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21-04-2025

6901CMD30334625MN002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ray of light AO is incident on the surface of oil. Reflected part of this ray OB and refracted part

OC are mutually perpendicular as shown. Find refractive index of oil.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

2) A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling
through the slab, the first colour to emerge is

(1) Blue
(2) Green
(3) Violet
(4) Red

3) When a light wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its-

(1) Speed
(2) Amplitude
(3) Frequency
(4) Wavelength

4)

A slab of glass, of thick ness 6 cm and refractive index is placed in front of a concave mirror
as shown in the figure. If the radius of curvature of the mirror is 40 cm and the reflected image
coincides with the object, then the distance of the object from the mirror is
(1) 30 cm
(2) 22 cm
(3) 42 cm
(4) 38 cm

5) When a ray of light enters a medium of refractive index , it is observed that the angle of
refraction is half the angle of incidence is than angle of incidence is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) If light travels a distance x in t1 sec in air and 10 x distance in t2 sec in a medium, the critical
angle of the medium will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If iμj represents refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then the
product 2μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 is equal to :

(1) 3μ1
(2) 3μ2

(3)

(4) 4μ2

8) A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 6 cm and 4 cm from other
side, then thickness of slab is :-

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 2.5 cm

9)

In the diagram shown, a ray refracts through a glass slab. The parallel shift ‘x’ as it comes out of
glass slab is

(1)
cm
(2) 5 cm

(3)
cm
(4) 25 cm

10)

Find the apparent depth of the object seen by observer A (in the figure shown)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

A mark at bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1m. The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The refractive
index of liquid is:

(1) 1.33
(2) 9/10
(3) 10/9
(4) 1.5

12) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 6
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :-

(1) 2 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm downward

13) In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction ?

(1) 180°
(2) 0°
(3) equal to angle of incidence
(4) 90°

14) 'Mirage' is a phenomenon due to:-

(1) Reflection of light


(2) Refraction of light
(3) Total internal reflection of light
(4) Diffraction of light

15) The critical angle of light going medium A to medium B is θ. The speed of light medium in A is v.
The speed of light in medium B is :

(1)

(2) v sin θ
(3) v cot θ
(4) v tan θ

16) A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam
incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected on face AC, if :-
(1) sin θ > 8/9
(2) sin θ < 2/3
(3) sin θ < 8/9
(4) none

17) A point source of light is kept at a depth of h in water of refractive index 4/3. The radius of the
circle at the surface of water through which light emits is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index of . It is surrounded by air. A light
ray is incident at the mid-point of one end of the rod as shown in the figure.

The incident angle θ for which the light ray grazes along the wall of
the rod is :-

(1) sin–1(1/2)
(2) sin–1( /2)
(3) sin (2/
–1
)
(4) sin–1(1/ )

19) Assertion (A) :- If an object placed on the optical axis of a lens is illuminated by white light,
then image formed will be coloured and not exactly white.
Reason (R) :- The lens has different focal lengths for different colours.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) correct explanation of (A).

20) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains.
(1) Yellow, orange, red
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

21) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of
curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at : -

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 10 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

22) A thin lens whose power is +2D is cut into two pieces perpendicular to the principal axis. The
focal length of each part will be

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 75 cm
(4) 0.05 m

23) The critical angle of light going from a medium to air is The speed of light in the medium is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) When monochromatic red light is used instead of blue light in a convex lens, its focal length

(1) Does not change


(2) Increases
(3) Decreases
(4) May increase or remain same

25) A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rarer medium. The angle of reflection is A and that
if refraction is B. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of with each other. The critical
angle will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is

(1) 1.5 f
(2) 2 f
(3) 2.5 f
(4) 4 f

27) A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When upper half of the lens is covered
by an opaque screen :-

(1) Half the image will disappear


(2) Complete image will be formed of same intensity
(3) Half image will be formed of same intensity
(4) Complete image will be formed of decreased intensity

28) What is the refractive index of a material of a plano-convex lens. If the radius of curvature of the
convex surface is 10 c.m. and focal length of the lens is 30 c.m. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The relation between n1 and n2 if behaviour of light rays is as shown in figure is-
(1) n1 >> n2
(2) n2 > n1
(3) n1 > n2
(4) n1 = n2

30) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object

placed on its axis, the number of images formed are

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be :-

(1) –16 cm
(2) –160 cm
(3) +160 cm
(4) +16 cm

32) A convex lens of focal lenght f produces a virtual image n times the size of the object, then the
distance of the object from the lens, is-

(1) (n – 1) f
(2) (n + 1) f

(3)

(4)

33) Two thin convex lenses of focal length 10 cm and 15 cm are separated by a distance of 10 cm.
The focal length of the combination is :-

(1) 4.2 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 15 cm
34) What is the value of d for which emergent rays are also parallel :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm

35) Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the
adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal length in three cases will be :-

(1) 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

36) On immersing a glass lens (μ = 3/2) in water (μ = 4/3) its focal length :

(1) will increase by 300%


(2) will decrease by 300%
(3) will increase by 400%
(4) will decrease by 400%

37) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is silvered from plane surface. The focal length will be :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 10 cm

