Solution
Solution
6901CMD30334625MN002 MD
PHYSICS
1) A ray of light AO is incident on the surface of oil. Reflected part of this ray OB and refracted part
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 2
2) A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling
through the slab, the first colour to emerge is
(1) Blue
(2) Green
(3) Violet
(4) Red
3) When a light wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its-
(1) Speed
(2) Amplitude
(3) Frequency
(4) Wavelength
4)
A slab of glass, of thick ness 6 cm and refractive index is placed in front of a concave mirror
as shown in the figure. If the radius of curvature of the mirror is 40 cm and the reflected image
coincides with the object, then the distance of the object from the mirror is
(1) 30 cm
(2) 22 cm
(3) 42 cm
(4) 38 cm
5) When a ray of light enters a medium of refractive index , it is observed that the angle of
refraction is half the angle of incidence is than angle of incidence is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6) If light travels a distance x in t1 sec in air and 10 x distance in t2 sec in a medium, the critical
angle of the medium will be :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
7) If iμj represents refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then the
product 2μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 is equal to :
(1) 3μ1
(2) 3μ2
(3)
(4) 4μ2
8) A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 6 cm and 4 cm from other
side, then thickness of slab is :-
(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 2.5 cm
9)
In the diagram shown, a ray refracts through a glass slab. The parallel shift ‘x’ as it comes out of
glass slab is
(1)
cm
(2) 5 cm
(3)
cm
(4) 25 cm
10)
Find the apparent depth of the object seen by observer A (in the figure shown)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
11)
A mark at bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1m. The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The refractive
index of liquid is:
(1) 1.33
(2) 9/10
(3) 10/9
(4) 1.5
12) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 6
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :-
(1) 2 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm downward
13) In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction ?
(1) 180°
(2) 0°
(3) equal to angle of incidence
(4) 90°
15) The critical angle of light going medium A to medium B is θ. The speed of light medium in A is v.
The speed of light in medium B is :
(1)
(2) v sin θ
(3) v cot θ
(4) v tan θ
16) A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam
incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected on face AC, if :-
(1) sin θ > 8/9
(2) sin θ < 2/3
(3) sin θ < 8/9
(4) none
17) A point source of light is kept at a depth of h in water of refractive index 4/3. The radius of the
circle at the surface of water through which light emits is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18) A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index of . It is surrounded by air. A light
ray is incident at the mid-point of one end of the rod as shown in the figure.
The incident angle θ for which the light ray grazes along the wall of
the rod is :-
(1) sin–1(1/2)
(2) sin–1( /2)
(3) sin (2/
–1
)
(4) sin–1(1/ )
19) Assertion (A) :- If an object placed on the optical axis of a lens is illuminated by white light,
then image formed will be coloured and not exactly white.
Reason (R) :- The lens has different focal lengths for different colours.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) correct explanation of (A).
20) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains.
(1) Yellow, orange, red
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green
21) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of
curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at : -
(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 10 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left
22) A thin lens whose power is +2D is cut into two pieces perpendicular to the principal axis. The
focal length of each part will be
(1) 1 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 75 cm
(4) 0.05 m
23) The critical angle of light going from a medium to air is The speed of light in the medium is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
24) When monochromatic red light is used instead of blue light in a convex lens, its focal length
25) A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rarer medium. The angle of reflection is A and that
if refraction is B. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of with each other. The critical
angle will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26) The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is
(1) 1.5 f
(2) 2 f
(3) 2.5 f
(4) 4 f
27) A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When upper half of the lens is covered
by an opaque screen :-
28) What is the refractive index of a material of a plano-convex lens. If the radius of curvature of the
convex surface is 10 c.m. and focal length of the lens is 30 c.m. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
29) The relation between n1 and n2 if behaviour of light rays is as shown in figure is-
(1) n1 >> n2
(2) n2 > n1
(3) n1 > n2
(4) n1 = n2
30) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object
(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3
31) A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be :-
(1) –16 cm
(2) –160 cm
(3) +160 cm
(4) +16 cm
32) A convex lens of focal lenght f produces a virtual image n times the size of the object, then the
distance of the object from the lens, is-
(1) (n – 1) f
(2) (n + 1) f
(3)
(4)
33) Two thin convex lenses of focal length 10 cm and 15 cm are separated by a distance of 10 cm.
