1

ZOOLOGY

Class 12th Human Reproduction NEET

Practice Sheet-01

1. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of 7. Which part of sperm provides energy to fertilise the
hair on its head are usually observed during which egg?
month of pregnancy? (1) Head of sperm (2) Acrosome
(1) Fourth month (2) Fifth month (3) Tail of sperm (4) Middle piece
(3) Sixth month (4) Third month
8. Mature mammalian sperms are stored in the ____
2. During embryonic development the heart beat prior to their release during ejaculation.
begins at the end of; (1) seminiferous tubules
(2) scrotum
(1) 1st trimester (2) 2nd trimester
(3) vas deferens
(3) 1st month (4) 2nd month
(4) epididymis
3. Which of the following best represents the normal
9. Secretions from which one of the following are rich
path of a sperm cell as it makes its way from the in fructose, calcium and various enzymes?
point of entry into the female’s reproductive tract to (1) Male accessory glands
the place where fertilisation typically occurs ? (2) Liver
(1) Cervix → Vagina → Ovary → Oviduct (3) Pancreas
(2) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct (4) Salivary glands
(3) Uterus → Cervix → Vagina → Oviduct
(4) Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Oviduct 10. ‘Spermiogenesis’ refers to;
(1) formation of spermatids.
4. What is the term for the shedding of the lining of the (2) morphological and structural changes to
transform spermatids into sperms.
uterus in females?
(3) phase of multiplication of spermatogenesis.
(1) Fertilisation (2) Implantation
(4) growth phase of spermatogenesis.
(3) Ovulation (4) Menstruation
11. The solid mass of 8-16 cells formed from zygote
5. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of; after successive mitotic divisions is called;
(1) an acrosome. (1) Blastula (2) Gastrula
(2) elongated nucleus covered by acrosome. (3) Morula (4) None of these
(3) two centrioles and an axial filament.
(4) nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and mitochondrial 12. The acrosome of the sperm is;
sheath. (1) in the nucleus, containing highly condensed
chromatin.
(2) located in the midpiece, where it supplies ATP
6. The fertilisation in humans occur at the junction of; for movement.
(1) infundibulum and ampulla. (3) in the flagellum that makes up the tail of the
(2) isthmus and fundus. sperm.
(3) ampulla and isthmus. (4) a vesicle containing enzymes to help the sperm
(4) cervix and fundus. penetrating the egg.
 2

13. The highly convoluted tubule that lies along the 18. Identify the wrong statement from the following.
posterior surface of the testis is; (1) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory
(1) Seminiferous tubule surge.
(2) Rete testis (2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise
(3) Epididymis to functional ova in regular cycle after
(4) Vas deferens menopause.
(3) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
14. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, poorly motile/non-motile.
the spermatocytes differentiate into the; (4) Progesterone level is high during the post
(1) Primary spermatocytes ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
(2) Secondary spermatocytes
(3) Spermatids 19. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is
(4) Spermatogonia contributed by;
I. Seminal vesicle II. Prostate gland
III. Urethra IV. Bulbourethral gland
15. Implantation takes place after ____ of fertilisation.
(1) I and II (2) I, II and IV
(1) 5 days
(3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV
(2) 6 days
(3) 7 days
20. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the
(4) 8 days
ovary of a healthy human female around;
(1) 5th to 8 day of menstrual cycle.
16. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages (2) 11th to 17th day of menstrual cycle.
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature (3) 18th to 23rd day of menstrual cycle.
human testis is; (4) 24th to 28th day of menstrual cycle.
(1) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid →
Sperms 21. In human females, the primary oocyte undergoes the
(2) Spermatid → Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → first meiotic division to produce which cell(s)?
Sperms (1) Second polar body
(3) Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Spermatocyte → (2) First polar body
Sperms (3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Spermatid → (4) Both (2) and (3)
Sperms
22. Which one of the following is not a male accessory
17. Which one of the following statement about human gland?
sperm is correct? (1) Seminal vesicle
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used (2) Skene’s gland
for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting
(3) Prostate gland
in fertilisation.
(4) Bulbourethral gland
(2) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
egg envelope facilitating fertilisation.
(3) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading 23. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by
the sperm towards the ovum. human placenta?
(4) Acrosome serves no particular function. (1) hCG (2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone (4) LH
 3

24. Morula is a developmental stage; 32. Assertion (A): Levels of many maternal hormones
(1) between the zygote and blastocyst. are elevated during pregnancy compared to their
(2) between the blastocyst and gastrula. usual levels.
(3) after the implantation. Reason (R): Hormones support foetal growth and
(4) between implantation and parturition. maintain pregnancy.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) true,
25. Identify the odd one from the following. and Reason (R) is correct explanation of
(1) Labia minora (2) Fimbriae Assertion (A).
(3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
26. _____ anchor the ovary to the uterine wall. explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) Bones (2) Ligaments (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(3) Muscles (4) Tendons false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
27. After an egg is fertilised, it will implant in the ____ true.
for further development.
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium 33. Which of the following usually occurs between 13th
(3) Perimetrium (4) Cervix and 15th day of the menstrual cycle?
(1) The lining of the uterus builds up
28. In females, certain developmental changes occur (2) The lining of the uterus remains in place to
during pregnancy, name the hormone responsible prepare for the possible arrival of an early
for synthesis and production of milk in mammary embryo
gland. (3) Shedding of the lining of the uterus
(1) Oxytoxin (2) Progesterone (4) Ovulation
(3) Estrogen (4) Prolactin
34. Identify the odd one from the following.
29. What component(s) is/are present in seminal fluid? (1) Oviduct (2) Rete testis
(1) Fructose (2) Prostaglandins (3) Epididymis (4) Penis
(3) Ascorbic acid (4) All of these 35. Which of the following is correct about
myometrium?
30. After Ovulation, the remaining follicular mass is (1) Thin layer
called as; (2) Made up of smooth muscles
(1) Theca externa (2) Corpus luteum (3) Glandular
(3) Theca interna (4) None of these (4) All of these