38) An object placed at a distance of 9cm from first principal focus of convex lens, produces a real
image at a distance of 25cm from its second principal focus. Then focal length of lens is

(1) 9 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 17 cm

39) If I1 and I2 be the size of the images respectively for the two positions of lens in the displacement
method, then the size of the object is given by

(1) I1/I2
(2) I1 × I2
(3)
(4)

40) How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled
when viewed from the top of the container (Given that )

(1) 8.0 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
(3) 12.0 cm
(4) None of the above

41) When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air :-

(1) its wavelength decreases


(2) its wavelength increases
(3) its frequency increases
(4) neither wavelength nor frequency changes

42) In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature 10 cm. (R1 = R2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of

glass (μ = 1.5). The focal length and the nature of the lens is :-

(1) 15 cm, concave


(2) 15 cm convex
(3) ∞, neither concave nor convex
(4) 0, concave

43) A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging lens in water. The refractive index of
the material is :-

(1) equal to unity


(2) equal to 1.33
(3) between unity and 1.33
(4) greater than 1.33
44) Find out power of the system :-

(1) + 5 D
(2) – 5 D
(3) + 10 D
(4) – 10 D

45) Assertion (A): Combination of lenses helps to obtain diverging or converging lenses of desired
magnification.
Reason (R): It enhances sharpness of the image.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

CHEMISTRY

1) The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in boiling point to:

(1) molarity
(2) molality
(3) mole fraction of solute
(4) mole fraction of solvent

2) 0.9 g of a non-electrolyte was dissolved in 90 g of benzene. This raised the boiling point of
benzene by 0.25°C. If molecular mass of the non-electrolyte is 100 g/mole. Calculate the molar
elevation constant for benzene :

(1) 1.25°C kg mol–1


(2) 2.5°C kg mol–1
(3) 3.0°C kg mol–1
(4) 3.5°C kg mol–1

3) Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relationship between the rates at
which NO2 and Cl2 are consumed in the reaction below ? 2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NO2Cl(g)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) Osmotic pressure of a solution is :-


a) Directly proportional to the molar concentration of the solution.
b) Inversely proportional to the molecular weight of the solute.
c) Inversely proportional to the temperature.
d) Directly proportional to the volume of the solution.

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, d
(3) c, d
(4) only a

5) Which of the following solution has maximum boiling point?

(1) 0.1 m C6H12O6

(2)
0.1 m
(3) 0.1 m Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 m C12H22O11

6) The rate law for the single step reaction 2A + B → 2C, is given by :

(1) r = K[A] [B]


(2) r = K[A]2[B]
(3) r = K[2A] [B]
0
(4) r = K[A]2 [B]

7) For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g), the rate of disappearance of H2 is


1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1. The rate of appearance of HI will be :-

(1) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1


(2) 0.50 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(3) 2.0 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(4) 4.0 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1

8) For a solution if Xa represents the mole fraction of the solute and Xb represents the mole fraction
of the solvent, then :-

(1) Xa + Xb = 1
(2) Xa . Xb = 1
–1
(3) Xa . Xb = 1
(4) Xa – Xb = 1

9) Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearence of CO2 is 0.40 mol/ℓ- sec., the rate of disappereance of O2 is–

(1) 10 mol/ℓ- sec.


(2) 0.90 mol/ℓ- sec
(3) 0.60 mol/ℓ- sec
(4) 0.3 mol/ℓ- sec

10) For an electrolyte undergoing association in a solvent, the Van’t Hoff factor :

(1) is always greater than one


(2) has negative value
(3) has zero value
(4) is always less than one

11) The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is :-


(Kf = 1.86 K molality–1)

(1) –1.86°C
(2) –0.93°C
(3) –0.093°C
(4) 0.093°C

12) The following data are for the reaction : A + B → P

Initial rate
[A](M) [B](M) –1 –1
(mol litre sec )

1 0.1 4 × 10–4

2 0.2 1.6 × 10–3

0.5 1.0 10–4

0.5 0.5 10–4


order of reaction with respect to A and B respectively is :-
(1) 0, 1
(2) 1, 1
(3) 2, 0
(4) 0, 0

13) For the reaction, 2A + B → 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing point of water-

(1) Both boiling point and freezing point increases


(2) Both boiling point and freezing point decreases
(3) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
(4) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases

15) For the reaction A + B → C, starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in four experiments

[A]0/M [B]0
S.No. Rate/(M sec–1)
(initial conc.) (initial conc.)

1 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3

3 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2 × 10–3

4 3.2 × 10–3 10–1 8 × 10–3


Rate law for reaction from above data is :-
(1) r = k[A]2[B]2
(2) r = k[A]2[B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

16) In a gaseous phase reaction, A2(g) → 1/2 B(g) + C(g), the increase in pressure of B(g) from 100 mm to
120 mm is noticed in 5 minute. The rate of disappearance of A2 in mm min–1 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 2

17) For the reaction H2 + I2 → 2HI, the rate of disappearance of iodine is 10–6 mole litre–1 sec–1. What
will be the rate of formation of HI ?

