Test ID : 165

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`FIRST YEARTEST
MOCK FULL-VI
TEST - I` S1
Std : Long Term & XII (CBSE) Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 27.04.2025
04.04.2025 [FN] Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
BOTANY 4. Match the following
1. Identify the correct statement from the Column I Column II
following.
A Genus i Mammalia
1) G2 phase is the period of cytoplasmic
B Order ii Felis
growth
2) Interphase is the actual period of cell C Class iii Arthropoda
division. D Phylum iv Primata
3) Cell division will be seized with the 1) A- iv B- iii C- ii D- i
formation of the mature organism. 2) A- ii B- iv C- i D- iii
4) All organisms start their lives with a single 3) A- iv B- iii C- i D- ii
cell i.e. zygote.
4) A- i B- iii C- ii D- iv
2. Which of the following statements is not
5. Both holozoic and saprophytic nutrition can be
related to prophase I?
seen in
1) The compaction of chromatin material
1) Monera 2) Fungi
leads to formation of chromosomes.
3) Plantae 4) Animalia
2) Recombination between homologous
6. Which of the following diseases is an
chromosomes.
analogous variant of BSE?
3) In oocytes of some vertebrates, it can last
1) AIDS 2) CJD
for months or years.
3) TMV 4) SCID
4) Disjunction of homologous chromosomes.
7. Identify the correctly matched pair from the
3. How many protons translocate across the inner
following
mitochondrial membrane during electron
transport, when one glucose molecule is 1) Ulothrix – Fronds
oxidized? 2) Fucus – Air bladders
1) 100 2) 112 3) Polysiphonia – Unbranched
3) 110 4) 120 4) Ectocarpus – Spiral gametes
 2 Test ID : 165[S1]
8. Which of the following provide peat that have 14. Both tap root and adventitious roots can be
long been used as fuel? seen in
1) Sphagnum 2) Marchantia 1) Grasses 2) Monstera
3) Selaginella 4) Salvia 3) Banyan tree 4) All of these
9. A homosporous plant with a dioecious 15. How many niacin containing co-factors are
gametophyte is reduced during the oxidation of one glucose
1) Selaginella 2) Salvinia molecule in Krebs cycle?
3) Marchantia 4) Funaria 1) Six 2) Four
10. Statement I: Most of the pteridophytes are 3) Two 4) Eight
heterosporous. 16. Diadelphous stamens and leaf tendrils are
Statement II: Bryophytes are homosporous. characteristic features of the members of
1) Both the statements are correct 1) Solanaceae 2) Malvaceae
2) Both the statements are incorrect 3) Fabaceae 4) Poaceae
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is 17. The given floral formula belongs to the
incorrect members of
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
correct
11. Who among the following was the first to use 1) Solanaceae 2) Fabaceae
split light in experiments on photosynthesis? 3) Malvaceae 4) Compositae
1) Cornelius Van Niel 2) T.W Engelmann 18. Usually, epidermal cell do not possess
3) Julius Von Sachs 4) Jan Ingenhousz chloroplasts, but the modified epidermal cells
that possess chloroplast are
12. Which of the following is/are common on both
1) Subsidiary cells 2) Guard cells
grana lamella and stroma lamella?
3) Trichoblasts 4) Cells of trichomes
1) Electron transport chain
19. Match the following
2) ATP synthase
Column I Column II
3) Photosystem I
4) All of these A Sclerenchymatous i Dicot root
semi lunar patches
13. Which of the following features are used to
describe the diverse forms of life on the earth? B Polyarch xylem ii Monocot stem
A) Gross external structures. C Inconspicuous pith iii Monocot root
B) Gross internal structures. D Scattered vascular iv Dicot stem
C) Observable living phenomena. bundles
D) Perceivable living phenomena. 1) A- iii B- ii C- iv D- i
1) A and B 2) B and C 2) A- ii B- iv C- i D- iii
3) C and D 4) All of these 3) A- iv B- iii C- i D- ii
4) A- i B- iii C- ii D- iv
 3 Test ID : 165[S1]
20. Well differentiated mesophyll can be seen in 25. Assertion (A) : The endomembrane system
1) Rice 2) Maize includes ER, golgi complex, lysosomes and
3) Wheat 4) Hibiscus vacuoles.
21. Statement I: The plasmid DNA confers Reason (R) : Though lysosomes and vacuoles
are part of the endomembrane system, they are
certain unique phenotypic characters to
distinct in their functions.
bacteria.
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Statement II: In eukaryotic cells, there is an
correct explanation of A
extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm.
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
1) Both the statements are correct
correct explanation of A
2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) A is true but R is false
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
4) Both A and R are false
incorrect
26. Identify the odd polymeric substance from the
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is following w.r.t. their metabolic role.
correct 1) Cellulose 2) Starch
22. Vesicles, tubules and lamellae are structures 3) Glycogen 4) Inulin
that make up 27. The tissue system which is made up of only
1) Endoplasmic reticulum 2) Golgi complex one kind of simple tissue is
3) Mesosomes 4) Both (1) and (2) 1) Epidermal tissue system
23. Identify the odd one from the following w.r.t. 2) Ground tissue system
plant cell wall 3) Vascular tissue system
1) It provides a distinct shape to the cell 4) Both (1) and (2)
2) It provides protection from mechanical 28. The inorganic component of a nucleotide is
damage. 1) Nitrogen base 2) Phosphoric acid
3) It is living and interacts with the external 3) Pentose sugar 4) Both (1) and (2)
environment 29. Assertion (A): In humans, haemoglobin
exhibits quaternary structure along with other
4) It provides a barrier to undesirable
structures.
macromolecules.
