ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Q1. Which city is the capital of Canada? Q8. What is the maximum age for joining Atal
(a) Toronto Pension Yojana?
(b) Montreal (a) 45 years
(c) Ottawa (b) 35 years
(d) Vancouver (c) 50 years
(d) 40 years
Q2. Which national park is located in the Nilgiri
Hills and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve? Q9. The National Game of Bhutan is?
(a) Sariska National Park (a) archery
(b) Simlipal National Park (b) shooting
(c) Bandipur National Park (c) taekwondo
(d) Silent Valley National Park (d) wrestling

Q3. Traditionally, four fairs are widely recognized Q10. Which country is called the 'Coffee Bowl of
as the Kumbh melas. these four fairs are not held the World'?
periodically at one of the following places by (a) Serbia
rotation:? (b) Mexico
(a) Haridwar (c) India
(b) Ujjain (d) Brazil
(c) Prayagraj
(d) Pune Q11. Which is the largest uranium producing
country in the world?
Q4. The painting of Bharat Mata was originally (a) Uzbekistana
done by_______? (b) Kazakhstan
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (c) USA
(b) Jamini Roy (d) India
(c) Nandalal Bose
(d) Abanindranath Tagore Q12. The first complete census in India was held
in the year?
Q5. Which of the following states has been given (a) 1881
Gl tag for Kasuti embroidery? (b) 1873
(a) Telangana (c) 1891
(b) Karnataka (d) 1885
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar Q13. Which of the following monasteries is
located in Sikkim?
Q6. The movie 'Pather Panchali' is directed by? (a) Kye
(a) Soumitra Chatterjee (b) Hemis
(b) Raj Kapoor (c) Tabo
(c) Satyajit Ray (d) Rumtek
(d) Dadasaheb Phalke
Q14. What is the full form of UPI?
Q7. Who among the following is a flute player? (a) Unified Payments Interface
(a) Hariprasad Chaurasia (b) Universal Payment Instrument
(b) Zakir Hussain (c) United Payment Infrastructure
(c) Shiv Kumar Sharma (d) Ultimate Payment Instrument
(d) Ravi Shankar

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Q15. Which day is celebrated every year as 'World Q22. The first Backward Classes Commission of
Environment Day'? India was headed by?
(a) 5th April (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) 5th May (b) Kaka Kalelkar
(c) 5th June (c) Lokmanya Tilak
(d) 5th March (d) Nanaji Deshmukh

Q16. The term 'Dolphin Kick' is associated with Q23. Name the first ever female prime minister in
which sport? the world?
(a) Football (a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rugby (b) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
(c) Swimming (c) Golda Meir
(d) Cricket (d) Elisabeth Domitien

Q17. Who was the first Indian woman to win an Q24. Saga Dawa is the festival of which state?
Olympic medal? (a) Sikkim
(a) Karnam Malleswari (b) Tripura
(b) Saina Nehwal (c) Manipur
(c) Mary Kom (d) Assam
(d) Sakshi Malik
Q25. The famous festival of 'Tsokum Samai' is
Q18. Who is the founder of the biotech Indian celebrated by the people of which state
company called 'Biocon'? to invoke blessings for a rich harvest?
(a) Indu Jain (a) Mizoram
(b) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw (b) Assam
(c) Ratan Tata (c) Meghalaya
(d) Mukesh Ambani (d) Nagaland

Q19. ________ was the first Chief Election Q26. Book 'A brief history of time' is written by: ?
Commissioner of India? (a) John Green
(a) Sukumar Sen (b) JK Rowling
(b) TN Seshan (c) Suzame Colling
(c) Sunil Arora (d) Stephen Hawking
(d) M S Gill
Q27. Wings of Fire' is an Autobiography of ?
Q20. Who was the first female chief justice of a (a) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
state high court in India? (b) Bhagat Singh
(a) Syeda Tahira (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Leila Seth (d) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Ruma Pal
(d) Fatima Bibi Q28. Which is the gallantry award given in the
event of an indirect confrontation with the enemy?
Q21. What is the name of the first research station (a) Ashoka Chakra
in Antarctica built by the Government of India? (b) Veerta Chakra
(a) Vaishali (c) Paramveer Chakra
(b) Maitri (d) Shaurya Chakra
(c) Bharati
(d) Dakshin Gangotri

