GED Science

Review Test (2)

40 Question | 90 minutes

1. In which year did the total number of lionfish sightings reported at the Flower Garden Banks National Marine
Sanctuary (FGBNMS) first exceed 500?
As lionfish populations grow, they put additional stress on coral reefs already struggling from the effects of
climate change, pollution, disease, overfishing, sedimentation, and other stressors. For example, lionfish eat
herbivores and herbivores eat algae from coral reefs. Without herbivores, algal growth goes unchecked, which
can be detrimental to the health of coral reefs.

Adult lionfish are primarily fish-eaters and have very few predators outside of their home range. Because
lionfish feed on prey normally consumed by snappers, groupers, and other commercially important native
species, their presence could negatively affect the well-being of valuable commercial and recreational fisheries.

Lionfish continue to expand at astonishing speeds and are harming native coral reef ecosystems in the Atlantic,
Gulf of Mexico, and Caribbean. The first lionfish recorded in the Western Atlantic (east coast of the United
States, Caribbean Sea and Gulf of Mexico) was a specimen captured near Dania, Florida in 1985. No other
lionfish sightings were reported until 1992. The most likely source of these fish was the home aquarium trade.

At first, the spread of the lionfish population was rather gradual, but in 2000 the number of sightings began to
increase exponentially. By 2009, lionfish were pretty well established along the Atlantic coast and throughout
the Caribbea.

In 2010, sightings were also recorded in the northwestern Gulf of Mexico, along the coasts of Alabama,
Mississippi and Louisiana. In July 2011, the first lionfish was observed in the Flower Garden Banks National
Marine Sanctuary (FGBNMS). By the end of 2015, over 2,600 lionfish were observed within the sanctuary.
About 1,500 of those were successfully removed and analyzed for important data.

Experts say it is unlikely that we will ever be able to completely eliminate lionfish from the Western Atlantic.
So, the objective now is to minimize their impact on sanctuary resources. At this time, sanctuary policy is to
remove any lionfish encountered. Research has shown that targeted removals in localized areas can be an
effective control mechanism.

Lionfish Observations in Flower Garden Banks National Marine Sanctuary (FGBNMS)

Year Stetson Bank East Flower Garden Bank West Flower Garden Bank

2010 0 0 0

2011 11 4 2

2012 30 40 105

2013 89 172 265

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 2014 32 232 363

2015 112 437 720

Total 274 885 1455

Lionfish Observations in Flower Garden Banks National Marine Sanctuary (FGBNMS)

Sources: https://www.nmfs.noaa.gov/stories/2014/12/12_01_14impacts_of_invasive_lionfish.html/
https://flowergarden.noaa.gov/education/invasivelionfish.html/

(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015

2. According to the graphic, which habitat recovered most quickly after the Exxon Valdez oil spill?

Recovery of Marine Life and Habitats Following the Exxon Valdez Oil Spill

Source: https://response.restoration.noaa.gov/oil-and-chemical-spills/significant-incidents/exxon-valdez-oil-
spill/timeline-ecological-recovery-infographic.html/

(A) designated wilderness

(B) intertidal communities
(C) rocky intertidal
(D) subtidal communities

3. How many trophic levels are there in the food chain?

Trophic Cascade

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 Trophic cascades occur when predators in a food web alter the behavior of their prey, thereby releasing the next
lower trophic level from predation. For example, if the abundance of large piscivorous fish is increased in a lake,
the abundance of their prey, smaller fish that eat zooplankton, should decrease. The resulting increase in
zooplankton should, in turn, cause the biomass of its prey, phytoplankton, to decrease.
The trophic cascade is an ecological concept which has stimulated new research in many areas of ecology. For
example, it can be important for understanding the knock-on effects of removing top predators from food webs,
as humans have done in many places through hunting and fishing.
A top-down cascade is a trophic cascade where the food chain or food web is disrupted by the removal of a top
predator, or a third or fourth level consumer. On the other hand, a bottom-up cascade occurs when a primary
producer, or primary consumer is removed.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trophic_cascade/

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

4. At the end of the experiment, the marble has come to a complete rest at point C. Which of the following
statements is true?

Marble on a String Experiment

A marble is tied to a string and taped to the underside

of a table so it can swing freely. The marble is pulled
back to Point A, 36 cm above the ground, and then
released. On the first swing, the marble passes points
B and C. It continues to point D, at which point the
marble pauses before starting to swing back towards
its starting point. At point D, the marble is
located 32 cm above the ground.

Assume that the following table lists all relevant

energy types present in the experiment.

Type of Energy Definition

potential energy the energy an object
has based on its
position or elevation
kinetic energy the energy an object or
body possesses due to
its motion
mechanical energy the sum of kinetic
energy and potential
energy

(A) the marble has only potential energy.

(B) The marble has only kinetic energy.
(C) The marble has both potential and kinetic energy.
(D) The marble has no energy
5. What is the most likely reason that the marble reached a higher distance above ground in test #4 than in
all of the other tests?
Marble on a String Experiment

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 A marble is tied to a string and taped to the underside of
a table so it can swing freely. The marble is pulled back
to Point A, 36 cm above the ground, and then released.
On the first swing, the marble passes points B and C. It
continues to point D, at which point the marble pauses
before starting to swing back towards its starting point.
Students measure and record the height of the marble at
position D, where it pauses before swinging back. The
students repeat the test five times. Their data is shown in
the table.

Test # Distance Above Ground at Point D

1 32 cm

2 31 cm

3 32 cm

4 35 cm

5 32 cm

(A) The student who released the marble may have pushed the marble toward point D, rather than simply
releasing it.
(B) The student who released the marble may have released it from a height lower than 36 cm.
(C) The student who released the marble may have released it too soon.
(D) The student who released the marble may have waited too long to release the marble.

6. It takes a human skin cell approximately two hours to go through the M phase of the cell cycle.

If Kang wants to observe five full cell cycles of a human skin cell, which of the following best describes the
timeframe he should consider when designing his investigation?