(1) 10–6
(2) 2 × 10–6

(3)

(4) None of these


18) For the reaction 3I– + S2O82– → I3 + 2SO2–4 if (–) = 1.5 × 10–3 m×s–1. Then value of

will be :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–3 m × s–1


(2) 5 × 10–4 m × s–1
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 m × s–1
(4) 3 × 10–3 m × s–1

19)

The osmotic pressure of 1 M solution of a non-electrolyte solute at 27°C is (R = 0.082 litre atm K–1
mo1–1).

(1) 2.46 atm


(2) 24.6 atm
(3) 1.21 atm
(4) 12.1 atm

20) A2 + B2 —→2AB; R.O.R. = k[A2]a[B2]b

Initial [A2] Initial [B2] R.O.R. (r) Ms–1


0.2 0.2 0.04
0.1 0.4 0.04
0.2 0.4 0.08
Order of reaction with respect to A2 and B2 are respectively :
(1) a = 1, b = 1
(2) a = 2, b = 0
(3) a = 2, b = 1
(4) None

21) In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y, X + 3Y → XY3 The initial rates are reported as
follows –

[X] [Y] Rate

0.1 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1


0.2 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.3 M 0.2 M 0.008 Ms–1
0.4 M 0.3 M 0.018 Ms–1
The rate law is –
(1) r = K[X][Y]3
(2) r = K[X]°[Y]2
(3) r = K[X][Y]
(4) r = [X]°[Y]3

22) Acetic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene, the van't Hoff factor i is related to degree of
association of acid as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) Units of rate constant for the first and zero-order reactions in terms of molarity Μ, units are
respectively:

(1) s–1, Ms–1


(2) s–1, Μ
(3) Μs–1, s–1
(4) M, s–1

24) Assertion : On adding NaCl to water, its boiling point increases.


Reason : On adding NaCl to water, its vapour pressure increases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct


(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

25) Assertion : The depression in freezing point depend on the amount of solute dissolved and not
on the nature of solute and solvent.
Reason : For aqueous solutions of different electrolyte, molal depression constant will have
different value.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26)

A solute 'A' undergoes association in a medium as :-

The degree of association is 'α', then van't Hoff factor may be given as:-

(1) i = 1 – α
i+1+
(2)
(3)
i=
(4) i = l

27) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:

(1) Doubled
(2) Halved
(3) Tripled
(4) Unchanged

28) 3g urea is dissolved in 45g of water, The relative lowering of vapour pressure is :-

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.01

29) The vapour pressure of a solution

(1) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent


(2) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.
(3) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute.
(4) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

30) Find out the osmotic pressure of 0.25 M aqueous solution of urea at 27°C (R = 0.082 litre atm
K–1 mo1–1).

(1) 6.15 atm


(2) 0.615 atm
(3) 0.0615 atm
(4) 61.5 atm

31) A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol–1) is isotonic with a 5%
solution of a nonvolatile solute. The molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is :

(1) 250g mol–1


(2) 300g mol–1
(3) 350g mol–1
(4) 200g mol–1

32) Which of the following equimolar solution have highest vapour pressure?

(1) Urea
(2)
(3)
(4)

33)

Among the following aqueous solution in the order of their increasing boiling points :-
(i) 0.001 M NaCl (ii) 0.001 M Urea

(iii) 0.001 M MgCl2 (iv) 0.01 M NaCl


(1) ii < i < iii < iv
(2) i < ii < iv < iii
(3) i < iv < iii < ii
(4) iv < iii < i < ii

34) 3 gm of non-volatile solute was dissolved in 20 ml of water. The elevation in boiling point was
found to be 0.52°C. The molecular weight of the substance will be (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) :

(1) 150 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 250 gm
(4) 100 gm

35) The vapour pressure of benzene at 80°C is lowered by 10 mm by dissolving 2 g of a non-volatile


substance in 78 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 80°C is 750 mm. The
molecular mass of the substance will be :-

(1) 15
(2) 250
(3) 1500
(4) 150

36) The freezing point of 0.1 M solution of glucose is –1.86°C. If an equal volume of 0.3 M glucose
solution is added. f.p. of the mixture will be : (assume m = M)

(1) –7.44°C
(2) –5.58°C
(3) –3.72°C
(4) None

37) The van't Hoff factor i for a dilute solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is :-

(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 0.25

38) Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutons will have the lowest freezing point ?
(1) K2SO4
(2) NaCl
(3) Glucose
(4) Urea

39) The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1kg of water using the following
information will be : (Molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4 and Kb = 0.52 K molal–1) (Assuming 100%
ionization of electrolyte)

(1) 0.156
(2) 0.052
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

40) Vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of urea at 100ºC is 684 mmHg. Relative lowering in
vapour pressure will be-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 1/19
(4) 1/9

41) Which is not a colligative property?

(1) Osmotic pressure


(2) Lowering in vapour Pressure
(3) Depression in freezing Point
(4) Refractive index

42) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273K when 10g glucose (π1), 10g urea (π2) and 10
g sucrose (π3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water, is.