Reason (R) : It is made up of four polypeptide
24. The membrane bound vesicular structures chains.
formed by the process of packaging in the 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
golgi apparatus are correct explanation of A
1) Contractile vacuoles 2) Lysosomes 2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
3) Centrosomes 4) Inclusion bodies correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
 4 Test ID : 165[S1]
30. In which of the following, the cell wall is 35. Which of the following enzymes catalyses the
absent in vegetative phase but present in conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
reproductive phase? 1) Hexokinase 2) Aldolase
3) RuBisCO 4) PEP case
1) Euglenoids 2) Protozoans
36. Identify the incorrect statement from the
3) Slime moulds 4) Dinoflagellates following
31. Identify a fungus that does not produce 1) Chlorophyll a is the most abundant plant
asexual spores. pigment in the world.
1) Rhizopus 2) Aspergillus 2) Most of the photosynthesis takes place in
the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
3) Agaricus 4) Albugo
3) The LHCs are made up of only pigment
32. Identify the incorrect statement from the molecules.
following 4) In ETS electrons move from low redox
1) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently even at potential to high redox potential.
high temperatures and high pressures. 37. Assertion (A) : In chloroplasts, the breakdown
of the proton gradient is the source of energy
2) The change in state of matter is a physical
for the synthesis of ATP.
process. Reason (R) : Electron transport causes a
3) Catalysed reactions proceed at rates vastly proton gradient across the thylakoid
higher than that of uncatalysed ones. membrane as well as a measurable decrease in
pH in the lumen.
4) Activation energy is not required for
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
exothermic reactions.
correct explanation of A
33. The conservation of specific chromosome 2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
numbers across many generations in sexually correct explanation of A
reproducing organisms is achieved by 3) A is true but R is false
1) Meiosis 2) Mitosis 4) Both A and R are false
3) Binary fission 4) Both (1) and (3) 38. Which of the following is a protozoan protist?
1) Gonyaulax 2) Yeast
34. Statement I: In plants, mitotic division is
3) Chlamydomonas 4) Amoeba
restricted to the diploid cells only.
39. Identify the incorrect statement from the
Statement II: Mitosis results in the following.
production of two daughter cells with identical 1) The energy released during mitochondrial
genetic complement. e- transport is directly used for substrate
1) Both the statements are correct level phosphorylation
2) In aerobic respiration, O2 is the ultimate
2) Both the statements are incorrect
acceptor of electrons and it gets reduced to
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is water
incorrect 3) The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is pathway
correct 4) The respiratory quotient depends upon the
type of respiratory substrate
 5 Test ID : 165[S1]
40. The connecting link between glycolysis and PHYSICS
Krebs cycle is a
46. The dimensions of in the equation
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Acetyl CoA b
3) Oxalo acetic acid 4) Citric acid (a − t 2 )
P= , where P is pressure, ‘x’ is
41. Identify the correct statement from the bx
following. distance and ‘t’ is time are
1) In respiration, fats and proteins cannot 1) MT-2 2) M2LT-3
oxidise completely.
3) ML3T-1 4) LT-3
2) The initial stage of cellular respiration takes
place in the mitochondrial matrix. 47. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g, radius
3) In glycolysis, each glucose molecule is (0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm.
broken down into two molecules of pyruvic The maximum percentage error in the
acid. measurement of its density is
4) In respiration, the metabolic fate of the 1) 1 2) 2
pyruvate depends on only the availability of
3) 3 4) 4
oxygen.
48. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw
42. How many of the following are the products
of redifferentiation? gauge cover a distance of 1mm on its main
Secondary phloem, Secondary cortex, Pith, scale. The total number of divisions on the
Protoxylem, Passage cells, Pericycle, circular scale is 50. Further it is found that the
Metaxylem, Cork, Conjuctive tissue. screw gauge has a zero error of -0.03 mm.