The Cell Cycle in Eukaryotes

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 The cell cycle is an orderly sequence of
events carried out through a series of
precisely timed and carefully regulated
stages. In eukaryotes, organisms whose
cells have DNA housed within a nucleus,
the cell cycle consists of a long preparatory
period called interphase followed by the
mitotic phase (or M phase).

Interphase, the period of the cell cycle

during which the cell is not dividing, has
three sub-phases: G1, S,
and G2. G1 involves cell growth and
protein synthesis, the S phase involves
DNA replication and the replication of the
centrosome, and G2 involves further
growth and protein synthesis. Many cells in
a fully-developed multicellular organism
are typically in one of the three sub-phases
of interphase, as interphase is
approximately 90% of the cell cycle.

After the three sub-phases of interphase,

cells undergo mitosis – the division of the
cell nucleus into two new fully functional
nuclei. Mitosis is usually accompanied by
cytokinesis, during which the cytoplasmic
components of the daughter cells are
separated either by an actin ring (animal
cells) or by cell plate formation (plant
cells). Cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm
and cell body into two new daughter cells.

Checkpoints control the cell’s passage

through the cell cycle. There are three
major checkpoints in the cell cycle: one
near the end of G1, a second at the G2 – M
transition, and the third during mitosis.

Source:
https://cnx.org/contents/6d441cae-bb54-4555-b500-00b6f9a9dc00@1/
Download for free at
https://cnx.org/contents/6d441cae-bb54-4555-b500-00b6f9a9dc00@1/
(A) Kang should plan for his full experiment to take approximately 2 hours.
(B) Kang should plan for his full experiment to take approximately 10 hours.
(C) Kang should plan for his full experiment to take approximately 100 hours.
(D) Kang should plan for his full experiment to take approximately 500 hours.
7. Assuming an original DNA sequence is GCGAGTCAT, which of the following examples shows a frameshift
insertion mutation?

Insertion Mutation

“In genetics, an insertion (also called an insertion mutation) is the addition of one or more nucleotide base
pairs into a DNA sequence. Insertions can be anywhere in size from one base pair incorrectly inserted into a
DNA sequence to a whole section of a chromosome inserted into another.”

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 Within DNA, there are four nucleotide bases: guanine, cytosine, adenine, and thymine. Each group of three
bases is called a codon. Codons specify which amino acids should be added when a cell is building a protein.

For example, the DNA sequence 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝑇𝐺𝐴𝑇𝐶𝑇 will produce three distinct codons - 𝐺𝐺𝐺, 𝑇𝐺𝐴, and 𝑇𝐶𝑇. When
an insertion occurs, the codons are changed, which changes the proteins the cell will produce. An insertion of
an A at the beginning of the sequence would change the sequence to 𝐴𝐺𝐺𝐺𝑇𝐺𝐴𝑇𝐶𝑇, which would change the
codons to 𝐴𝐺𝐺, 𝐺𝑇𝐺, 𝐴𝑇𝐶,"and" 𝑇. This is called a frameshift insertion mutation, since the insertion caused all
the codons following the mutation to change.

Another type of insertion mutation is called a non-frameshift insertion mutation. This occurs when three bases
are inserted, causing a whole new codon to be created. The rest of the codons are unchanged. For example, if
the initial DNA sequence is 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝑇𝐺𝐴𝑇𝐶𝑇, then a non-frameshift insertion mutation would be
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐺𝐺𝐺𝑇𝐺𝐴𝑇𝐶𝑇. The resulting codons would be 𝐴𝐴𝐴, 𝐺𝐺𝐺, 𝑇𝐺𝐴, and 𝑇𝐶𝑇.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insertion_(genetics)/

(A) GCG AGT CAT

(B) GCG TAG TCA T
(C) GCG AGT CCC CAT
(D) GCG AGT CA

8. Based on the passage, which of the following conclusions can be reached about the predator-prey relationship?

Alaskan Marine Food Web

A food chain is simply "who eats what." A food web

weaves together many food chains to form a complicated
network of feeding relationships among different plants
and animals. Many animals eat more than one thing, and
each link in each chain is important and integral to the
entire system.

Pictured here is an example of a marine food web in

Alaska. Notice that this food web illustrates the
relationships between producers (plants that make their
own food using chlorophyll and the sun's energy) and
consumers (animals that eat producers and other animals).
It also shows the relationship between predators (animals
that hunt and eat other animals) and prey (the animals
which are hunted).

Source: https://alaska.usgs.gov/science/biology/seabirds_foragefish/marinehabitat/index.php/

(A) Consumers are always predators, never prey.

(B) Predator/prey relationships exist even at the microscopic level.
(C) Producer/consumer and predator/prey are mutually exclusive relationships.
(D) Sunlight and air are prey to producers such as phytoplankton.
9. A scientist wants to know if human somatic cells and germ cells divide at the same rate. She plans on culturing
cells in the laboratory under controlled conditions and recording division rates over time.

Which of the following best describes what she should consider in designing her scientific investigation?

Mitosis and Meiosis

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 Mitosis and meiosis are both forms of nuclear division in eukaryotic cells. Mitosis is a single nuclear division
of a non-germ cell (somatic cell) that results in two nuclei partitioned into two new cells. The nuclei resulting
from a mitotic division are genetically identical to the original nucleus, with the same number of sets of
chromosomes. In most plants and all animal species, it is typically diploid cells that undergo mitosis to form
new diploid cells. Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes, or two of each type of chromosome.

In contrast, meiosis consists of two nuclear divisions of germ cells resulting in four nuclei that are partitioned
into four new haploid cells. The nuclei resulting from meiosis are not genetically identical and they contain only
one chromosome set instead of two.

Source: https://cnx.org/contents/[email protected]/

(A) She should consider using canine germ cells in her study as a comparison group.
(B) She should consider using multiple replications in her study, so that the results are more reliable.
(C) She should consider observing cell division rates for only one generation.
(D) She should consider only using one somatic cell and one germ cell in her study, so she can maximize her
time to work on other projects.

