SAMPLE TEST 4

LISTENING: QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this question paper until you are told to do so.

One mark will be granted for each correct answer.

Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.

At the end of the test, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet.

You must not remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Ray
Part A: Write your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the blanks. Example: Patient: Sands
Part B & Part C: Mark your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example: A
B
C

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1
 N K
L A
B
Occupational English Test
Listening Test
This test has three parts. In each part you’ll hear a number of different extracts. At the start of each extract,
you’ll hear this sound: --beep--

You’ll have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you’ll hear each extract ONCE ONLY.
Complete your answers as you listen.

At the end of the test you’ll have two minutes to check your answers.

L E
P
Part A
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, a health professional is talking
to a patient.

M
For questions 1-24, complete the notes with information that you hear.
Now, look at the notes for extract one.

S A
Extract 1: Questions 1-12

You hear a paediatrician talking to the father of a six-year-old boy called Daniel. For questions 1-12, complete
the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear.

You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Daniel Lemmings ( 6 years old )

Description of physical complaint

• skin on Daniel’s hands is both (1)

E
• Daniel’s pain described as (2)

L
- no itching or scratching

- occasionally accompanied by (3)

P
• Daniel’s condition began last (4)

M
• Daniel’s symptoms worsened by (5)

Treatments already tried

A
• over-the-counter remedies (e.g., skin products)

S
• home remedies, e.g.:

- wearing silk gloves at night

- treating with (6)

• uses his sister’s (7)

• seems to improve during the (8)

Background information
• Daniel has no problems at school

• People describe Daniel’s character as (9)

• Daniel has tantrums

- finds any (10) hard to handle

• Daniel is overly worried about (11) on his food

Mother’s concerns • She worries he may be developing

(12)

• She wants advice on how to deal with the situation

Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a consultant gastroenterologist talking to a patient called Vincent Sykes. For questions 13-24, complete
the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear.

You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Vincent Sykes

Symptoms • loss of weight

• stomach feels (13) soon after starting meals

E
•• (14) sensation when swallowing food

L
• stools are pale and (15)

• stomach described as (16)

P
• some jaundice

• says his skin feels (17)

M
• extreme fatigue

A
• pain in stomach area, spreading to back

• pain is worse when he’s (18)

S
• he describes pain as feeling like (19)

Background • has always liked (20) foods

• now retired from work

• employed 30 years in a (21)

• used to smoke 20 cigarettes daily

• moderate drinker

Medical history •• (22) infection two years ago

• last year diagnosed with (23)

• blood clot in leg six months ago (treated with warfarin)

• last month diagnosed with (24)

That is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

 Part B

In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have time
to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25. A

B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

E
25. You hear a palliative care nurse talking to an elderly patient.

L
What is the patient most concerned about?

P
A a change in her weight

B her new treatment regime

M
C some abdominal discomfort

A
26. You hear a pharmacist talking to a customer who is in pain.

S
What is the customer seeking help about?

A an increase in her arthritic pain

B discomfort due to a bite splint

C a potential drug interaction

27. You hear a dietitian talking to a patient about a new treatment plan for diabetes.

How does the patient react to the plan?

A She’s unsure whether she could manage it.

B She wonders how effective it would be.

C She’s keen to give it a try.

28. You hear a senior nurse advising a trainee about a condition called venous thromboembolism (VTE).

She stresses that the trainee should

A pay special attention to identifying the symptoms.

B ask for help immediately whenever there are any concerns.

C follow the standard treatment procedure whenever possible.

E
29. You hear an eye specialist talking to her patient.

L
What is the specialist doing?

P
A reassuring him about the prognosis for his vision

B expressing concern about the extent of his recovery

M
C confirming that his experience matches the clinical evidence

A
30. You hear a cardiologist updating hospital colleagues about trials of urine testing.

S
He reports that urine testing of hypertensive out-patients has led to

A improved adherence to BP treatment.

B a reduction in the level of BP medication needed.

C the offer of optional BP therapies to high-risk groups.

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

 Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. Complete your
answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one. A

B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

Extract 1: Questions 31-36

E
You hear a micro-biologist called Dr Jane Finn giving a presentation about the overuse of antibiotics

L
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

P
31. What reason does Dr Finn give for the rise in antibiotic use in the decade to 2010?

M
A the ready availability of the drugs online

B the time pressures that doctors were working under

A
C the fear felt by doctors of failing to treat possible infections

S
32. What reservation does Dr Finn have about a recent fall in the number of antibiotics prescribed in the UK?

A It seems to have no effect on drug resistance rates.

B It may be causing actual harm to certain patients.

C It doesn’t reflect an even pattern of distribution.

33. Dr Finn criticises recent news reports on completing antibiotic treatment because

A they are based on inaccurate evidence.

B they are likely to leave readers confused.

C they fail to differentiate between infections.

34. Dr Finn mentions the incidence of MRSA in UK hospitals to exemplify how

A infections can spread through a range of channels.

B infection control requires a wide-ranging approach.

