MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Who was the first person to describe microorganisms ?

a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
2. Who is the father of microbiology?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Joseph Lister
3. Who is the father of bacteriology?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Joseph Lister
4. Which bacteria is the human pathogen but still
does not fulfil Koch’s postulates criteria?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacillus anthraces
c. Mycobacterium leprae
d. Psedomonas aeruginosa
5. Who is the father of chemotherapy?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Joseph Lister
6. Who is the father of immunology?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Edward Jenner

7. Which first human disease proved to be of viral

origin?
a. Smallpox
b. Dengue
c. Yellow fever
d. Rabies
ANSWERS (MCQs

Ans. 1. d; 2. a; 3. b; 4. c; 5. c; 6. d; 7. c

Multiple choice

1. Which of the following is not a modification of a

compound microscope:
a. Bright microscopy
b. Dark field microscopy
c. Electron microscopy
d. Phase-contrast microscopy

2. Wavelength of electrons used in an electron

microscopy is:
a. 0.001 nm
b. 0.005 nm
c. 100 nm
d. 500 nm
3. Theoretically, the resolving power of the electron
microscope is:
a. 10,000 times
b. 100,000 times
c. 5,00,000 times
d. 1,000 times

Answers (MCQs)
Ans: 1. b; 2. b; 3. B

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a distinguishing

characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
a. They usually have a single, circular chromosome
b. They lack membrane-enclosed organelles
c. They have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
d. They lack a plasma membrane
2. Peptidoglycan layer of cell wall is thicker in:
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Parasites
3. All the following statements are true for
lipopolysaccharide except:
a. It consists of three components: Lipid A, core
polysaccharide and O polysaccharide.
b. Lipid A functions as an endotoxin.
c. It is an integral part of the cell wall of the gram-positive bacteria.
d. Polysaccharide represents a major surface
antigen of the bacterial cell.
4. A tuft of flagella present at one or both the ends of
bacterial cell is known as:
a. Monotrichous
b. Amphitrichous
c. Lophotrichous
d. Peritrichous
5. Which of the following is not true about fimbriae?
a. They originate in the cytoplasmic membrane
b. They are composed of protein
c. They may be used for attachment
d. They may be used for motility
6. Which of the following bacteria is cell-wall
deficient?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus aureus
c. Mycoplasma
d. Treponema pallidum
7. All of the following are spore-forming bacteria
except:
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Bacillus anthraces
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Vibrio cholera
ANSWERS (MCQs)
Ans: 1. d; 2. a; 3. c; 4. c; 5. d; 6. c; 7.d

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Generation time for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

is:
a. 20 seconds
b. 20 minutes
c. 20 hours
d. 20 days
2. Bacteria which can grow at temperatures between
20°C and 40°C are known as:
a. Mesophiles
b. Psychrophiles
c. Thermophiles
d. None of the above
3. The bacteria which require much higher levels of
carbon dioxide for their growth is known as:
a. Microaerophilic bacteria
b. Capnophilic bacteria
c. Aerobic bacteria
d. Phototrophs
4. Which of the following acidophilic bacteria can
grow in acidic conditions?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Lactobacilli
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Vibrio cholera
5. The enzyme catalase is present in:
a. Aerobic bacteria
b. Obligate anaerobic bacteria
c. Aerobic and obligate anaerobic bacteria
d. None of the above
Answers (MCQs)
1. c; 2. a; 3. b; 4. b; 5. a
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The holder method of pasteurization is not