10. Which of the following best represents the median number of deaths from Varicella in the United States from
1997 through 2003?
Number of Deaths from Varicella in the United States, 1997–2003

Year Number of Cases Number of Deaths

1997 98,727 99

1998 82,455 81

1999 46,016 48

2000 27,382 44

2001 22,536 26

2002 22,841 32

2003 20,948 16
Source: https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/pubs/pinkbook/downloads/appendices/e/reported-cases.pdf/
(A) 32
(B) 44
(C) 48
(D) 49

11. In which of the following countries would you expect to find the most earthquakes and volcanic activity?
Ring of Fire

The Ring of Fire is an area that surrounds much of the Pacific Ocean, where lithospheric plates are rubbing
against and over one another in a process known as plate tectonics. Places where lithospheric plates are moving
toward one another (called convergent plate boundaries), can create volcanoes when material from the oceanic
plate is subducted under the continental plate, melts due to the increased temperature and pressure, and rises to
the surface in the form of magma. Convergent plate boundaries can also create oceanic trenches, which are long
depressions in the sea floor. These trenches make up some of the deepest areas of the ocean, with the Marianas
Trench being the deepest of all.
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 Source: https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/5/52/Pacific_Ring_of_Fire.svg/

(A) Australia
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Mexico

12. Suppose Charles Darwin was able to count the populations of finches on three small islands and record his
findings in a table.

Island Total Finch Population

island #1 300

island #2 400

island #3 500

If Charles Darwin wanted to select one finch from each island for future study, how many different ways would
he be able to select these finches?
Allopatric Speciation

Speciation is the evolutionary process by which biological populations evolve to become distinct species. The
biologist Orator F. Cook coined the term speciation in 1906, but Charles Darwin was the first to describe the
role of speciation in his 1859 book The Origin of Species.

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 There are four geographic modes of speciation in nature, based on the extent to which speciating populations are
isolated from one another: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric. Allopatric is the most observed mode
of speciation. During allopatric speciation, a population splits into two geographically isolated populations. The
isolated populations then undergo genotypic or phenotypic divergence as they become subjected to
dissimilar selective pressures and as different mutations arise. When the populations come back into contact,
they have evolved such that they are reproductively isolated and are no longer capable of exchanging genes

The Galápagos Islands are particularly famous for their confirmation of allopatric speciation. During Charles
Darwin’s five weeks on the Galápagos Islands, he noticed that finches differed from one island to another. When
he returned to England, his speculation on evolution deepened after experts informed him that these were
separate species, not just varieties. Darwin's finches are now one of the most well-known examples of adaptive
evolution and allopatric speciation discussed in biology today.
Adapted from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Speciation/

(A) 3
(B) 1,200
(C) 1,200,000
(D) 60,000,000

13. Why might Mrs. Smith have only asked 5 students to report their germination rates?
Growing Pea Plants

Mrs. Smith’s science class is growing pea plants. Each of her 25 students initially plants 30 pea seeds.

Once the plants start growing, Mrs. Smith asks her students to count the number of seeds that have germinated.
She then selects five students to report their results to the class. They report their results as number of germinated
seeds (out of 30) and as a percentage

Student Name Number of Seeds Germinated (out of 30) Percentage of Seeds Germinated

Abbi 25 83%

Bridgette 16 53%

Carlos 20 67%

Denyse 21 70%

Elliott 19 63%
(A) Mrs. Smith chose the 5 students with the highest germinate rate. She knows that appropriate sampling means
choosing the five samples with the best data.
(B) Mrs. Smith does not understand sampling. If she did, she would have asked all 25 students to report their
germination rates.
(C) Mrs. Smith knows that a sample size of 5 is appropriate for her class of 25. She can assume that the sample
results are similar to the other students’ results as long as the students are chosen at random.
(D) Mrs. Smith saw that only these 5 students’ seeds had germinated. She knows it is not necessary to
incorporate the other 20 students’ data, since their seeds did not germinate.

14. What is the most accurate and least time-consuming way for Heating & Cooling Energy Company to obtain
the desired data?

Heating & Cooling Energy Company

Heating & Cooling Energy Company wants to do a survey to determine what energy sources its customers use.
They know that most people rely on power from the energy grid, but they also know that solar energy and wind
energy have become increasingly popular over the last ten years.

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 (A) Heating & Cooling Energy Company should go to 30 customers’ houses in each zip code and ask them
what energy sources they use.
(B) Heating & Cooling Energy Company should go to a local grocery store and ask every 6th person walking
into the store what energy sources they use.
(C) Heating & Cooling Energy Company should go to a local grocery store and ask the first 100 people walking
into the store what energy sources they use.
(D) Heating & Cooling Energy Company should go to every single customer’s house and ask them what energy
sources they use.

15. What are the genotypes of the individuals labeled 1, 2, and 3, knowing Alkaptonuria is a recessive trait?

Pedigree Analysis

Many human diseases are genetically inherited. A healthy person in a family in which some members suffer
from a recessive genetic disorder may want to know if he or she has the disease-causing gene and what risk
exists of passing the disorder on to his or her offspring. Of course, doing a test cross in humans is unethical and
impractical. Instead, geneticists use pedigree analysis to study the inheritance pattern of human genetic diseases.
Alkaptonuria is a recessive genetic disorder in which two amino acids, phenylalanine, and tyrosine, are not
properly metabolized. Affected individuals may have darkened skin and brown urine, and may suffer joint
damage and other complications.

Looking at the figure, we can see that it is often possible to determine a person's genotype from the genotype of
their offspring. For example, if neither parent has the disorder but their child does, they must be heterozygous.
Two individuals on the pedigree have an unaffected phenotype but unknown genotype. Because they do not
have the disorder, they must have at least one normal allele so their genotype gets the "A?" Designation.