C an infection develops resistance to different antibiotics.

35. What does Dr Finn find most shocking about antibiotics being used on livestock?

E
A They are routinely consumed by healthy animals.

There is a probable link with drug resistance in humans.

L
B

C The total amount given to animals exceeds that used by humans.

36.

M P
Dr Finn welcomes the progress that has been made in the

production of new antibiotics by pharmaceutical firms.

A
B control of levels of antibiotic waste in the environment.

S
C selective use of antibiotics to target specific infections.

Now look at extract two.

Extract 2: Questions 37-42

You hear a rheumatologist called Michael Evans talking about osteoarthritis.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. What does Michael suggest about helping patients with osteoarthritis?

A It’s easiest when the patient is young.

B It may involve dealing with a range of problems.

E
C It will be more difficult if the condition is genetic.

P L
38. Why does Michael mention obesity in relation to osteoarthritis in the hands?

A to show how assumptions about it can be wrong

M
B to explain the role of fat molecules in its development

to illustrate how attention to diet can alleviate the symptoms

A
C

S
39. What does Michael say about osteoarthritis of the knee?

A People with the condition are unlikely to benefit from running.

B Running is probably effective as a means of preventing it.

C Marathon runners should take precautions to avoid it.

40. What does Michael say about damage to the cruciate ligament amongst netball players?

A Professional players are more likely to suffer this kind of injury.

B This can be avoided by training players how to move correctly.

C Players who receive surgery for this are at higher risk of osteoarthritis.
41. What does Michael say about the use of imaging techniques to diagnose knee osteoarthritis?

A It may fail to reveal the full extent of the problem.

B An unexpected cause for the pain may be identified.

C The results are unlikely to affect the treatment given.

42. What does Michael say about recent developments in osteoarthritis treatment?

E
A New drugs may be able to restore joint tissues.

Stem cell injections have only a short-term effect on the joint.

L
B

C Lifestyle changes have reduced the need for joint replacements.

P
That is the end of Part C.

M
You now have two minutes to check your answers.

A
THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST

S
 N K
L A
B
 SAMPLE TEST 4

READING PART A: TEXT BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

www.oet.com
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Managing diabetic foot ulcers: Texts

Text A

Assessing a diabetic foot ulcer

The clinical management of a diabetic foot ulcer (DFU) will depend on what type it is, and this must be
determined before a care plan is put into place.

Neuropathic Ischaemic Neuroischaemic

Sensation sensory loss painful degree of sensory loss

Callus/necrosis callus present and often necrosis (dead tissue) minimal callus
thick common prone to necrosis
Wound bed pink and granulating pale and sloughy, poor poor granulation
granulation

E
Foot temperature and warm with bounding cool with absent pulses cool with absent pulses
pulses pulses

L
Other dry skin and fissuring delayed healing high risk of infection
Typical location weight bearing areas tips of toes, nail edges margins of the foot and

P
of the foot such as and between the toes under toe nails
metatarsal heads, and lateral borders of
the heel and over the the foot

M
dorsum of clawed toes
Prevalence 35% 15% 50%

A
Text B

S
Applying dressings to DFUs:
• Avoid bandaging over toes as this may cause a tourniquet effect (instead, layer gauze over the toes
and secure with a bandage from the metatarsal heads to a suitable point on foot)
• Use appropriate techniques (e.g. avoiding creases and being too bulky) and take care when dressing
weight-bearing areas
• Avoid strong adhesive tapes on fragile skin
• Avoid tight bandaging at the fifth toe and the fifth metatarsal head (trim the bandage back)
• Ensure wound dead space is eliminated (e.g. use a dressing that conforms to the contours of the
wound bed)
• Remember that footwear needs to accommodate any dressing. Wounds should be cleansed at each
dressing change and after debridement with a wound cleansing solution or saline. Cleansing can
help remove devitalised tissue, re-balance the bioburden and reduce exudate to help prepare the
wound bed for healing.

For infected or highly exuding DFUs, inspect the wound and change the dressing daily, and then every
two or three days once the infection is stable. A different type of dressing may be needed as the status
of the wound changes. Patients should be encouraged to look out for signs of deterioration, such as
increased pain, swelling, odour, purulence or septic symptoms. In some cases (e.g. in the first few days of
antibiotic therapy) it is a good idea to mark the extent of any cellulitis with an indelible marker and tell
the patient to contact the footcare team immediately if the redness moves substantially beyond the line.
Text C

Debridement of DFUs

The first priority of management of foot ulceration is to prepare the surface and edges of a wound to
facilitate healing. If foot pulses are present, non-viable tissue should be removed from the wound bed
and surrounding callus removed. If foot pulses are absent, assessment and management of the peripheral
vasculature is mandatory before removal of non-viable or necrotic tissue is considered. Referral to a vascular
surgeon is suggested in this situation. Removal of non-viable tissue can be quickly and effectively accomplished
by local sharp debridement.