36. Name the part of the uterus which undergoes

31. Whenever an egg is ovulated, the body will prepare cyclical changes during menstrual cycle?
the endometrial lining for implantation just in case (1) Endometrium (2) Perimetrium
the egg is fertilised. In order to prepare for potential (3) Myometrium (4) Peritoneum
pregnancy, the _____A_______ releases
_____B______ 37. Which hormone is responsible for the development
(1) A-corpus luteum, B-progesterone of male secondary sexual characteristics?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(2) A-corpus callosum, B-estrogen
(2) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(3) A-ovary, B-luteinizing hormone (3) Testosterone
(4) A-ovary, B-progesterone (4) Estrogen
 4

38. In human female bartholin's glands open into the; (1) the follicles are not influenced by the level of
(1) fallopian tubes and release a secretion which progesterone in the blood.
makes sperms motile. (2) the corpus luteum and later the placenta
(2) uterus and release a lubricatiing fluid during the produce large amounts of progesterone.
birth of young ones. (3) the corpus luteum generates luteinizing
(3) urinary bladder and assist in the release of urine. hormone is no longer produced.
(4) vestibule and release a lubricating fluid in the (4) the embryo produces hormones which retard
vagina. the production of maternal follicle stimulating
hormones.
39. Which cells in the testis of a human male produce
testosterone? 45. A human female reaches menopause around the age
of;
(1) Germinal cells (2) Interstitial cells
(1) 50 years (2) 15 years
(3) Sertoli cells (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 70 years (4) 25 years
40. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle
46. Which of the following is classified as gonadotropin
stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
hormone?
(1) Hypothalamus (1) FSH (2) GnRH
(2) Anterior pituitary (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
(3) Posterior pituitary
(4) Adrenal glands 47. Statement I: Morula continues to divide and
transform into blastocyst.
41. Which of the following is not a function of Statement II: Blastomeres in blastocyst are
progesterone? arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast.
(1) Gestation (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Stimulation of mammary gland (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(3) Inhibition of ovulation incorrect.
(4) Uterine growth and development (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
42. Which of the following are effects of increased (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
levels of estrogen in the follicular phase of the
menstrual cycle? 48. Which hormones is responsible for maintaining the
(1) Hair thinning lining of the uterus during pregnancy?
(2) Thinning of cervical mucous (1) Luteinzing hormone (LH)
(3) Thickening of endometrium (2) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen
43. Name the female organ homologous to prostate
gland in the male; 49. Name the phase of menstrual cycle classified as
proliferative phase.
(1) Bartholin's gland (2) Uterus
(1) 1st to 5th days (2) 6th to 14th days
(3) Clitoris (4) None of these
(3) 15 to 28 days (4) 14th to 15th days
th th

44. Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the

50. Delivery of developed foetus is scientifically called;
human female because;
(1) Parturition (2) Gestation
(3) Abortion (4) Ovulation
 5

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 2 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 1 1 3 2 1
 1

BOTANY

Class 12th
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant NEET
Practice Sheet-01

1. Polyembryony is: 8. In the flower the male and female reproductive

(1) one embryo in one seed. structures, the …………… and the …………...
(2) more than one embryo in a seed. differentiate and develop.
(3) more seed in one embryo. (1) Androceium and Gynoceium
(4) seed development without fertilization. (2) Gynoceium and Androceium
(3) Gametophyte and Sporophyte
2. Mature seed contains how much moisture generally? (4) Sporophyte and Gametophyte
(1) 10–15% by mass
(2) 5–10% by mass 9. Whorl of carpel in flower represents;
(3) 25–30% by mass (1) Gynoecium (2) Androecium
(4) 40% by mass (3) Calyx (4) Corolla

3. The wall of the ovary develops into; 10. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the
(1) Integument (2) Testa …………. of the flower:
(3) Tegmen (4) Pericarp (1) thalamus
(2) petal
4. False fruits are found in; (3) both (1) and (2)
(1) Guava, pear and sapota. (4) either Both (1) and (2)
(2) Black pepper and beet.
(3) Apple, strawberry and cashew.
11. In anther, often a longitudinal groove runs in
(4) Banana and apple.
lengthwise separating the ………….:
(1) lobe
5. Which of the following seeds are endospermous?
(2) groove
(1) pea and bean
(2) castor and coconut (3) theca
(3) Sesbania and Indigofera (4) anther
(4) coconut and bean
12. During development, the microsporangia develop
6. ________ is a form of asexual reproduction that further and become ……….:
mimics sexual reproduction. (1) Pollen (2) Pollen Sac
(1) Semigamy (2) Apospory (3) Lobe (4) Theca
(3) Apomixis (4) Amphimixis
13. Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes place
7. Persistent nucellus is known as; during;
(1) epicotyls (1) Gamete formation.
(2) perisperm (2) Endosperm formation.
(3) endosperm (3) Embryo sac formation.
(4) all of the above (4) Both (2) and (3)
 2