(1) π1 > π2 > π3


(2) π3 > π1 > π2
(3) π2 > π1 > π3
(4) π2 > π3 > π1

43) Assertion (A) : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R) : NaCl undergoes dissociation in water.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
44) One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour
pressure is

(1) 0.20
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.25

45) A 6% solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) is isotonic with 2.5% solution of an unknown
organic substance. Calculate the molecular weight of the unknown organic substance.

(1) 50
(2) 75
(3) 150
(4) 200

BOTANY

1) The reaction -
Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA is called :-

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation


(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Substrate level phosphorylation

2) Glycolysis is a part of :

(1) Only anaerobic respiration


(2) Kreb's cycle
(3) Only aerobic respiration
(4) Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration

3) Choose the correct combination of labelling the number of carbon compounds in the substrate
molecules involved in citric acid cycle :-

(1) a-4C, b-6C, c-5C, d-4C, e-4C


(2) a-6C, b-5C, c-4C, d-3C, e-2C
(3) a-2C, b-3C, c-4C, d-5C, e-6C
(4) a-4C, b-5C, c-6C, d-4C, e-4C

4)

Aerobic respiration of one glucose produces.

(1) 12NADH2 + 30ATP + H2O


(2) 8NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2ATP
(3) 10NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 2ATP + 2 GTP
(4) 12NADH2 + 2FADH2 + 38ATP

5) "TCA" cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group with ________ & H2O to yield citric acid.
First member and acceptor of citric acid cycle is :-

(1) Citric acid


(2) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) Acetyl Co–A
(4) Pyruvic acid

6) Given below is the general representation of pathways of anaerobic respiration in which you have
to identify the compounds at A, B, and C.
A B C
(1) PEP CO2 Ethanol
(2) PEP Lactic acid Ethanol
(3) 1, 3-Bis PGA Lactic acid Acetyl CoA
(4) 1, 3-Bis PGA Acetyl CoA Lactic acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

Net yeild of SLP-ATP when two molecules of fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate is oxidised to pyruvic acid
through glycolytic pathway in absence of O2 is

(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 8
(4) 6

8) The net yield of ATP, except substrate level phosphorylation, from Krebs cycle per glucose
molecule is:-

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 22
(4) 36

9) Total number of ATP consumed during Kreb's cycle is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
10) Assertion :- Two redox-equivalents are removed from PGAL during glycolysis.
Reason :- Two molecules of pyruvic acids are formed at the end of glycolysis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) In glycolysis, electrons are removed from :-

(1) PGA
(2) NAD
(3) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(4) Molecular oxygen

12) Which of the following is essential for complete breakdown of glucose ?

(1) Abundance of NADH + H+


(2) Lack of oxygen
(3) Presence of alcohol
(4) Availability of final e– acceptor

13) The complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose by the stepwise removal of all _______ atoms,
leaving _______ molecules of CO2 :-

(1) O2, 3
(2) Hydrogen, 3
(3) Hydrogen, 12
(4) O2, 6

14) In alcoholic fermentation, by yeast, pyruvic acid is converted to ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
with the help of enzyme :

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase


(2) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme

15) In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH + H+ by :

(1) Reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol


(2) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
(3) Reduction of ethanol to pyruvate
(4) Oxidation of ethanol to acetyl CoA

16) The number of glucose molecules required to produce 38 ATP molecules under anaerobic
conditions by any yeast cell is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 19
(4) 38

17) Assertion :- In fermentation less than seven percent of energy in glucose is released.
Reason :- In fermentation there is the incomplete oxidation of glucose.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Hydrogen donated by -----in TCA-cycle is accepted by FAD :-

(1) Isocitric acid


(2) Oxalosuccinic acid
(3) α - ketoglutaric acid
(4) Succinic - acid

19)

Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A Glycolysis 1 Inner mitochondrial membrane

B TCA cycle 2 Mitochondrial matrix

C ETS 3 Cytoplasm
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1

20)

During alcoholic fermentation by yeast two molecules of glucose produce -

(1) 3 molecules of ethanol + 3 molecules of CO2


(2) 6 molecules of ethanol + 6 molecules of CO2
(3) 2 molecules of ethanol + 2 molecules of CO2
(4) 4 molecules of ethanol + 4 molecules of CO2

21)
The correct sequence of use of respiratory substrates in cellular respiration is :-

(1) Carbohydrate, Protein, Fat


(2) Fat, Protein, Carbohydrate
(3) Carbohydrate, Fat, Protein
(4) Protein, Fat, Carbohydrate

22) Two redox equivalent are removed in the form of two H-atoms when :-

PGAL is oxidised to
(1)
1, 3–biphosphoglyceric acid (1, 3–BiPGA)
(2) 1, 3–BiPGA is converted to 3–PGA
(3) 3–PGA is converted to 2–PGA
(4) Fructose 1,6–Biphosphate splits into PGAL and DHAP.

23) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is used to convert

(1) glucose to pyruvate


(2) pyruvic acid into lactic acid
(3) pyruvate to acetyl CoA
(4) pyruvate to glucose

24) Select the correct statement :-

(1) When ATP is synthesized directly from metabolites, it is substrate level phosphorylation
(2) In krebs cycle citrate undergoes - 2 times decarboxylation & 4 times dehydrogenation
(3) Krebs cycle is an amphibolic process
(4) All of these

25) How many molecules of CO2 are released in Krebs cycle per glucose molecule ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

26) Match the following :

(i) OAA (a) Dephosphorylation

(ii) Citrate (b) First member of "TCA" cycle

(iii) SLP reaction (c) Key product of glycolysis

(iv) Pyruvate (d) Tricarboxylic acid


(1) i - a ; ii - b ; iii - c ; iv - d
(2) i - b ; ii - a ; iii - c ; iv - d
(3) i - b ; ii - c ; iii - d ; iv - a
(4) i - b ; ii - d ; iii - a ; iv - c

27) The TCA-Cycle starts with the :

(1) Formation of pyruvate


(2) Condensation of CO2 with RuBP
(3) Isomerisation of citrate
(4) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA

28) The step in which NADH + H+ is not produced is-

(1) Succinyl – CoA →succinate


(2) Pyruvate → Acetyl – CoA
(3) α-Ketoglutarate → Succinyl – CoA
(4) Malate → OAA

29) Kreb's cycle occurs in :-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Mitochondria

30) How many times decarboxylation and dehydrogenation occur in citric acid cycle :-

(1) Two and three


(2) Two and two
(3) Three and four
(4) Two and four

31) What are the reasons why plants can get along without respiratory organs?
a. Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs. There is very little transport of gases
from one plant part to another.
b. Plants do not present great demands for gaseous exchanges; root, stem and leaves respire at
rates far lower than animals do.
c. The distance that gases must diffuse even in large, bulky plants is not great.

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) c and a

32) Assertion : The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is
about 13 percent.
Reason : Fermenting organism like yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of
alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Match column 'A' and column 'B' :-

A B
(i) Glycolysis (a) Exchange of gases
(ii) Stomata (b) 5c - compound
(iii) Glucose (c) Partial oxidation
(iv) ketoglutarate (d) Respiratory substrate
(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
(2) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
(3) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

34) During glycolysis the number of ATP molecules utilised to change glucose into fructose 1,6-
bisphosphate are :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

35) One of the following is common to glycolysis as well as Krebs cycle in eukaryotes :

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation


(2) Photophosphorylation
(3) Localization in mitochondria
(4) Production of FADH2

36) Ethyl alcohol fermentation can be observed in

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Vacuole
(3) Nucleus
(4) Mitochondria

37) Glycolysis is also called

(1) Hatch and slack pathway


(2) EMP pathway
(3) PPP pathway
(4) HMP shunt
38) Site of decarboxylation during complete oxidation of food in eukaryotic cells is :

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondrial matrix
(3) Mitochondrial outer membrane
(4) Mitochondrial inner membrane

39) Which is wrong about Kreb's cycle ?

(1) It occurs in mitochondria


(2) It starts with 5 carbon compound
(3) It is also called citric acid cycle
(4) ATP is formed from substrate level-phosphorylation

40) From given which coenzyme connected with pyruvate dehydrogenase.

(1) NAD+
(2) Co enzyme A
(3) Mg+2
(4) More than one option correct

41) Glycolysis is: -

(1) Oxidation of glucose to glutamate


(2) Conversion of pyruvate to citrate
(3) Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
(4) Conversion of glucose to haem

42) Which step is called gateway step/link reaction in aerobic respiration?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Formation of acetyl coenzyme A
(3) Citric acid formation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

43) The products formed from glycolysis are-

(1) Pyruvate, CO2, ATP


(2) Pyruvate, ATP, NADH + H+
(3) Acetyl CoA, ATP, NADH + H+
(4) Acetyl CoA, ATP, H2O

44) In glycolysis there is no :-

(1) oxidation
(2) decarboxylation
(3) dehydrogenation
(4) splitting of C-C bonds

45) What would be the maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented:

(1) 22%
(2) 13%
(3) 42%
(4) 35%

ZOOLOGY

1) If in a person functional residual capacity is 2300 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and inspiratory
capacity is 3500 ml then find out its vital capacity-

(1) 5800 ml
(2) 7000 ml
(3) 4600 ml
(4) 2300 ml

2) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at :-

(1) Low in tissues


(2) High in tissues
(3) Equal
(4) All times irrespective of

3) Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by :-

(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood


(2) Carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in the venous blood
(4) Oxygen content in the arterial blood

4) Find out partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood.

(1) pO2 = 104 mmHg pCO2 = 40 mmHg


(2) pO2 = 159 mmHg pCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
(3) pO2 = 40 mmHg pCO2 = 45 mmHg
(4) pO2 = 95 mmHg pCO2 = 40 mmHg

5) Which Respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula & value?

Respiratory Capacities Formula Value


Functional Residual
(1) ERV +TV 2300 ml
Capacity
(2) Vital Capacity ERV +TV + IRV 4600 ml
(3) Total lung Capacity RV + IRV + ERV 5800 ml
(4) Inspiratory Capacity TV + IRV 1600 ml
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Match the following

1 Tidal volume (a) 2500-3000 ml


2 IRV (b) ERV + TV + IRV
3 FRC (c) 500 ml
4 VC (d) RV + ERV
5 IC (e) TV + IRV
Select the correct one :-
(1) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–d ; 4–b ; 5–e
(2) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–b ; 5–e
(3) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–e ; 5–b
(4) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–e ; 4–b ; 5–d

7) Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes and capacities from the codes

given:

VITAL
TV IRV ERV RV
CAPACITY

(1) A C B D E

(2) A B C D E

(3) B A C D E

(4) C B A D E
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which one of the following can not be measured by spirometer ?