1) 3 2) 5 While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a
3) 4 4) 7 student notes the main scale reading of 3mm
43. Identify the complementary effects of auxins and the number of circular scale divisions in
and cytokinins. line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of
1) Cell division the wire is
2) Apical dominance 1) 3.32 mm 2) 3.73 mm
3) Delay the leaf senescence 3) 3.67 mm 4) 3.38 mm
4) Closure of the stomata
49. The relation 3t = 3x + 6 describes the position
44. Early seed production in conifers is possible
by spraying of a particle in one direction where ‘x’ is in
1) Auxins 2) Gibberellins metre and ‘t’ in second. The position, when
3) Cytokinins 4) Ethylene velocity is zero, is
45. In most situations, ABA acts as an antagonist 1) 24 m 2) 12 m
to 3) 5 m 4) zero
1) Auxins 2) Gibberellins
3) Cytokinins 4) Ethylene
 6 Test ID : 165[S1]
50. A ball is thrown vertically upward. Which of 54. A point at the periphery of a disc rotating
the following graph represents the velocity – about a fixed axis moves so that its speed
time graph of the ball during its flight (air varies with time as v = 2t2 m/s. The tangential
resistance is neglected) acceleration of the point at t = 1 sec is
1) 4 m/s2 2) 2 2 m/s2
3) 2 m/s2 4) 8 m/s2
1) 2)
55. A lift is moving down with acceleration ‘a’. A
man in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The
v acceleration of the ball as observed by the man
in the lift and a man standing stationary on the
t ground is, respectively
3) 4)
1) g, g 2) (g – a), (g – a)
3) (g – a), g 4) a, g
51. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with
56. A block of mass ‘M’ is pulled along a
speed ‘u’, the distance covered during the last
horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of
‘t’ seconds of its ascent is
mass ‘m’. If a force P is applied at the free end
1 2 1 of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on
1) gt 2) ut − gt 2
2 2 the block is
3) (u – gt)t 4) ut
PM Pm
52. A projectile can have the same range R for 1) 2)
M+m M+m
two angles of projection. If T1 & T2 be the pm
time of flights in the two cases, then the 3) 4) P
M−m
product of the two time of flights is directly
57. A block of mass ‘m’ is stationary on a
proportional to
horizontal surface. It is connected with a string
1 which has no tension. The coefficient of
1) R 2)
R friction between the block and surface is ‘µ’,
1 then the frictional force between the block and
3) 4) R2
R2 surface is
53. A river flows at the rate of 3 kmph and a
person can row a boat at a speed of 5 kmph in
still water. If the difference between the times
taken to cross the river by the shortest path
and the quickest path is 4 min, the width of the
river is mg
1) µmg 2)
4 µ
1) 2 km 2) km
3 µmg
3) zero 4)
7 5 µ2 + 1
3) km 4) km
3 3
 7 Test ID : 165[S1]
58. The velocity at the maximum height of a 62. A uniform chain of length 2m is held on a
projectile is half of its initial velocity of smooth horizontal table so that half of it hangs
projection ‘u’. Its range on the horizontal over the edge. If it is released from rest, the
plane is velocity with which it leaves the table will be
(nearly)
3u 2 u2 1) 2 m/s 2) 4 m/s
1) 2)
2g 3g 3) 6 m/s 4) 8 m/s
3u 2 3u 2 63. A constant force F is applied on a body. The
3) 4)
2g g power (P) generated is related to the time
elapsed (t) as
59. The kinetic energy ‘k’ of a particle moving
along a circle of radius ‘R’ depends on the 1) P α t2 2) P α t
distance covered. It is given as KE = as2, 3) P α t 4) P α t3/2
where ‘a’ is a constant. The force acting on the 64. Two identical billiard balls are in contact on a
particle is table. A third identical ball strikes them
1/ 2 symmetrically and comes to rest after impact.
2as 2  s2  The coefficient of restitution is
1) 2) 2as  1 + 2 
R  R  2 1
1) 2)
R2 3 3
3) 2as 4) 2a
s 1 3
3) 4)
60. Assertion : If the net external force on the 6 2
body is zero, then body must move with 65. The moment of inertia of solid sphere of
constant velocity. density ‘ρ’ and radius R about its diameter is
Reason : If the net external force on the body 105 R 5ρ 105 R 2ρ
1) 2)
is zero, its acceleration is zero. 176 176
1) Both assertion and reason are correct and 176 R ρ5
176 R 2ρ
3) 4)
reason is the correct explanation of the 105 105
assertion 66. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 3 kg
2) Both assertion and reason are correct but are situated at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, …
reason is not the correct explanation of the respectively on x-axis. The resultant intensity
assertion of gravitational field at the origin will be
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect 1) G 2) 2 G
4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct 3) 3 G 4) 4 G
61. A position dependent force 67. A projectile is projected with a velocity kVe in
2
F = (7 – 2x + 3x )N acts on a small object of vertically upward direction from the ground
mass 2 kg to displace it from x = 0 to x = 5m. into the space. (ve : escape velocity, k < 1). If
air resistance is considered to be negligible,
The work done in joule are
then the maximum height from the center of
1) 70 J 2) 270 J earth to which it can go will be (R : radius of
3) 35 J 4) 135 J earth)
 8 Test ID : 165[S1]
R R 72. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,
1) 2)
k +1
2
k −1
2
floats in water as shown. The distance l and h
R R are also shown. After sometime, the coin falls
3) 4)
1− k2 k +1 into the water. Then
68. A small body of super dense material whose
mass is twice the mass of the earth but whose
size is very small compared to the size of the
earth, starts from rest at a height H << R,
above the earth’s surface, and reaches the
1) l decreases and h increases
earth’s surface in time ‘t’. Then ‘t’ is equal to
2) l increases and h decreases
2H H 3) Both l & h increase
1) 2)
g g 4) Both l & h decrease
2H 4H 73. The lower end of a capillary tube of radius ‘r’
3) 4)
3g 3g is placed vertically in water. Then with the rise
of water in the capillary, heat evolved is (J :
69. A wire is stretched by 0.01 m by a certain
Mechanical equivalent of heat)
force F. Another wire of same material whose
π2 r 2 h 2dg πr 2 h 2dg
diameter and length are double to the original 1) + 2) +
J 2J
wire is stretched by the same force. Then its
πr 2 h 2dg πr 2 h 2 dg
elongation will be 3) − 4) −
2J J
1) 0.005 m 2) 0.01 m
74. Statement 1 : The extensive variables of
3) 0.02 m 4) 0.002 m
thermodynamic state, indicate the size of the
70. The length of an elastic string is ‘a’ metre system.
when the longitudinal tension is 4 N and ‘b’ Statement 2 : Pressure and temperature are the
metre when the longitudinal tension is 5N. the intensive variables for a thermodynamic state.
length of the string in metre when the 1) only statement 1 is true
longitudinal tension 9 N is 2) only statement 2 is true
1) a - b 2) 5b – 4a 3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
a 4) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 are true
3) 2b - 4) 4a – 3b
4 75. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in
water. The water rises upto 8 cm. If the entire
71. A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.32 kgm2 is
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator,
rotated steadily at 120 rad/s by a 20 W electric
the length of water column in the capillary
motor. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is
tube will be
1) 4608 J 2) 1152 J
1) 20 cm 2) 4 cm
3) 2304 J 4) 6912 J 3) 10 cm 4) 8 cm
 9 Test ID : 165[S1]
76. A spherical solid ball of volume ‘V’ is made 79. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
of a material of density ρ1. It is falling through without slipping down on an inclined plane of
a liquid of density ρ2 (ρ2 < ρ1). Assume that length L and height ‘h’. What is the speed of
the liquid applied a viscous force on the ball its center of mass when the cylinder reaches
that is proportional to the square of its speed its bottom.