Sharp debridement should be carried out by experienced practitioners (e.g. a specialist podiatrist or
nurse) with specialist training and the plan and expected outcome discussed with the patient in advance.
Debridement should remove all devitalised tissue, callus and foreign bodies down to the level of viable
bleeding tissue. It is important to debride the wound margins as well as the wound base to prevent the ‘edge

E
effect’, whereby epithelium fails to migrate across a firm, level granulation base. Practitioners must explain
fully to patients the risks and benefits of debridement in order to gain their informed consent.

Text D
Dressings for DFUs Advantages

P L Disadvantages

M
Low-adherence simple, hypoallergenic, inexpensive minimal absorbency

Hydrocolloids absorbent, can be left for several concerns about use for infected

A
days, aid autolysis wounds, may cause maceration,
unpleasant odour

S
Hydrogels absorbent, aid autolysis, donate may cause maceration
liquid
Foams thermal insulation, good occasional dermatitis with
absorbency, conform to contours adhesive
Alginates highly absorbent, bacteriostatic, may need wetting before removal
hemostatic, useful for packing
deep wounds
Iodine preparations antiseptic, moderately absorbent iodine allergy, discolours wounds,
cost, not suitable in case of thyroid
disease or pregnancy
Silver-impregnated antiseptic, absorbent cost

END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

N K
L A
B
 SAMPLE TEST 4

READING PART
READING PARTA:
A:QUESTION
QUESTION AND
AND ANSWER
ANSWER BOOKLET
BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: 15 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this Question and Answer Booklet or the Text Booklet until you are told to do so.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this Question and Answer Booklet.
You must answer the questions within the 15-minute time limit.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the 15 minutes, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet and the Text Booklet.
DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

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© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Part A

TIME: 15 minutes

• Look at the four texts, A-D, in the separate Text Booklet.

• For each question, 1-20, look through the texts, A-D, to find the relevant information.

• Write your answers in the spaces provided in this Question Paper.

• Answer all the questions within the 15-minute time limit.

• Your answers should only be taken from texts A-D and must be correctly spelt.

E
Managing diabetic foot ulcers: Questions

L
Questions 1-6

P
For each question, 1-6, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. Write the letter A, B, C or
D in the space provided. You may use any letter more than once.

In which text can you find information about

M
1 how often to change a dressing?

A
2 ensuring patients understand the consequences of tissue removal?

3 reasons for not choosing certain products?

S
4 the need to monitor a wound?

5 how common each kind of DFU is?

6 how good a dressing is at soaking up fluid?

Questions 7-14

Answer the following questions, 7-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may
include words, numbers or both. You should not write full sentences.

7 What kind of DFU is it if a patient has lost all sensation?

8 If a patient’s DFU is beneath the nail, what kind is it likely to be?

9 What types of dressing should you avoid if a patient’s wound is infected?

 10 If you need to fill a cavity, which dressings are best?

11 Which types of dressing may cause an inflammation of the skin?

12 If cost is an issue, which dressing is best?

E
13 Which two types of DFU often show signs of necrosis?

L
14 Which types of dressing provide moisture to a wound?

Questions 15-20

M P
Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer

A
may include words, numbers or both.

S
15 Check that will still go on after the dressing has been applied.

16 The dressing should follow the shape of the wound so that there

is no .

17 Draw a line around any and ask the patient to get in touch if it

worsens.

18 You might need to involve a in the patient’s care if you cannot

detect a pulse in the foot.

19 To maintain good blood flow, leave free of tight bandages.

20 Make sure the wound is level, otherwise the won’t be able to

grow across it.

END OF PART A
THIS QUESTION PAPER WILL BE COLLECTED
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

N K
L A
B
 SAMPLE TEST 4

READING PARTS B&C: QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME: 45 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this Question and Answer Booklet until you are told to do so.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the test, hand in this Question and Answer Booklet.
DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Mark your answers on this Question and Answer Booklet by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example: A
B
C

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© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment – ABN 51 988 559 414

1
 Part B

In this part of the test, there are six short extracts relating to the work of health professionals. For questions 1-6,
choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.
A
B
Fill the circle in completely. Example: C

1. When disclosing distressing information to patients, staff must avoid

A the temptation to use simplistic language.

E
B directing their attention at family members.

C any approach which leads to misunderstandings.

P
Extract from a manual on surgery: disclosure

L
M
The delivery of bad news is very difficult. Arrange to talk to the patient in the company of family,

preferably away from other patients. In some cultures, it is not common to give difficult news directly

A
to the patient. We must be aware that the norms and customs of our patients may not match our own.

Often we try to soften the delivery of bad news by saying too much and confusing the matter, or by

S
saying too little and leaving people with unanswered questions. Don’t say neoplasm if what you mean,

and what will be understood, is cancer. Be clear, allow people to understand and feel some of the impact

of the news, and then allow them to ask questions. It is often necessary to repeat the information to other

family members, or to the same people the next day.

2. The purpose of the guidelines for general practitioners is

A to remind them to write asthma action plans.

B to raise their awareness of the value of asthma action plans.

C to direct their discussions with patients about asthma action plans.

