DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

E4

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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1
1. Identify the incorrect statement.
CHCl2 CCl3
(1) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+ (d6) in water.
(3) (4)
(2) The transition metals and their
compounds are known for their catalytic
activity due to their ability to adopt
Answer ( 3 )
multiple oxidation states and to form
complexes.
OH
(3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N CH3 CHCl2 CH–OH
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.
Cl2/h H2 O
Sol.
(4) The oxidation states of chromium in 373 K

CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same. (X)

Answer ( 4 ) –H2O

S o l . Oxidation state of Cr in CrO24 and Cr2O72 is CHO

+6
2. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
reaction.

 Glucose  Fructose

Sucrose  H2 O  4. Identify the incorrect match.
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at Name IUPAC Official Name
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
temperature will be : (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(1) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013) (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(3) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
(1) (a), (i) (2) (b), (ii)
(4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(3) (c), (iii) (4) (d), (iv)
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . G = G° + RT ln Q
S o l . Unununium
At equilibrium G = 0, Q = Keq
So rG° = –RT ln Keq Atomic number = 111

rG° = –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013) IUPAC official name : Roentgenium
3. Identify compound X in the following sequence 5. Which of the following is not correct about
of reactions carbon monoxide ?
(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
CH3 CHO
(2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
Cl2/h H2 O (3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
X 373 K bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin.
(4) It is produced due to incomplete
Cl CH2Cl
combustion.
Answer ( 3 )
(1) (2)
S o l . The carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

2
6. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
(1) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–
in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(1) n-Hexane (2) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(3) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–
(3) n-Heptane
(4) n-Butane (4) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical S o l . Spectrochemical series (as given in NCERT) :
alkanes like R1 – R1, as
– – –
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1  I– < Br– < SCN < Cl < S2– < F < OH < C2 O2–
4 <
 R1 – R1 + 2NaX
– –
If R 1 and R 2 are different, then mixture of H2O < NCS < EDTA4– < NH3 < en < CN < CO
alkanes may be obtained as
10. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + R2 – X 
 decompose to form B. B when passed through
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
R1 – R1 + R1 – R2 + R2 – R2 + 2NaX formed. What is the formula of C from the
7. Paper chromatography is an example of following ?
(1) CuSO4 (2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) Adsorption chromatography
(3) Cu(OH)2 (4) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
(2) Partition chromatography
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Thin layer chromatography

(4) Column chromatography Sol.

Answer (2)

S o l . Paper chromatography is a type of partition

chromatography in which a special quality
paper known as chromatography paper is
used.
Cu2+(aq) 2+
NH3(g) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]
8. Identify the correct statement from the (B) (C)
following : [Blue coloured
solution]
(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
carbon. 11. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following
due to evolution of CO2. compound(s) crystallise(s)?
(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of (2) Only NaCl
shapes.
(3) Only MgCl2
Answer ( 4 )
(4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
S o l . The iron obtained from blast furnace contains
about 4% carbon and many impurities like Answer ( 2 )
S, P, Si, Mn in smaller amount. This is known
as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes. Sol. Since CaCl2 and MgCl2 are more soluble than
NaCl, on passing HCl(g) through a solution
9. Which of the following is the correct order of containing CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl then NaCl
increasing field strength of ligands to form crystallizes out.
coordination compounds?

3
12. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
14. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the
Cr2+ ion is
correct option is :
(1) 3.87 BM (2) 4.90 BM
(1) rH > 0 and rS > 0
(3) 5.92 BM (4) 2.84 BM
(2) rH > 0 and rS < 0
Answer ( 2 )
(3) rH < 0 and rS > 0
S o l . Electronic configuration of Cr – [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(4) rH < 0 and rS < 0
Electronic configuration of Cr2+ – [Ar] 3d4
Answer ( 4 )
Number of unpaired e– = 4
S o l . Given reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl2 (g)
Spin only magnetic moment = n(n  2) We know that,

n = number of unpaired e–
Cl2  g  
 2Cl g  is endothermic reaction
Spin only magnetic moment = 4 (4  2) because it requires energy to break bond.
So reverse reaction is exothermic rH < 0
= 24 BM
Also, two gaseous atom combine together to
= 4.9 BM form 1 gaseous molecule.
13. Match the following and identify the correct So, randomness rS < 0
option.
15. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 +
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
Ca(HCO3)2
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2
hardness of deficient hydride is :
water
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14,
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas Ar = 40]
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar (1) 9 bar (2) 12 bar
structure
(3) 15 bar (4) 18 bar
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer ( 3 )
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
7 1
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) S o l . nN2    0.25
28 4
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
8 1
nAr    0.20
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 40 5
Answer (1)
Now, Applying Dalton’s law of partial
Sol.  Mixture of CO and H2 gases is known as
water gas or synthesis gas.  
pressure, pN2  N2 PTotal

 Temporary hardness of water is due to

bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. 0.25
  27 bar
0.45
 Diborane (B2H6) is an electron deficient
hydride.
5
  27  15 bar
 H2O2 is non-planar molecule having open 9
book like structure.

4
16. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using 19. The number of Faradays(F) required to
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2
at anode will be (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is
(1) Hydrogen gas (2) Oxygen gas (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) H2S gas (4) SO2 gas
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . During the electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid S o l . 1 equivalent of any substance is deposited by
using Pt electrodes following reaction will 1 F of charge.
take place.
We have, 20 g calcium
At cathode :
Given mass
Number of equivalents =
4H (aq)  4e  
 2H2 (g) Equivalent mass

At anode :
20
= =1
20
 O2 (g)  4H (aq)  4e
2H2 O(l) 

17. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable 40

Equivalent mass of Ca = = 20
than a secondary butyl carbocation because 2
of which of the following ?
So, 1 faraday of charge is required.
(1) – I effect of – CH3 groups
(2) + R effect of – CH3 groups 20. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives

(3) – R effect of – CH3 groups (1) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose

(4) Hyperconjugation (2) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose
Answer ( 4 ) (3) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
(4) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose

Sol. H Answer ( 3 )
Tertiary butyl carbocation Secondary butyl carbocation
(9 -H atoms) (5 -H atoms)
S o l . Sucrose    -D- Glucose 
Hydrolysis

More the number of -H atoms, more will be -D-Fructose

the hyperconjugation effect hence more will
be the stability of carbocation.
CH2OH
18. The following metal ion activates many
O O
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of H H HOH2C OH
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is H
responsible for the transmission of nerve OH H H HO
HO O CH2OH
signals.
H OH OH H
(1) Iron (2) Copper
-D-Glucose -D-Fructose

(3) Calcium (4) Potassium

21. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
Answer ( 4 )
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
S o l . Potassium (K) activates many enzymes 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
participate in oxidation of glucose to produce (1) 100 s (2) 200 s
ATP and helps in the transmission of nerve
signal along with Na. (3) 500 s (4) 1000 s

5
Answer ( 3 ) 23. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
2.303 A
Sol. k  log 0 (First order rate equation) known as
t A
(1) Aldol condensation
2.303 2
4.606  10–3  log (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
t 0.2
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
2.303
t  log10 (4) Cross Aldol condensation
4.606  10 –3
Answer (4)
103
  500 sec
2 O O
Sol. dil OH(–)
22. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives C H+ C CH3

OH OH H O
C C C—
(1) + CH3I
H H
O
–H2O
CH = CH—C—
I

In the presence of dil.OH(–), benzaldehyde and

(2) + CH3OH acetophenone will react to undergo cross-aldol
condensation.
24. Which of the following is a basic amino
OH acid ?
(1) Serine (2) Alanine
(3) + C2H5I
(3) Tyrosine (4) Lysine
Answer ( 4 )
I S o l . H2N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH COOH

NH2
(4) + C2H5OH
(Structure of Lysine)

Answer (1) Lysine is a basic amino acid.

25. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to
OCH3 HO CH3 form pent-2-ene is
(a) -Elimination reaction
Sol. + H + I (b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
SN2 (d) Dehydration reaction

OH (1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

+ CH3I (3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

6
Answer ( 1 ) 28. What is the change in oxidation number of
carbon in the following reaction?
Elimination
S o l . CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
Br
(Reactant)
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3 (1) + 4 to + 4 (2) 0 to + 4

Mechanism: (3) – 4 to + 4 (4) 0 to – 4

Answer (3)

S o l . CH4  x + 4 × 1 = 0  x = –4

CCl4  x + 4 × (–1) = 0  x = +4

3
4 4
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
Since -hydrogen is abstracted it is
-elimination. Change in oxidation state of carbon is from
–4 to +4
Since more substituted alkene is formed, it
follows zaitsev's rule. 29. Match the following :
Since 'H' and 'Br' are removed, it is dehydro- Oxide Nature
halogenation. (a) CO (i) Basic
26. An increase in the concentration of the (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
reactants of a reaction leads to change in
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(1) activation energy
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
(2) heat of reaction
Which of the following is correct option?
(3) threshold energy
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) collision frequency
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer ( 2 ) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
S o l . Heat of reaction is an extensive property. (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Hence, on change of amount/concentration of (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
reactants heat of reaction changes.
Answer (2)
27. The number of protons, neutrons and S o l . CO : Neutral oxide
175
electrons in 71 Lu, respectively, are BaO : Basic oxide
Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
(1) 71, 104 and 71 (2) 104, 71 and 71
Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
(3) 71, 71 and 104 (4) 175, 104 and 71
30. Which of the following amine will give the
Answer ( 1 ) carbylamine test?

175 NH2 NHCH3

Sol. 71 Lu
(1) (2)
No. of Protons= 71 = No. of Electrons

No. of Neutrons = Mass no. – No. of Protons N(CH3)2 NHC2H5

= 175 – 71 (3) (4)

= 104

7
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 1 )

S o l . Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give S o l . Naturally occuring polymer, natural rubber
carbylamine reaction. is cis-1, 4– polyisoprene

31. The correct option for free expansion of an

CH3 H
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is CH2 CH2
C C
(1) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0 H2 C CH2 C C
(2) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0 H3 C H
(3) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
34. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as
(4) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0 one of the product. Its structure is
Answer ( 1 ) CH = CH – CH3 CH2 – CH2 – CH3
S o l . Free expansion  Pex = 0
 w = – PexV = 0 (1) (2)

∵ Adiabatic process  q = 0
also, U = q + w [ first law of thermodynamics] CH2 – CH = CH2 CH2CH2CH3
 U = 0
(3) (4)
∵ Internal energy of an ideal gas is a
function of temperature
Answer ( 3 )
 If internal energy remains constant
 T = 0
O
CH2 – CH = CH2 CH2 – CH CH2
32. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
O3 O O
(1) He2 (2) Li2 Sol.
(3) C2 (4) O2
Zn/H 2O
Answer ( 1 )
O
S o l . For He2 molecule
CH2 – C – H
Electronic configuration is 1s2, *1s2 O
+ H–C–H
1
so bond order = [Nb  Na ] Methanal
2

1 35. Which of the following set of molecules will

= [2  2] have zero dipole moment?
2

=0 (1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,

1,4-dichlorobenzene
Since, bond order is zero, so He2 molecule
does not exist. (2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
33. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(1) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene (3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(3) polybutadiene
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

8
Answer ( 4 ) 38. Which one of the followings has maximum
number of atoms ?
F (1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

=0 (2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Sol. B
(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
F F
(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
Answer (4)
Be =0
F F
1
S o l .  Number of Mg atoms = × NA
24
O C O =0
1
 Number of O atoms = ×2× N
32 A

Cl 1
 Number of Li atoms = × NA
7
=0 1
 Number of Ag atoms = × NA
108
Cl 39. Identify the correct statements from the
following :
36. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
and frozen food.
depression for the solution of molality
0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
places) :
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
(1) 0.20 K (2) 0.80 K
alcohols into gasoline.
(3) 0.40 K (4) 0.60 K
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
Answer ( 3 )
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
S o l . Tf = kfm
(2) (a) and (c) only
= 5.12 (K.kg mol–1) × 0.078 (mol kg–1)
(3) (b) and (c) only
= 0.399 K
(4) (c) and (d) only
 0.40 K
37. The mixture which shows positive deviation Answer ( 4 )
from Raoult’s law is
Sol.  Dry ice, CO2(s), is used as refrigerant
(1) Ethanol + Acetone
 C60 contains 20 six membered rings, 12
(2) Benzene + Toluene
five membered rings
(3) Acetone + Chloroform
40. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
(4) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
determining which property of colloidal
Answer (1)
solution?
S o l . Pure ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded.
On adding acetone, its molecules get in (1) Viscosity
between the ethanol molecules and break
(2) Solubility
some of the hydrogen bonds between them.
This weakens the intermolecular attractive (3) Stability of the colloidal particles
interactions and the solution shows positive
(4) Size of the colloidal particles
deviation from Raoult's law.

9
Answer (3) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In colloidal solution, the potential difference Sol.
between the fixed layer and the diffused layer
–
of opposite charge is known as Zeta potential. O – + O MgBr
CH3– MgBr
The presence of equal and similar charges on CH3– C – CH 3 CH3– C – CH 3
colloidal particles is largely responsible in +
CH3
providing stability to the colloidal solution. Acetone
Hydrolysis
41. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The OH
atomic radius is
CH3– C – CH 3
CH3
3 2
(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm (tert-Butyl alcohol)
4 4
44. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M
4 4 NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2
(3)  288 pm (4)  288 pm
3 2 is 2 × 10–15

Answer ( 1 ) (1) 2 × 10–13 M (2) 2 × 10–8 M

S o l . For BCC, (3) 1 × 10–13 M (4) 1 × 108 M

3a  4r a  edge length Answer ( 1 )
r  radius
3a
r 2+
4 Sol. Ni(OH) 2 Ni + 2OH
s s 2s
Given, a = 288 pm
–
3 NaOH
+
Na + OH
r  288
4 0.1 0.1 0.1

42. Which of the following is a cationic

detergent? Total [OH] = 2s + 0.1  0.1
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
2+ – 2
Ionic product = [Ni ] [OH]
(2) Sodium stearate
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 2 × 10–15 = s(0.1)2

(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate s = 2 × 10–13

Answer ( 3 )
Solubility of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–13 M
CH3 45. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
+ – – O – O – linkage?
S o l . CH3 (CH2)15 N CH3 Br
(1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
CH3
(2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
43. Reaction between acetone and (4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
methylmagnesium chloride followed by
Answer ( 3 )
hydrolysis will give :
(1) Isopropyl alcohol O O
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol S o l . HO – S – O – O – S – OH
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol O O
(4) Isobutyl alcohol Peroxodisulphuric acid