The focal length of the combination is :-
(1) 4.2 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 15 cm
34) What is the value of d for which emergent rays are also parallel :-
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm
35) Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the
adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal length in three cases will be :-
(1) 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 : 1
36) On immersing a glass lens (μ = 3/2) in water (μ = 4/3) its focal length :
37) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is silvered from plane surface. The focal length will be :-
(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 10 cm
38) An object placed at a distance of 9cm from first principal focus of convex lens, produces a real
image at a distance of 25cm from its second principal focus. Then focal length of lens is
(1) 9 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 17 cm
39) If I1 and I2 be the size of the images respectively for the two positions of lens in the displacement
method, then the size of the object is given by
(1) I1/I2
(2) I1 × I2
(3)
(4)
40) How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled
when viewed from the top of the container (Given that )
(1) 8.0 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
(3) 12.0 cm
(4) None of the above
42) In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature 10 cm. (R1 = R2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of
glass (μ = 1.5). The focal length and the nature of the lens is :-
43) A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging lens in water. The refractive index of
the material is :-
(1) + 5 D
(2) – 5 D
(3) + 10 D
(4) – 10 D
45) Assertion (A): Combination of lenses helps to obtain diverging or converging lenses of desired
magnification.
Reason (R): It enhances sharpness of the image.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
CHEMISTRY
1) The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in boiling point to:
(1) molarity
(2) molality
(3) mole fraction of solute
(4) mole fraction of solvent
2) 0.9 g of a non-electrolyte was dissolved in 90 g of benzene. This raised the boiling point of
benzene by 0.25°C. If molecular mass of the non-electrolyte is 100 g/mole. Calculate the molar
elevation constant for benzene :
3) Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relationship between the rates at
which NO2 and Cl2 are consumed in the reaction below ? 2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NO2Cl(g)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) a, b
(2) a, b, d
(3) c, d
(4) only a
(2)
0.1 m
(3) 0.1 m Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 m C12H22O11
6) The rate law for the single step reaction 2A + B → 2C, is given by :
8) For a solution if Xa represents the mole fraction of the solute and Xb represents the mole fraction
of the solvent, then :-
(1) Xa + Xb = 1
(2) Xa . Xb = 1
–1
(3) Xa . Xb = 1
(4) Xa – Xb = 1
If the rate of appearence of CO2 is 0.40 mol/ℓ- sec., the rate of disappereance of O2 is–
10) For an electrolyte undergoing association in a solvent, the Van’t Hoff factor :
(1) –1.86°C
(2) –0.93°C
(3) –0.093°C
(4) 0.093°C
Initial rate
[A](M) [B](M) –1 –1
(mol litre sec )
1 0.1 4 × 10–4
13) For the reaction, 2A + B → 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
14) What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing point of water-
15) For the reaction A + B → C, starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in four experiments
[A]0/M [B]0
S.No. Rate/(M sec–1)
(initial conc.) (initial conc.)
16) In a gaseous phase reaction, A2(g) → 1/2 B(g) + C(g), the increase in pressure of B(g) from 100 mm to
120 mm is noticed in 5 minute. The rate of disappearance of A2 in mm min–1 is :-
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 2
17) For the reaction H2 + I2 → 2HI, the rate of disappearance of iodine is 10–6 mole litre–1 sec–1. What
will be the rate of formation of HI ?
(1) 10–6
(2) 2 × 10–6
(3)
will be :-
19)
The osmotic pressure of 1 M solution of a non-electrolyte solute at 27°C is (R = 0.082 litre atm K–1
mo1–1).
21) In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y, X + 3Y → XY3 The initial rates are reported as
follows –
22) Acetic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene, the van't Hoff factor i is related to degree of
association of acid as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
23) Units of rate constant for the first and zero-order reactions in terms of molarity Μ, units are
respectively:
25) Assertion : The depression in freezing point depend on the amount of solute dissolved and not
on the nature of solute and solvent.
Reason : For aqueous solutions of different electrolyte, molal depression constant will have
different value.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
26)
The degree of association is 'α', then van't Hoff factor may be given as:-
(1) i = 1 – α
i+1+
(2)
(3)
i=
(4) i = l
27) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:
(1) Doubled
(2) Halved
(3) Tripled
(4) Unchanged
28) 3g urea is dissolved in 45g of water, The relative lowering of vapour pressure is :-
(1) 0.05
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.01
30) Find out the osmotic pressure of 0.25 M aqueous solution of urea at 27°C (R = 0.082 litre atm
K–1 mo1–1).
31) A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol–1) is isotonic with a 5%
solution of a nonvolatile solute. The molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is :
32) Which of the following equimolar solution have highest vapour pressure?