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Q29. How many non-permanent members does Q36. What is the target year to achieve clean,
UN Security Council have? affordable energy for all, as per the 'UN Energy
(a) 10 Plan of Action'?
(b) 12 (a) 2025
(c) 7 (b) 2030
(d) 5 (c) 2040
(d) 2050
Q30. Which of the following countries is NOT a
member of the SAARC Association? Q37. What is the new Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in
(a) Bhutan India as per the National Family Health Survey
(b) India (NFHS-5)?
(c) China (a) 2.4
(d) Maldives (b) 2.2
(c) 2.0
Q31. "In order to protect the domestic industries, (d) 1.9
India was following a regime of:"
(a) devaluing foreign currencies Q38. Morni Hills, recently seen in news due to
(b) quantitative restrictions on export forest fire, is located in which state?
(c) devaluing Indian currency (a) Odisha
(d) quantitative restrictions on imports (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
Q32. Amaravati Stupa is located in which state of (d) Uttarakhand
India?
(a) Madhya Pradesh Q39. Dinesh Karthik, who recently announced his
(b) Chhattisgarh retirement, belongs to which sports?
(c) Andhra Pradesh (a) Cricket
(d) Maharashtra (b) Football
(c) Basketball
(d) Hockey
Q33. The Barabati Sports Stadium is located in the
state of? Q40. Who won two bronze medals for India at the
(a) Goa Archery World Cup 2024?
(b) Himachal Pradesh (a) Pravin Jadhav
(c) Assam (b) Abhishek Verma
(d) Odisha (c) Dhiraj Bommadevara
(d) Limba Ram
Q34. Red Panda is a state animal of which of the
following state? Q41. Which amendment introduced the Directive
(a) Mizoram Principle to protect and improve the environment
(b) Manipur and safeguard forests and wildlife?
(c) Meghalaya (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(d) Sikkim (b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Q35. Which organisation has launched 'Gluten- (d) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
free' Millet Products at AAHAR Food Fair?
(a) NABARD
(b) APEDA
(c) FICCI
(d) NITI Aayog

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Q42. Which Directive Principle mandates the (c) To promote harmony and the spirit of common
separation of the judiciary from the executive in brotherhood
public services? (d) To provide opportunities for education to
(a) Article 48A children between the ages of six and fourteen
(b) Article 49
(c) Article 50 Q48. Which committee recommended the
(d) Article 51 inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution?
Q43. Which preventive detention law was enacted (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
to prevent black marketing in India? (b) Swaran Singh Committee
(a) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and (c) Sarkaria Commission
Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (d) Shah Commission
(COFEPOSA)
(b) Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Q49. The 73rd Amendment Act also added a new
Psychotropic Substances Act (PITNDPSA) schedule to the Constitution. Which schedule is it?
(c) Prevention of Black marketing and (a) Seventh Schedule
Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities (b) Ninth Schedule
Act (PBMSECA) (c) Eleventh Schedule
(d) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) (d) Twelfth Schedule

Q44. Which Article guarantees the Right to move Q50. Which Union Territories have their own
freely throughout the territory of India? legislative assemblies?
(a) Article 19(1)(d) (a) Delhi and Chandigarh
(b) Article 19(1)(e) (b) Puducherry, Delhi, and Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Article 19(1)(f) (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
(d) Article 19(1)(g) Lakshadweep
(d) Chandigarh and Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Q45. Which of the following rights is NOT included
under the Right to Life and Personal Liberty as Q51. Which lake in Assam was created due to an
interpreted by the Supreme Court? earthquake on 12 June 1987?
(a) Right to freedom from noise pollution (a) Chandubi Lake
(b) Right to form cooperative societies (b) Deepor Beel
(c) Right to decent environment (c) Joysagar Lake
(d) Right to fair trial (d) Borpukhri

Q46. Which amendment made education a Q52. Which lake in Assam is famous for being
fundamental right under Article 21A of the created by mythological King Bhagadatta?
Constitution? (a) Dighalipukhri
(a) 42nd Amendment Act (b) Son Beel
(b) 44th Amendment Act (c) Haflong Lake
(c) 73rd Amendment Act (d) Urpad Beel
(d) 86th Amendment Act
Q53. What is the alternative name for Umananda
Q47. Which Fundamental Duty was added by the Island based on its shape?
86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002? (a) Peacock Island
(a) To defend the country and render national (b) Gold Island
service (c) Lotus Island
(b) To safeguard public property and abjure (d) Diamond Island
violence

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Q54. Which of the following wildlife species is Q61. Which two districts in Assam have favorable
Manas National Park especially famous for? conditions for cotton cultivation?
(a) Indian Rhino (a) Kamrup and Nalbari
(b) Wild Water Buffalo (b) Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills
(c) Snow Leopard (c) Barpeta and Sivasagar
(d) Asiatic Lion (d) Golaghat and Dibrugarh