‘v’ (i.e., F = -kv2, where k > 0). The terminal 3gh 4gh
1) 2)
speed of the ball is 4 3
vg(ρ1 − ρ2 ) vgρ1 3) 4gh 4) 2gh
1) 2)
k k 80. An ideal gas of mass ‘m’ in a state A goes to
vgρ1 vg (ρ1 − ρ2 ) another state B via three different processes as
3) 4) shown in figure. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 denote the
k k
heat absorbed by the gas along the three paths,
77. The spectral energy of a black body exhibits a
then
maximum around a wavelength λ0. The
P
temperature of the black body is now changed A
such that the energy is maximum around a 3
2
3λ 0 1
wavelength . The power radiated by the B
4
black body will now increase by a factor of V
1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3 2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3
256 64
1) 2) 3) Q = Q2 > Q3 4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
81 27
81. 5 mole of hydrogen gas is heated from 30oC to
16 4
3) 4) 60oC at constant pressure. Heat given to the
9 3
gas is (given R = 2 cal/mol-oC)
78. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one
1) 750 cal 2) 630 cal
of its ends to the other end under steady state.
3) 1050 cal 4) 1470 cal
The variation of temperature ‘θ’ along the
82. A cyclic process ABCA is as shown in figure.
length ‘x’ of the bar from its hot end is best
Then the PV diagram of process is
described by which of the following graph
options?

1) 2)

3) 4)
1) 2)
 10 Test ID : 165[S1]
M M+m
1) 2)
M+m M
3) 4) 1/ 2 1/2
 M   M+m
3)   4)  
M+m  M 
83. A carnot engine operating between
1 87. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points
temperatures T1 and T2 has efficiency .
6 where there is
When T2 is lowered by 62 K, its efficiency 1) Minimum displacement and Minimum
1 pressure change
increases to . Then T1 and T2 are
3 2) Minimum displacement and Maximum
respectively;
pressure change
1) 372 K and 310 K 2) 372 K and 330 K
3) 330 K and 268 K 4) 310 K and 248K 3) Maximum displacement and Maximum
84. The energy of all molecules of a monoatomic pressure change
gas having a volume V and pressure P is 4) Maximum displacement and Minimum
3PV pressure change
. The total translational kinetic energy of
2 88. The tuning fork and stretched wire are
all molecules of a diatomic gas at the same sounded together and produce 4 beats/s when
volume and pressure is
the length of stretched wire is 95 cm (or) 100
1 3
1) PV 2) PV cm. The frequency of tuning fork is
2 2
5 1) 156 Hz 2) 152 Hz
3) PV 4) 3 PV
2 3) 148 Hz 4) 160 Hz
85. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic 89. In the experiment to determine the speed of
motion about x = 0 with an amplitude (A) and sound using a resonance column,
time period (T). The speed of pendulum at
1) prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a
A
x= will be vertical plane
2
2) prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a
πA 3 πA
1) 2) horizontal plane
T T
3) in one of the two resonances observed, the
πA 3 3π2 A
3) 4) length of the resonating air column is close
2T T
to the wavelength of sound in air
86. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring
executes SHM with an amplitude A1. When 4) in one of the two resonances observed, the
the mass M passes through its mean position, length of the resonating air column is close
then a smaller mass ‘m’ is placed over it and to half of the wavelength of sound in air
both of them move together with amplitude
A 
A2. The ratio of  1  is
 A2 
 11 Test ID : 165[S1]
90. Match the following in case of linear simple Statement II: Sycon is a multicellular animal
harmonic oscillator (x = 0 : mean position, A : with characteristic flagellated choanocytes.
Amplitude, T : time period) In the light of the above statements, choose the
Column – A Column - B correct answer from the options given below.
A) Minimum time from p) T 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
A 8 2) Both statement I and statement II are false
x = 0 to
2 3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
B) Minimum time from q) T 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
A 12 93. Find out the animal which possess dorsal anus
x= to x = A
2 without an excretory system?
C) 1) Octopus 2) Chameleon
Minimum time from r) T
3) Antedon 4) Pristis
A 6
x = 0 to 94. Choose the correct statement with suitable
2
example.
D) Minimum time from s) T 1) Body is composed of proboscis, a collar and
A 3A 24 a long trunk : Ichthyophis
x= to
2 2 2) Body surface is distinctly marked out into
metameres : Octopus
1) A – q, B – r, C – p, D - s 3) Body consists of head, thorax and
2) A – q, B – r, C – s, D - p abdomen: Butterfly
3) A – q, B – r, C – p, D - q 4) The body is supported by endoskeleton of
4) A – p, B – r, C – q, D - s calcareous ossicles : Dentalium
ZOOLOGY 95. Name the vertebrate from the following which
91. Assertion A : Sponges are the members of the breed/ spawn only once in its life time
kingdom Animalia with organ system level of 1) Pacific salmon fish 2) Petromyzon
organization. 3) Pteropus 4) both 1 and 2
Reason R : Sponges have a water transport 96. Choose the correct statements.