14. Consider the following statement. 21. Ubiquitous weed Parthenium in occurrence and
Statement-I: Triple fusion occurs in Central cell. causes pollen allergy came along with;
Statement-II: – PEN undergoes successive nuclear (1) imported rice.
divisions to give rise to nuclear endosperm. (2) imported wheat.
Mark the correct option. (3) imported sugarcane.
(1) only statement-I correct. (4) imported carrot.
(2) only statement-II correct.
(3) both statement-I and statement-II is correct. 22. Which is not true for germ pore?
(4) both statement-I and statement-II is wrong. (1) Located on exine.
(2) Non-prominent.
15. Coconut water from a tender coconut is: (3) Sporopollenin absent.
(1) degenerated nucellus. (4) Point form where pollen tube develop.
(2) immature embryo.
(3) free nuclear endosperm. 23. Which of the following have longest viability?
(4) innermost layers of the seed coat. (1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Legumes (4) Maize
16. Post-fertilization events do not include: 24. Size of typical pollen grain is:
1. Formation of primary endosperm cell. (1) 10 – 15 micrometer
2. Maturation of ovules in seed. (2) 25 – 50 micrometer
3. Formation of fruit from ovary. (3) 500 nm
4. Formation of embryo inside seed. (4) 100 nm
(1) Only (1) (2) Only (2)
(3) Only (3) (4) None of these 25. Inbreeding depression can occur in case of all except;
(1) Cleistogamous flower
17. Stem tip in dicot embryo is known as: (2) Autogamy
(1) epicotyls (2) hypocotyl (3) Xenogamy
(3) plumule (4) radical (4) Geitonogamy

18. Part of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledon 26. The devices developed by plants to discourage self-
is; pollination include:
(1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl 1. In some species, the pollen release and receptive
(3) Embryonal axis (4) Cotyledon stigma are not synchronized.
2. In some species, the anther and stigma are
19. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of placed at different positions, so they do not come
presence of; in contact.
(1) exine and intine 3. Self-incompatibility.
(2) sporopollenin (1) All are correct (2) 1 and 2 only
(3) low temperature of environment (3) 1 only (4) 2 only
(4) pectin and cellulose
27. Inbreeding depression is generally not appeared if
20. Mark the correctly matched. flower / plant is:
(1) Sporogenous tissue – Haploid (1) monoecious flower.
(2) PMC – Undergo mitosis (2) cleistogamous flower.
(3) bisexual flower.
(3) Longitudinal groove- Theca
(4) dioecious plant.
(4) Intine- Sporopollenin
 3

28. In Castor and maize plant, flowers are: 36. Mucilaginous covering present in:
(1) unisexual. (1) Wind pollinated flower.
(2) both male and female flowers on same plants (2) Water pollinated flower.
(monoecious). (3) Insect pollinated flower.
(3) both male and female flowers on different plants. (4) Bat pollinated flower.
(4) All are incorrect.
37. Which of the following is not feature of insect
29. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: pollinated flower?
(1) Autogamy and xenogamy. (1) Large size
(2) Autogamy and geitonogamy. (2) Colour and Fragrance
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy. (3) Small size than in cluster
(4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy. (4) Non-sticky pollen

30. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region 38. Which of the following group is most dominating
called ________. pollinating agent?
(1) Hilum (2) Funicle
(1) bird, bat and gecko lizard
(3) Integument (4) Chalaza
(2) bee, butterflies and beetle
(3) wasp, bee and water
31. Basal bulged part of pistil is known as;
(4) lemur, rodents and ants
(1) ovary (2) stigma
(3) locule (4) style
39. A Cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent,
32. Another name for ovule is; genetically it is similar to autogamy is known as;
(1) Megasporangium (1) Xenogamy (2) Autogamy
(2) Microsporangium (3) Geitonogamy (4) Cleistogamy
(3) Nucellus
(4) Female gametophyte 40. In viola or common pansy type of flower is;
(1) Cleistogamous
33. Mark the incorrectly matched. (2) Chasmogamous
(1) Single pistil – Monocarpellary (3) Bisexual
(2) Single Pistil – Syncarpous (4) All of the above
(3) Fuse pistil – Syncarpous
(4) Free pistil – Apocarpous 41. In Viola and Oxalis which of the following is not true?
(1) Xenogamy possible.
34. In functional megaspore, mitotic division is: (2) Cleistogamous and Chasmogamous flower
(1) cellular. present.
(2) strictly free nuclear. (3) Only Autogamy occur.
(3) followed immediately by cell wall formation. (4) Geitonogamy occur.
(4) cytokinesis never occurs.
42. Which of the following group of features present in
35. The corn cob having the tassels which are nothing wind pollinated flower?
but: (1) Small size, light weight and non-sticky pollen.
(1) the stigma and style. (2) Exposed anther and large and feathery stigma
(2) only Stigma. and mono-ovular pistil.
(3) only style. (3) Nectarless, colourless and odourless flower.
(4) complete pistil. (4) All of the above
 4

43. Method of embryo sac formation from a single 48. Match the following columns.
megaspore is termed as: Column-I Column-II
(1) Embryogenesis A. Plumule p. Attachment of seed
(2) Monosporic development B. Radicle q. Embryonic stem
(3) Megasporogenesis C. Hilum r. Embryonal axis
(4) Reduction division
D. Tigellum s. Embryonal root
44. Female gametophyte is also represented by? E. Scutellum t. Cotyledon
(1) Central cell and egg apparatus Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Central cell and antipodals below.
(3) Antipodals, central cell and egg apparatus (1) A-(q), B-(s), C-(p), D-(t), E-(r)
(4) Antipodals, egg cell and central cell (2) A-(q), B-(s), C-(p), D-(r), E-(t)
(3) A-(q), B-(s), C-(r), D-(t), E-(p)
45. In angiosperm pollination require as:
(4) A-(r), B-(t), C-(p), D-(q), E-(s)
(1) both male and female gamete is motile.
(2) both male and female gamete is non-motile.
49. In the diagram of strawberry fruit, name out A and B.
(3) male gamete is motile and female gamete is non-
motile.
(4) male gamete is non motile and female gamete is
motile.