Q55. In which year did Nameri come under Project Q62. Which year marked the establishment of the
Tiger? Toklai Tea Research Centre in Assam?
(a) 1973 (a) 1839
(b) 1985 (b) 1859
(c) 2001 (c) 1911
(d) 1999 (d) 1970

Q56. Which is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Q63. Which scheme has identified the fishery
Assam by area? sector as one of the Navaratnas in Assam?
(a) Barail Wildlife Sanctuary (a) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
(b) East Karbi Anglong Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Chief Minister’s Samagra Gramya Unnayan
(c) Marat Longri Wildlife Sanctuary Yojana (CMSGUY)
(d) Chakrasila Wildlife Sanctuary (c) National Fisheries Development Board Scheme
(d) National Aquaculture Mission
Q57. Who introduced the craftsmanship of mask
making in Majuli? Q64. Which institution in Assam is planned to
(a) Mahatma Gandhi undergo development as an iconic structure?
(b) Guru Nanak (a) Assam University
(c) Mahapurush Srimanta Sankaradeva (b) Gauhati Medical College and Hospital
(d) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Dibrugarh University
(d) Tezpur University
Q58. Which state in India is the highest producer
of natural gas? Q65. Regarding India's participation in the World
(a) Gujarat Economic Forum (WEF) 2024, consider the
(b) Rajasthan following statements:
(c) Assam 1. India participated under the theme of
(d) Maharashtra "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" at the WEF's Annual
Meeting.
Q59. Which district in Assam is known for its 2. One of the key takeaways from the Forum was
deposits of China clay or Kaolin, used in the the launch of the "Alliance for Global Good -
ceramic industry? Gender Equity and Equality."
(a) Dibrugarh 3. The Indian delegation was led by the Prime
(b) Karbi Anglong Minister of India.
(c) Goalpara Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Dhubri (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q60. Which of the following rice varieties is famous (c) 1 only
for being GI tagged and used during festival (d) 1, 2, and 3
seasons in Assam?
(a) Bao-Dhan
(b) Boka Saul
(c) Mala
(d) Ranjit

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Q66. An alloy has Gold and Copper in ratio 3:4. Q72. Simplify the expression
Another alloy has Gold and Copper in ratio 5:3. In 45 – [36 - {29 – (25 - ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
7 + 4)}]
what ratio they should be mixed so that the final (a) 24
mixture has Gold and Copper in ratio 5:4? (b) 22
(a) 17:32 (c) 26
(b) 9:16 (d) 28
(c) 71:128
(d) 35:64 Q73. A student has to obtain 40% of the total marks
to pass. He got 150 marks and failed by 50 marks.
Q67. If a metallic cone of radius 24 cm and height What are the maximum marks?
48 cm is melted and recast into metallic spheres of (a) 500
radius 6 cm, find the number of spheres. (b) 550
(a) 32 (c) 480
(b) 42 (d) 520
(c) 48
(d) 24 Q74. The speed of a boat in still water is eight
times the speed of the current. The time taken by
Q68. The curved surface area of cylinder is 88 boat to cover 315 km downstream and 385 km
sq.cm. The radius of cylinder is 8.6 less than the upstream is 18 hr. Then, how long will it take the
height of cylinder. The ratio between the radius of boat will to cover 225 km downstream?
cylinder and radius of sphere is 2 : 3. Find the (a) 4 hr
volume of sphere. (b) 5 hr
(a) 32 cubic.cm (c) 9 hr
(b) 39 cubic.cm (d) 6 hr
(c) 41 cubic.cm
(d) 46 cubic.cm Q75. What is the unit digit of 1! + 2! + 3! + ……+
88! + 89!?
Q69. Which of the following is not a perfect (a) 5
square? (b) 3
(a) 1250 (c) 1
(b) 16641 (d) 8
(c) 2025
(d) 9801 Q76. If 3 divided the integer n, the remainder is 2.
Then, what will be the remainder when 7n is
Q70. Eight members of a club donate Rs. 1000 divided by 3
each towards a Relief Fund and the President of (a) 3
the club donates Rs. 500 more than the average (b) 2
donation of all (including President) of them. Then (c) 6
the contribution of the president is: (d) 4
(a) Rs. 1062.5
(b) Rs. 1562.5 Q77. What is remainder obtained if 45518 is
(c) Rs. 562.5 divided by 19
(d) Rs. 2062.5 (a) 0
(b) 3
Q71. If the seven-digit number 16×208 is divisible (c) 4
by 11 and the four-digit number 953y is divisible by (d) 1
9, then what is the value of (x + y)?
(a) 7 Q78. Find the difference between the compound
(b) 8 interest and simple interest when a sum of
(c) 10 Rs.15,625 is invested for 3 years at 4% per
(d) 12 annum?
(a) 76
(b) 96
(c) 56