(or) canal system. A. Scoliodon and Ichthyophis are oviparous
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the gnathostomes
correct explanation of A B. Salamandra and Exocoetus are oviparous
2) A is correct but R is not correct tetrapods
3) A is not correct but R is correct C. Rana and Exocoetus are oviparous
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the gnathostomes
correct explanation of A D. Carcharodon and Crocodilus are
92. Statement I: All members of Animalia are poikilothermic gnathostomes
multicellular and all of them exhibit the same 1) A, C 2) A, B
pattern of organization of cells. 3) C, D 4) B, D
 12 Test ID : 165[S1]
97. Statement I: The digestive tract of flying 103. What is the pCO2 and pO2 (mmHg) in the
birds has additional chambers, the crop and blood vessel which carries blood from
gizzard. intestine to the liver?
Statement II: Fore limbs are not modified 1) 40, 45 2) 40, 95
into wings in flightless birds like ostrich.
3) 45, 95 4) 45, 40
In the light of the above statements, choose the
104. Which of the following cells of connective
correct answer from the options given below.
tissue secrete histamine and serotonin?
1) Both statement I and statement II are true
1) Mast cells, neutrophils
2) Both statement I and statement II are false
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false 2) Neutrophils, basophils
4) Statement I is false but statement II is true 3) Basophils, mast cells
98. Multilayered epithelium can be found in 4) Macrophages, monocytes
1) alveoli 2) capillaries 105. Assertion A: The volume of urine is far less
3) pancreatic duct 4) fallopian tubes than the volume of glomerular filtrate.
99. Which of the following is a set of sense organs Reason R: Nearly 99% of the filtrate is
in female Periplaneta? reabsorbed by the renal tubule during selective
1) Antennae, simple eyes, ommatidia, anal reabsorption.
cerci, pronotum 1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
2) Antennae, eyes, maxillary plaps, labial correct explanation of A
palps, anal cerci 2) A is correct but R is not correct
3) Eyes, maxillary palps, labial palps, 3) A is not correct but R is correct
antennae, titillator, anal styles 4) Both A and R are correct and R is the
4) Pronotum, antennae, sternum, hepatic caeca correct explanation of A
100. Which of the following is correct w.r.t 106. Incardiac cycle ventricular systole increases
respiratory capacities? the ventricular pressure causing
1) TV – ERV = EC 2) VC – IRV = EC 1) forced to close semilunar valves
3) IRV + ERV = IC 4) ERV + IRV = VC
2) in closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
101. Pick the true one about epiglottis.
3) the opening of tricuspid valve
1) It prevents the entry of food into the larynx
4) the closure of bicuspid valve alone
2) It prevents the entry of air into the pharynx
107. Assertion A : Though the human heart is auto
3) It is a thin elastic cartilaginous flap
excitable, its functions can be moderated by
4) both 1 and 3 neural system.
102. Pressure gradient between the lungs and
Reason R : A special neural centre in the
atmosphere is maintained by
medulla oblongata of brain can moderate the
1) intercostal muscles 2) diaphragm cardiac functions.
3) bronchus 4) both 1 and 2
 13 Test ID : 165[S1]
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the 113. Match the following and choose the correct
correct explanation of A option.
2) A is correct but R is not correct Column - I Column - II
3) A is not correct but R is correct A) Calcium deposits
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the I) Osteoporosis
in coronary artery
correct explanation of A
B) Decreased level
108. The epithelial cells of glomeruli and II) Atherosclerosis
of estrogen
Bowman’s capsule are respectively called
C) Low
1) podocytes and endothelium
thrombocytes III) Emphysema
2) squamous and podocytes count
3) calyces and endothelium
D) Damaged
4) filtration slits and fenestrae IV) Clotting disorder
alveolar walls
109. Malpighian body of juxta medullary nephrons
is situated in _____ of kidney. 1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
1) medullary pyramids 2) renal calyces 2) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
3) cortical region 4) renal pelvis 3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
110. Which of the following is the major site of
4) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
renal tubule for reabsorption and selective 114. In human beings the cranium is formed by
secretion? 1) 8 – bones in which 3 are paired
1) Collecting duct 2) 8 – bones in which 2 are paired
2) Loop of Henle 3) 14 – bones in which 2 are paired
3) Proximal convoluted tubule 4) 22 – bones in which 3 are paired
4) Distal convoluted tubule 115. Which one of the following is wrongly
111. A standard ECG shows normal activities of matched w.r.t contractile proteins?
the human heart in which ‘P’ wave indicates 1) Meromyosin : polymerized protein
1) depolarization of AV – node 2) Myosin : polymerized protein
2) depolarization of atria 3) F-actin : polymer of monomeric ‘G’ actins
3) repolarization of AV – node 4) Active ATPase: globular head of meromyosin
4) depolarization of purkinje fibres 116. Assertion A : Smooth muscles assist in the
112. Which of the following is true w.r.t artificial transportation of gametes through the genital
kidney (Haemodialysis)? tract.
1) Anti-heparin is added prior to hemodialysis Reason R : Passage of ova through the female
to the patients blood reproductive tract is facilitated by the ciliary
2) Anticoagulant is added after dialysis to the movement.
cleared blood 1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
3) Cellophane membrane allows the passage correct explanation of A
of molecules based on concentration 2) A is correct but R is not correct
gradient 3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) The blood drained from convenient artery is 4) Both A and R are correct and R is the
delivered into dialyzing fluid correct explanation of A
 14 Test ID : 165[S1]
117. Identify the non-matching pair of skeletal iv) Sodium potassium pump operates only at
parts with their category. the cell body of the neuron.