Source: https://cnx.org/
Download for free at: https://cnx.org/contents/[email protected]:1/Biology/
(A) 1: aa; 2: aa, 3: aa
(B) 1: aa; 2. Aa, 3: aa
(C) 1: Aa; 2: aa; 3: aa
(D) 1: aa; 2: Aa; 3: Aa

16. The Heating & Cooling Energy Company has a total of 1,000 residential customers and 400 commercial
customers. Taking into account sample size and time required to collect this survey information, which table
represents the most appropriate number of customers to survey?

Heating & Cooling Energy Company

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 Heating & Cooling Energy Company wants to do a survey to determine what energy sources its customers use.
They know that most people rely on power from the energy grid, but they also know that solar energy and wind
energy have become increasingly popular over the last ten years.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17. In the 2016-2017 flu season, what was the highest percentage of patient visits due to influenza-like illness in a
single week?
Percentage of Visits for Influenza-like Illness (ILI), 2016-2017 and Selected Previous Seasons

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 Source: https://www.cdc.gov/flu/weekly/
(A) about 2%
(B) about 5%
(C) about 6%
(D) about 7.5%
18. Choose the value that best completes the following statement:

Based on the graph, a reasonable prediction for the world’s generation of total electricity in the year 2021 would
be about _____ terawatt-hours (TWh).

Source:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/d/df/Annual_electricity_net_generation_in_the_worl
d.svg/1280px-Annual_electricity_net_generation_in_the_world.svg.png/

(A) 18,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 30,000
(D) 60,000

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19. Which of the following is the best estimate of the most recent year that the global temperature was lower than
the global average?

The Changes in Global Temperature

Temperatures measured on land and at sea for more than a century show that Earth's globally averaged surface
temperature is rising. For the last 45 years, the global surface temperature rose at an average rate of
about 0.17°C (around 0.3° Fahrenheit) per decade—more than twice as fast as the 0.07°C per decade increase
observed for the entire period of recorded observations (1880−2015).

Source: https://www.climate.gov/news-features/understanding-climate/climate-change-global-temperature/

Source: http://www.globalissues.org/article/233/climate-change-and-global-warming-introduction/

(A) 1992
(B) 1976
(C) 1965
(D) 1950

20. Any hurricane that is category 3 or higher is considered a major hurricane. Assuming the trends in the table are
consistent, what is the probability that the next hurricane that hits the state of Connecticut is a major hurricane?

Hurricane Direct Hits on the Mainland US Coastline and for Individual States by Saffir/Simpson
Category 1851-2015

The table, updated from Jarrell et al. (2001), shows the number of hurricanes affecting the United States and
individual states, i.e., direct hits. The table shows that on the average, close to seven hurricanes every four years
(~1.75 per year) strike the United States, while about three major hurricanes cross the US coast every five years
(0.60 per year).
Category 3 or higher hurricanes are considered major hurricanes.

Categories
State 1 2 3 4 5 All Major
Alabama 12 5 6 0 0 23 6
Connecticut 4 3 3 0 0 10 3
Delaware 2 0 0 0 0 2 0
Florida 44 33 29 6 2 114 37
Georgia 12 5 2 1 0 20 3

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 Louisiana 19 15 15 4 1 54 20
Maine 5 1 0 0 0 6 0
Maryland 1 1 0 0 0 2 0
Massachusetts 5 2 3 0 0 10 3
Mississippi 2 5 8 0 1 16 9
New Hampshire 1 1 0 0 0 2 0
New Jersey 2 0 0 0 0 2 0
New York 6 1 5 0 0 12 5
North Carloina 24 14 11 1 0 50 13
Pennslyvania 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
Rhode Island 3 2 4 0 0 9 4
South Carolina 19 6 4 2 0 31 6
Texas 25 19 12 7 0 63 19
Virginia 9 2 1 0 0 12 1
Total 196 115 103 21 4 439 129
Source: https://www.aoml.noaa.gov/hrd/tcfaq/E19.html/

(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 70%

21. Consider the following solution:

3.00 mol of sodium chloride (NaCl) has been dissolved in some water. There are 2.00 L of the resulting solution.
What is the molarity of the resulting solution?
Measuring Concentration Using Molarity

Term Definition

solute The part of a solution that is being dissolved

solvent The part of a solution that the solute is being dissolved in

solution amount of solution== amount of solute + amount of solvent

Molarity (M) is the unit that chemists commonly use to measure concentration. It is calculated as follows:
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒
molarity = 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 (𝑖𝑛 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠)𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
Note: A mole (mol) is a unit used to count the number of molecules in a substance. (1 mole≈602 sextillion
molecules)(1 mole≈602 sextillion molecules)

(A) 0.67 M
(B) 1.50 M
(C) 5.00 M
(D) 6.00 M
22. How many different chromatids can be produced by the crossing-over of these two chromosomes? Assume that
crossing-over can only occur at points A, B, and C on the provided chromosomes.

Crossing-Over

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 Chromosomes, made of DNA molecules that contain an organism’s genetic material, are passed on from parent
to offspring during the process of sexual reproduction. Humans have a total of 46 chromosomes, receiving 23
chromosomes from each parent.

Since each parent also has 46 chromosomes, parents only pass on half of their genetic information to each child.
This allows for genetic variation to occur. There are actually 2^23 (or 8,388,608) possible combinations of
chromosomes that can be passed from a human parent to each of his or her offspring.

Additionally, even more genetic variation can occur through a process called crossing-over. In this process,
sections of a maternally-inherited chromosome are exchanged with sections of a paternally-inherited
chromosome before the chromosomes are separated and passed on to the offspring. This process occurs in
prophase 1 of meiosis, when homologous chromosomes are paired. If crossing-over occurs, then one chromatid
from each chromosome exchanges genetic information, causing all four chromatids to be genetically different
from each other.

Crossing-over exchanges genetic information before chromosomes are divided into haploid cells, resulting in
many more chromosome combinations for future offspring. If no crossing-over occurs, the two chromosomes
are both separated with no changes to the initial composition of genetic material.