E
Policy guidelines for general practitioners: asthma action plans

L
An integral part of asthma management is the development of a written asthma action plan by the person

with asthma and/or their carer together with their doctor. An asthma action plan helps the person with

P
asthma and/or their carer recognise worsening asthma and gives clear instructions on what to do in

response.

M
The process of developing a written asthma action plan is important, as this should be a discussion of

A
the person’s individual asthma and its management. The written plan is a reminder of that discussion.

Written asthma action plans are one of the most effective asthma interventions available, and have been

S
shown to reduce hospital admission and emergency visits to general practice.
3. The guidelines on chemical waste disposal stress the need for staff to

A take appropriate safety precautions when handling chemicals.

B ensure that any chemicals in the hospital are properly documented.

C consult service providers before disposing of all hazardous chemicals.

E
Unknown and empty chemical waste container disposal

L
Unlabelled chemicals are increasingly difficult and very costly to dispose of and may require special

analysis in order to identify them. Furthermore, the hospital’s chemical waste contractor will now NOT

P
remove any unknown chemicals due to their risk level. Every effort should therefore be made to ensure

that all chemicals in use, in storage or being prepared for disposal are fully labelled and described.

M
If unidentified waste is discovered, you should immediately notify the hospital’s designated waste

contractor via the helpdesk and complete an incident form. All empty containers which have previously

A
contained chemicals for licensed disposal must be considered as Hazardous Waste until cleaned.

S
4. This memo is reminding pharmacists about

A the rationale for documenting incidents and errors.

B the procedure for investigating incidents and errors.

C the method for submitting incident and error reports.

Memo

E
To: All staff

L
Re: Pharmacy incidents and errors

P
Dispensing errors, other significant errors, omissions, incidents, or other non-compliances, including

complaints of a non-commercial nature arising both within and external to the pharmacy, may be the subject of

M
investigation. Pharmacists should therefore follow a risk management procedure, including appropriate record

keeping. The record is to show when the incident was recorded, when it occurred, who was involved (both actual

A
and alleged), the nature of the incident or complaint, what actions were taken and any conclusions. If contact

was made with third parties, such as government departments, prescribers, lawyers or professional indemnity

S
insurance companies, details of the conversation should be recorded. Regardless of how serious the incident

may appear, comprehensive detailed records need to be kept. The record should be kept for three years because

of the delayed nature of some forms of litigation.

5. What point is being made in this guideline about patients with multi-trauma?

A Staff should make it a priority to rule out spinal injuries.

B Spinal injuries are missed in a small but growing number of cases.

C There is evidence that immobilising a patient with spinal injuries is helpful.

E
Evaluation of potential spinal injuries

L
Amongst adult patients suffering high-energy multi-trauma, approximately 5% will suffer a significant
(i.e. mechanically unstable) vertebral column injury (VCI) and significantly less than 1% suffer a spinal

P
cord injury (SCI). The main risk from undiagnosed unstable VCI is that further neurological compromise
will occur. Balanced against this rare but potentially catastrophic risk is the fact that the majority of
trauma patients do not have a VCI, and prolonged application of spinal precautions and immobilisation

M
is associated with multiple complications including pressure sores, raised intracranial pressure or
ventilator associated pneumonia. Furthermore, the efficacy of these interventions in reducing secondary

A
neurological compromise is controversial. Therefore, patients in ICU should undergo spinal evaluation by
CT imaging and interpretation by a consultant radiologist within 24 hours of injury. If imaging is undertaken

S
out of hours, it is acceptable to continue spinal precautions overnight and review imaging early the next
day.
6. What does this update tell medical professionals about bovine insulin?

A It is being withdrawn due to the risks associated with its long-term use.

B Users may experience difficulties when switching to alternatives.

C Any side effects are more difficult to identify in older patients.

Memo

E
To: All staff

L
Re: Withdrawal of bovine insulin

P
Bovine insulin preparations will shortly be withdrawn due to limited availability of the active ingredient.

As people with insulin-treated diabetes who currently use bovine insulin preparations will continue to require

M
insulin treatment, they will need to be changed to alternative, acceptable preparations.

A
People using bovine insulins are likely to be older patients with long-standing diabetes. They may therefore
have absolute insulin deficiency. These individuals will be at risk of impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia,

S
predisposing them to severe hypoglycaemia.

Use of bovine insulin has been associated with the presence of insulin autoantibodies, which may impair the
action of insulin. Porcine, human or analogue insulins are likely to lower the glucose more than the same dose of
bovine insulins, and insulin dose titration may be difficult and unpredictable. People with bovine insulin-treated
diabetes are therefore a high-risk group.
 Part C

In this part of the test, there are two texts about different aspects of healthcare. For questions 7-22, choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. A
B
C
Fill the circle in completely. Example: D

Text 1: Conjunctive group therapy: a case study of an adult type I diabetes mellitus
patient

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a chronic condition and a significant public health problem; complications are responsible

E
for high morbidity and in many cases premature mortality. Type 1 diabetes (DM1) has an early onset and insulin
injection is an integral part of the medical therapy of this condition. The onset of DM1 generates various biological

L
and psychological changes and may force patients to face complicated challenges, such as maintaining optimal
physical health, managing their condition, and dealing with possible comorbidities and unpredictable symptoms.