(1) Tidal volume


(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

9) Choose incorrect statement –

(1) Alveoli and their ducts forms exchange zone


(2) Diffusion membrane must be thinner than one millimeter
(3) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles are inspiratory muscles
(4) 100 ml oxygenated blood delivers 4 ml CO2 to alveoli

10) Choose the correct match–

(1) Tidal volume – Amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing
(2) Residual volume – Amount of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration
(3) Functional Residual capacity– Amount of air remains in the lungs after forceful inspiration
(4) Vital capacity – Amount of air can be expelled out after normal inspiration.

11) Which factor is favourable for binding of O2 with haemoglobin ?

(1) Low pO2


(2) High pCO2
(3) Lesser H+ concentration
(4) High temperature

12) An area situated adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre and highly sensitive to CO2 and H+, It
is :-

(1) Chemo sensitive area


(2) Dorsal respiratory group
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Ventral respiratory group

13)

Given lung volumes are :-


(A) Tidal volume = 500 ml
(B) Inspiratory reserve volume = 2500 ml
(C) Residual volume = 1100 ml
(D) Dead space air = 150 ml

(E) Expiratory reserve volume = 1000 ml The functional residual capacity will be :-
(1) 2100 ml
(2) 3500 ml
(3) 1500 ml
(4) 3000 ml

14)

Arrange the following in the order of decreasing volume:-


(a) Tidal volume
(b) Residual volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume

(d) Vital capacity


(1) a < c < d < b
(2) a < c < b < d
(3) d > c > b > a
(4) a < b < d < c

15) The partial pressure of oxygen is equal in

(1) Atmospheric air & Alveoli


(2) Alveoli & Oxygenated blood
(3) Alveoli & deoxygenated blood
(4) Deoxygenated blood & tissues

16)

The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve will show a right shift in case of :

(1) High pCO2


(2) High pO2
(3) Low pCO2
(4) Less H+ concentration

17) The solubility of carbon dioxide is about _____ times higher than that of oxygen across the
respiratory membrane.

(1) 20-25
(2) 25-50
(3) 125-150
(4) 200-250

18) The vital capacity of the lung signifies the volume of air :-

(1) Breathed in during normal inspiration


(2) Breathed out with forcible expiration
(3) Breathed in with forcible inspiration
(4) Inspired with deep inspiration after forcible expiration

19) The following statements refer to transport of gases by blood. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood transports about 20 ml of oxygen to the tissues
(2) 1 molecule of haemoglobin can carry 6 molecules of oxygen
(3) As the pCO2 rises, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased
(4) Increased pH favours carbamino haemoglobin formation

20) Tidal volume per minute is approximately equal to

(1) 500 ml
(2) 6000-8000 ml
(3) 600 ml
(4) 15000-18000 ml

21) Given below are two statements:


Statement I : The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called
vital capacity.
Statement II : Volume of air that remain in lungs after a normal expiration is called expiratory
reserve volume.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect


(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

22) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?


(A) A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
(B) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma
(C) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
physiological conditions.
(D) Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure.

(1) A, C & D
(2) A & D
(3) A, B, C & D
(4) Only A

23) Assertion: Some volume of air remains inside the lungs even after forceful expiration.
Reason: This maintains the alveoli and prevents the lungs from collapsing.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

24) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against pO2 the curve obtained is
:-

(1) Sigmoid
(2) Linear
(3) Perpendicular
(4) Circular

25) Approximately 70% of CO2 absorbed by blood will be transported to the lungs

(1) As bicarbonate ions


(2) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(3) By binding to RBC
(4) As carbamino - haemoglobin

26)

Carbon dioxide dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when

(1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low


(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(3) pCO2 and pO2 are equal
(4) None of the above

27)

Read the following statements and find out the correct statements:-
(a) High H+ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than tissues.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in, after a forced expiration is inspiratory
capacity.
(d) In alveoli low pCO2 high pO2 are conditions for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin.

(1) a & b only


(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

28) Assertion : The value of FRC is 2100 ml to 2300 ml.


Reason : The volume of air that remains in the lungs after normal expiration which includes
.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) The chemical formula of oxyhaemoglobin is:-

(1) Hb(O2)4
(2) Hb(O3)4
(3) H2B2O4
(4) H3B2O8

30) Besides RBC, blood plasma also carries O2 in dissolved state. The % is :-

(1) 3.9%
(2) 1%
(3) 3%
(4) 6%

31) Pneumotaxic centre is present in :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Medulla oblongata

32) What is true about RBCs in human ?

(1) They transport 99.5% of O2


(2) They do not carry CO2 at all
(3) They carry 20–25% of CO2
(4) They transport 95% of O2 only

33) The amount of oxygen delivered to tissue by two litre of blood under normal condition is
approximately:-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 50 ml

34) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately _________ of CO2 to the alveoli.