This example shows the outcome of two chromosomes crossing-over at loci Y. Initially, two separate
chromosomes are present. However, one portion of the first chromosome exchanges information with a portion
of the second chromosome. In this example, everything below the Y loci of two of the chromatids will be
exchanged. This results in the four distinct chromatids shown at the bottom of the diagram. These four
chromatids will each be packaged into one of four total haploid cells that results from the process of meiosis.

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 Crossing-Over

(A) 1
(B) 2
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 (C) 4
(D) 6

23. How many protons are in the nucleus?

Atomic Structure

All matter is made up of elements. The smallest unit of an element that can exist is called an atom. Atoms are
made up of three types of subatomic particles: protons, neutrons, and electrons. Each element has a certain
number of protons associated with it. The number of protons is called the atomic number. A neutral atom has
the same number of protons as it does electrons (this is because electrons have a charge of −1 and protons have
a charge of +1) but the number of neutrons in an atom can vary. The mass number is determined by adding the
number of protons and neutrons, which are both located in the nucleus (core) of the atom.

Assume the atom pictured has an overall neutral charge and that all subatomic particles are visible in the picture.

Source:https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Atom#/media/File:Stylised_atom_with_three_Bohr_model_orbit
s_and_stylised_nucleus.svg/

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 10

24. When energy is released during a chemical reaction, it can often be felt in the form of heat. A scientist claims
that the reaction shown in graph A will give off heat during the reaction.

Determine which piece of evidence from the graph best supports or refutes the scientist’s claim:

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 There are two general shapes of potential energy diagrams based on whether a reaction is endothermic or
exothermic. If energy is absorbed during the reaction, then it is called an endothermic reaction and the potential
energy of the products will be greater than the potential energy of the reactants. If energy is released during the
reaction, then it is called an exothermic reaction and the potential energy of the products will be less than the
potential energy of the reactants. An example of each of these types of reactions are shown in graph A and graph
B.

(A) The reaction will give off heat because the potential energy of the products is higher than the potential
energy of the reactants.
(B) The reaction will give off heat because the potential energy of the products is lower than the potential energy
of the reactants.
(C) The reaction will not give off heat because the potential energy of the products is higher than the potential
energy of the reactants.
(D) The reaction will not give off heat because the potential energy of the products is lower than the potential
energy of the reactants.

25. Based on the graphic, which of the following is prey to the kittiwake?
Alaskan Marine Food Web

A food chain is simply "who eats what." A

food web weaves together many food chains
to form a complicated network of feeding
relationships among different plants and
animals. Many animals eat more than one
thing, and each link in each chain is important
and integral to the entire system.

Pictured here is an example of a marine food

web in Alaska. Notice that this food web
illustrates the relationships between producers
(plants that make their own food using
chlorophyll and the sun's energy) and
consumers (animals that eat producers and
other animals). It also shows the relationship
between predators (animals that hunt and eat
other animals) and prey (the animals which
are hunted).
Source: https://alaska.usgs.gov/science/biology/seabirds_foragefish/marinehabitat/index.php/

(A) gulls
(B) rats
(C) salmon
(D) sand lances

26. A local construction company has access to seven different resources, but only has enough employees to extract
two of these resources. How many ways can they choose which two resources to extract of the seven available?
(Assume that the extraction of one resource does not affect the extraction of the other resources.)

Sustainable Resource Extraction

Sustainable resource extraction is using materials available in nature in a way that does not affect its balance.
Usually, sustainability is based on some kind of cost-benefit analysis, where one has to accept some damage (or
human-caused imbalance) to the ecosystem. Sustainability is the main concept that includes the use and disposal
of materials, whereas extraction refers mainly to the process of actual harvest.

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 In resource extraction, sustainability is often achieved when the possible damages of it are minimized and the
future of the ecosystem is ensured. One example of sustainable resource extraction is forestry when it tries to
imitate nature's own processes and plant or seed the new forest.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sustainable_resource_extraction/

(A) 5
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) 42
27. Drosophila as a Model Organism for Biological Research

Drosophila melanogaster, a species of fly commonly known as the fruit fly, is widely used for biological
research. A study by National Human Genome Research Institute comparing the fruit fly and human genome
estimated that about 60% of genes are conserved between the two species. About 75% of known human disease
genes have a recognizable match in the genome of fruit flies. Drosophila is used as a genetic model for the study
of several human diseases including neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer's disease. The
fly is also used to study mechanisms underlying aging. Drosophila is a useful organism for research because it
can be readily reared in the laboratory, has only four pairs of chromosomes, breeds quickly, and lays many eggs.
The D. melanogaster lifespan is about 30 days.

Source: adapted from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drosophila_melanogaster#Model_organism_in_genetics/

In an experiment to investigate whether aging impacts mobility of fruit flies, students were asked to place three
one-week-old flies in a cylinder, and three four-week-old flies in a second cylinder. The flies were tapped down
to the bottom of the cylinder. The students then measured the distance the flies climbed upward within five
seconds. The data are shown in the table.

(A) A longer time interval should have been allowed for the flies to climb upward.
(B) More than three flies of each age group should have been tested.
(C) The group of younger flies tested should have been younger than 7 days old.
(D) The students should have conducted the test at a specific time of the day, such as at 8:00 am.

28. Which of the following represents the possible number of people out of every 100,000 that were diagnosed with
melanoma in Texas (TX) in 2014?
Melanoma Diagnosis Rates

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 Melanoma is a
dangerous form of
skin cancer where
ultraviolet (UV)
radiation, often from
the sun, causes
damage to the DNA
within skin cells.

Melanoma is caused
by brief, intense
periods of sun
exposure rather than
tanning over time.
The damage caused
by these brief periods
of sun exposure leads
to mutations and
tumors which could
be fatal if left
untreated.

The graphic shows

how prevalent
melanoma is by state,
per 100,000 people.