1) Sternum and temporal bone : axial skeleton 1) i, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii
2) Ribs and scapula : axial skeleton 3) iii, iv 4) ii, iv
3) Ilium and clavicle : appendicular skeleton 122. Match
column I with column II and choose the
4) Coccyx and atlas : axial skeleton correct answer.
118. Choose the suitable statements w.r.t myofibril
Column I Column II
in a resting state.
i) Thick filaments confined to ‘A’ band only A Vector (insect) I Pila
ii) Myosin filaments are free at both the ends B Visceral hump II Ascidia
iii) Actin filaments are attached to ‘Z’ line by C Tunicate III Buoyancy
one end being free at the other end
D Hippocampus IV Aedes
iv) Partial overlapping of actin and myosin
gives dark appearance to ‘I’ band A B C D
1) i, ii, iv 2) ii, iv 1) IV III II I
3) i, ii, iii 4) i, iii, iv 2) IV I II III
119. Statement I: Transmission of a nerve impulse 3) III I II IV
across an electrical synapse is brought about 4) I II III IV
by acetyl choline.
123. Statement I: ACTH and TSH are transported
Statement II: Neurotransmitters are involved
by portal vessels from hypothalamus to pars
in the transmission of impulse at the chemical
synapses. distalis.
1) Both statement I and statement II are true Statement II: Hypothalamic hormones are
2) Both statement I and statement II are false transported to pars nervosa through axons.
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
4) Statement I is false but statement II is true 2) Both statement I and statement II are false
120. Centre for thermoregulation in human is 3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
located in ____ of the brain. 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
1) medulla oblongata 2) pons 124. Which of the following hormones is correctly
3) hypothalamus 4) cerebellum paired with a disease resulting from its
121. Choose the correct statements w.r.t neural deficiency?
system of human. 1) Addison’s disease: adrenal cortex hormones
i) Stimuli are interpreted by the brain but not
2) Acromegaly: pars distalis hormone
by sense organs
3) Diabetes insipidus: hormones of pancreatic
ii) The cerebellum receives information from
auditory system β-cells
iii) The mid brain receives and integrates 4) Graves’ disease: hormones of thyroid gland
visual, tactile and auditory inputs
 15 Test ID : 165[S1]
125. Enlargement of thyroid gland can occur as a A B C D
consequence of all except. 1) IV III II I
1) iodine deficiency 2) IV II I III
2) hyperthyroidism
3) II I IV III
3) food and water intake without iodised salt
4) I II III IV
4) intake of T4 tablets incase of cretinism
130. Assertion (A) : Composition of urine is quite
126. Regulation of blood calcium level is resultant
different from the composition of glomerular
of calcium reabsorption by renal tubule,
absorption from the digested food, bone filtrate.
dissolution and calcium entering the tissue Reason (R) : Glomerular filtrate is subjected
from blood. to reabsorption and tubular secretion while
Find out the one which has no role in above passing through renal tubule.
processes. 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) PTH 2) TCT correct explanation of (A)
3) MSH 4) Calcitriol (Vit. D) 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
127. Hypothalamic hormone (GnRH) and the correct explanation of (A)
adenohypophysis hormone (ACTH) produce 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
their effects on their target cells by interacting 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
with 131. i) partial pressure of O2 is same in both
1) intracellular receptors pulmonary veins and all arteries except
2) membrane bound receptors pulmonary arteries
3) nuclear receptors ii) pCO2 is same in both pulmonary arteries
4) all of these and all veins except pulmonary veins
128. If a person is suffering from water and iii) HCO3– and H+ ions concentration is more
electrolytes imbalance in his body, this in the plasma of systemic veins than
problem may be associated with the deficiency systemic arteries
of iv)Pneumotaxic centre in the pons and
1) vasopressin 2) iodothyronines chemosensitive area in the medulla can
3) aldosterone 4) all of these alter respiratory mechanism through
129. Match column I with column II and choose the respiratory rhythm centre
correct answer. In the above
Column I Column II 1) i and ii are incorrect
Squamous 2) ii and iii are incorrect
A Larynx I
endothelium 3) iii and iv are incorrect
Cartilaginous 4) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
B Tunica intima II
box 132. Assertion (A) : Erythrocytes are called red

C Mid brain III Insulin blood corpuscles.

Cerebral Reason (R) : Erythrocytes are formed in the
D Glycogenesis IV red bone marrow.
aqueduct
 16 Test ID : 165[S1]
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the CHEMISTRY
correct explanation of (A) 136. The
volume of 0.5M H2SO4 required to neutralize
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1mole equimolar mixture (solid) of Na2CO3&
correct explanation of (A) NaHCO3 is

3) (A) is true but (R) is false 1) 0.5 L 2) 0.1 L

4) (A) is false but (R) is true 3) 1.5 L 4) 1.0 L
133. Chordae tendinae and Bundle of His are 137. The molecular formula of the compound,
associated with which one of the following which contains 6 x 1023 atoms of carbon,
organ in human? 22.4L of H2 gas at STP and 16g of oxygen can
1) Mid brain 2) Cerebrum be

3) Heart 4) Malpighian body 1) CH3CHO 2) CH3OCH3

134. i)
Dendrites (afferent processes) carry 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3CH2OH
impulses towards the cell body of the same 138. Match the following
neuron. List – I List – II
ii) Axon is an efferent process carries impulses Quantity of substances Gram molecules
away from the cell body. A) 500ml 2M urea p) 0.5 mole
iii) Synaptic knobs of a neuron are responsible B) 24g of CH4 q) 1 mole
for transmitting impulse to an another neuron/ C) 11.2L of O2 (STP) r) 2 mole
to a muscle cell D) 1.2 x 1024 N2 molecules s) 1.5 mole
In the above 1) A-p, B-s, C-p, D-r
1) i, ii incorrect 2) ii, iii incorrect 2) A-q, B-s, C-q, D-r
3) i, iii incorrect 4) i, ii, iii correct 3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r
135. Match the following and choose the correct 4) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
option.