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

(d) 86 Q85. Gold is 15 times as heavy as water and

copper is 7 times as heavy as water in what ratio
Q79. Sunita invested Rs. 12,000 on simple interest should these be mixed to get an alloy 13 times as
at the rate of 10% p.a. to obtain a total amount of heavy as water?
Rs. 20,400 after a certain period. For how many (a) 1 : 3
years did she invest to obtain the above amount? (b) 3 : 1
(a) 9 (c) 1 : 2
(b) 6 (d) 2 : 1
(c) 7
(d) 8 Q86. Study the following graph and answer the
question that follows.
Q80. Dev completed the school project in 20 days.
How many days will Arun take to complete the
same work if he is 25% more efficient than Dev?
(a) 10 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 15 days

Q81. L can finish a work in 16 days and M can do

the same work in 12 days. With help of N, they did
the work in 4 days only. Then, N alone can do the
work in how many days.
(a) 48/5 days The number of people who travelled by Train A
(b) 48/7 days decreased by what percent from Saturday to
(c) 48/11 days Wednesday?
(d) 10 days (a) 30%
(b) 60%
(c) 40%
Q82. P, Q and R can do a job in 20, 30 and 60 days (d) 42%
respectively. In how many days can P do the job if
he is assisted by Q and R every third day? Q87. The average age of a family of four is 30
(a) 11 days years. If the father is 40 years old, what is the
(b) 15 days average age of the remaining three family
(c) 17 days members?
(d) 16 days (a) 25
(b) 30
Q83. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 (c) 35
: 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs.4000, (d) 40
the new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit
present salary. Q88. The average salary of five employees is Rs.
(a) 30000 50,000. If the salary of one employee is Rs.
(b) 32000 60,000, what is the average salary of the remaining
(c) 35000 four employees?
(d) 38000 (a) Rs. 45,000
(b) Rs. 47,500
Q84. In a college, the ratio of the number of boys (c) Rs. 50,000
to girls is 8 : 5. If there are 200 girls, the total (d) Rs. 52,500
number of students in the college is
(a) 420 Q89. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10
(b) 520 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The
(c) 620 actual distance travelled by him is:
(d) 720 (a) 50 km
(b) 56 km

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

(c) 70 km reaches point K. Find the shortest distance

(d) 80 km between point K and starting point.
(a) 23√2m
Q90. A man walks with the speed of 7 kmph then (b) 10√23m
he reaches office 2 minutes before the actual time
(c) √230m
but if he travels with 5 kmph then he reaches 2
minutes late then what is the actual time to reach (d) √250m
office?
(a) 9 mins Q97. Rohan leaves his house and moves 30km in
(b) 12 mins the northwest direction and 30km in southwest
(c) 10 mins direction. Then he moves 30km in southeast
(d) 8 mins direction, again he moves 30km in northeast
direction. How far is he from his house?
Q91. The HCF of 6453 and 7409 is 239, Their LCM (a) 0km
is: (b) 5km
(a) 682
(b) 1047 (c) 20km
(c) 200043 (d) 30km
(d) 956
Q98. 8:576 :: 13: ?
Q92. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 6 and (a) 1396
462 respectively. The numbers of such pairs will be (b) 2346
(a) 0 (c) 2366
(b) 1
(d) 2126
(c) 2
(d) 3 Q99. 14: 144 :: ? : 289
(a) 17
Q93. 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟑𝟒∘ 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟒𝟐∘ 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟒𝟖∘ 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟓𝟔∘ + 𝐜𝐨𝐭 𝟔𝟎∘ (b) 19
𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟑𝟎∘ − 𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝟑𝟎∘ 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝟔𝟎∘ =? (c) 21
(a) 0 (d) 15
(b) 3
(c) 2.1
Q100. In a family, there is one father, two
(d) 4 22.
daughters, three sisters, one mother, one brother
Q94. Find the value of 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟐𝟐 × 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟏𝟖 × 𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝟔𝟖 × and a husband then how many members are there
𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝟕𝟐. in the family?
(a) 5 (a) 5
(b) √2/3 (b) 8
(c) √3 3 (c) 7
(d) 1 (d) 6