Source: https://www.cdc.gov/cancer/skin/statistics/state.html/

(A) 9.4
(B) 12.6
(C) 19.9
(D) 23.0

29. Which area of the map shows the least gradual change in air pressure?

Pressure Systems

Source: http://www.wpc.ncep.noaa.gov/basicwx/92fndfd.gif/

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 You have probably seen weather maps marked with H's and L's which indicate high and low-pressure centers.
Usually surrounding these "highs" and "lows" are lines called isobars. Iso- means "equal" and a -bar is a unit of
pressure, so an isobar means "equal pressure." So everywhere along each line, the pressure has the same value.

With high-pressure systems, the value of air pressure along each isobar increases toward the center with each
concentric line. The opposite is true for low-pressure systems, in that each concentric line toward the center
represents lower pressure. Isobars may be close together or far apart.

The closer the isobars are drawn together, the quicker the air pressure changes. This change in air pressure is
called the "pressure gradient.” Pressure gradient is just the difference in pressure between high and low-pressure
areas.

The speed of the wind is directly proportional to the pressure gradient, meaning that as the change in pressure
increases (i.e. pressure gradient increases) the speed of the wind also increases at that location.

Source: http://www.srh.noaa.gov/jetstream/synoptic/wind.html/

(A) point A
(B) point B
(C) point C
(D) point D

30. Read the following statements about the graph:

I. The car has positive acceleration from point 0 to point 1.

II. The car has positive acceleration from point 1 to point 2.
III. The car has positive acceleration from point 2 to point 3.
IV. The car has positive acceleration from point 3 to point 4.
Which of the following is/are true?

Acceleration

Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity over a period of time. The units for acceleration will be a unit
𝑓𝑡 𝑚
of length over the square of a unit of time (i.e. 𝑚𝑖𝑛2 or 𝑠2 )

The acceleration equation is as follows:

∆𝑣
a= ∆𝑡

in which Δv represents the change in velocity and Δt represents the period of time over which this change
occurred.

Car Driving on a Highway

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 (A) only II
(B) I and II
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, II, and IV

31. Charles Darwin is mentioned in the passage. What scientific theory is Darwin best known for
developing?

Artificial Selection
Artificial selection is the intentional breeding of plants or animals. It means the same thing as selective
breeding and is an ancient method of genetic engineering. Artificial selection is a technique used
when breeding domesticated animals, such as dogs, pigeons or cattle. Some of these animals may have traits that
a breeder will want to carry over to the next generation. The breeder will, therefore, select those animals to
breed which have that quality, rather than those that do not.

Inbreeding is a particular kind of selective breeding, designed to produce a population which is genetically
virtually identical. Such populations are rarely viable outside the laboratory because they lose fertility. To
control this, most breeds are outcrossed or backcrossed to wild-type individuals, or at least less inbred stock.
This is done every so many generations; the details differ from breed to breed.

Charles Darwin used the example of artificial selection to introduce his idea of natural selection. Artificial
selection may be contrasted with the process of natural selection. In natural selection, the differential
reproduction of organisms with certain traits happens. This is because some variations help the organism to
have better survival and reproduction. The process maintains or enhances the fitness of a population in its
natural habitat.
Source: https://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artificial_selection/

(A) the theory of relativity

(B) the Big Bang theory
(C) the theory of gravity
(D) the theory of evolution

32. A forest park ranger has noticed a new plant growing in the woods. He knows this plant is not native to the
ecosystem and wants to make sure that it is not becoming an invasive species.

He divides the forest into 40 smaller areas, as shown:

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 Which area(s) should he use as his sample to determine if this plant is becoming invasive?

Invasive Species

An ecosystem is a community of living (biotic) and nonliving (abiotic) components. Living organisms include
plants, animals, bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms. Nonliving components include air, water, and soil.
Nutrients and energy flow through the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem, allowing all biotic
organisms to live, grow, and reproduce. Ecosystems have evolved over time, creating a delicate balance between
all biotic and abiotic components. However, when new species are introduced to ecosystems, the balance is
disrupted.

When a new species is introduced to an ecosystem, it is referred to as an introduced species. While sometimes
introduced species are beneficial to an ecosystem, oftentimes introduced species cause damage to the ecosystem.
Introduced species that cause damage to an ecosystem are called invasive species. Invasive species damage
ecosystems, because the ecosystem does not have a way to control the new species’ reproduction and growth.
Invasive species tend to spread throughout an ecosystem and use the ecosystem’s resources.

(A) He should use four randomly selected areas as his sample.

(B) He should use seven randomly selected areas as his sample.
(C) He should use the four areas in the first column as his sample.
(D) He should use the ten areas in the top row as his sample

33. Zara is a biology instructor She has set up an experiment to demonstrate the process of osmosis to her
students. She made an artificial “cell” from a special balloon that is permeable to water, but not permeable to
sucrose. She filled the balloon with a solution containing 30% sucrose and 70% water, and then dropped the
balloon into a beaker containing the same solution.
The students observed no change in the artificial “cell.” Which of the following changes to the experimental
design would most likely cause the balloon to expand due to osmosis?
Osmosis
Osmosis is the movement of a solvent across a semipermeable membrane toward a higher concentration of
solute. In biological systems, the solvent is typically water, but osmosis can occur in other liquids,
supercritical liquids, and even gases.
When a cell is submerged in water, the water molecules pass through the cell membrane from an area of low
solute concentration to high solute concentration. For example, if the cell is submerged in saltwater, water
molecules move out of the cell. If a cell is submerged in freshwater, water molecules move into the cell.
When the membrane has a volume of pure water on both sides, water molecules pass in and out in each
direction at exactly the same rate. There is no net flow of water through the membrane.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osmosis

(A) Place the balloon in a beaker containing a solution of 10% sucrose and 90% water.
(B) Place the balloon in a beaker containing a solution of 50% sodium chloride (salt) and 50% water.
(C) Place the balloon in a beaker containing a solution of 70% sodium chloride (salt) and 30% water.
(D) Place the balloon in a beaker containing a solution of 80% sucrose and 20% water.