46. Statement I: The pistil has the ability to recognise

the male gametophyte whether it is compatible or
incompatible. (1) A-Endocarp, B-Apome
Statement II: Pistil accepts the compatible male (2) A-Thalamus, B-Pome
gametophyte and promotes post fertilisation events (3) A-Thalamus, B-Achene
that leads to fertilisation. (4) A-Mesocarp, B-Drupe
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. 50. Non-albuminous seeds occur in;
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is (1) maize (2) wheat
incorrect. (3) barley (4) groundnut
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct. 51. Free nuclear division occur in;
(1) flower (2) gametes
47. Assertion (A): Pollen grains can get preserved as (3) endosperm (4) fruit
fossils.
Reason (R): Exine of a pollen grain is made up of 52. Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing
sporopollenins which are resistant to high embryo in;
temperatures, strong acids or alkali as well as (1) Pea and groundnut.
enzymatic degradation. (2) Maize and castor.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (3) Castor and groundnut.
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (4) Maize and pea.
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but 53. Which of the following is a group of fleshy fruit?
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (1) Guava, orange and mango
Assertion (A). (2) Groundnut and mustard
(3) If Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (3) Guava, groundnut and mustard
(4) If Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. (4) Mango, guava and mustard
 5

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
Ans. 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 1
 1

CHEMISTRY

Class 12th
Solutions NEET
Practice Sheet-01

1. Which of the following is dependent on 7. Which of the following statements about the
temperature? composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 molar
(1) Molarity mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume
(2) Mole fraction that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given,
(3) Weight percentage vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa,
(4) Molality toluene = 3.85 kPa)?
(1) The vapour will contain equal amounts of
2. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m benzene and toluene.
aqueous solution?
(2) Not enough information is given to make a
(1) 1.770 (2) 0.0354
prediction.
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.177
(3) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of
3. How many grams of CH3OH should be added to benzene.
water to prepare 150 mL solution of 2M CH3OH? (4) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of
(1) 9.6 × 103 (2) 2.4 × 103 toluene.
(3) 9.61 (4) 2.4
8. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal
4. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope solution?
is; (1) mix V = 0
(1) heptane + octane (2) mix S = 0
(2) water + nitric acid (3) Obeyance to Raoult’s Law
(3) ethanol + water (4) mix H = 0
(4) acetone + carbon disulphide
9. A solution of acetone in ethanol;
5. Which of the following statements is correct
(1) obeys Raoult’s law.
regarding a solution of two components A and B
exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour? (2) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A – A (3) shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
and B – B are stronger than those between (4) behaves like a near ideal solution.
A– B.
(2) mix H = 0 at constant T and P. 10. A solution containing components A and B follows
(3) mix V = 0 at constant T and P. Raoult’s law;
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A – A (1) A – B attraction force is greater than A – A and
and B – B are equal to those between A – B. B – B.
(2) A – B attraction forces is less than A – A and
6. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal
B – B.
solution?
(3) A – B attraction forces remains the same as
(1) Hmix = 0
A – A and B – B.
(2) Umix = 0
(4) Volume of solution is different from sum of
(3) P = Pobs – Pcalculated by Raoult’s law = 0
volume solute and solvent.
(4) Gmix = 0
 2

11. An ideal solution is formed when its components; 17. In a mixture of A and B, components show negative
(1) have no volume change on mixing. deviation when;
(2) have no enthalpy change on mixing. (1) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and
(3) both (1) and (2) B – B interaction.
(4) have high solubility. (2) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and
B – B interaction.
12. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the (3) Vmix > 0, Smix > 0
value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be; (4) Vmix = 0, Smix > 0
(1) halved (2) tripled
(3) unchanged (4) doubled 18. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food
because;
13. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342g mol–1) has
(1) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes
been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in
the food material.
1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution
(2) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a
obtained will be; (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
rise in temperature.
(1) – 0.372°C (2) – 0.520°C
(3) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking
(3) + 0.372°C (4) – 0.570°C
space.
(4) boiling point of water involved in cooking is
14. A solution contains non-volatile solute of molecular
increased.
mass M2. Which of the following can be used to
calculate the molecular mass of solute in terms of
19. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution;
osmotic pressure?
(m2 = mass of solute, V = volume of solution, (1) the free energy of mixing is zero.
(2) the free energy as well as the entropy of mixing
 = osmotic pressure)
are each zero.
m   m  RT
(1) M 2   2  VRT (2) M 2   2  (3) the enthalpy of mixing is zero.
    V  
(4) the entropy of mixing is zero.
m  m  
(3) M 2   2  RT (4) M 2   2 
 V   V  RT 20. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX
the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking kf for water as
15. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by; 1.85 Kkgmol–1, the freezing point of the solution
(1) centrifugation will be nearest to;
(2) plasmolysis (1) –0.260ºC
(3) reverse osmosis (2) + 0.480ºC
(4) sedimentation (3) –0.480ºC
(4) –0.360ºC
16. From the colligative properties of solution, which
one is the best method for the determination of
21. If liquid A and B form ideal solution, then;
molecular weight of proteins and polymers?
(1) Gmix = 0
(1) Osmotic pressure
(2) Hmixing = 0
(2) Lowering in vapour pressure
(3) Lowering in freezing point (3) Gmix = 0, Smix = 0
(4) Elevation in boiling point (4) Smix = 0
 3

22. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 27. The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 4g in
20ºC, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and 100 g of water at 25°C. If 2.0 g, 4.0 g and 6.0 g of
that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial pressure of the salt added to 100 g of water at 25°C, in system
benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78 g of X, Y and Z. The vapour pressure would be in the
benzene and 46 g of toluene in torr is; order;
(1) 25 (2) 50 (1) X < Y < Z (2) X > Y > Z
(3) 53.5 (4) 37.5 (3) Z > X = Y (4) X > Y = Z

23. Which aqueous solution exhibits highest boiling point? 28. The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and
(1) 0.015 M glucose C6H5NO2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C
(2) 0.01 M KNO3 respectively. Which will show highest vapour
(3) 0.015 M urea pressure at room temperature?
(4) 0.01M Na2SO4 (1) C6H6 (2) CH3OH
24. Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a (3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5NO2
binary liquid solution when;
(1) the forces of attractions between like molecules 29. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of
are greater than those between unlike sucrose at 373, K is found to be 750 mm Hg. The
molecules. molality of the solution at the same temperature will
(2) the forces of attractions between like molecules be;
are smaller than those between unlike molecules. (1) 0.26 (2) 0.63
(3) the forces of attractions between like molecules (3) 0.74 (4) 0.039
are identical with those between unlike
molecules. 30. Calculate the weight of non-volatile solute having
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are molecular weight 40, which should be dissolved in 57
different. gm octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%?
(1) 47.2 g (2) 5 g
25. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure (3) 106.2 g (4) None of these
of the solution is given as;
(1) Ptotal  PAo + (PAo – PBo )XB 31. Equal weight of a solute are dissolved in equal
weight of two solvents A and B and formed very
(2) Ptotal = PBo  (PAo – PBo )XA dilute solution. The relative lowering of vapour
(3) Ptotal  PBo  (PBo – PAo )XA pressure for the solution B is twice the relative
lowering of vapour pressure for the solution A. If
(4) Ptotal = PBo  (PBo – PAo )XB
MA and MB are the molecular weights of solvents A
and B respectively, then;
26. For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that; (1) MA = MB (2) MB = 2 × MA
(1) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the (3) MA = 4MB (4) MA = 2MB
mole fraction of solute.
(2) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is 32. An ideal solution has two components A and B. A is
equal to the mole fraction of solute. more volatile than B, i.e., P°A > P°B and also
(3) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is P°A > Ptotal. If XA and YA are mole fractions of
proportional to the amount of solute in solution. components A in liquid and vapour phase, then;
(4) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to (1) XA = YA (2) XA > YA
the mole fraction of solvent. (3) XA < YA (4) Data insufficient
 4

33. Two liquid A and B have P°A and P°B in the ratio of 37. Formation of a solution from two components can
1 : 3 and the ratio of number of moles of A and B in be considered as;
liquid phase are 1 : 3 then mole fraction of ‘A’ in (i) Pure solvent  separated solvent molecules, H1
vapour phase in equilibrium with the solution is (ii) Pure solute  separated solute molecules, H2
equal to; (iii) separated solvent and solute molecules 
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 solution, H3
(3) 0.5 (4) 1.0 (1) Hsoln = H1 + H2 + H3
(2) Hsoln = H1 + H2 – H3
(3) Hsoln = H1 – H2 – H3
34. Select correct statement;
(4) Hsoln = H3 – H1 – H2
(1) Solution has more molecular randomness than a
pure solvent has, the entropy change between 38. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol X
solution and solid is larger than the entropy (P°x = 150 torr) and 2 mol Y(P°y = 300 torr) is 240
change between pure solvent and solid. torr. In this case;
(2) Heat of fusion of solution and solvent are (1) there is a negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
similar since similar forces of intermolecular (2) there is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
forces are involved. (3) there is no deviation from Raoult’s law.
(3) Sugar containing solution freezes at a lower (4) cannot be decided.
temperature than pure water.
39. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mole of
(4) All of these volatile component A (P°A = 100 mm Hg) and 3
mole of volatile component B (p°B = 80 mm Hg) is
35. Select correct statement; 90 mm Hg. For such case;
(1) Heats of vaporisation for a pure solvent and for a (1) there is positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
solution are similar because similar (2) boiling point has been lowered.
intermolecular forces between solvent molecules (3) force of attraction between A and B is smaller
must be overcome in both cases. than that between A and A or between B and B.
(2) Entropy change between solution and vapour is (4) all of these
smaller than the entropy change between pure
40. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous
solvent and vapour. solution is;
(3) Boiling point of the solution is larger than that (1) 0.009 (2) 0.018
of the pure solvent. (3) 0.027 (4) 0.036
(4) All of these
41. How many grams of dibasic acid (mol. weight 200)
36. The vapour pressure curves of the same solute in the should be present in 100 mL of the aqueous solution
same solvent are shown. The curves are parallel to to give strength of 0.1 N?
(1) 10 g (2) 2 g
each other and do not intersect. The concentrations
(3) 1 g (4) 20 g
of solutions are in order of;
42. Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and
dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25°C are 200 mm Hg
and 415 mm Hg respectively. Vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and
40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be
(Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular
mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)
(1) I < II < III (2) I = II = III (1) 173.9 mm Hg (2) 615.0 mm Hg
(3) I > II > III (4) I > III > II (3) 347.9 mm Hg (4) 285.5 mmHg
 5