effective against
a. Escherichia coli
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Salmonella typhi
2. The bacterial spore that is most frequently used as
indicator of sterilization by hot-air oven is:
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Bacillus pumilis
d. Bacillus globigii
3. Which of the following does not kill endospores?
a. Autoclaving
b. Hot air sterilization
c. Pasteurization
d. None of the above
4. Sterilization at 100°C for 20 minutes on three
successive days is known as:
a. Tyndallization b. Inspissation
c. Pasteurization d. Vaccine bath
5. Which bacterial spores are used as sterilization
control in autoclave?
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c. Clostridium perfingens
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
6. Autoclave is not useful for sterilization of:
a. Disposable plastic Petri dishes
b. Surgical dressings
c. Metallic instruments
d. Liquid paraffin
7. Which of following is most effective for sterilizing
mattresses and Petri dishes:
a. Chlorine b. Autoclaving
c. Ethylene oxide d. Glutaraldehyde
8. Which of the these disinfectants does not act by
disrupting the plasma membrane?
a. Phenolics b. Ethylene oxide
c. Halogens d. Phenol
9. Ionizing radiation can be used for sterilization of:
a. Plastic syringes b. Gloves
c. Catheters d. All of the above
10. The most widely used disinfectant for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected material is:
a. Phenol b. Lysol
c. Hypochlorite solution d. Silver nitrate
11. Glutaraldehyde is used as a cold sterilant for
sterilization of:
a. Cystoscopes b. Endoscopes
c. Bronchosope d. All of the above
12. All the following statements are true for ethylene
oxide except:
a. It diffuses through many types of porous
materials
b. It is used for sterilizing heart-lung machines,
respirators, books and clothing
c. It is used for sterilizing glass, metal and paper
surfaces, clothing, plastics, some foods
d. It is suitable for fumigating rooms
13. Which test is used to simulate the natural conditions
under which the disinfectants are used in the
hospitals?
a. Kelsey-Sykes capacity test
b. Rideal-Walker test
c. In-use test
d. Chick-Martin test
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. b; 2. a; 3. c; 4. a; 5. b; 6. d; 7. c; 8. c; 9. d; 10. c; 11. d;
12. d; 13. a

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The important source of nutrition for bacteria to

grow is:
a. Agar b. Electrolytes
c. Inorganic salts d. Peptone
2. All the following are examples of enriched media
except:
a. Blood agar b. Chocolate agar
c. Loeffler’s serum slope d. Bile salt agar
3. All the following are examples of selective media
except:
a. Potassium tellurite medium
b. Deoxycholate citrate agar
c. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
d. Nutrient agar
4. Which enrichment medium is preferred to grow
Vibrio cholerae?
a. Tetrathionate broth b. Selenite F broth
c. Alkaline peptone water d. All of the above
Answers (MCQs)

1.d; 2. d;3. d; 4. c.
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.The most useful method for obtaining discrete

colonies of the bacteria is by:
a. Lawn culture b. Stab culture
c. Pour plate culture d. Streak culture
2. The most useful method for obtaining a uniform
layer of bacterial growth on a solid medium is by:
a. Lawn culture b. Stab culture
c. Pour plate culture d. Streak culture
3. All the following are used for anaerobic culture
except:
a. Robertson’s cooked meat broth
b. Thioglycollate broth
c. Nutrient broth
d. McIntosh and Fildes’ anaerobic jar.
Answers (MCQs)
1. d; 2. a; 3. C

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Catalase test is primarily used to differentiate

Staphylococcus from:
a. Pneumococcus
b. Meningococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. Gonococcus
2. All are oxidase positive bacteria except:
a. Neisseria
b. Escherichia coli
c. Campylobacter

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Phenyl pyruvic acid (PPA)positive bacteria are the
followings except:
a. Proteus spp.
b. Providencia spp.
c. Campylobacter spp.
d. Organelle spp.
4. All of the following bacteria are urease test positive
except:
a. Klebsiella sp.
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Yersinia pestis
5. Which of the following tests detects the production
of acetyl methyl carbinol from pyruvic acid in the
media?
a. Methyl red test
b. VogesProskauer test
c. Urease test
d. Citrate utilization
6. Triple sugar iron (TSI) agar medium contains all
the following carbohydrates except:
a. Glucose
b. Lactose
c. Sucrose
d. Mannitol
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. c; 2. b; 3. c; 4. d; 5. b; 6. d
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.Phylogenetic classification denotes:

.a. Homology of the DNA base sequences of the
microorganisms
b. Evolutionary arrangement of species
c. Equal weight to all features and groups of
bacteria on the basis of similarities of several
characteristics
d. A type of classification which makes an attempt to sub classify species of bacteria
2. Which of the following methods may be used in
bacteriology for epidemiological purposes?
a. Biotyping b. Serotyping
c. Phage typing d. All of the above
3. Molecular techniques employed for interspecies
typing of bacteria include:
a. Polymerase chain reaction
b. Southern blotting
c. Nucleotide sequence analysis
d. All of the above.
Answers (MCQs
1. b; 2. d; 3. d.
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The following are non-sense codons except:

a. UAA b. UAG
c. UGA d. AGG
2. The process of transfer of genetic information from
DNA to RNA is known as:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Transcription
d. Translation
3. The process of transfer of DNA from the donor
bacterium to the recipient bacterium during the
mating of two bacterial cells is known as
a. Transformation
b. Transposition
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation
4. Which of the following properties may be plasmid-mediated?
a. Antibiotic resistance
b. Enterotoxin production
c. Bacitracin production
d. All of the above
5. The mutation in which a purine is replaced by
pyrimidine and vice-versa in base pairing, is named:
a. Transversion
b. Transition
c. Induced mutation
d. None of the above
6. The mutation in which one purine is replaced
by other purine and a pyrimidine is replaced by
another pyrimidine, is named as:
a. Transversion
b. Transition
c. Induced mutation
d. None of the above
7. Frame-shift mutation occurs:
a. When one or more base pairs are added or
deleted in the DNA
b. When base substitution in DNA produces a
terminal codon
c. When one base in the nucleotide sequence is
inserted in place of another
d. Transposons are integrated into the DNA
8. The DNA is transmitted from one bacterium to
another by all the methods except:
a. Transformation
b. Transposition
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation
9. The process of transfer of DNA from the donor
bacterium to the recipient bacterium during the
mating of two bacterial cells is known as:
a. Transformation b. Transposition
c. Transduction d. Conjugation
10. The transfer of genetic information through the
agency of free (naked) DNA is called:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
d. Lysogenic conversion
11. The transfer of a portion of DNA from one bacterium
to another by a bacteriophage is known as:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
d. Lysogenic conversion
12. Which of the following factors is responsible for
transferable drug resistance in bacteria?
a. Resistance transfer factor
b. F factor
c. Colicogenic factor
d. All of the above
13. Resistance transfer factor can be transferred from
one bacterium to another by:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
d. None of the above
14. Which of the following statement is true for
mutational drug resistance?
a. Resistance to one drug at a time
b. Resistance to multiple drugs at one time
c. High degree resistance
d. Resistance is transferable to other organisms
15. Western blotting is done for:
a. Detecting DNA sequesing
b. Analysis of RNA
c. Identification of proteins
d. All of the above
Answers (MCQs)
1. d; 2. c; 3. d; 4. d; 5. a; 6. b; 7. a; 8. b; 9. d; 10. a; 11. b; 12.
a; 13. c; 14. a; 15. c.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The organisms can be transmitted vertically by all

the following ways except:
a. Sexual contact
b. Through the placenta
c. Within the birth canal
d. Through breast milk
2. Which of the following may cause teratogenic
infections?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Rubella virus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. All of the above
3. Which of the following statement is not true for
exotoxins?
a. They are proteins
b. They are highly antigenic
c. They are heat labile
d. They are obtained by cell lysis
4. Which of the statement is not true for endotoxins:
a. These are lipopolysacaride components of
outer membrane of gram negative bacteria
b. These are heat stable
c. They cannot be toxoided
d. They are highly antigenic
5. The disease that spreads rapidly, involving many
persons in a particular area at the same time is
known as:
a. Sporadic
b. Endemic
c. Epidemic
d. Pandemic
Answers (MCQs)
1. a; 2. d; 3. d; 4. d; 5. c.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.Staphylococcus aureus shows the following

characters except
a. It produces golden brown pigment on the blood
agar
b. It ferments mannitol
c. It is novobiocin-sensitive
d. It has protein A
2. Protein A is a cell wall component of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
3. The enzyme coagulase shows all the following
features except
a. It has eight serotypes
b. It is extracellular
c. It is detected by tube coagulase test
d. Undiluted serum is used in the test
4. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by the
following toxin of Staphylococcus aureus
a. Enterotoxins
b. Toxin shock syndrome
c. Exfoliative toxin
d. Leukocidin
5. Which of the of the following Staphylococcus is
novobiocin resistant?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staph. epidermis
c. Staph. saprophyticus
d. None of the above
6. The most common cause of cystitis in a young
healthy sexually active women is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d. Staphylococcus saccharolyticus
7. All are coagulase-negative staphylococci except:
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
Answers (MCQs)
1. a; 2. a; 3. d; 4. c; 5. c; 6. c; 7. D
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which type of hemolysis is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar?