Q95. A dealer of kerosene oil is increased by

Q101. There are eight persons are from same
12.5% then decreased by 25% then again
family with three generations. The number of
decreased by 20%. Find the overall change in its
rate? females are less than the males. Q was the only
(a) It becomes 78.75% married child of N who is the sister of P. G is the
(b) It becomes 67.5% brother – in- law of L who is the son of N . T is the
(c) It becomes 178.75% granddaughter of R and sister of O. No single
(d) It becomes 168.75% parents has a child.
In which of the following options both the persons
Q96. Mayank is facing south. He turns to his left are from the same gender?
and walks 25m and reaches point O, now takes a (a) OQ
right turn and walks 5m and to reach point L. Now (b) TL
he turns to his right and walks 10m and thus
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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

(c) PN (c) 39
(d) GP (d) 42

Q102. Seven persons A,B,C,D,E,F and G are Q108. A,P,R,S,X and Z are sitting in a straight line.
sitting in a straight row and facing north. Distance Z and S are sitting in the centre while A and P are
between two adjacent person is 4m. G sits 8m sitting at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who
toward the left of A. G doesn’t sit on any of the is sitting to the immediate right of P?
extreme ends. E sits towards the right of A. (a) X
Distance between G and E is at most 16m. Only (b) Z
two persons sit between F and C. B sits 4m (c) R
towards the right of F. Distance between B and D (d) S
is not 8m. C doesn’t sit towards the left of D.
What is the position of A with respect to C. Q109. Six friends are sitting in a circle table and
(a) 8m to the left playing cards. Kenney is to the left of Danny.
(b) 3rd to the right Michael is in between Bobby and Johnny. Roger is
(c) 4m to the right in between Kenny and Bobby. Who is sitting to the
(d) 2nd to the left right of Michael?
(a) Danny
Q103. Numbers: Mathematics:: ?:? (b) Johnny
(a) Grammar: Language (c) Kenny
(b) Plants: Zoology (d) Bobby
(c) Notes: Music
(d) Hotel : Restaurant Q110. z1j7#hu8an1*!iosn+a68!p;6sk9@ejkeu279
d₹7gw:o. How many such symbols are there that
Q104. Find the odd one out is followed by a vowel?
(a) Maurya dynasty (a) Four
(b) Chola dynasty (b) Two
(c) Gupta dynasty (c) Three
(d) Nanda dynasty (d) Can’t be determined

Q105. If ‘BLUF’ is coded as 164 then what will Q111. What is the angle between the minute hand
‘RANK’ be coded as? and the hour hand at 8:30?
(a) 121 (a) 60°
(b) 44 (b) 75°
(c) 140 (c) 80°
(d) 176 (d) 90°
Q106. If ‘COURT’ is coded as ‘DPVSU’ then what
will ‘BRAIN’ be coded as? Q112. At what time between 11 and 1 the two
(a) CSBJO hands of the clock coincides?
(b) AQZHM (a) 55 min past 11
(c) DTCKP (b) 57 min past 11
(d) CYBKO (c) 59 min past 11
(d) 12 O’ clock
Q107. There are 56 students in total, Anubhraj is
16th from right end, what is his rank from the left Q113. What can be the minimum number of days
end? in any 7 consecutive years?
(a) 40 (a) 2557
(b) 41 (b) 2555

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

(c) 2558 (d) Outside

(d) 2556
Direction (Q121-125): Choose the correct One
Q114. If today is Thursday, then which day will it be word substitution
after 3 years?
(a) Wednesday Q121. My aunt cannot stay in the hospital for 5
(b) Sunday minutes because she has a fear of confined
(c) Tuesday places.
(a) Agoraphobia
(d) Cannot be determined
(b) Enochlophobia
(c) Claustrophobia
Q115. Which letter is between midway of 8th letter (d) Stasiphobia
from left and 7th letter from right in the English
alphabet? Q122. Jackson is a highly skilled musician; he is
(a) N an expert guitarist in his college band, he will go a
(b) M long way in this profession.
(c) P (a) Amateur
(d) O (b) Virtuoso
(c) Dabbler
Q116. Hypercity is at 6th floor and so you will need (d) Neophyte
to use the elevator.
(a) In 6th floor Q123. Earlier, in our country, there was a
(b) On 6th floor. government and administration by the Kings and
(c) Besides 6th floor Queens.
(d) Over 6th floor (a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
Q117. Due to its remoteness, this area is still (c) Polycracy
teeming by natural resources. (d) Polyarchy
(a) Yet teeming by
(b) Teeming for Q124. His son is a ___ as he lost his life in
(c) Still teeming with protecting the lives of people of this country.
(d) Hitherto teeming of (a) Soldier
(b) Martyr
Q118. In a population of 120 million, India as a (c) Revolutionist
country, is still not able to reach its effective human (d) Philanthropist
resource target.
(a) For a population Q125. Sheren’s father is an author and has won an
(b) With a population award for the book that talks about his own history.
(c) On a population (a) Bibliography
(d) Having a population (b) Biography
(c) Autobiography
Q119. I love listening for slow melodious music. (d) Ownography
(a) At slow melodious
(b) To slow melodious
(c) For slow melodies
(d) Slow melodies