(1) Urea
(2)
(3)
(4)
33)
Among the following aqueous solution in the order of their increasing boiling points :-
(i) 0.001 M NaCl (ii) 0.001 M Urea
34) 3 gm of non-volatile solute was dissolved in 20 ml of water. The elevation in boiling point was
found to be 0.52°C. The molecular weight of the substance will be (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) :
(1) 150 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 250 gm
(4) 100 gm
(1) 15
(2) 250
(3) 1500
(4) 150
36) The freezing point of 0.1 M solution of glucose is –1.86°C. If an equal volume of 0.3 M glucose
solution is added. f.p. of the mixture will be : (assume m = M)
(1) –7.44°C
(2) –5.58°C
(3) –3.72°C
(4) None
(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 0.25
38) Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutons will have the lowest freezing point ?
(1) K2SO4
(2) NaCl
(3) Glucose
(4) Urea
39) The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1kg of water using the following
information will be : (Molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4 and Kb = 0.52 K molal–1) (Assuming 100%
ionization of electrolyte)
(1) 0.156
(2) 0.052
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2
40) Vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of urea at 100ºC is 684 mmHg. Relative lowering in
vapour pressure will be-
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 1/19
(4) 1/9
42) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273K when 10g glucose (π1), 10g urea (π2) and 10
g sucrose (π3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water, is.
43) Assertion (A) : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R) : NaCl undergoes dissociation in water.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
44) One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour
pressure is
(1) 0.20
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.25
45) A 6% solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) is isotonic with 2.5% solution of an unknown
organic substance. Calculate the molecular weight of the unknown organic substance.
(1) 50
(2) 75
(3) 150
(4) 200
BOTANY
1) The reaction -
Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA is called :-
2) Glycolysis is a part of :
3) Choose the correct combination of labelling the number of carbon compounds in the substrate
molecules involved in citric acid cycle :-
4)
5) "TCA" cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group with ________ & H2O to yield citric acid.
First member and acceptor of citric acid cycle is :-
6) Given below is the general representation of pathways of anaerobic respiration in which you have
to identify the compounds at A, B, and C.
A B C
(1) PEP CO2 Ethanol
(2) PEP Lactic acid Ethanol
(3) 1, 3-Bis PGA Lactic acid Acetyl CoA
(4) 1, 3-Bis PGA Acetyl CoA Lactic acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
7)
Net yeild of SLP-ATP when two molecules of fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate is oxidised to pyruvic acid
through glycolytic pathway in absence of O2 is
(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 8
(4) 6
8) The net yield of ATP, except substrate level phosphorylation, from Krebs cycle per glucose
molecule is:-
(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 22
(4) 36
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
10) Assertion :- Two redox-equivalents are removed from PGAL during glycolysis.
Reason :- Two molecules of pyruvic acids are formed at the end of glycolysis.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) PGA
(2) NAD
(3) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(4) Molecular oxygen
13) The complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose by the stepwise removal of all _______ atoms,
leaving _______ molecules of CO2 :-
(1) O2, 3
(2) Hydrogen, 3
(3) Hydrogen, 12
(4) O2, 6
14) In alcoholic fermentation, by yeast, pyruvic acid is converted to ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
with the help of enzyme :
16) The number of glucose molecules required to produce 38 ATP molecules under anaerobic
conditions by any yeast cell is :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 19
(4) 38
17) Assertion :- In fermentation less than seven percent of energy in glucose is released.
Reason :- In fermentation there is the incomplete oxidation of glucose.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
19)
Column I Column II
C ETS 3 Cytoplasm
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1
20)
21)
The correct sequence of use of respiratory substrates in cellular respiration is :-
22) Two redox equivalent are removed in the form of two H-atoms when :-
PGAL is oxidised to
(1)
1, 3–biphosphoglyceric acid (1, 3–BiPGA)
(2) 1, 3–BiPGA is converted to 3–PGA
(3) 3–PGA is converted to 2–PGA
(4) Fructose 1,6–Biphosphate splits into PGAL and DHAP.
(1) When ATP is synthesized directly from metabolites, it is substrate level phosphorylation
(2) In krebs cycle citrate undergoes - 2 times decarboxylation & 4 times dehydrogenation
(3) Krebs cycle is an amphibolic process
(4) All of these
25) How many molecules of CO2 are released in Krebs cycle per glucose molecule ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Mitochondria
30) How many times decarboxylation and dehydrogenation occur in citric acid cycle :-
31) What are the reasons why plants can get along without respiratory organs?
a. Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs. There is very little transport of gases
from one plant part to another.
b. Plants do not present great demands for gaseous exchanges; root, stem and leaves respire at
rates far lower than animals do.
c. The distance that gases must diffuse even in large, bulky plants is not great.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) c and a
32) Assertion : The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is
about 13 percent.