43. A solution has a 1:4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. 49. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid
The vapour pressures of the pure hydrocarbons at solution that is 29% (w/w) H2SO4 (Molar mass = 98 g
20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg mol–1) by mass will be;
for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the (1) 1.64 (2) 1.88
vapour phase would be; (3) 1.22 (4) 1.45
(1) 0.200 (2) 0.549
(3) 0.786 (4) 0.478 50. Two liquids A and B form ideal solutions. At 300 K,
the vapour pressure of solution containing 1 mole of
44. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea A and 3 mole of B is 550 mm. At the same
(molecular mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with a 5% temperature, if one more mole of B is added to this
solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular solution, the vapour pressure of the solution
mass of this non-volatile solute is; increases by 10 mm Hg. Determine the vapour
(1) 200 g mol–1 (2) 250 g mol–1 pressure of A and B in their pure states (in mm Hg);
(1) 400, 600 (2) 500, 500
(3) 300 g mol–1 (4) 350 g mol–1
(3) 600, 400 (4) None of these
45. The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain
51. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which
temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non-volatile and change will cause the vapour pressure of the
non-electrolyte solid, weighing 2.175 g is added to solution to increase?
39.08 of benzene. The vapour pressure of the (1) Addition of water
solution is 600 mm of Hg. What is the molecular (2) Addition of NaCl
weight of solid substance? (3) Addition of Na2SO4
(1) 65.25 (2) 59.6 (4) Addition of 1.0 molal KI
(3) 49.50 (4) 79.8
52. Moles of Na2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mole water
46. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is –0.186°C. to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm at a
Boiling point of the same solution is temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water
(Kf = 1.86 K mol–1 kg) and Kb = 0.512 K mol–1 kg) is 50 mm is;
(1) 1.5 mol (2) 2 mol
(1) 0.186°C (2) 100.0512°C
(3) 1 mol (4) 3 mol
(3) 1.86°C (4) 5.12°C
53. A very diluted saturated solution of a sparingly
47. Osmotic pressure of 40% (wt./vol.) urea solution is soluble salt X3Y4 has a vapour pressure of 20 mm
1.64 atm and that of 3.42% (wt./vol.) cane sugar is Hg at temperature T, while pure water exerts a
2.46 atm. When equal volumes of the above two pressure of 20.0126 mm Hg at the same
solutions are mixed, the osmotic pressure of the temperature. Calculate molality (m) at temperature
resulting solution is; T;
(1) 1.64 atm (2) 2.46 atm (1) 6.3 × 10–4 (2) 3.5 × 10–2
–3
(3) 4.10 atm (4) 2.05 atm (3) 5 × 10 (4) None of these

48. Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are 54. Chloroform, (CHCl3), boils at 61.7°C. If the Kb for
mixed in the following manner. 480 mL of 1.5 M chloroform is 3.63°C/molal, what is the boiling
first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. point of a solution of 15.0 kg of CHCl3 and 0.616 kg
of acenaphthalene, C12H10?
What is the molarity of the final mixture?
(1) 61.9 (2) 62.0
(1) 1.50 M (2) 1.20 M
(3) 52.2 (4) 62.67
(3) 2.70 M (4) 1.344 M
 6

55. A solution of 0.640 g of azulene in 100.0 g of 57. Which one of the following pairs of solution can we
benzene boils at 80.23°C. The boiling point of expect to be isotonic at the same temperature?
benzene is 80.10°C; the Kb is 2.53°C/molal. What is
(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
the molecular weight of azulene?
(1) 108 (2) 99 (2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 125 (4) 134 (3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
56. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl2 solutions are
separated by a semi-permeable membrane in a
container. For this system, choose the correct 58. The osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of urea,
answer; BaCl2 and AlCl3 will be in the order;
(1) there is no movement of any solution across the
(1) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > urea
membrane.
(2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > urea
(2) water flows from BaCl2 solution towards NaCl
solution. (3) urea > BaCl2 > AlCl3
(3) water flows from NaCl solution towards BaCl2 (4) BaCl2 > urea > AlCl3
solution.
(4) osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is lower than
the osmotic pressure of BaCl2 (assume
complete dissociation).
 7

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 4 1
 1

PHYSICS

Class 12th
Electric Charges and Fields NEET
Practice Sheet-01

1. If 1010 electrons are acquired by a body every second, 5. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
the time required for the body to get a total charge of separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion
1C will be: between the ions, the number of electrons missing
(1) 2 h (2) 2 days from each ion will be: (e being the charge on an
(3) 2 yr (4) 20 yr electron)
40 Fd 2 40 Fe2
(1) (2)
2. The number of electrons in 2 C of charge is: e2 d2
(1) 5 × 1029
40 Fd 2 4 0 Fd
(2) 125 × 1017 (3) (4)
2
(3) 1.6 × 1019 e e2
(4) 9 × 1011
6. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1µC,
are placed on the X-axis with co-ordinates x = 1, 2, 4,
3. Two identical spheres carrying charges –9μC and
8, ……..∞. If a charge of 1C is kept at the origin, then
5μC, respectively are kept in contact and then
what is the net force acting on 1C charge?
separated from each other. Point out true statement
(1) 9000 N
from the following. In each sphere:
(2) 12000 N
(1) 1.25 × 1013 electrons are in deficit.
(3) 24000 N
(2) 1.25 × 1013 electrons are in excess.
(4) 36000 N
(3) 2.15 × 1013 electrons are in excess.
(4) 2.25 × 1013 electrons are in deficit.
7. Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge
Q = 10µC (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended by two
4. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii
insulating threads of equal lengths 1m each, from a
and carrying equal charges in them repel each other
point fixed in the ceiling. It is found that in
with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A
equilibrium threads are separated by an angle 60°
third spherical conductor having same radius as that
between them, as shown in the figure. What is the
of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then
tension in the threads?
brought in contact with C and finally removed away
1
from both. The new force of repulsion between B and (Given: = 9  109 Nm/C2)
C is: (40 )
F
(1)
4
3F
(2)
4
F (1) 18 N
(3)
8 (2) 1.8 N
3F (3) 0.18 N
(4) (4) None of these
8
 2

8. Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown 12. Four charges are placed on corners of a square as
in the figure. The x-component of the force on –q1 is shown in figure having side of 5 cm. If Q is one micro
proportional to: coulomb, then electric field intensity at centre will be:

q2 q3 q2 q3
(1) 2
− 2
sin  (2) 2
− cos  (1) 1.02 × 107 N/C upwards.
b a b a2
(2) 2.04 × 107 N/C downwards.
q2 q3 q2 q3
(3) 2
+ 2
sin  (4) 2
+ cos  (3) 2.04 × 107 N/C upwards.
b a b a2 (4) 1.02 × 107 N/C downwards.

9. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four 13. A charge of +2µC is placed at a point P where the
corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If electric field due to other charges has a magnitude of
the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is: 3 × 106 N/C and directed to the right. If the charge is
replaced with a charge of –2µC then the electric field
Q
(1) − 1 + 2 2
4
( ) at point P:
(1) decreases in magnitude and changes direction.
(2)
Q
4
(
1+ 2 2 ) (2) increase in magnitude and changes direction.
(3) remains the same.
Q
(3) − 1 + 2 2
2
( ) (4) has the same magnitude but changes direction.

(4)
Q
2
(
1+ 2 2 ) 14. An electron moving with the speed of 5 × 106 m/s
is shooted parallel to the electric field of intensity
1 × 103 N/C. Field is responsible for the retardation of
10. A charge Q is placed at two opposite corners of a motion of electron. Now evaluate the distance travelled
square. A charge q is placed at each of the other two by the electron before coming to rest. (mass of e = 9 ×
corners. If the net electric force on Q is zero, then the 10–31 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C).
Q/q equals to: (1) 7 m
(1) −2 2 (2) –1 (2) 0.7 mm
1
(3) 1 (4) − (3) 7 cm
2 (4) 0.7 cm

11. Three charges each of magnitude q are placed at the 15. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob
corners of an equilateral triangle, the electrostatic which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to
force on the charge placed at the centre is (each side oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its
of triangle is L): period will:
1 q2 (1) Remain equal to T.
(1) zero (2) .
40 L2 (2) Less than T.
(3) Greater then T.
1 3q 2 1 q2
(3) . (4) . (4) Infinite.
40 L2 120 L2
 3

16. A thin glass rod is bent into a semicircle of radius r. 19. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear
A charge +Q is uniformly distributed along the upper charges density λ1 and λ2 respectively are placed at a
half, and a charge –Q is uniformly distributed along distance R meter. The force per length on either wire
the lower half, as shown in figure. The electric field  1 
E at P, the center of the semicircle, is: will be  k = :
 40 
2  2 
(1) k 12 2 (2) k 1 2
R R
 
(3) k 1 22 (4) k 1 2
R R

20. Electric lines of force due to negative point charges

Q 2Q are:
(1) (2)
2  0 r 2 2  0 r 2 (1) circular, anticlockwise
(2) circular, clockwise
4Q Q
(3) (4) (3) radial, inward
 0 r
2 2
4 0 r 2
2
(4) radial, outward

17. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive 21. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field surface respectively is φ1 and φ2, the electric charge
E at the center O is: inside the surface will be:
(1) (φ1 + φ2)ε0 (2) (φ2 – φ1)ε0
(3) (φ1 + φ2)/ε0 (4) (φ2 – φ1)/ε0

22. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a

uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis.
The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given
by:
q ˆj q ˆj (1) 2R 2 E (2) R 2 E
(1) (2)
4 0 r
2 2
4 0 r
2 2
 R 2 
(3) 
 R 
q q /E (4) Zero
(3) − ˆj ˆj
(4)  
22  0 r 2 22 0 r 2
23. In a region, the intensity of an electric field is given
18. The electric field at a distance
3R
from the centre of by E = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ in NC–1. The electric flux through
2
a surface S = 10iˆ m2 in the region is:
a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E.
(1) 5 Nm2C–1 (2) 10 Nm2C–1
R (3) 15 Nm2C–1 (4) 20 Nm2C–1
The electric field at a distance from the centre of
2
the sphere is: 24. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of
(1) Zero the cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field
(2) E through the surface of the vessel is:
E q
(3) (1) Zero (2)
2 0
E q 2q
(4) (3) (4)
3 2 0 0
 4

25. In figure +Q charge is located at one of the edge of 30. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p ,
the cube, then electric flux through cube due to +Q which makes angle θ with respect to x-axis. When
charge is: subjected to an electric field E1 = Eiˆ , it experiences
a torque T = kˆ . When subjected to another field
1