P
As a chronic condition, DM1 demands radical changes in lifestyle, in order for the patient to achieve effective
adjustment.

M
While patients’ individual differences play a significant role in the course of the condition, they will also share
several common psychological reactions to DM1, such as denial and stress over the diagnosis, prognosis, and

A
treatment of the condition, as well as depression. Consequently, DM1 treatment requires what has been termed
a biopsychosocial approach, combining medical monitoring and regimen compliance on the one hand, and

S
psychological intervention on the other. Group therapy for patients with physical illnesses is based on this model
and has been widely used in applied clinical research and practice. It has been used both for its effectiveness as
a therapeutic approach, and also because as a process it enables simultaneous treatment of a large number of
patients. Numerous studies have found group therapy to be an effective treatment for chronic conditions in general,
and more specifically for DM1.

Ella was a 30-year-old DM1 patient who participated in a 2-year Conjunctive Group Therapy (CGT) programme,
while receiving parallel medical treatment for DM1. Therapy was based on the principles of CGT, which involved
eight members including the patient and used non-guided topics of discussion as its basis. The rules and
regulations of the sessions were based on discretion, confidence and open expression. Each session lasted two
hours, and the group met twice per month. Ella’s participation in the group was based both on a referral from her
endocrinologist and her personal request for a psychotherapeutic intervention.
Although Ella’s participation in the group was voluntary, she initially displayed strong resistance to the process.
Nevertheless, as therapy progressed, Ella became actively involved by initiating group discussions and interacting
assertively with group members. She identified the role of DM1 in her life in relation to herself and her social
environment, and also managed to reflect on the group processes effectively. Combined with Ella’s natural ability to
express herself clearly, all this put her in a very strong position to focus on the issues that had previously impeded
her self-care. In time, therefore, she was able to modify her actions and so start to make progress regarding DM1
regulation.

Ella’s expectations of CGT treatment had been very low, as she thought that the group’s function would merely

E
be to soothe everyday distress caused by her condition. Moreover, she perceived diabetes as an external factor

L
that affected herself and her life, by compromising her health, dreams, actions and potential in general. In terms of
emotional state, Ella’s core feelings were a continuous and generalized stress and anxiety that developed from a

P
constant sense of threat. Ella had great difficulty in achieving a pattern of stable self-care and tended to attribute
this inconsistency to external factors, such as the physician or the regimen. Additionally, over the years, she had
dropped out of a variety of activities such as meeting friends, travelling and fulfilling academic obligations. Before

M
the intervention, she lived with her parents and felt dependent on them. She had also given up the choice of
creating a family of her own, attributing this decision to the unpredictability of DM1.

A
Gradually, as the intervention progressed still further, numerous changes were observed. First of all, diabetes

S
treatment became a more tangible target as Ella realized that the group had taught her new behaviours regarding
her condition and had helped her address critical questions related to it. The group also offered her a clear picture
of her dysfunctional behaviors, such as binge eating, which used to have a negative impact on her diabetes.
The previous generalized sense of worry was eliminated and she engaged in stress management, which also
decreased her sense of vulnerability. She gradually recognized her obligations concerning self-care and the amount
of control she could have over that; therefore, she managed to stabilize her behaviour in this regard. Furthermore,
she regained contact with lost friends and engaged in new relationships. She began travelling again and continued
her studies, which boosted her sense of self-worth. Overall, CGT helped Ella to redefine the role of diabetes in her
life, achieve reconciliation with it and so, finally, to integrate it into her everyday existence.
Text 1: Questions 7-14

7. In the first paragraph, what aspect of DM1 is highlighted?

A the demanding treatment regime it entails

B the extent of the problems it causes society

C the degree of disruption it brings to patients’ lives

D the severity of medical complications it can lead to

E
8. The writer sees one benefit of a biopsychosocial approach as

L
A allowing medical professionals to conduct valuable research.

P
B focusing on the person as an individual rather than on the condition.

C addressing issues shared by many patients with persistent conditions.

M
D producing the most rapid improvements in patients with mental health issues.

A
9. In the third paragraph, we learn that the patient called Ella joined the CGT programme partly because

S
A her physician was disappointed with her response to medication.

B she had expressed an interest in having treatment of this kind.

C she felt the timings of the sessions were convenient for her.

D her treatment was not addressing her personal needs.

10. In the fourth paragraph, the writer says that Ella benefitted from CGT by learning to

A take charge of situations effectively.

B articulate her feelings in front of others.

C alter her approach to managing her condition.

D suppress her negative thoughts about diabetes.

11. The phrase ‘all this’ in the fourth paragraph refers to changes in

A Ella’s own personality.

B Ella’s behaviour in the group.

C Ella’s acceptance of her diabetes.