Reason : Fermenting organism like yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of
alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
A B
(i) Glycolysis (a) Exchange of gases
(ii) Stomata (b) 5c - compound
(iii) Glucose (c) Partial oxidation
(iv) ketoglutarate (d) Respiratory substrate
(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
(2) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
(3) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
34) During glycolysis the number of ATP molecules utilised to change glucose into fructose 1,6-
bisphosphate are :-
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
35) One of the following is common to glycolysis as well as Krebs cycle in eukaryotes :
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Vacuole
(3) Nucleus
(4) Mitochondria
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondrial matrix
(3) Mitochondrial outer membrane
(4) Mitochondrial inner membrane
(1) NAD+
(2) Co enzyme A
(3) Mg+2
(4) More than one option correct
(1) Glycolysis
(2) Formation of acetyl coenzyme A
(3) Citric acid formation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
(1) oxidation
(2) decarboxylation
(3) dehydrogenation
(4) splitting of C-C bonds
45) What would be the maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented:
(1) 22%
(2) 13%
(3) 42%
(4) 35%
ZOOLOGY
1) If in a person functional residual capacity is 2300 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and inspiratory
capacity is 3500 ml then find out its vital capacity-
(1) 5800 ml
(2) 7000 ml
(3) 4600 ml
(4) 2300 ml
2) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at :-
5) Which Respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula & value?
7) Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes and capacities from the codes
given:
VITAL
TV IRV ERV RV
CAPACITY
(1) A C B D E
(2) A B C D E
(3) B A C D E
(4) C B A D E
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(1) Tidal volume – Amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing
(2) Residual volume – Amount of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration
(3) Functional Residual capacity– Amount of air remains in the lungs after forceful inspiration
(4) Vital capacity – Amount of air can be expelled out after normal inspiration.
12) An area situated adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre and highly sensitive to CO2 and H+, It
is :-
13)
(E) Expiratory reserve volume = 1000 ml The functional residual capacity will be :-
(1) 2100 ml
(2) 3500 ml
(3) 1500 ml
(4) 3000 ml
14)
16)
17) The solubility of carbon dioxide is about _____ times higher than that of oxygen across the
respiratory membrane.
(1) 20-25
(2) 25-50
(3) 125-150
(4) 200-250
18) The vital capacity of the lung signifies the volume of air :-
19) The following statements refer to transport of gases by blood. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood transports about 20 ml of oxygen to the tissues
(2) 1 molecule of haemoglobin can carry 6 molecules of oxygen
(3) As the pCO2 rises, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased
(4) Increased pH favours carbamino haemoglobin formation
(1) 500 ml
(2) 6000-8000 ml
(3) 600 ml
(4) 15000-18000 ml
(1) A, C & D
(2) A & D
(3) A, B, C & D
(4) Only A
23) Assertion: Some volume of air remains inside the lungs even after forceful expiration.
Reason: This maintains the alveoli and prevents the lungs from collapsing.
24) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against pO2 the curve obtained is
:-
(1) Sigmoid
(2) Linear
(3) Perpendicular
(4) Circular
25) Approximately 70% of CO2 absorbed by blood will be transported to the lungs
26)
27)
Read the following statements and find out the correct statements:-
(a) High H+ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than tissues.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in, after a forced expiration is inspiratory
capacity.
(d) In alveoli low pCO2 high pO2 are conditions for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) Hb(O2)4
(2) Hb(O3)4
(3) H2B2O4
(4) H3B2O8
30) Besides RBC, blood plasma also carries O2 in dissolved state. The % is :-
(1) 3.9%
(2) 1%
(3) 3%
(4) 6%
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Medulla oblongata
33) The amount of oxygen delivered to tissue by two litre of blood under normal condition is
approximately:-
(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 50 ml
34) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately _________ of CO2 to the alveoli.
(1) 5 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 15 ml
(4) 7 ml
35) Statement-I:- Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2.
Statement-II:- Binding of oxygen with Hb is also related to H+ ion concentration, temperature &
pCO2.