10
46. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate 49. In which of the following techniques, the
animals are exemplified by embryos are transferred to assist those
(1) Ctenophora (2) Platyhelminthes females who cannot conceive?
(1) ZIFT and IUT (2) GIFT and ZIFT
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida
(3) ICSI and ZIFT (4) GIFT and ICSI
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and acoelomate animals with S o l . Option (1) is the Answer because ART in
organ level of organisation. which embryos are transferred, include ZIFT
and IUT i.e. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer and
47. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
Intra Uterine Transfer respectively, both are
substance governing seed dormancy?
embryo transfer (ET) methods.
(1) Gibberellic acid
Option (2), (3) and (4) are incorrect because
(2) Abscisic acid in GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer),
(3) Phenolic acid gamete is transferred into the fallopian tube
of female who cannot produce ova. ICSI is
(4) Para-ascorbic acid
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection in which
Answer ( 1 ) sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
Sol. • Gibberellic acid break seed dormancy. 50. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced
• It activate synthesis of -amylase which amino acids by mixing the following in a
breakdown starch into simple sugar. closed flask

48. Match the following columns and select the (1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
correct option. (2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
Column-I Column-II (3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens (4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Answer ( 1 )
Gonadotropin (hCG) S o l . In 1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum created electric discharge in a closed flask
glands containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
800°C.
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
51. Match the following columns and select the
Penis
correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Column-I Column-II
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) ear and pharynx
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) labyrinth
Answer ( 4 ) (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
window
S o l . The correct option is (4) becuase
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
(a) Placenta secretes human chorionic
basilar membrane
gonadotropin (hCG)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Zona pellucida is a primary egg membrane
secreted by the secondary oocyte (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(c) The secretions of bulbourethral glands (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
help in lubrication of the penis (3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
testicular hormones called androgens Answer ( 3 )
11
Sol. • Option (3) is correct because organ of S o l . The correct option is (2) because Ori
Corti is located on the Basilar membrane, sequence is responsible for controlling the
thus (a) in column-I matches with (iv) in copy number of the linked DNA in the vector.
column-II. Ori i.e. origin of replication is responsible for
initiation of replication.
• The coiled portion of the labyrinth is
54. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
called cochlea, so (b) matches with (ii) in
microvilli is found in
column II.
(1) Lining of intestine
• The eustachian tube connects the middle
ear cavity with the pharynx, thus (c) (2) Ducts of salivary gland
matches with (i) in column-II. (3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
• The middle ear contains ossicle called (4) Eustachian tube
Stapes that is attached to the oval
Answer ( 3 )
window of the cochlea, so (d) matches
with (iii) in column II. S o l . Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
microvilli is found in proximal convoluted
52. Match the following diseases with the
tubule of nephron (PCT).
causative organism and select the correct
option. 55. The ovary is half inferior in :
Column-I Column-II (1) Brinjal (2) Mustard
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (3) Sunflower (4) Plum
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium Answer ( 4 )
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella S o l . The ovary is half inferior in Plum.
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus 56. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
(a) (b) (c) (d) transfer of electrons from

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) PS-II to Cytb6f complex

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) Cytb6f complex to PS-I

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) PS-I to NADP+
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) PS-I to ATP synthase
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Typhoid fever in humans is caused by S o l . After excitement, e– is passed from PS-II (P680)
pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi. to primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin).
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus From primary e – acceptor, e – is passed to
Pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. plastoquinone. Plastoquinone (PQ) in turn
transfer its e– to Cyt b6f complex. Therefore
Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by the plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of
filarial worm, Wuchereria bancrofti and electrons from PS-II to Cyt b6f complex.
Wuchereria malayi.
57. Identify the incorrect statement.
Malaria is caused by different species of
Plasmodium. (1) Heart wood does not conduct water but
gives mechanical support
53. The sequence that controls the copy number
of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed (2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
water and minerals from root to leaf
(1) Selectable marker
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
(2) Ori site
xylem and is lighter in colour
(3) Palindromic sequence
(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
(4) Recognition site etc., heart wood is dark in colour
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )

12
S o l . Incorrect statement: Sapwood is the (3) the head holds a small proportion of a
innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in nervous system while the rest is situated
colour. along the ventral part of its body.
Correct statement: Sapwood is outermost (4) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous
secondary xylem. system while the rest is situated along the
dorsal part of its body.
58. Match the trophic levels with their correct
species examples in grassland ecosystem. Answer ( 3 )

(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow S o l . The head holds a small proportion of a
nervous system while the rest is situated
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture along the ventral part of its body.
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit 61. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass DNA helix during transcription.
Select the correct option (1) DNA ligase (2) DNA helicase
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Answer ( 4 )
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) S o l . RNA polymerase facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
62. Ray florets have
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Inferior ovary
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Superior ovary
S o l . Grassland ecosystem is a terrestrial
ecosystem. It includes various trophic levels (3) Hypogynous ovary

First trophic level (T1) – Grass (4) Half inferior ovary

Second trophic level (T2) – Rabbit Answer ( 1 )

Third trophic level (T3) – Crow Sol. • Ray floret have inferior ovary.

Fourth trophic level (T4) – Vulture • Epigynous flower are formed in family
Asteraceae (e.g., Sunflower)
59. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
63. Which of the following is correct about
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the
viroids?
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of
sugarcane crop. (1) They have RNA with protein coat
(1) Cytokinin (2) They have free RNA without protein coat
(2) Gibberellin (3) They have DNA with protein coat

(3) Ethylene (4) They have free DNA without protein coat

(4) Abscisic acid Answer ( 2 )

Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Viroids have free RNA without protein coat.

S o l . Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins 64. Which of the following statements about
increases the length of the stem, thus inclusion bodies is incorrect?
increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes (1) They are not bound by any membrane
per acre. (2) These are involved in ingestion of food
60. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may particles
live for few days because (3) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the (4) These represent reserve material in
cockroach are situated in ventral part of cytoplasm
abdomen.
Answer ( 2 )
(2) the cockroach does not have nervous
S o l . These are not involved in ingestion of food
system.
particles

13
65. Select the correct statement. S o l . Option (1) is the correct Answer
(1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. because Eosinophils are associated with
allergic reactions and release histaminase,
(2) Glucagon is associated with
destructive enzymes, so (a) in column I
hypoglycemia.
matches with (iii) in column II.
(3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory
(4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
reactions, so (b) matches with (iv).
Answer ( 1 )
Neutrophils are phagocytic cells; so (c)
S o l . Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia.
matches with (ii). Both B and T lymphocytes
Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes
are responsible for immune responses of the
and is associated with hypoglycemia.
body, so, (d) in column I matches with (i) in
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis,
column II.
so increase blood sugar level.
66. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the 68. The transverse section of a plant shows
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus following anatomical features :
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to (a) Large number of scattered vascular
(1) Insect pests (2) Fungal diseases bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(3) Plant nematodes (4) Insect predators (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
Answer ( 1 ) ground tissue

S o l . Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(Insect pest).
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes have been
Identify the category of plant and its part :
introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton
bollworm. This makes Bt cotton as (1) Monocotyledonous stem
biopesticide.
(2) Monocotyledonous root
67. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (3) Dicotyledonous stem

Column - I Column - II (4) Dicotyledonous root

(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response Answer ( 1 )

(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis S o l . All features are related to monocotyledonous
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release stems
histaminase, 69. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are
destructive examples of
enzymes
(1) Adaptive radiation
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing (2) Convergent evolution
histamine
(3) Industrial melanism
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Natural selection
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer ( 2 )
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
S o l . The correct option is (2) because flippers of
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Penguins and Dolphins are an example of
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) analogous organs. Analogous structures are a
Answer ( 1 ) result of convergent evolution.