D Ella’s belief in the aims of programme.

E
12. In the fifth paragraph, what does the writer say about Ella’s attitude before she started CGT?

L
A She felt she had been repeatedly let down by family and friends.

P
B She was worried that she was developing psychological problems.

C She was upset by the prospect of being unable to have any children.

M
D She blamed others for her inability to look after herself on a daily basis.

A
13. In the final paragraph, the writer says that Ella ultimately benefitted from CGT by

S
A coming to accept that she could live with her condition.

B gaining insights into other behaviours typical of her condition.

C learning to focus on the day-to-day treatment of the condition.

D becoming aware of the way her condition had impacted on others.

14. What does the word ‘that’ in the final paragraph refer to?

A Ella’s obligations to the group

B the stability of Ella’s behaviour

C a recognition that Ella was vulnerable

D Ella’s ability to manage her own condition

Text 2: Alzheimer’s from a new angle

As chairman of the department of neurology and neurological sciences at Stanford University School of Medicine,
Dr Frank Longo knows how destructive Alzheimer's can be. The disease was discovered in 1906, but despite more
than a century of research, including the testing of over 200 new drugs in the past two decades, there are still no
real treatments. As Longo says, ‘We've cured Alzheimer's in mice many times, why can't we move that success to
people?’. He’s referring to numerous promising compounds that have eliminated the amyloid plaques associated
with Alzheimer's in animals. However, if ongoing trials continue to go the way he hopes, his new drug, called
LM11A-31, could be a critical part of finally making that happen.

L E
For decades, scientists have focused on trying to get rid of the hallmark feature of Alzheimer's: the sticky protein
plaques of amyloid that they have dealt with so well in mice. If they could get rid of that in humans too, the thinking

P
went, they could eliminate the disease, or at least lessen its severity. LM11A-31, however, doesn't directly attack
amyloid. ‘We're sceptical about what is actually causing Alzheimer's,’ Longo says, referring to those protein
plaques. ‘Most people are working at the edges of the problem, but we're going right after the core of it.’

M
LM11A-31 isn't designed to eliminate every clump of amyloid, but rather to keep brain cells strong, safeguarded
against neurological onslaughts, whether they're the effects of amyloid or other factors involved in Alzheimer's. It's

A
a less orthodox approach, but if it works, it could be a turning point.

S
Under a microscope, Longo displays before-and-after slides of some brain neurons from mice. On the before slide,
the normally orderly and uniform cells are in disarray. They're dying, slowly being choked off from their supply of
nutrients by amyloid plaques that start to accumulate in the Alzheimer's-afflicted brain. In the after slide, the cells
look normal. The difference, Longo says, is LM11A-31. For brain cells, their molecular connections to other neurons
are their lifeline. It's like their version of a social networking site, as they continually bombard other neurons with
status updates. But when the cells are assaulted by something like amyloid, these communications are threatened,
ultimately leading to the death of the cells.
Longo has a diagram of the signals passed among brain nerves that are triggered by amyloid proteins. These can
ultimately lead neurons to deteriorate. There are 14 in total, and so far he's found that LM11A-31 can halt at least
ten. There are even signs that LM11A-31 might help people whose brains are already damaged by amyloid. ‘The
general assumption was that the damage to brain neurons was irreversible,’ says Longo. ‘What our studies show
is that in mice, there is a significant amount of damage that is reversible,’ he says. ‘If approved [for human use],
these could be the first drugs that will change the course of the disease rather than just treat its symptoms’, says
James Hendrix of the Alzheimer's Association. But the reality is that it's not clear yet whether the changes seen
from LM11A-31 restored any lost memory. Brain experts are eagerly awaiting Longo's next series of studies for the
answer to that question. So far, not everyone is convinced. ‘To bring back neurons that have been destroyed by

E
plaques and tangles – to me that still seems almost like science fiction,’ says Hendrix.

L
Still, there's no denying the potential of compounds like LM11A-31 and the need to think about new ways to

P
attack the disease. Some experts are convinced that if people live long enough, some form of dementia, most
likely Alzheimer's, is inevitable, although figuring out which patients can benefit from which types of treatments,
and when, is still an open question. Although this hypothesis is unpalatable to many medical professionals,

M
it's a proposition that even the US government is starting to appreciate. In 2011, Congress created a National
Alzheimer's Plan to coordinate and accelerate the development, testing and approval of new drugs to treat the

A
disease. And the Alzheimer's Association will soon issue a consensus statement on how to move promising drug
candidates to human testing as quickly as possible.

S
If and when viable treatments become available, part of the puzzle will include figuring out who they should be
given to, and when. The idea of applying amyloid PET scans to everyone on their 65th birthday isn’t going to run,
given that they currently cost several thousand dollars each. But some type of risk score, as we now have for heart
disease, isn’t far off. There’s no doubt that we need to think beyond amyloid and encourage patients to participate
in trials testing non-amyloid strategies as well. In an ideal world, you'd want to design a therapeutic regimen based
on the different components contributing to each patient’s dementia issues. LM11A-31 may well become the first
drug in that cocktail.
Text 2: Questions 15-22

15. In the first paragraph, it’s suggested that Dr Longo feels

A annoyed that certain Alzheimer’s treatments are not approved for human use.