139. Which of the following graphs are correct
Column - I Column - II against indicated parameters?
A) Cuttlefish i) Buoyancy
B) Prawn ii) Redula
C) Bangarus iii) Skin cast A) B)
D) Hippocampus IV) Statocyst
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
2) A - ii, B - iv, C – iii, D - i
3) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii C) D)
4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
 17 Test ID : 165[S1]
1) B & C only 2) A, B & C only 144. Which of the following is incorrect?
3) B, C & D only 4) A, B, C & D 1) Al+3< Mg2+< Al< Mg (size)
140. Thereare two isotopes of an element with 2) B < C < N < O (1st ionization enthalpy)
average atomic mass A. Heavier one has mass 3) O < S < F < Cl (electron affinity)
A+1 and lighter one has A–4, then their
4) Be < Al < Mg < K (metallic character)
percentage of abundance is respectively
145. Which of the following molecule has different
1) 25, 75 2) 75, 25
dipole moment from all other molecules?
3) 80, 20 4) 20, 80
141. When an electron of H atom, jumps from
(n+1) to nth shell, (n + 2) to (n + 1)th shell and
(n+2) to nth shell by emitting radiations of 1) 2)
wavelength x, y, z Ao respectively, then
correct relation among x, y and z is
1) z = x + y 2) z = x – y
xy x+y
3) z = 4) z = 3) 4)
x+y xy
142. Whichof the following orbital diagram is not
146. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the
appropriately matched.
1) following molecule,

Violates both Aufbau & Hund’s rules 1) It has 18σ bonds

2) 2) It has 6π bonds

Violates both Hund’s & Pauli’s rules 3) It has 20 pure orbitals

4) It has 24 hybrid orbitals
3)
147. Among LiCl, KCl and CsCl, find the
Violates both Aufbau & Pauli’s rules molecules having high lattice energy and more
4) covalent character respectively
1) CsCl, LiCl 2) KCl, CsCl
Violates Aufbau, Hund’s & Pauli’s rules
143. Incorrect order among the following 3) LiCl, LiCl 4) CsCl, KCl
148. Which of the following is incorrect
1) Acidic strength : SiO2< P2O5< SO3< Cl2O7
(according to VSEPR and hybridization)?
2) Basic strength : NaOH > Mg(OH)2>
Al(OH)3> Si(OH)4 1) AB4E2, µ = 0 2) AB4E1, µ≠ 0
3) Acidic strength : HF < HCl < HBr < HI 3) AB3E2, µ≠ 0 4) AB2E3, µ≠ 0
4) Basic strength : LiH > NaH > KH > RbH
 18 Test ID : 165[S1]
149. Statement – I : If Hund’s rule is not followed, 153. Ina 10 lit vessel 40 mole of O2, one mole of
B2 has 1π bond anddiamagnetic. SO2 and 20 mole of SO3 are present at certain
Statement – II : If 2s-2p mixing not allowed, instant. If the equilibrium constant of the
C2 has 2π bonds and paramagnetic. reaction, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) is 100,
1) Both statements I and II are correct
then the reaction for the above mentioned
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
mixture
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
1) proceeds in forward direction
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
2) proceeds in backward direction
150. Match the following
3) is at equilibrium state
List – I List – II
4) does not take place in any direction
Compound O.S of individual
154. Consider the following reversible reactions
central atoms
A + B ⇌P; K1 = 10
A) Br3O8 P) +2, +3, +3
B) C3O2 Q) +2, +2, +4 2B + C ⇌ D; K2 = 1
C) Fe3O4 R) +6, +4, +6 Hence, ∆Gofor the reaction
D) Pb3O4 S) +2, 0, +2 2A + D ⇌ 2P + C is
1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
1) –RT 2) –2.3 RT
2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
3) +RT 4) 2.3 RT
3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P 155. Which among the following is less stable
4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q resonating structure of p-nitro phenol?
151. 3grams of an oxide of a metal is converted to
5 grams of metal chloride completely.
Equivalent weight of its metal nitrate is
(Approximately)
1) 2)
1) 33 2) 41
3) 68 4) 95
152. A vessel contains N2O4& NO2 in 3 : 2 molar
ratio at 10 atm under equilibrium. Now Kp for
N2O4(g) ↽ ⇀ 2NO2(g) is
1) 9 atm
3) 4)
2) 9 atm-1
3) 2.66 atm2
4) 2.66 atm
 19 Test ID : 165[S1]
156. The most stable carbocation among the 160. Which of the following has more heat
following is liberated when mixed in equal volumes?