14
70. The specific palindromic sequence which is S o l . Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
recognized by EcoRI is enter vegetative inactive stage, called
(1) 5 - GAATTC - 3 quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
the end of M-phase and beginning of G1 phase.
3 - CTTAAG - 5
74. Match the following columns and select the
(2) 5 - GGAACC - 3
correct option.
3 - CCTTGG - 5
Column-I Column-II
(3) 5 - CTTAAG - 3
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias
3 - GAATTC - 5
polyphagous pest
(4) 5 - GGATCC - 3
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
3 - CCTAGG - 5
symmetry and larva
Answer ( 1 )
with bilateral
S o l . The correct option is (1) because the specific
palindromic sequence which is recognised by symmetry
Eco RI is (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
5 - GAATTC - 3 (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
3 - CTTAAG - 5 (a) (b) (c) (d)
71. The QRS complex in a standard ECG (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
represents
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Repolarisation of auricles
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) Depolarisation of auricles
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles
S o l . (a) Locusta is a gregareous pest.
Answer ( 3 )
(b) In Echinoderms, adults are radially
S o l . QRS complex represents the depolarisation of symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
ventricles.
symmetrical.
72. According to Robert May, the global species
(c) Scorpions respire through book lungs.
diversity is about
(d) Bioluminescence is well marked in
(1) 1.5 million (2) 20 million
ctenophores.
(3) 50 million (4) 7 million
75. The process responsible for facilitating loss
Answer ( 4 ) of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
Sol. • Robert May estimated global species blades at night and in early morning is
diversity at about 7 million. (1) Transpiration
• Although some extreme estimates range (2) Root pressure
from 20 to 50 million.
(3) Imbibition
73. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called (4) Plasmolysis
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at Answer ( 2 )
the end of
Sol. • Root pressure is positive hydrostatic
(1) M phase (2) G1 phase pressure.
(3) S phase (4) G2 phase • It develops in tracheary element at night
Answer ( 1 ) and in early morning.

15
76. Match the following columns and select the 78. The roots that originate from the base of the
correct option. stem are

Column-I Column-II (1) Fibrous roots (2) Primary roots

(3) Prop roots (4) Lateral roots
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second and Answer ( 1 )
seventh ribs S o l . The roots that originate from the base of the
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the stem are fibrous roots.
Humerus 79. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(1) Primary sludge
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
(2) Floating debris
with the sternum
(3) Effluents of primary treatment
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Activated sludge
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer ( 4 )
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
S o l . The sediment in settlement tank is called
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) activated sludge.
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) A small part of the activated sludge is
pumped back into aeration tank
Answer ( 4 )
Remaining major part of the sludge is pumped
S o l . (a) 11 th and 12 th pairs of ribs are not into large tank called anaerobic sludge
connected ventrally and are therefore, digesters.
called floating ribs.
80. Which of the following statements is
(b) Acromion is a flat expanded process of not correct?
spine of scapula. The lateral end of (1) In man insulin is synthesised as a
clavicle articulates with acromion proinsulin
process.
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(c) Scapula is a flat triangular bone in the C-peptide.
dorsal part of the thorax between 2nd and (3) The functional insulin has A and B chains
the 7th rib. linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(d) Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with (4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
head of the humerus to form the shoulder in E.Coli.
joint. Answer ( 3 )
77. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by S o l . The correct option is (3) because functional
nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous insulin has A and B chains linked together by
plants is/are disulphide bridges.
(1) Ammonia alone 81. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to transport of oxygen
(2) Nitrate alone
(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(3) Ammonia and oxygen mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen (2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the

Mg formation of oxyhaemoglobin
S o l . N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP   2NH3 + H2 +
(4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
16ADP + 16Pi
of oxyhaemoglobin
Ammonia and Hydrogen. Answer ( 3 )
16
S o l . The correct option is (3) because higher H+ S o l . The plant parts which consist of two
concentration favours the dissociation of generations one within the other are pollen
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin in tissues. grains inside the anther and embryo sac
inside the ovule.
In the alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+
Pollen grain is haploid inside the diploid
concentration and lower temperature favour
anther.
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
85. Which of the following hormone levels will
82. Which of the following regions of the globe cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
exhibits highest species diversity? graffian follicle?
(1) Western Ghats of India (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(2) Madagascar (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(3) Himalayas (3) Low concentration of LH

(4) Amazon forests (4) Low concentration of FSH

Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. z High level of estrogen will send positive
S o l . The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in feedback to anterior pituitary for release
South America has the greatest biodiversity of LH.
on earth.
z FSH, LH and estrogen are at peak level
83. Match the following with respect to meiosis during mid of menstrual cycle (28 day
cycle).
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
z LH surge leads to ovulation.
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
86. Identify the basic amino acid from the
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over following.
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (1) Tyrosine (2) Glutamic Acid
Select the correct option from the following (3) Lysine (4) Valine
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer ( 3 )

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) S o l . Option (3) is the correct Answer
because lysine is a basic amino acid.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Valine is a neutral amino acid.
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) Glutamic acid is an acidic amino acid while
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid.
Answer ( 2 ) 87. Identify the correct statement with reference
to human digestive system.
S o l . Zygotene  Synapsis
(1) IIeum opens into small intestine
Pachytene  Crossing over
(2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
Diplotene  Chiasmata formation alimentary canal
Diakinesis  Terminalisation (3) IIeum is a highly coiled part
84. The plant parts which consist of two (4) Vermiform appendix arises from
generations - one within the other duodenum
Answer ( 3 )
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
S o l . Option (3) is correct as ileum is a highly coiled
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male tube. Serosa is the outermost layer of the
gametes alimentary canal, thus, option (2) is an
(c) Seed inside the fruit incorrect statement.
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the
vermiform appendix arises from caecum part
(1) (a) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) of large intestine thus, option (4) is incorrect
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) statement. Ileum opens into the large
intestine, thus option (1) is also an incorrect
Answer ( 4 ) statement.
17
88. The process of growth is maximum during 93. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(1) Log phase (2) Lag phase Restriction Enzymes.
(3) Senescence (4) Dormancy (1) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Answer ( 1 )
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
S o l . In exponential growth, the initial growth is
sites.
slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly
thereafter at an exponential rate in log or (3) They are useful in genetic engineering.
exponential phase. (4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
89. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle ligases.
at Answer ( 4 )
(1) Hilum (2) Micropyle S o l . Restriction endonucleases make cuts at
(3) Nucellus (4) Chalaza specific positions within the DNA.
Answer ( 1 ) They function by inspecting the length of a
S o l . The attachment point of funicle and body of DNA sequence.
ovule is known as hilum. Restriction endonuclease bind to the DNA and
90. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex cut the two strands of double helix at specific
occurs during points in their sugar-phosphate backbones.
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene They are used in genetic engineering to form
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene recombinant molecules of DNA.

Answer ( 3 ) DNA ligases join the DNA fragments.