(1) 5 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 15 ml
(4) 7 ml
35) Statement-I:- Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2.
Statement-II:- Binding of oxygen with Hb is also related to H+ ion concentration, temperature &
pCO2.

(1) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect


(2) Statement I & II both are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct
(4) Both the statements are wrong

36) Rate of diffusion of gases is dependent on the :-

(1) Partial pressure of gases


(2) Solubility of gases in plasma
(3) Thickness of the diffusion membrane
(4) All of these

37)

Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide at different parts Involved in Diffusion is
given in table then identify the A, B, C and D :-

Respiratory Gases pO2 pCO2

Atmospheric Air 159 0.3

A 104 40

Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B

Blood (Oxygenated) C 40

Tissues 40 D
(1) A - Pulmonary artery, B-45, C-95, D-45
(2) A - Pulmonary vein, B-45, C-104, D-40
(3) A - Alveoli, B-45, C-95, D-45
(4) A - Alveoli, B-40, C-104, D-45

38) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left when :-

(1) pO2 decreases


(2) pCO2 increases
(3) pH increases
(4) Temperature increases
39) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

a b c d

(1) Inspired Air Expired Air More CO2 More O2

(2) Inspired Air Expired Air More O2 More CO2

(3) Expired Air Inspired Air More O2 More CO2

(4) Expired Air Inspired Air More CO2 More O2


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) The amount of O2 delivered to tissue by 1000 ml of oxygenated blood under strenuous exercise
condition is approximately :-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 150 ml
(4) 15 ml

41) Statement-I:- The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
Statement-II:- Maintenance of respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues is done
by the neural system.

(1) Both the statements are correct


(2) Statement I correct & II incorrect
(3) Statement I incorrect & II correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

42) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) pO2 in deoxygenated blood is same as pCO2 in oxygenated blood.


(2) pCO2 in oxygenated blood is same as pO2 in tissue.
(3) pCO2 in oxygenated blood is same as pCO2 in alveoli
(4) pCO2 in tissue is same as pO2 in deoxygenated blood

43) Choose the factor which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin ?

(1) Low pO2 in alveoli


(2) High pCO2 in alveoli
(3) Lesser H+ concentration in alveoli
(4) Higher temperature in alveoli

44) Which of the following statements are correct ?


A. Chemosensitive receptors are associated with aortic arch & carotid artery.
B. Pneumotaxic centre can increase the duration of inspiration.
C. Respiratory rhythm centre in pons is primarily responsible for respiratory regulation.
D. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to respiratory rhythm centre.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) C & D

45)

What does neural signal from pneumotaxic centre cause ?

(1) Increases the duration of inspiration


(2) Reduces the duration of expiration
(3) Reduces the duration of inspiration
(4) Increases the duration of both inspiration and expiration
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 2 1 4 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 3 3
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1 × sin 60° = µoil × sin 30°

µoil =

2) Red has more wavelength, less refractive index and high speed.

3) Let v' and λ' represent frequency and wavelength of light in medium respectively.

So v' =

5) sin i = μsin r
put r = i/2
and solve

6)

7)

8)

...(1)

and ...(2)
⇒ so d = 15 cm

9)

1 sin 60 = sin r

= sin r
r = 30°
Leteral shift

10)

11)

⇒ 0.1 = 1

12)

Shift =

=
= 2 cm upward

13) At critical angle


angle of refraction = 90°

14) Mirage phenomena is due to TIR.

15)

sin θ =

sin θ =

⇒ v' =

16)
Critical angle from glass to water
µg sin C = µω sin 90°

T.I.R takes place on AC i.e.


θ>C
sin θ > sin C
sin θ > 8/9

17)

18)

At interface 1 : μ =
⇒ sinθ = μsinr ...(i)
At interface 2 : (90 – r) = C
⇒ sin(90–r) = sinC
⇒ cosr =

⇒ cosr = ⇒ r = 30º

From equation (i), sinθ = sin30º =

⇒ θ = sin–1

26)

27) Intensity ∝ Area

28)

f= ⇒ 30 =

u=

29) Convex lens act as divergent in denser medium.

30)

31)

In air …(1)

In liquid …(2)
=

32)

Question Explanation : To find distance of object from the lens.


Concept : Magnipication

Formula :

Calculation :

f+u=

Final Answer : (3)

33)


f = 10 cm

34) A. QUESTION EXPLANATION:


We are given two convex lenses with focal lengths 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. A parallel
beam of light is incident on the first lens. We need to find the distance d between the lenses
such that the emergent rays from the second lens are also parallel.
B. CONCEPT:
• Convex Lens and Parallel Beam: A parallel beam of light entering a convex lens converges at
its focal point.
• Parallel Beam from Second Lens: For the light emerging from the second lens to be parallel,
the light converging from the first lens must effectively be at the focal point of the second lens.
C. FORMULA:
• There are no specific formulas needed for this problem. The core concept is understanding
how convex lenses treat parallel beams of light.
D. CALCULATION:
First Lens (L1): A parallel beam entering the first lens (focal length 10 cm) will converge at
its focal point, 10 cm away from the lens.
Second Lens (L2): For the beam to emerge as a parallel beam from the second lens (focal
length 20 cm), the converging beam from the first lens must be at the focal point of the second
lens. This means the focal point of the first lens must be 20 cm in front of the second lens.
Distance (d): The distance d between the two lenses is the sum of the focal length of the first
lens and the focal length of the second lens.
d = f1 + f2
d = 10 cm + 20 cm
d = 30 cm
E. ANSWER:
3. 30 cm