Q120. You just can’t walk in the class without

anyone’s permission.
(a) Inside
(b) Out
(c) Into
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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

READING COMPREHENSION & ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q1-25): Read the following passage crime. Disclosing vulnerabilities doesn’t help much
and answer the questions that follows. if the software creators don’t take timely action. In
Passage-1 general, large corporations such as Microsoft,
The WannaCry ransomware attack raised Google or Apple have reacted quickly. They can do
perplexing questions, such as who was behind it, more to publicise vulnerabilities and fixes and
how did it get unleashed, and why the code was highlight the risk to customers if they do not
configured the way it was. The malware exploited update. Finally, a failure to update systems poses
vulnerabilities in Windows 7 that the US National a real issue. Those individuals and organisations
Security Agency (NSA) apparently knew about for that did not apply Microsoft’s update were taking a
a few years. At some point, these vulnerabilities risk; whether the reasons were cost, lack of
were either leaked or electronically stolen, and in attention or negligence, their actions had an impact
March, an entity known as Shadow Brokers made on others. The reasons for making computer
them public. Microsoft very soon released an software up to date are the same as vaccinating a
update that removed the vulnerabilities. Windows population against diseases. Policymakers may
systems have the capability to automatically install want computer owners to take the same approach.
updates, but in many corporate setups, the auto- One curious aspect of WannaCry is that once it
update is disabled to give IT departments more enters a computer, it tries to connect to a domain
control over company machines. This left many on the internet, and if it succeeds, it stops its
machines vulnerable to the attack. This is where activity. An alert cybersecurity researcher created
the discussion moves out of the realm of the purely that domain and helped slow WannaCry’s spread.
technical and becomes a matter of public debate. Researchers are puzzled why this “killswitch” was
Despite the best efforts of software companies, left in the code. What’s worrisome is that perhaps
their products will have flaws, including security a future variant of ransomware will try to send
weaknesses. Rigorous testing would prevent many contents of the disk to a remote server before
exploits, but it takes too many resources to locking the computer, thereby stealing sensitive
consider every possibility. So, independent health or financial details, embarrassing photos or
security researchers, commercial security vital state secrets. The targets may react to the
companies and intelligence agencies such as the ransom part of the attack and fail to see the data
NSA specialise in trying to find weaknesses that theft. This may have already happened. In
were missed. Some researchers privately notify response to an RTI, the RBI said that at least one
software makers when they find a vulnerability, but bank was attacked by ransomware last year. If
there are also companies that sell them; selling data-stealing malware targets computers in a
can be lucrative. It is believed that the FBI paid corporate or government network, the real damage
$9,00,000 to a private company to access a locked is not to the owners of the computers but the
iPhone. Intelligence agencies and even police people whose data is exposed. In the case of
departments have been collecting vulnerabilities government secrets, the entire country may be
known as “zero-days”. Clearly, the motivation is to worse off. Since the attack, the government has
protect national interest and public safety, yet it is downplayed the effects on Indian systems. No
worth asking what the trade-off is. Security expert private companies have disclosed that they were
Bruce Schneier has criticised governments for affected. However, there are many cyber attacks
hoarding zero-days. He argues that it is better for on a global scale and it stretches credulity to
the common good to disclose the vulnerabilities believe that Indian systems are somehow spared.
before someone else uses them for ill. The The government wants to promote Digital India
WannaCry incident seems to bear this out. and internet companies want Indians to use their
Policymakers need to dig into the claims that zero- services and spend money online. For that, they
days are effective at preventing terrorism and need to build and keep the public’s trust. One way
to do that is by being forthright and owning up to
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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