1) 0.7 M H2SO4 + 0.5 M NaOH
2) 0.5 M HCl + 0.8 M Ba(OH)2
1) 2) 3) 0.5 M HF + 0.8 M NaOH
4) 0.8 M HCl + 0.5 M NH4OH
161. Identify the statements as true (or) false
A) Alkenes are more nucleophilic than alkynes
3) 4) towards electrophilic addition
B) Alkynes are more reactive than alkenes
157. Whichof the following cannot be structural towards hydrogenation
isomer of benzene? C) Terminal alkynes are more acidic than
internal alkynes
1) 2) D) Terminal alkynes can undergo nucleophilic
substitution with alkyl halides
1) FTTT 2) TTTT
3) 4)
3) FTTF 4) FFTF
158. Correct IUPAC name among the following is 162. The ratio of number of moles of KMnO4 and
1) 2, 5, 7-trimethyl octane K2Cr2O7 to oxidize one mole of ferrous
2) 2-chloro-4-methyl pentane oxalate in acidic medium is
3) 1-bromoprop-2-ene 1) 5 : 5 2) 6 : 6
4) 3-hydroxyprop-1-ene 3) 5 : 6 4) 6 : 5
159. Match the following
163.
Match – I Match – II
A) Incomplete octet P) PF5, SF6
Correct statement is
B) Expanded octet Q) BCl3, BeH2
1) W, Y are homomers
C) Odd electronic R) CO2, CCl4
2) X, Z are isomers
species
3) W, Y are isomers
D) Complete octet S) NO2, NO
4) X, Z are homomers
1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
 20 Test ID : 165[S1]
167. Correct match among the following is
IUPAC Symbol Element belongs to
A) Unn i) s-block
164.
B) Une ii) p-block
C) Uus iii) d-block
Identify incorrect statement about electrophilic D) Ubn iv) f-block
substitution and Benzene? 1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
1) P has meta directing group 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2) Q has o & p-directing group 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
3) π-electron density : P > Q > R 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
4) Reactivity towards ESR : Q > R > P 168. Match the following
165. Equivalent weighs of oxidant, reductant List – I List – II
respectively in the following reaction, (Titration) (Indicator)

Cl2 
OH −
→ ClO3– + Cl– is A) K2Cr2O7 Vs FeSO4 P) Methyl orange
B) KMnO4 Vs H2C2O4 Q) Diphenyl amine
M M M
1) M, 2) , C) Weak acid Vs NaOH R) Self indicator
5 2 10
D) HCl Vs Weak base S) Phenolphthalein
M M M
3) ,M 4) , 1) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
5 10 2
2) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
166. Which is the incorrect reaction?
3) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
1) 4) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
169. Match List I with List II
List – I (Technique) List – II
(Application)
2) A) Distillation I) Separation of
glycerol from
spent-lye
3) B) Fractional II) Aniline-
distillation Water
mixture
C) Steam distillation III) Separation of
4) crude oil
fractions
D) Distillation under IV) Chloroform-
reduced pressure aniline
 21 Test ID : 165[S1]
Choose the correct answer from the options 175. What will be the heat of formation of methane,
given below: if the heat of combustion of hydrogen is –x kJ,
1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III heat of formation of carbon dioxide is –y kJ
2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I and heat of combustion of methane is –z kJ?
3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 1) (– 2x – y + z) kJ
4) A-II, B-III. C-I, D-IV 2) (–z + x + 2y) kJ
170. The following hypothetical equilibrium is not 3) (– x – 2y – z) kJ
effected by 4) (– x – 2y + z) kJ
A(g) + B(g)⇌ C(g) + 20kJ 1
176. The graph between log Keq vs given in the
1) Change in temperature T
following
2) Change in pressure
3) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
4) Addition of A (or) removal of B
171. Thenumber of moles of O2 required for the
complete combustion of each 1mole of C5H12,
C5H10& C5H8 separately are in the ratio of
1) 3 : 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 : 3
3) 16 : 15 : 14 4) 12 : 10 : 8 Then slope and y intercept are respectively
172. 100ml of 1M NaOH is added to 50ml of 1M −∆H o ∆So ∆H o −∆So
1) , 2) ,
H2SO4 and solution is diluted to 1000ml. Then 2.3R 2.3R 2.3R 2.3R
final pH of the solution is ∆H o ∆So −∆H o −∆So
1) 1.3 2) 12.7 3) , 4) ,
2.3R 2.3R 2.3R 2.3R
3) 7 4) 10 177. For the reaction at 298K, 2X(g) + Y(g)→
3 2Z(g),∆Uo = 10kJ and ∆So = 51 J K-1. Find the
173. AB3(g) dissociates as AB3(g)⇌ A(g) + B2(g). If
2 ∆G0 of the process. (Approximately)
the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and the
(Given R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1)
total pressure developed at equilibrium is 950
1) 12.5 kJ 2) –12.5 kJ
torr, what fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated?
1) 12.5% 2) 20% 3) 7.5 kJ 4) –7.5 kJ
3) 25% 4) 50% 178. Thesolubility product of A2B3 is 1.08x10–23 M5.
174. Find the pH of the solution by mixing Then find the volume of water to dissolve 1g
90ml of 0.1M NH3 and 15ml of 0.2M HCl. of A2B3 is (Given mol. wt. of A2B3 is 100 g)
(The pKb of ammonia solution is 4.75) 1) 10–5L 2) 105 L
1) 8.95 2) 5.05 3) 10–3L 4) 103L
3) 4.45 4) 9.55
 22 Test ID : 165[S1]
179. Forwhich of the following all ∆H, ∆S &∆G of 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
system are negative. correct explanation of the (A)
1) Mixing of gases 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
2) Dissolution of NaCl in water correct explanation of the (A)
3) Boiling of egg 3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) Adsorption of gases on charcoal 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
180. Assertion (A) : All spontaneous process are
irreversible in nature
Reason (R) : Negative ∆Hsys and positive
∆Ssys always results a spontaneous process.
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