S o l . Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex 94. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to

occurs During Diplotene stage of Prophase-I (1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
of Meiosis-I. temperature
91. Select the correct events that occur during (2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose
inspiration. of UV-B radiation
(a) Contraction of diaphragm (3) High reflection of light from snow
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal (4) Damage to retina caused by infra-red
muscles rays
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases Answer ( 2 )
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases S o l . UV-B radiations damage DNA and mutations
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) may occur.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) only (d) In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B
Answer ( 1 ) radiations, and a high dose of UV-B causes
inflammation of cornea called snow
S o l . Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of
blindness, cataract, etc.
diaphragm, which increases the volume of
thoracic chamber in the anterio-posterior axis. 95. Which of the following refer to correct
The contraction of external intercostal example(s) of organisms which have evolved
muscles increase the volume of the thoracic due to changes in environment brought about
chamber in the dorsoventral axis. by anthropogenic action?

92. Which one of the following is the most (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
abundant protein in the animals? (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Collagen (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(3) Lectin (4) Insulin (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
Answer ( 2 ) animals like dogs.
S o l . Collagen is the most abundant protein in (1) only (a) (2) (a) and (c)
animal world and RuBisCO is the most (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) only (d)
abundant protein in the whole of the
Biosphere. Answer ( 3 )

18
S o l . The correct option is (3) because : 98. Match the following columns and select the
• Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant correct option.
eukaryotes and man-created breeds of Column-I Column-II
domesticated animals like dogs are
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
examples of evolution by anthropogenic
action. (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
• Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands are deaminase
example of natural selection, adaptive deficiency
radiation and founder's effect. (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
96. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA infection
fragments can be visualized with the help of (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light thuringiensis
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer ( 2 ) (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
S o l . The separated DNA fragments can be (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
visualised only after staining the DNA with Answer ( 1 )
Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
radiation. S o l . The correct option is (1) because
97. Match the following (a) In Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene was
isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
catalytic activity (b) The first clinical gene therapy was given
(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
bonds deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin (c) RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all
in fungi eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense.
(d) Secondary (iv) Collagen
metabolite (d) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
suspected AIDS patients.
Choose the correct option from the following
99. Match the organism with its use in
(a) (b) (c) (d)
biotechnology.
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) thuringiensis
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) aquaticus first rDNA
Answer ( 1 ) molecule
S o l . Option (1) is the correct Answer (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
because Malonate is the competitive inhibitor tumefaciens
of catalytic activity of succinic dehydrogenase, (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
so (a) matches with (ii) in column II. typhimurium
Collagen is proteinaceous in nature and Select the correct option from the following:
possesses peptide bonds, so (b) matches with
(iv) in column II. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Chitin is a homopolymer present in the cell (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
wall of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods, so, (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) matches with (iii) in column II.
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Abrin and Ricin are toxins, secondary
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
metabolites, so (d) in column I matches with
(i) in column II. Answer ( 2 )

19
S o l . (a) Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry- 103. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
proteins. and peptide bond, respectively in their
(b) Thermus aquaticus is a source of structure
thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq (1) Chitin, cholesterol
polymerase) used in PCR.
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning
(3) Cellulose, lecithin
vector.
(4) Inulin, insulin
(d) The construction of 1st recombinant DNA
molecule was performed using native Answer ( 4 )
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium. S o l . Inulin is a fructan (polysaccharide of fructose).
100. Choose the correct pair from the following Adjacent fructose units are linked through
glycosidic bond.
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA
molecules Insulin is a protein composed of 51
(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into aminoacids. Adjacent aminoacids are
fragments attached through peptide bond.

(3) Nucleases - Separate the two 104. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
strands of DNA population?

(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific (1) Sex ratio (2) Natality
positions within DNA (3) Mortality (4) Species interaction
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Ligases join the two DNA molecules. S o l . Natality – Population attribute
101. Which of the following would help in Mortality – Population attribute
prevention of diuresis?
Species interaction – Population
(1) More water reabsorption due to interaction
undersecretion of ADH
Sex ratio – Population attribute
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
105. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
tubules due to aldosterone
enters the human body is
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
(1) Trophozoites
vasoconstriction
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells (2) Sporozoites

Answer ( 2 ) (3) Female gametocytes

Sol.: Adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids (4) Male gametocytes

like aldosterone which increase the Answer ( 2 )
reabsorption of Na + and water from renal
S o l . Plasmodium enters the human body as
tubule that prevent diuresis.
sporozoites (Infectious stage) through the bite
102. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of Infected Female Anopheles mosquito.
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
106. Identify the wrong statement with reference
Marino rams?
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) Out crossing (2) Mutational breeding
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(3) Cross breeding (4) Inbreeding
(2) A person will have only two of the three
Answer ( 3 ) alleles.
S o l . Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed (3) When IA and IB are present together, they
in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri-ewe and express same type of sugar.
Marino rams. In cross-breeding, superior
male of one breed are mated with superior (4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
females of another breed. Answer ( 3 )

20
S o l . ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. (a) (b) (c) (d)
The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. The
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different form
of the sugar while allele i does not produce (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
any sugar. Because humans are diploid
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
organisms, each person can possess at the
most any two of the three I gene alleles. (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
107. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular Answer ( 2 )
algae?
Sol. Column-I Column-II
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria (a) Clostridium (ii) Butyric acid

(3) Anabaena and Volvox butylicum

(4) Chlorella and Spirulina (b) Trichoderma (i) Cyclosporin-A
Answer ( 4 ) polysporum
S o l . Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae.
(c) Monascus (iv) Blood cholesterol
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Laminaria and
Sargassum are multicellular. Volvox is purpureus lowering agent
colonial. (d) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid
108. Identify the wrong statement with reference
110. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
to immunity.
completed
(1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s (a) In Ur
body. It is called “Active immunity”. (1) Prior to ovulation
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly
(2) At the time of copulation
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(3) Active immunity is quick and gives full (3) After zygote formation
response. (4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from ovum
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is

completed after the entry of sperm in
S o l . The correct option is (3) because active
immunity is slow and takes time to give its full secondary oocyte which lead to the formation
effective response in comparison to passive of a large ovum and a tiny IInd polar body.
immunity where pre-formed antibodies are
111. How many true breeding pea plant varieties
administered.
did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
109. Match the following columns and select the except in one character with contrasting
correct option.
traits?
Column-I Column-II
(1) 4
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
butylicum (2) 2
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid (3) 14
polysporum
(4) 8
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
Answer ( 3 )
purpureus
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol S o l . Mendel selected 14 True breeding plant
lowering agent varieties.

21
112. Which of the following statements are true for 115. Match the following concerning essential
the phylum-Chordata? elements and their functions in plants
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life. (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination

(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during (c) Boron (iii) Required for
the embryonic period only. chlorophyll
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and biosynthesis
hollow. (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Select the correct option
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (d) and (c) (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (c) and (a) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (a) and (b) (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (b) and (c) (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In vertebrata, notochord is present during S o l . (a) Iron – Essential for the formation
embryonic period only as it is replaced by
of chlorophyll
vertebral column.
(b) Zinc – Needed for synthesis of
In chordates, central nervous system is dorsal
auxin
and hollow.
113. Experimental verification of the chromosomal (c) Boron – Have a role in pollen grain
theory of inheritance was done by germination

(1) Mendel (2) Sutton (d) Manganese – Is involved in the splitting

(3) Boveri (4) Morgan of water to liberate O 2
during photosynthesis
Answer ( 4 )
116. Match the following columns and select the
S o l . Experimental verification of the chromosomal
theory of inheritance was done by Morgan. correct option.