B concerned that the Alzheimer’s drug LM11A-31 may prove ineffective.

C surprised that so little is still known about what causes Alzheimer’s.

D frustrated by the lack of progress towards treating Alzheimer’s.

E
16. Longo’s phrase ‘working at the edges of the problem’ reveals his feeling that other researchers

L
A are distracted by their success with animals.

P
B are refusing to recognise a key feature of Alzheimer’s.

C are afraid to admit the problems they have encountered.

M
D are focusing on some of the less relevant aspects of Alzheimer’s.

A
17. In the second paragraph, what point does the writer make about the drug LM11A-31?

S
A It is effective even in the most severe cases.

B It is a product of previous research into amyloids.

C It works regardless of the actual cause of the disease.

D It provides little protection against other neurological conditions.

18. With the reference to social-networking sites, the writer is illustrating

A how important it is that neurons in the brain are in constant contact.

B how quickly disease can spread from one brain cell to another.

C how easy it is to disrupt communication in the brain.

D how complex the connections in the brain are.

19. In the fourth paragraph, we learn that according to Longo, LM11A-31 blocks certain

A signals.

B neurons.

C brain nerves.

D amyloid proteins.

E
20. What reservation about the drug LM11A-31 is expressed in the fourth paragraph?

L
A Restoration of neurons may only be short-term.

P
B Research by Longo’s team may have been biased.

C Results from trials on mice may not be replicated in humans.

M
D Reversal of damage may not have any effect on the patient’s memory.

A
21. According to the writer, which group is reluctant to accept that dementia is inevitable?

S
A patients

B the US government

C medical professionals

D the Alzheimer’s Association

22. In the final paragraph, what does the writer think will start to happen soon?

A Other non-amyloid-focused treatments for Alzheimer’s will emerge.

B Drug regimens for Alzheimer’s will be targeted to individuals.

C A prediction tool for Alzheimer’s will be developed.

D All over 65s will be tested for Alzheimer’s.

END OF READING TEST

THIS BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
 N K
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 RADSAMPLE04

WRITING: QUESTION BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

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Occupational English Test
WRITING SUB-TEST: RADIOGRAPHY
TIME ALLOWED: READING TIME: 5 MINUTES
WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

Read the case notes and complete the writing task which follows.

Notes:

Assume that today's date is 30 August 2019

You are a radiographer working in the Outpatient Radiology Department in Redtown Hospital. A complaint has arrived
from Mrs Penny Long, a patient at your department, regarding her wait time. According to Mrs Long, her appointment
was pushed back twice in a single day, and then cancelled. The Head of Radiography, Dr Alan Jones, asks for your
explanation.
You consult the following documents:

Document 1: Radiology Report from 9 Jun 2019

Name: Mrs Penny Long DOB: 01 Dec 1987

2 Hope Rd
Redtown
Provided Patient History: Uneventful until 2 wks ago ─ L upper arm pain & swelling
Presented to Emergency Department
Neurovascular exam ─ NAD. Peripheral pulse ─ normal
Reason for Procedure: ?thrombosis
Procedure:
1. Ultrasound – L duplex doppler upper limb
2. X-ray – L humerus
Findings:
1. Occlusive
 deep vein thrombosis on entire L brachial vein, and the distal 2cm of the axillary
vein. Also extending into the proximal portion of the radial and ulna veins
Small
 amount of remote non-occlusive thrombosis within proximal subclavian vein,
measuring approx. 2cm in length
2. Bony protuberance was seen lower distal one third of humerus

Document 2: Radiology Report from 29 Aug 2019

Name: Mrs Penny Long DOB: 01 Dec 1987

2 Hope Rd, Redtown
Provided Patient History:
Bony abnormality found in first X-ray. Repeat X-ray required
Reason for Procedure:
?bony abnormality found in first X-ray
Procedure: Repeat X-ray required – Left humerus
Findings: X-ray cancelled. Patient possibly pregnant
Document 3: Information from Log 29 Aug 2019

1030hrs CXR Mr Mal Brown 65 yrs. Chest pain 1 wk ago. No hospital admission

Arrived early for 1130 examination. Complained of nausea, offered to call Dr ─ Pt
refused. Emergency ─ given priority over next Pt (Mrs Freeman). Mrs Freeman
rescheduled
1030hrs X-ray Mrs Betty Freeman 75 yrs. R Humerus RESCHEDULED to follow CXR
Pt offered to wait as she was not in a hurry and could see Mr Brown was quite sick
1100hrs X-ray Mrs Penny Long 31 yrs. L Humerus RESCHEDULED to follow R Humerus
 arrival explained running late due to reschedule. Pt unhappy about having another
On
X-ray, felt sick & tired. All patients given option to return later ─ Mrs Long declined
1100hrs Emergency CXR Mr Mal Brown 65 yrs
All patients rescheduled
1130hrs Mrs
 Long requested to see Radiographer re long wait – explained reason for wait. Mrs
Long asked to be seen before next scheduled Pt (Mrs Freeman) ─ request denied
Explained: Mrs Freeman is elderly, waiting > 1hr
1200hrs X-ray Mrs Betty Freeman 75 yrs. R Humerus; R/O plaster cast