34. A forest park ranger has noticed a new plant growing in the woods. He knows this plant is not native to the
ecosystem and wants to make sure that it is not becoming an invasive species.
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 He divides the forest into 9 smaller areas, as shown.

How many different ways could he select three of the nine smaller areas to observe more closely?

Invasive Species

An ecosystem is a community of living (biotic) and nonliving (abiotic) components. Living organisms include
plants, animals, bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms. Nonliving components include air, water, and soil.
Nutrients and energy flow through the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem, allowing all biotic
organisms to live, grow, and reproduce. Ecosystems have evolved over time, creating a delicate balance between
all biotic and abiotic components. However, when new species are introduced to ecosystems, the balance is
disrupted.

When a new species is introduced to an ecosystem, it is referred to as an introduced species. While sometimes
introduced species are beneficial to an ecosystem, oftentimes introduced species cause damage to the ecosystem.
Introduced species that cause damage to an ecosystem are called invasive species. Invasive species damage
ecosystems, because the ecosystem may not have a way to control the new species’ reproduction and growth.
Invasive species tend to spread throughout an ecosystem and use the ecosystem’s resources.

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 27
(D) 84

35. If a violet-flowered plant with a genotype of VV and a white-flowered plant with a genotype of 𝑣𝑣 are crossed,
which of the following is the correct color of the flowers of their offspring plants?
Law of Dominance

For a gene that is expressed in a dominant and recessive pattern, homozygous dominant and heterozygous
organisms will look identical (that is, they will have different genotypes but same phenotype); the recessive
allele will only be observed in homozygous recessive individuals.

Mendel's law of dominance states that in a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for
the same characteristic. For example, when crossing true-breeding violet-flowered plants with true-breeding
white-flowered plants, all of the offspring were violet-flowered, even though they all had one allele for violet
and one allele for white. Rather than both alleles contributing to a phenotype, the dominant allele will be
expressed exclusively. The recessive allele will remain latent but will be transmitted. The recessive trait will
only be expressed by offspring that have two copies of this allele and these offspring will breed true when self-
crossed.

Correspondence Between Genotype and Phenotype for a Dominant Recessive Characteristic

Homozygous Heterozygous Homozygous

genotype VV Vv vv

phenotype violet violet white

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 Source: https://openoregon.pressbooks.pub/mhccbiology102/chapter/12-3-phenotypes-and-genotypes/

(A) 50%of the offspring plants will have violet-colored flowers, and 50% will have white-colored flowers.
(B) 100% of the offspring plants will have a pale purple-colored flower.
(C) 100% of the offspring plants will have violet-colored flowers.
(D) 100% of the offspring plants will have white-colored flowers.

36. Which statement from the passage best supports the hypothesis that declining sea ice in northern Alaska will
reduce the size of the region’s polar bear population?

Disappearing Sea Ice

Arctic summer sea ice is receding faster than previously projected and is expected to virtually disappear before
mid-century. This is altering marine ecosystems and leading to greater ship access, offshore development
opportunity, and increased community vulnerability to coastal erosion.

Arctic sea ice extent and thickness have declined substantially, especially in late summer (September), when
there is now only about half as much sea ice as at the beginning of the satellite record in 1979. As sea ice
declines, it becomes thinner, with less ice build-up over multiple years, and therefore more vulnerable to further
melting. Models that best match historical trends project northern waters that are virtually ice-free by late
summer by the 2030s.

Reductions in sea ice increase the amount of the sun’s energy that is absorbed by the ocean. This leads to a self-
reinforcing climate cycle, because the warmer ocean melts more ice, leaving more dark open water that gains
even more heat. In autumn and winter, there is a strong release of this extra ocean heat back to the atmosphere.
This is a key driver of the observed increases in air temperature in the Arctic.

Polar bears are one of the most sensitive Arctic marine mammals to climate warming because they spend most
of their lives on sea ice. Declining sea ice in northern Alaska is associated with smaller bears, probably because
of less successful hunting of seals, which are themselves ice-dependent and so are projected to decline with
diminishing ice and snow cover. Although bears can give birth to cubs on sea ice, increasing numbers of female
bears now come ashore in Alaska in the summer and fall and den on land. In Hudson Bay, Canada, the most
studied population in the Arctic, sea ice is now absent for three weeks longer than just a few decades ago,
resulting in less body fat, reduced survival of both the youngest and oldest bears, and a population now estimated
to be in decline and projected to be in jeopardy. Similar polar bear population declines are projected for the
Beaufort Sea region.

Source: https://nca2014.globalchange.gov/report/regions/alaska/

(A) “Although bears can give birth to cubs on sea ice, increasing numbers of female bears now come ashore in
Alaska in the summer and fall and den on land.”
(B) “Arctic sea ice extent and thickness have declined substantially, especially in late summer (September),
when there is now only about half as much sea ice as at the beginning of the satellite record in 1979.”
(C) “Declining sea ice in northern Alaska is associated with smaller bears, probably because of less successful
hunting of seals, which are themselves ice-dependent and so are projected to decline with diminishing ice
and snow cover.”
(D) “Polar bears are one of the most sensitive Arctic marine mammals to climate warming because they spend
most of their lives on sea ice.”

37. Which of the following statements about foodborne illness is NOT true?

Foodborne Illnesses Caused by Bacteria

Foodborne illness occurs when a person develops an infection after consuming contaminated food. There are
several factors that contribute to the symptoms and severity of food poisoning. People with a weakened immune
system, as well as the very old or very young, are most vulnerable to foodborne illness.

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 Foodborne illness is often caused by eating food contaminated with bacteria. E. coli, Salmonella, and Listeria
are three types of bacteria that commonly cause foodborne illness. While the American food supply is among
the safest in the world, the Federal government estimates that there are about 48 million cases of foodborne
illness each year, or approximately 1 in every 6 Americans. Of these 48 million cases, approximately 128,000
people are hospitalized and 3,000 people die each year.

Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria normally live in the intestines of people and animals. Most E. coli are harmless
and actually are an important part of a healthy human intestinal tract. However, some E. coli are pathogenic,
causing diarrhea or more serious conditions, such as anemia or kidney failure. The types of E. coli that cause
illness can be transmitted through contaminated water or food, or through contact with animals or people.

Salmonella can cause serious and sometimes fatal infections in young children, frail or elderly people, and
others with weakened immune systems. Healthy people infected with Salmonella often experience fever,
diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. In rare circumstances, infection with Salmonella can result in
more severe illnesses if the bacteria enter the patient’s bloodstream.

Listeria is a harmful bacterium that can be found in refrigerated, ready-to-eat foods like meat, poultry, seafood,
and dairy. It may also be found in produce harvested from soil that is contaminated with Listeria. Listeria is
unusual because it can grow at refrigerator temperatures. Most other foodborne bacteria do not grow well at
such low temperatures. But since Listeria can survive at low temperatures, even foods that are properly
refrigerated may contain harmful bacteria. People who eat foods contaminated with Listeria may develop
listeriosis, an illness which causes symptoms such as fever, headache and vomiting. For most people, listeriosis
is not a serious illness. However, pregnant women and their unborn children are very susceptible to a more
serious form of the illness. Among pregnant women who develop listeriosis, 22% of their unborn children will
not survive.

Source: https://www.fda.gov/Food/FoodborneIllnessContaminants/Bacteria/ucm20081848.htm

(A) Children and elderly people have an increased risk of becoming seriously ill from pathogenic foodborne
bacteria.
(B) E. coli are bacteria found normally within the human intestinal tract.
(C) Foodborne illness rarely causes life-threatening symptoms.
(D) Most bacteria grow well in cold temperatures.

38. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about how the ecological effects of acid rain impact humans?

Effects of Acid Rain on Fish and Wildlife

The ecological effects of acid rain are most clearly seen in aquatic environments, such as streams, lakes, and
marshes where it can be harmful to fish and other wildlife. As it flows through the soil, acidic rainwater can
leach aluminum from soil clay particles and then flow into streams and lakes. The more acid that is introduced
into the ecosystem, the more aluminum is released.

Some types of plants and animals are able to tolerate acidic waters and moderate amounts of aluminum. Others,
however, are acid-sensitive and will be lost as the pH declines. Generally, the young of most species are more
sensitive to environmental conditions than adults. At pH 5, most fish eggs cannot hatch. At lower pH levels,
some adult fish die. Some acidic lakes have no fish. Even if a species of fish or animal can tolerate moderately
acidic water, the animals or plants it eats might not. For example, frogs have a critical pH around 4, but the
mayflies they eat are more sensitive and may not survive pH below 5.5.

Source: https://www.epa.gov/acidrain/effects-acid-rain/

Source: https://www.epa.gov/acidrain/effects-acid-rain

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 This diagram illustrates the pH level at which key organisms may be lost as their environment becomes more
acidic. Not all fish, shellfish, or the insects that they eat can tolerate the same amount of acid.

(A) Long-term exposure to toxic substances such as aluminum from eating fish can adversely affect human
health.
(B) Substantial declines in fish populations as a result of low pH can make water recreation activities such as
fishing impossible.
(C) Too few frogs to control mosquito populations can lead to more severe outbreaks of mosquito-borne
diseases.
(D) All of the above

39. Which of the following representations of a food chain shows the organisms listed in the correct order to
indicate the flow of energy through an ecosystem from lower to higher trophic levels?
Trophic Levels Food Chain

All organisms require a source of both energy and

nutrients. Many organisms feed on the tissues of
other organisms, either living or dead, to obtain the
energy and nutrients they require. These organisms
are referred to as consumers, or heterotrophs. Other
organisms, referred to as producers, or autotrophs,
are able to make their own food, using sunlight or
inorganic chemicals as a source of energy and
carbon dioxide as a source of carbon. Plants are
producers that use the process of photosynthesis to
capture sunlight energy and convert it to chemical
energy that is stored as sugars in the plant.

Communities of living organisms have a trophic

structure, or pattern of feeding relationships, made
up of various trophic levels. The organisms that feed
on producers are referred to as primary consumers.
Other organisms, called secondary consumers, feed
on the primary consumers, and so
on. Decomposers make up another important
trophic level of consumers. A decomposer is an
organism that feeds on the dead tissues and waste
products of other organisms. Fungi, worms, bacteria
and insects are examples of decomposers.
Decomposers are important recyclers in an
ecosystem because they break down wastes and

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 dead tissues of plants and animals, allowing the
nutrients to be returned to the ecosystem.

A food chain is a simplified representation of the

feeding relationships between the various trophic
levels in an ecosystem. Arrows show how energy
moves through the various trophic levels. For
example, in the food chain shown here, the
grasshopper gets energy by eating the grass and the
bird gets energy by eating the grasshopper. The fox
gets energy by eating the bird.

Of course, relationships among organisms in an

ecosystem are more complex than a food chain
depicts, because organisms eat more than one type
of food. A food web, which is a complex network of
interconnecting food chains, is a more realistic
representation of the feeding relationships in an
ecosystem.

(A) acorn → eagle → squirrel → snake

(B) acorn → squirrel → snake → eagle
(C) snake → squirrel → acorn → eagle
(D) eagle → snake → squirrel → acorn

40. Based on the station model shown here, which of the following shows a correct wind speed and direction?

Station Model

Station models are illustrations showing the weather at a given reporting station. Meteorologists created the
station model to fit a number of weather elements into a small space on weather maps. Station model plots use
an internationally accepted coding convention. Elements in the plot show the key weather elements, including
temperature, dew point, wind, cloud cover, air pressure, pressure tendency, and precipitation.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Station_model/

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 Source: https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/b/ba/Station_model.gif/
(A) 34 knots from the southeast
(B) 32 knots from the southwest
(C) 28 knots from the northeast
(D) 20 knots from the northwest

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