Note: Column-I Column-II

Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal (a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon
theory of inheritance but it was experimentally gill slits
verified by T.H. Morgan.
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
114. The first phase of translation is caudal fin
(1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(2) Recognition of DNA molecule
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Recognition of an anti-codon
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer ( 3 )
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
S o l . The first phase of translation involves
activation of amino acid in the presence of ATP (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
and linked to their cognate tRNA - a process (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
commonly called as charging of tRNA or
aminoacylation of tRNA. Answer ( 1 )

22
S o l . Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing 120. Which is the important site of formation of
6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration, so glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
(a) matches with (ii) in column-II. cells?
Air bladder is present in bony fishes belonging (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
to class Osteichthyes which regulates
(2) Peroxisomes
buoyancy, so (c) matches with (iv) in
column-II. (3) Golgi bodies
Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison (4) Polysomes
sting, so, (d) matches with (i) in column-II.
Answer ( 3 )
Heterocercal caudal fin is present in
S o l . Golgi bodies are site of formation of
members of class Chondrichthyes, so (b) in
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
column-I matches with (iii) in column-II
cells.
117. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
from 121. Strobili or cones are found in
(1) Squamous epithelial cells (1) Salvinia (2) Pteris
(2) Columnar epithelial cells (3) Marchantia (4) Equisetum
(3) Chondrocytes Answer ( 4 )
(4) Compound epithelial cells S o l . Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum.
Answer ( 2 ) 122. Match the following columns and select the
S o l . Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified correct option.
from columnar epithelial cells which secrete Column-I Column-II
mucus.
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
118. If the distance between two consecutive base
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
length of the DNA is approximately
(1) 2.0 meters (2) 2.5 meters (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 2.2 meters (4) 2.7 meters (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer ( 3 ) (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
S o l . Length of DNA = [0.34 × 10–9]m × 6.6 × 109 bp (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
= 2.2 m (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Distance between 2 base pair in DNA helix Answer ( 3 )
= 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m S o l . Graves' disease is due to excess secretion of
Total number of base pair = 6.6 × 109 bp thyroid hormones (T3 & T4).
119. The number of substrate level Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of
phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid insulin from -cells of pancreas.
cycle is
Diabetes insipidus is due to hyporelease of
(1) Zero (2) One ADH from posterior pituitary.
(3) Two (4) Three
Addison's disease is due to hyposecretion of
Answer ( 2 ) hormone from adrenal cortex.
S o l . One substrate level phosphorylation in one 123. Presence of which of the following conditions
turn of citric acid cycle as per following in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
reaction:
(1) Uremia and Ketonuria
Succinate
Thiokinase (2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
Succinyl Co-A Succinate
(3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
GDP GTP
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
ATP ADP Answer ( 3 )

23
S o l . Presence of Ketone bodies in urine S o l . Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
(Ketonuria) and presence of glucose in urine the rate of production of organic matter
(Glycosuria) are indicative of Diabetes during photosynthesis.
mellitus.
Net primary productivity is GPP-respiration
124. Select the correct match
Hence gross primary productivity is always
(1) Haemophilia – Y linked more than NPP
(2) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal 127. Which of the following statements is
dominant trait correct?
(3) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal (1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-
recessive trait, bonds
chromosome-11
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-
(4) Thalassemia – X linked
bond
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
S o l . Phenylketonuria – Autosomal H-bonds
recessive disorder
(4) Adenine does not pair with thymine
Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive
disorder Answer ( 1 )

Haemophilia – X linked recessive S o l . Adenine pairs with thymine through two

disorder H-bonds i.e., A == T

Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive 128. Identify the correct statement with regard to
trait, caused due to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
mutation in gene (1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
present on
(2) Reorganisation of all cell components
chromosome no. 11
takes place.
Embryo sac is haploid inside the diploid ovule.
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
125. Floridean starch has structure similar to does not replicate its DNA.
(1) Starch and cellulose (4) Nuclear Division takes place.
(2) Amylopectin and glycogen
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Mannitol and algin
S o l . During G 1 phase the cell is metabolically
(4) Laminarin and cellulose active and continuously grows but does not
Answer ( 2 ) replicate its DNA.
S o l . Floridean starch is stored food material in DNA synthesis takes place in S phase. Nuclear
red algae. It's structure is similar to division occurs during Karyokinesis.
Amylopectin and Glycogen. Reorganisation of all cell components takes
126. In relation to Gross primary productivity and place in M-Phase.
Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
129. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
which one of the following statements is
of
correct?
(1) protein into polypeptides
(1) Gross primary productivity is always less
than net primary productivity (2) trypsinogen into trypsin
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more (3) caseinogen into casein
than net primary productivity (4) pepsinogen into pepsin
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net Answer ( 2 )
primary productivity are one and same
S o l . The correct option is (2) because trypsinogen
(4) There is no relationship between Gross
is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase,
primary productivity and Net primary
secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active
productivity
trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen from
Answer ( 2 ) pancreas.

24
130. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for 133. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
control of in photorespiration leads to the formation of
(1) Transport of Genetically modified (1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
organisms from one country to another
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(3) Release of Green House gases
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and
(4) Disposal of e-wastes
1 molecule of 2-C compound
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Montreal protocol – Signed in 16 Sep, 1987
S o l . In photorespiration, O2 binds to RubisCo. As a
(Ozone day)
result RuBP instead to being converted to
Came into force – 1 Jan, 1989.
2 molecules of PGA bind with O2 to form one
It was aimed at stopping the production and molecule each of phosphoglycerate (3 carbon
import of ODS and reduce their concentration compound) and phosphoglycolate ( 2 carbon
in the atmosphere.
compound).
131. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
134. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine,
takes place by :
strychnine and caffeine are produced by
(1) Insects or wind plants for their
(2) Water currents only (1) Nutritive value
(3) Wind and water
(2) Growth response
(4) Insects and water
(3) Defence action
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Effect on reproduction
S o l . In majority of aquatic plants, the flowers
Answer ( 3 )
emerge above the level of water.
These may be pollinated by insects or wind Sol.: A wide variety of chemical substances that we
extract from plants on a commercial scale
eg.: Water hyacinth and water lily
(nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium,
132. Select the option including all sexually etc) are produced by them (plants) as
transmitted diseases.
defences against grazers and browsers.
(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
135. Embryological support for evolution was
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes disapproved by
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (2) Alfred Wallace
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Charles Darwin
S o l . Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes are
(4) Oparin
sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer ( 1 )
Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium
Neisseria gonorrhoeae. S o l . Embryological support for evolution was

Syphilis is caused by a bacterium Treponema disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer, he noted
pallidum. that embryos never pass through the adult
stages of other animals during embryonic
Genital herpes is caused by a virus Type-II-
development.
Herpes simplex virus.