Very slow, needed a great deal of assistance getting ready & dressing. One view
repeated due to Pt movement
1300hrs X-ray Ms Penny Long 31 yrs. L Humerus
Mrs Long complained about long wait. Very annoyed & said Mrs Freeman should have
been seen after her. Re-explained. Pt not satisfied. Verbal check if pregnant ─ 4 wks
gestation. Discussed risks ++. X-ray cancelled. Pt unhappy. Referred Pt to doctor
1330hrs X-ray Ms Beth Jones 35 yrs. Bilateral Hand/Wrist; ?carpal tunnel syndrome
Routine exposures L & R

Writing Task:

Using the information in the case notes, write a letter to Dr Jones, Head of Radiography, giving an explanation of
the events that led to Mrs Long’s delay, rescheduling and cancellation. Address the letter to Dr Alan Jones, Head of
Radiography, Redtown Hospital, 87 Green Road, Redtown.

In your answer:
●● Expand the relevant notes into complete sentences
●● Do not use note form
●● Use letter format
The body of the letter should be approximately 180–200 words.
Any answers recorded here will not be marked.

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 WANS000000

WRITING: ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

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VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
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Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

TIME ALLOWED
READING TIME: 5 MINUTES
WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Reading time: 5 minutes
During this time you may study the writing task and notes. You MUST NOT write, highlight, underline or make any notes.

2. Writing time: 40 minutes

3. Use the back page for notes and rough draft only. Notes and rough draft will NOT be marked.

Please write your answer clearly on page 1 and page 2.

Cross out anything you DO NOT want the examiner to consider.

4. You must write your answer for the Writing sub-test in this Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.

5. You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

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Please record your answer on this page within the lines provided.
(Only answers on Page 2 and Page 3 within the lines provided will be marked.)

2
Please record your answer on this page within the lines provided.
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3
Space for notes and rough draft. Only your answers on Page 2 and Page 3 will be marked.

4
 RADSample04

Roleplay No. 1/2

SPEAKING: ROLE-PLAY BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NAME:

D.O.B.: D D M M Y Y Y Y PROFESSION:

VENUE: TEST DATE:

Starting at the left, print your Candidate

Number and fill in the corresponding circle
below each number using a 2B pencil.
Example:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION

2 5 By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way

(other than to take the test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat
or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of
the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you
may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the
sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take
further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
Please confirm with the Interlocutor that your roleplay card number and colour match the Interlocutor card before you begin.

Interlocutor to complete only

ID No: Passport: £ National ID: £ Alternative ID approved: £

Speaking sub-test:

ID document sighted? £ Photo match? £ Signature match? £ Did not attend? £

Interlocutor name:

Interlocutor signature:

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1
 OET SAMPLE TEST
ROLEPLAYER CARD NO. 4 RADIOGRAPHY

Public Hospital - Radiography Department

You are 35 years old and have been suffering from stomach cramps and bloody
stools. You are now waiting for the results of an abdominal X-ray that was carried
out on you over one hour ago. You are feeling anxious and have requested to
speak to the radiographer.

• When asked, say you’re really anxious about getting the X-ray results and having
to wait around for them for so long is making it worse.
• When asked, say you’d like to have an idea of what the X-ray will show.
• Say you have a bad feeling; you think that there might be a really serious
problem.
• Say you’ll speak to your doctor at the follow-up appointment, but you hope you
don’t have to wait too much longer for the X-ray. You’ve already been waiting a
long time.
• Say you’ll wait in the waiting room.

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment SAMPLE TEST

OET SAMPLE TEST

CANDIDATE CARD NO. 4 RADIOGRAPHY

Public Hospital - Radiography Department

RADIOGRAPHER One hour ago you performed an abdominal X-ray on a 35-year-old patient who has
been experiencing stomach cramps and bloody stools. The patient is waiting for
the results and has requested to see you.

• Find out reason for patient’s request to see you.

• Apologise for long wait (e.g., many patients needing X-rays, urgent cases,
understaffed, etc.). Advise patient on timescale for X-ray (e.g., not much longer,
etc.). Find out any other concerns.
• Resist request to comment on possible results of X-ray (e.g., your role: taking
X-ray, checking image quality, processing images, no analysis; unable to
give information on results; etc.).
• Explain purpose of X-ray (e.g., identify cause of pain/bleeding, provide
appropriate treatment, etc.). Advise patient to discuss any concerns with doctor
(e.g., for more detail/specific information, etc.).
• Resist giving timescale for wait for results (e.g., to be ready soon, etc.). Advise
patient return to waiting room (e.g., until name called, etc.).
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment SAMPLE TEST