mistakes or breaches. It would demonstrate a level (c) Bank of Baroda

of responsibility and sophistication that people can (d) Not mentioned in the Passage
respect.
Q6. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
the Ransomware: passage
1. It is a Malware. Perplexing
2. It has exploited vulnerabilities in Windows 10. (a) Explicate
Which of the following statements given above (b) Enlighten
is/are correct? (c) Baffle
(a) 2 only (d) Clarify
(b) Both are correct
(c) None is correct Q7. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE
(d) 1 only in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
the passage
Q2. How can Software companies prevent Realm
weaknesses in their softwares? (a) Scope
(a) By rigorous testing. (b) Kingdom
(b) By updating their softwares. (c) Range
(c) By consulting Security agencies. (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above
Q8. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in
Q3. Which of the following statements given below meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
is/are correct regarding the Microsoft Windows passage
system? Dig
1. Windows systems have the capability to (a) Cultivate
automatically install updates (b) Excavate
2. Microsoft very soon released an update that (c) Till
removed the vulnerabilities (caused because of (d) All of the above
Ransomware).
Select the correct option using the codes given Q9. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE
below. in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
(a) 1 only the passage
(b) 2 only Domain
(c) Both are correct (a) Sphere
(d) None is correct (b) Territory
(c) Department
Q4. What are 'Zero Days'? (d) None of the above
(a) The specific days of the year when
Ransomware attacks computers. Q10. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE
(b) Software's Vulnerabilities. in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
(c) The specific days of the years when Security the passage
agencies around the world do rigorous testing on Breaches
Softwares. (a) Intrude
(d) None of the above (b) Infract
(c) Keep
Q5. According to RBI, which Indian Bank has (d) Violate
confirmed an attack by Ransomware last year?
(a) Punjab National Bank
(b) State Bank of India

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

Passage-2 level, higher education is challenged today by fast-

The provisions of the new Higher Education paced technological changes affecting the
Commission of India (HECI) Bill drafted by the economy and the need to create a workforce that
Centre have far-reaching implications for the has the requisite skills. Reform should, therefore,
expansion and quality of human resource lead to the creation of an agency that has the
development, at a time when access to skill- intellectual corpus to help universities and
building and educational opportunity are vitally colleges adapt, and the vision to plan for public
important. There were 864 recognised universities funding in the emerging spheres of activity. There
and 40,026 colleges in the country in 2016-17, is a positive attempt in the draft legislation to weed
while the gross enrolment ratio of students was out degree mills and dubious training institutions,
only about 26%. To put this in perspective, there with a provision for prosecution and imprisonment
were only 20 universities and 500 colleges at the of management officials who defy the HECI. Yet,
time of Independence. Previous attempts at this will take political will, given that over the past
system reform involving Practice set expert three decades laissez faire expansion of higher
committees and even legislation to create a new education has been pursued purely for commercial
body for higher education and research had motives.
advocated changes, with an emphasis on
promoting autonomy, access, inclusion and Q11. Which of the following is not true according to
opportunity for all. That challenging goal will fall to the passage?
the HECI, the proposed successor body to the A) That challenging goal will rise to the HECI, the
University Grants Commission. For this very proposed successor body to the University Grants
reason, the Centre should give sufficient time to Commission.
academia, the teaching community and society at B) The aim should be to set academic benchmarks
large to submit considered opinions on the draft for each stream, with sufficient autonomy to
proposals. Among the key questions that need innovate on courses and encourage studies across
resolution is the future role of multiple regulatory disciplines.
bodies that currently exist for engineering, C) There were 864 recognised universities and
medicine and law; the Yash Pal Committee had 40,026 colleges in the country in 2016-17, while
recommended that they should be brought under the gross enrolment ratio of students was only
the ambit of a single commission. There is a case about 22%.
to include other professional education streams as (a) Only A
well, including architecture and nursing. The aim (b) Only B
(c) Only C
should be to set academic benchmarks for each
(d) Only A and C
stream, with sufficient autonomy to innovate on
courses and encourage studies across disciplines.
Q12. Which of the following is true according to the
Among the more contentious issues arising out of
passage?
the draft Bill is the Centre’s decision to shift grant-
A) Among the more contentious issues arising out
giving powers for higher education institutions to
of the draft Bill is the Centre’s decision to shift
the Ministry of Human Resource Development or a
grant-giving powers for higher education
separate body. The UGC has been doing this so
institutions to the Ministry of Human Resource
far, covering a variety of functions, and whatever
Development or a separate body.
the flaws, it ensured a separation of funding
B) Maintaining a balance on allocation of funds
decisions from political considerations.
and ensuring transparency will now depend on the
Maintaining a balance on allocation of funds and
proposed advisory council to the HECI.
ensuring transparency will now depend on the
C) There is a positive attempt in the draft legislation
proposed advisory council to the HECI. It is
to weed out degree mills and dubious training
welcome that the States are represented on the
institutions, with a provision for prosecution and
advisory council, giving it a federal character,
imprisonment of management officials who defy
although it is the Centre that will have the final say
the HECI
in all matters, not even the apex HECI. At a broader
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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