25
136. The increase in the width of the depletion R1 l1
region in a p-n junction diode is due to : 
R2 l2
(1) forward bias only
15 1.5
(2) reverse bias only  
1 l2
(3) both forward bias and reverse bias
l2 = 0.1 m
(4) increase in forward current
= 1.0 × 10–1 m
Answer (2)
139. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
S o l . Due to reverse biasing, the width of the is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly:
depletion region increases.
(1) 6 (2) 0.6
137. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
frequency is incident on a photosensitive (3) 0.06 (4) 0.006
material. What will be the photoelectric Answer (3)
current if the frequency is halved and intensity
S o l . 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J
is doubled?
1
(1) doubled (2) four times 1J  eV
1.6  10 19
(3) one-fourth (4) zero
10 20
Answer (4) 1020 J  eV
1.6  1019
3 = 0.06 eV
Sol.   0
2 140. The phase difference between displacement
 3 and acceleration of a particle in a simple
   0 harmonic motion is :
2 4
  <  0 3
(1)  rad (2) rad
 No photoelectric emission will take place. 2
138. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of 
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in (3) rad (4) zero
2
the right gap at a point which divids the
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the Answer (1)
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1  S o l . If y = A sint
of the resistance wire is :
dy
then v 
(1) 1.0 × 10–2 m (2) 1.0 × 10–1 m dt
(3) 1.5 × 10–1 m (4) 1.5 × 10–2 m v = A cost
Answer (2) dv
a
Q = 10 dt
P C
a = –A2sin(t)
G
l1 l2 a = A2sin(t + )
Sol. A B
D So phase difference between displacement
and acceleration is .
( )
141. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
P l1 3 velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
Initially,  
10 l2 2 the ground after some time with a velocity of
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
30
 P  15  (1) 360 m (2) 340 m
2
l (3) 320 m (4) 300 m
Now Resistance, R 
A Answer (4)

26
 20 m/s 144. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
Sol. connected to each other via a stop cock. A
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
g and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
80 m/s
(1) isothermal (2) adiabatic
v2 = u2 + 2gh
(3) isochoric (4) isobaric
v = 80 m/s
Answer (2)
u = 20 m/s
S o l .Entire system is thermally insulated. So, no
v 2  u2 6400  400 heat exchange will take place. Hence, process
h=   300 m
2g 20 will be adiabatic.
142. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 145. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from What is the magnitude of electric field at a
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is :  1 
  9  109 Nm2 C2 
 1   4  0 
  9  109 N m2 /C2 
 4  0  (1) 1.28 × 104 N/C
(1) 50 V (2) 200 V (2) 1.28 × 105 N/C
(3) 400 V (4) zero (3) 1.28 × 106 N/C
Answer (2)
(4) 1.28 × 107 N/C
kp cos 
Sol. V  Answer (2)
r2
S o l . Electric field outside a conducting sphere
9  109  16  109  cos60
V
0.36 1 Q
E
V = 200 V 4  0 r 2

143. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected 9  109  3.2  107

to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The 
225  104
permeability of the material of the rod is :
= 0.128 × 106
(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1)
= 1.28 × 105 N/C
(1) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
146. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
(2) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1
diameter d and number density n can be
(3) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1 expressed as :
(4) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1 1 1
(1) (2)
Answer (1) 2 nd 2 nd2
S o l . m = 599 1 1
r = 1 + m = 600 (3) 2 2 (4)
2n d 2 n  2 d2
2

  r  0 Answer (2)

 = 600 × 4 × 10–7 S o l . According to the formula

 = 2400 × 10–7 1

 = 2.4 × 10–4 Tm A–1 2 nd2

27
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

147. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: 148. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
is :
A (1) 4.5 × 1016 J
Y (2) 4.5 × 1013 J
B (3) 1.5 × 1013 J
(4) 0.5 × 1013 J
(1) A B Y
Answer (2)
0 0 0
S o l . From mass-energy equivalence.
0 1 0
E = mc2
1 0 0
= 0.5 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2
1 1 1
= 4.5 × 1013 J
(2) A B Y
149. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
0 0 0
a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
0 1 1 having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
1 0 1 received by the surface during time span of
1 1 1 1 minute is :

(3) A B Y (1) 10 × 103 J (2) 12 × 103 J

0 0 1 (3) 24 × 103 J (4) 48 × 103 J
0 1 1 Answer (3)
1 0 1 S o l . Energy received = Intensity × Area × Time
1 1 0 = 20 × 20 × 60
(4) A B Y = 24 × 103 J
0 0 1 150. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
0 1 0 one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
1 0 0 of prism A) and emerges normally from the
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
1 1 0 material of the prism is , then the angle of
Answer (1) incidence is nearly equal to :

A A 2A
Sol. A (1) (2)
2 
Y
A
B (3) A (4)
B 2
Answer (3)
_________ S o l . Light ray emerges normally from another
Y  AB surface, hence, e(angle of emergence) = 0
_____ r2 = 0
 A·B
r1 + r2 = A
= A·B  AND Gate
 r1 = A
Truth Table
Applying Snell's law on first surface
A B Y
1.sini = sinr1
0 0 0
 sini = sinA
0 1 0
1 0 0 For small angles (sin  )
1 1 1 hence i = A

28
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

151. The solids which have the negative S o l . Since, electric potential is found throughout
temperature coefficient of resistance are: dV
(1) metals constant, hence electric field, E   =0
dr
(2) insulators only 155. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100
(3) semiconductors only turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
(4) insulators and semiconductors field at the centre of the solenoid is :
Answer (4) (0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
S o l . For metals temperature coefficient of (1) 6.28 × 10–4 T
resistance is positive while for insulators and (2) 3.14 × 10–4 T
semiconductors, temperature coefficient of
(3) 6.28 × 10–5 T
resistance is negative.
(4) 3.14 × 10–5 T
235
152. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded Answer (1)
with a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three S o l . Magnetic field at centre of solenoid = 0nI
neutrons and : N 100
n=   200 turns / m
(1) 144
(2) 91 L 50  10 –2
56 Ba 40 Zr
101 103
I = 2.5 A
(3) 36 Kr (4) 36 Kr
On putting the values
Answer (1)
B  4   10–7  200  2.5
S o l . U235 1 89 1 A
92  0 n  Kr36  3n0  X Z = 6.28 × 10–4 T
92 + 0 = 36 + Z 156. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
 Z = 56 coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A telescope whose objective has a diameter of
 A = 144 2 m is :
144 (1) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
So, 56 Ba is generated.
(2) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
153. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in
water and water rises in it to a height h. The (3) 7.32 × 10–7 rad
mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. (4) 6.00 × 10–7 rad
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed Answer (1)
in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
tube is : 
S o l . R  1.22 ;  = 600 × 10–9 m d = 2 m
(1) 2.5 g (2) 5.0 g d
(3) 10.0 g (4) 20.0 g 1.22  600  10 –9
=
Answer (3) 2
S o l . Force of surface tension balances the weight  = 3.66 × 10–7 rad
of water in capillary tube.
157. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
FS = 2rTcos = mg
potential difference of V volt. If the
Here, T and  are constant
So, m  r de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
m2 2r
Hence,  (1) 10 V (2) 102 V
5.0 r
 m2 = 10.0 g (3) 103 V (4) 104 V
154. In a certain region of space with volume Answer (4)
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in 12.27
Sol.   Å
this region is : V
(1) zero (2) 0.5 N/C 12.27  10 –10
V  102
(3) 1 N/C (4) 5 N/C 1.227  10 –11
Answer (1)  V = 104 volts
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