37)
Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide at different parts Involved in Diffusion is
given in table then identify the A, B, C and D :-
A 104 40
Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B
Blood (Oxygenated) C 40
Tissues 40 D
(1) A - Pulmonary artery, B-45, C-95, D-45
(2) A - Pulmonary vein, B-45, C-104, D-40
(3) A - Alveoli, B-45, C-95, D-45
(4) A - Alveoli, B-40, C-104, D-45
a b c d
40) The amount of O2 delivered to tissue by 1000 ml of oxygenated blood under strenuous exercise
condition is approximately :-
(1) 5 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 150 ml
(4) 15 ml
41) Statement-I:- The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
Statement-II:- Maintenance of respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues is done
by the neural system.
43) Choose the factor which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin ?
(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) C & D
45)
PHYSICS
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 2 1 4 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 2 2
CHEMISTRY
Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 4 2
BOTANY
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 2 2
ZOOLOGY
Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 3 3
SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
µoil =
2) Red has more wavelength, less refractive index and high speed.
3) Let v' and λ' represent frequency and wavelength of light in medium respectively.
So v' =
5) sin i = μsin r
put r = i/2
and solve
6)
7)
8)
...(1)
and ...(2)
⇒ so d = 15 cm
9)
1 sin 60 = sin r
= sin r
r = 30°
Leteral shift
10)
11)
⇒ 0.1 = 1
12)
Shift =
=
= 2 cm upward
15)
sin θ =
sin θ =
⇒ v' =
16)
Critical angle from glass to water
µg sin C = µω sin 90°
17)
18)
At interface 1 : μ =
⇒ sinθ = μsinr ...(i)
At interface 2 : (90 – r) = C
⇒ sin(90–r) = sinC
⇒ cosr =
⇒ cosr = ⇒ r = 30º
⇒ θ = sin–1
26)
28)
f= ⇒ 30 =
u=
30)
31)
In air …(1)
In liquid …(2)
=
32)
Formula :
Calculation :
f+u=
33)
–
f = 10 cm
35)
Case 1: F1 = f,
Case 2:
Case 3: F3 = f
F1 : F2 : F3 = f : f : f = 1 : 1 : 1
36) ...(1)
...(2)
f' = 4f
Increase in f ⇒ 300%
37)
38) f = =
39) and
42)
=
f = –15cm
15 cm, concave
43) If inner refractive index is greater then refractive index of surroundings then nature
remain same and for vice versa nature opposite.
CHEMISTRY
47) ΔTb = Kb
48)
51)
52)
= 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
53)
Explanation
A. Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of a component to the total moles in a solution.
B. In a binary solution (solute + solvent), the sum of the mole fractions of all components
must equal 1.
54)
55) Van't Hoff factor is always less than one for association.
57)
Question Explanation:
The question asks us to determine the order of the reaction with respect to reactants A and B.
Given Data:
A. The rate law is given by: Rate = k[A]x [B]y, where x and y are the orders with respect to A and
B, respectively.
B. To find the order with respect to a reactant, we compare two experiments where the
concentration of that reactant changes while the other remains constant.
C. If the rate doubles when the concentration doubles, the order is 1. If the rate quadruples when
the concentration doubles, the order is 2. If the rate remains unchanged when the
concentration changes, the order is 0.
Mathematical Calculation:
(2)x = 4
64)
for non-electrolyte
i=1
65)
R.O.R = K[A2]a[B2]b
0.04 = K(0.2)a(0.2)b …(i)
0.04 = K(0.1)a(0.4)b …(ii)
0.08 = K(0.2)a(0.4)b
66) r = k[y]2
67)
74)
The vapour pressure of a solution is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.
75) π = CRT
= 0.25 × 0.0821 × 300
= 6.157 atm
76)
π1=π2
i1C1 = i2C2
MB = 300g/mol
78)
82)
87) Explanation :
Correct order of osmotic pressure is to be found if three different solutions are given with
mass of solute and volume of solvent.
Given Data :
Temperature = 273 K
Volume of water = 250 mL
Mass of Glucose = 10 g
Mass of urea = 10 g
Mass of sucrose = 10 g
Concept :
π = CRT i
π = Osmotic pressure
C = Concentration
T = Temperature in Kelvin
i = Van't huff factor
Calculation :
π = CRT × i =
volume, R1 T1 i same for each solution.
π × mol
88) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)
∴ xsolute =
BOTANY
91)
NCERT XI Pg # 231
NCERT XI Pg # 232
107)
NCERT XI Pg # 157,158
108)
ZOOLOGY
136)
137)
138)
NCERT (XI) Pg No : 190
139)
140)
141)
144)
145)
149)
151)
152)
154)
155)
157)
158)
159)
160)
161)
162)
164)
166)
167)
168)
169)
170)
171)
172)
175)
NCERT (XI) Pg No :
176)
178)