(a) Only A (b) Factious

(b) Only B (c) Agreeable
(c) All A, B and C (d) Both I and II
(d) Only C
Q19. Which of the following represent opposite
Q13. Which of the following is the suitable title for meaning of innovate as mentioned in the passage?
the above passage? (a) Destroy
(a) Reforming higher education (b) Obliterate
(b) Brace up to face the challenges in the higher (c) Annihilate
education (d) All of the above
(c) Higher Education More Skill-Centric
(d) All of the above
Passage-3
Q14. Why should the Centre give sufficient time to
Many great inventions are initially greeted with
academia, the teaching community and society at
ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane
large to submit considered opinions on the draft
was no exception. Although many people who
proposals?
heard about the first powered flight on December
(a) There were 864 recognised universities and
17, 1903 were excited and impressed, others
40,026 colleges in the country in 2016-17.
reacted with peals of laughter. The idea of flying an
(b) The challenging goal will fall to the HECI.
(c) Reform should, therefore, lead to the creation aircraft was repulsive to some people. Such people
of an agency that has the intellectual corpus to called Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of
help universities and colleges adapt. the first flying machine, impulsive fools. Negative
(d) Not mentioned in the passage reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights.
Impelled by their desire to succeed, they continued
Q15. What is the tone of the author in the their experiments in aviation.
passage? Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a
(a) Argumentative compelling interest in aeronautics and mechanics.
(b) Speculative As young boys they earned money by making and
(c) Provocative selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they
(d) Subjective designed a newspaper-folding machine, built a
printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop.
Q16. Which of the following represent closest In 1896, when they read about the death of Otto
meaning of advocate as mentioned in the Lilienthal, the brothers’ interest in flight grew into a
passage? compulsion.
(a) Support Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled
(b) Exclude his gliders by shifting his body in the desired
(c) Discard direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright
(d) Both II and III
brothers, however, and they searched for more
efficient methods to control the balance of airborne
Q17. Which of the following represent closest
vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested
meaning of intellectual as mentioned in the
numerous gliders and developed control
passage?
techniques. The brothers’ inability to obtain enough
(a) Cognitive
(b) Rational lift power for the gliders almost led them to
(c) Ignorant abandon their efforts.
(d) Both I and II After further study, the Wright brothers concluded
that the published tables of air pressure on curved
Q18. Which of the following represent opposite surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel
meaning of contentious as mentioned in the and began a series of experiments with model
passage? wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were
(a) Perverse repealed in time and replaced by the first reliable

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 11

figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This Q24. The old tables were _________ and replaced
work, in turn, made it possible for the brothers to by the first reliable figures for air pressure on
design a machine that would fly. In 1903 the curved surfaces.
Wrights built their first airplane, which cost less (a) destroyed
than $1,000. They even designed and built their (b) invalidated
own source of propulsion-a lightweight gasoline (c) multiplied
engine. When they started the engine on (d) approved
December 17, the airplane pulsated wildly before
taking off. The plane managed to stay aloft for 12 Q25. The Wrights designed and built their own
seconds, however, and it flew 120 feet. source of _________.
By 1905, the Wrights had perfected the first (a) force for moving forward
airplane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne (b) force for turning around
(c) turning
for half an hour at a time. Others had flown in
(d) force for going backward
balloons and hang gliders, but the Wright brothers
were the first to build a full-size machine that could
fly under its own power. As the contributors of one
of the most outstanding engineering achievements
in history, the Wright brothers are accurately called
the fathers of aviation.

Q20. The idea of flying an aircraft was ______ to

some people.
(a) boring
(b) distasteful
(c) exciting
(d) needless

Q21. People thought that the Wright brothers had

______.
(a) acted without thinking
(b) been negatively influenced
(c) been too cautious
(d) been mistaken

Q22. The Wrights’ interest in flight grew into a

______.
(a) financial empire
(b) plan
(c) need to act
(d) foolish thought

Q23. Lilienthal’s idea about controlling airborne

vehicles was _________ the Wrights.
(a) proven wrong by
(b) opposite to the ideas of
(c) disliked by
(d) accepted by

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