158. Dimensions of stress are : 161. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML2T–2] not valid ?
(1) Hydrogen atom
(3) [ML0T–2] (4) [ML–1 T–2]
(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
Answer (4)
(3) Deuteron atom
Force (4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
S o l . Stress =
Area
Answer (4)
MLT 2  S o l . Bohr model is only valid for single electron
 
species.
L2 
 
Singly ionised neon atom has more than one
 ML1T 2  electron in orbit. Hence, Bohr model is not
valid.
159. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
162. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
wit h air as medium is 6 F. With the
of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
the medium is : (1) 0.5 kg/m3 (2) 0.2 kg/m3
(0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2) (3) 0.1 kg/m3 (4) 0.02 kg/m3

(1) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2 Answer (2)

(2) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2 PM

S o l . PM = RT  
RT
(3) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
P = 249 × 103 N/m2
(4) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
M = 2 × 10–3 kg
Answer (3) T = 300 K
S o l . C = KC0
(249  103 )(2  10 –3 ) 0.2 kg
  
C 30 8.3  300 m3
K  5
C0 6 163. For transistor action, which of the following
 statements is correct?
K (1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
0
have same doping concentrations.
  K 0
(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should
= 5 × 8.85 × 10–12 have same size.
= 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2 (3) Both emitter junction as well as the
160. The ratio of contributions made by the electric collector junction are forward biased.
field and magnetic field components to the (4) The base region must be very thin and
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : lightly doped.
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves) Answer (4)
(1) c : 1 Sol. E B C

(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : c
(4) 1 : c2
For Bi-polar junction transistor
Answer (2)
Length Profile is LC > LE > LB
S o l . In an electromagnetic wave, half of the and doping profile is E > C > B
intensity is provided by the electric field and
For transistor action Base-emitter junction is
half by the magnetic field
forward biased and Base-collector junction is
Hence required ratio should be 1 : 1 reversed biased.

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

164. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be 168. Which of the following graph represents the
(1) 0° < ib < 30° (2) 30° < ib < 45° variation of resistivity () with temperature (T)
for copper?
(3) 45° < ib < 90° (4) ib = 90°
Answer (3) (1)

S o l .  = tan ib
1<<
1 < tan ib < 
tan–1(1) < ib < tan–1() T
45° < ib < 90° (2)
165. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
absolute temperature)

1 3
(1) kB T (2) kB T
2 2 T

(3)
5 7
(3) kB T (4) kB T
2 2
Answer (2)
S o l . For monoatomic gases, degree of freedom is 3.
Hence average thermal energy per molecule is T
3 (4)
KEavg  kB T
2
166. Taking into account of the significant figures,
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
(1) 9.9801 m (2) 9.98 m
(3) 9.980 m (4) 9.9 m T

Answer (2) Answer (3)

9.99 S o l . At temperature much lower than 0°C, graph

 0.0099 deviates considerably from a straight line.
Sol.
9.9801 m Option (2) is correct
In subtraction, answer should be reported to 169. Find the torque about the origin when a force
least number of decimal places, so answer of 3j N acts on a particle whose position
should be 9.98 m.
vector is 2k m .
167. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. (1) 6i Nm
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(2) 6j Nm
(1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.25 mm
(3) 0.5 mm (4) 1.0 mm (3) 6 i Nm
Answer (3)
(4) 6k Nm
S o l . Least count
Answer (3)
Pitch   

Number of divisions on circular scale Sol .   r F

Pitch   2kˆ  3ˆj
0.01 mm 
50 
Pitch = 0.5 mm   6 ˆi Nm

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

170. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac 172. The quantities of heat required to raise the
voltage source. When L is removed from the temperature of two solid copper spheres of
circuit, the phase difference between current radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
 the ratio :
and voltage is . If instead C is removed from
3 27 9
 (1) (2)
the circuit, the phase difference is again 8 4
3
between current and voltage. The power factor 3 5
(3) (4)
of the circuit is : 2 3
(1) zero (2) 0.5 Answer (1)
(3) 1.0 (4) –1.0 S o l . Q = msT
Answer (3) 4 3
Q  r sT
S o l . When L is removed, 3
XC  XC 3
tan    tan
 ...(i) Q 1  r1 
R 3 R  
Q 2  r2 
When C is removed,
= (1.5)3
XL  X
tan    tan  L ...(ii) 27
R 3 R 
8
From (i) and (ii), XL = XC
173. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V,
Since, X L = X C, the circuit is in resonance.
50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current
Z=R
in the circuit is, nearly :
R
Power factor = cos  = 1 (1) 1.7 A (2) 2.05 A
Z
(3) 2.5 A (4) 25.1 A
171. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to
the ends of a massless string. The string Answer (3)
passes over a pulley which is frictionless S o l . irms = crms
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in
c = 40 × 10–6 F
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
 = 2f = 100
rms = 200 V
 irms = 200 × 40 × 10–6 × 2 × 50
= 2.5 A
4 kg 174. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
6 kg height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 48 N (2) 32 N
(1) g (2) g/2
(3) 30 N (4) 24 N
(3) g/5 (4) g/10
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
mg0
Sol. a
 m1  m2  g where m1 > m2
S o l . mgh  2
 h
 m1  m2   1 
R
6  4 g 72
a W=
6 4 2
 R/2
g  1 
a  R 
5
72 4
Note : Here no option is given according to W=   72  32 N
acceleration of COM of the system  3 / 2 2 9

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-E4)

175. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg 178. The color code of a resistance is given below
respectively are attached to the two ends of a
rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
particle is nearly at a distance of :
(1) 33 cm (2) 50 cm The values of resistance and tolerance,
(3) 67 cm (4) 80 cm respectively, are
Answer (3) (1) 470 k, 5% (2) 47 k, 10%
y (3) 4.7 k, 5% (4) 470 , 5%
Answer (4)
5 kg 10 kg
Sol. S o l . According to colour coding
x (cm)
(x cm, 0) Yellow Violet Brown Gold
(0, 0) (100, 0)
4 7 1 5%
m1x1  m2 x 2 1
xcm  So, R = 47 × 10 ± 5%
m1  m2
R = 470 ± 5% 
5  0  100  10 200 179. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
   66.66 cm
5  10 3 hanging from a fixed support. The length of the
x cm  67 cm wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended
from its free end. The expression for Young’s
176. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the modulus is :
separation between coherent sources is halved
MgL1 Mg(L1  L)
and the distance of the screen from the (1) (2)
AL AL
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
width becomes : MgL MgL
(3) AL (4) A(L  L)
(1) double 1 1
Answer (4)
(2) half
Mg
(3) four times S o l . Stress =
A
(4) one-fourth
 L L1 – L
Answer (3) Strain = 
L L
D Stress MgL
S o l .Fringe width   Young's modulus = Strain  A(L – L)
d 1
d 180. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
Now, d  and D  2D
2 material are slightly out of tune and produce
(2D) 4 D beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
So,   = slightly decreased, the beat frequency
d/2 d
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
 = 4
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
177. A charged particle having drift velocity of
(1) 523 Hz (2) 524 Hz
7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
(3) 536 Hz (4) 537 Hz
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :
Answer (2)
(1) 2.25 × 1015 (2) 2.5 × 106
S o l . Difference of fA and fB is 6 Hz
(3) 2.5 × 10–6 (4) 2.25 × 10–15
If tension decreases, f B decreases and
Answer (2) becomes fB .
vd Now, difference of fA and fB = 7 Hz (increases)
S o l . Mobility,  
E So, fA > fB
4 fA – fB = 6 Hz
7.5  10

3  1010 fA = 530 Hz
= 2.5 × 106 m2V–1s–1 fB = 524 Hz (original)

33