35)
Case 1: F1 = f,

Case 2:
Case 3: F3 = f
F1 : F2 : F3 = f : f : f = 1 : 1 : 1

36) ...(1)

...(2)

f' = 4f
Increase in f ⇒ 300%

37)

38) f = =

39) and

41) Speed ↓ Wavelength ↓ frequency not change

42)
=
f = –15cm
15 cm, concave

43) If inner refractive index is greater then refractive index of surroundings then nature
remain same and for vice versa nature opposite.

44) if f1 & f2 are in cm

45) Setting sun appears reference. Scattering of light in proportional to .

CHEMISTRY

47) ΔTb = Kb

48)

51)

According to law of mass action


r ∝ [A]2 [B]
r = K[A]2 [B]

52)
= 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

53)

Explanation
A. Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of a component to the total moles in a solution.

B. In a binary solution (solute + solvent), the sum of the mole fractions of all components
must equal 1.

C. Therefore, Xa (solute) + Xb (solvent) = 1.

Answer option 1, (Xa + Xb = 1).

54)

55) Van't Hoff factor is always less than one for association.

57)

Question Explanation:
The question asks us to determine the order of the reaction with respect to reactants A and B.
Given Data:

[A] (M) [B] (M) Initial rate (mol L–1 s–1)


1 0.1 4 × 10–4
2 0.2 1.6 × 10–3
0.5 1.0 10–4
0.5 0.5 10–4
Concept:

A. The rate law is given by: Rate = k[A]x [B]y, where x and y are the orders with respect to A and
B, respectively.
B. To find the order with respect to a reactant, we compare two experiments where the
concentration of that reactant changes while the other remains constant.
C. If the rate doubles when the concentration doubles, the order is 1. If the rate quadruples when
the concentration doubles, the order is 2. If the rate remains unchanged when the
concentration changes, the order is 0.

Mathematical Calculation:

1. Order with respect to B:

A. Compare experiments 3 and 4:


A. [A] is constant (0.5 M).
B. [B] changes from 1.0 M to 0.5 M (halved).
C. Rate remains constant (10–4 mol L–1 s–1).
D. Therefore, the rate is independent of [B], so the order with respect to B is 0.

2. Order with respect to A:

A. Compare experiments 1 and 3:


B. (1/0.5)x = (4 × 10–4) / 10–4

(2)x = 4

Therefore, the order with respect to A is 2.


Final Answer:
The order of reaction with respect to A is 2 and with respect to B is 0.
The correct option is (3).

59) Sugar - Nonelectrolyte


On -Addition of sugar it occupies the surface Area thus -reducing the vapor Pressure.
∴Boiling Point increases
Freezing point decreases.

64)
for non-electrolyte
i=1

65)

R.O.R = K[A2]a[B2]b
0.04 = K(0.2)a(0.2)b …(i)
0.04 = K(0.1)a(0.4)b …(ii)
0.08 = K(0.2)a(0.4)b

66) r = k[y]2

67)

74)

The vapour pressure of a solution is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.
75) π = CRT
= 0.25 × 0.0821 × 300
= 6.157 atm

76)

π1=π2
i1C1 = i2C2

MB = 300g/mol

77) Vapour pressure


Glucose does not dissociate into ions so it has minimum B.P. so maximum V.P. or

(von't Hoff factor)

78)

Colligative Properties α No. of solute particles


(I) 0.001 M NaCl - 2 ions (ii) 0.001 M Urea
(iii) 0.001 M MgCl2 - 3ions (iv) 0.01M NaCl - 2ions
iv>iii>i>ii

82)

K3[Fe(CN)6] → 3K+ + [Fe(CN)6]–3

87) Explanation :
Correct order of osmotic pressure is to be found if three different solutions are given with
mass of solute and volume of solvent.

Given Data :
Temperature = 273 K
Volume of water = 250 mL
Mass of Glucose = 10 g
Mass of urea = 10 g
Mass of sucrose = 10 g

Concept :
π = CRT i
π = Osmotic pressure
C = Concentration
T = Temperature in Kelvin
i = Van't huff factor
Calculation :

π = CRT × i =
volume, R1 T1 i same for each solution.
π × mol

For Glucose (π1) ⇒ mol =

For Urea (π2) ⇒ mol =

For Sucrose (π3) ⇒ mol =


π × mol
The osmotic pressure will be in the same order as the number of moles of solute.
π2 > π1 > π3
Final Answer :- π2 > π1 > π3
Hence the correct answer is option (3)

88) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)

89) Relative lowering in vapour pressure = Mole fraction of solute

∴ xsolute =

90) πglucose = πunknown


CG = CU

BOTANY

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