-24_Test-04A
AIM: FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
199. Read the following statements and select
the correct option.
Statement A: All enzymes are
proteinaceous in nature.
Statement B: Enzymes majorly exhibit
quaternary structures which lack secondary
and primary structures in any conditions.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A and B are correct

200. During an enzymatic reaction, a transition

state structure of the substrate is formed
which is
(1) Stable and transient
(2) Unstable and transient
(3) Stable and permanent
(4) Unstable and permanent

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