E2 = 3E1 ˆj it experiences a torque T2 = −T1 . The

angle θ is:
(1) 90° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
+Q +Q
(1) 0 (2) 2 0 31. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The
electric flux through all the six faces of the cube is:
+Q +Q
Q Q
(3) 4 0 (4) 80 (1) (2)
30 240
Q Q
26. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical (3) (4)
80 0
surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the
outward electric flux will:
(1) Be doubled. 32. A charge q is situated at the centre of an imaginary
(2) Increase four times. hemispherical surface, as shown in Fig. Using
(3) Be reduced to half. Gauss’s Theorem and symmetry considerations,
(4) Remain the same. determine the electric flux due to this charge through
the hemispherical surface.
27. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform electric
field. It may experience:
(1) A force and a torque.
(2) A force but not a torque.
(3) A torque but not a force. Q Q
(1) (2)
(4) Neither a force nor a torque. 0 2 0
2Q 3Q
28. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field of (3) (4)
0 0
3 × 104 NC–1. The dipole moment of each HCl molecule
is 6 × 10–30 Cm. The maximum torque that can act on
a molecule is: 33. Positive and negative charge in 18 cc of water is:
(1) 2 × 10–34 C2 N–1m (1) q = ± 9.63 × 105C
(2) 2 × 10–34 Nm (2) q = ± 1.63 × 105C
(3) 18 × 10–26 Nm (3) q = ± 9.63 × 10–5C
(4) 0.5 × 10–34 C–2N–1m–1 (4) q = ± 2.63 × 10–5C

29. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an

34. Two equal bodies X and Y carry charges –6.6 μC and
electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It experiences a
–5μC. How many electrons should be transferred
torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the
dipole length is 2 cm, is: from X to Y so that they acquire equal charges?
(1) 7 μC (2) 8 mC (1) 2 × 1012 (2) 5 × 1013
(3) 2 mC (4) 5 mC (3) 5 × 1012 (4) 2 × 1013
 5

35. Two charges repel each other with a force of 200N. 41. The number of electric field lines emit from one
One of the charges is increased by 20% and other is coulomb of charge:
reduced by 10%. The new repulsive force at same (1) infinite
distance would be: (2) 1/ε0
(1) 200 N (2) 216 N (3) 2/ε0
(3) 300 N (4) 316 N
(4) None of these
36. Two point charges +10μC and 20μC repel each other
with a force of 100 N. If a charge of –2μC is added to 42. Three charges each of 5 μC are placed at vertex of an
each charge, then force between them will become: equilateral triangle of sides 10 cm. The force exerted
(1) 72 N (2) 7.2 N on the charge of 1 μC placed at centre of triangle in
(3) 720 N (4) 100 N newton will be:
(1) 13.5
37. Two charge exert a force of 10 N on each other when (2) zero
separated by a distance 0.2 m in air. When they are (3) 4.5
placed in another medium of dielectric constant (4) 6.75
K = 4, and separated by distance R, they exert same
force. The distance R equal to:
43. Two bodies are charged by rubbing one against the
(1) 2m (2) 1 m
other. During the process, one becomes positively
(3) 0.2 m (4) 0.1 m
charged while the other becomes negatively charged.
38. Calculate the total electric flux through the Then mass of each body:
paraboloidal surface due to a uniform electric field of (1) remains unchanged.
magnitude E0 in the direction shown in the figure: (2) charges marginally.
(3) total mass changes slightly.
(4) changes slightly but the total mass remains
unchanged.
(1) E0r 2 (2) E0 d 2
(3) E0 (r 2 + d 2 ) (4) Zero 44. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using
separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show
39. An electric dipole is formed by + 4 μC and – 4 μC electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5)
charges at 5 mm distance. Calculate the dipole show repulsion. Therefore ball 1 must be:
moment. (1) Positively charged.
(1) 10–8 C-m (2) 2 × 10–8 C-m (2) Negatively charged.
(3) 3 × 10–8 C-m (4) 4 × 10–8 Cm (3) Neutral.
(4) Made of metal.
40. Which of the following configurations of electric
lines of force is not possible?
45. A cylindrical conductor is placed near another
positively charged conductor. The net charge
(1) (2) acquired by the cylindrical conductor will be:
(1) Positive only.
(2) Negative only.
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Zero.
(4) Either positive or negative.
 6

46. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a 50. Consider a uniformly charged hemisphere shell shown
hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The in figure. Indicate the directions (not magnitude) of the
coulomb force F between the two is (Where electric field at the central point P1 and off-center point
1 P2 on the drum-head of the shell.
K= )
4 0
e1 e1
(1) − K 3
r (2) K r
r r3
e2 e1
(3) − K r (4) K r
r 3
r2 (1)  ; (2)  ;
(3)  ;  (4)  ; →
47. Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the x-axis
at points x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively, then:
51. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging
(1) only –q is in stable equilibrium.
from a charged body. If the electric field at A and B
(2) none of the charges are in equilibrium.
are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement
(3) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium.
between A and B is r then
(4) all the charges are in the stable equilibrium.

48. Figures below show regular hexagons, with charges

at the vertices. In which of the following cases the
electric field at the centre is not zero?

(1) EA > EB (2) EA < EB

E E
(3) E A = B (4) E A = 2B
r r

52. If the magnitude of intensity of electric field at a

distance x on axial line and at a distance y on equatorial
line on a given dipole are equal, then x : y is:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 :1
49. Two equal and opposite charges of masses m1 and m2
are accelerated in a uniform electric field through the
same distance. What is the ratio of their accelerations
m
if their ratio of masses is 1 = 0.5 ?
m2
a1 a1
(1) = 0.5 (2) =1
a2 a2
a1 a1
(3) =2 (4) =3
a2 a2
 7

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 3 2 1 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 3 3 2 3 3 1 4