a. Alpha hemolysis b. Beta hemolysis
c. Gamma hemolysis d. None of the above
2. Group-specific antigen extraction of Streptococcus
pyogenes by treating with hydrochloric acid
a method is known as
a. Lancefield’s method b. Fuller’s method
c. Maxted’s method d. Randall’s method
3. Erythrogenic toxin is responsible for:
a. Pyoderma
b. Schultz-Charlton reaction
c. Necrotising facititis
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following is selective medium for
Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. Blood agar
b. Crystal violet blood agar
c. Potassium tellurite blood agar
d. Chocolate agar
5. Susceptibility to bacitracin can be used to identify:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus viridanstr
c. Streptococcus mitis
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
Answers (MCQs)
1. b; 2. a; 3. b; 4. b; 5; a
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following bacteria produce alpha

hemolysis on blood agar?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. All of the above
2. Draughtsman appearance colony is a characteristic
feature of:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Strep. pneumoniae
c. Enterococcus jacecalis
d. Viridans streptococci
3. Streptococcus pneumonia causes following
infections except:
a. Otitis media
b. Urinary tract infections
c. Meningitis
d. Sinusitis
4. Streptococcus pneumonia shows following
characteristics except:
a. Optochin sensitivity test positive
b. Bile solubility test positive
c. Inulin fermentation test positive
d. Bacitracin test positive
5. Pneumococcal 23-valent polysaccharide is given
to following persons except:
a. Child younger than 2 years
b. Persons older than 65 years
c. Persons with HIV infections
d. Persons with diabetes mellitus
Answers (MCQs)
1. c; 2. b; 3. b; 4. d; 5. B

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.All of the following bacteria are oxidase positive

except:
a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Vibrio cholera
d. Enterobacter
2. The most common infective cause of vaginal
discharge in a sexually promiscuous female is:
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Candida albicans
3. The specimen of choice for isolation of gonococci
from women with gonorrhea is:
a. Vaginal swab b. Cervical swab
c. Urethral swab d. Urine
4. Neisseria meningitidis shows all the following
characteristics except:
a. Oxidase test positive
b. Catalase test positive
c. Ferments maltose with a production of acid
d. Ferments sucrose with a production of acid
5. Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome is caused by:
a. Naieisseria meningitidis
b. Leptospira
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Neisseria gonorrhea
6. Causative agent of nongonococcal urethritis is
caused by:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Urea plasma urealytium
c. Mycoplasma hominis
d. All of the above
7. Following statements are true for quadrivalent
meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine (MPSV4)
except:
a. The vaccine is given intramuscularly
b. Prevents disease caused by A, C, Y, and W135
serogroups of meningococci
c. Indicated for at-risk population during outbreak of meningococcal infection
d. Produce good antibody response in children
below 2 years of age
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. d; 2. c; 3. a; 4. d; 5. a; 6. d; 7. D
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.Corynebacterium diphtheria is classified into three

distinct biotypes (mitis, intermedius, and gravis)
based on the morphologies of the colonies on:
a. Tellurite blood agar
b. Loeffler’s serum slope
c. Blood agar
d. All the above media
2. Diphtheria toxin shows following features except:
a. It is a protein with a molecular weight of 58,300
Da
b. It consists of two functionally distinct polypeptide chain fragments, A and B protein
c. It inhibits synthesis of fatty acids
d. It is a very potent toxin
3. Following statements are true for diphtheria
antitoxin except:
a. It is the mainstay of therapy in diphtheria
b. It is of immense value in cutaneous diphtheria
c. It is of no value in treatment of asymptomatic
carriers
d. It is ineffective after toxin has entered into the cell
4. Diphtheria toxin has a special affinity for which of
the following tissue/s?
a. Heart muscles b. Nerve endings
c. Adrenal glands d. All of the above
5. Which of the following sites is most commonly
affected by diphtheria bacilli?
a. Upper respiratory tract b. Skin
c. Cornea d. Conjunctiva
6. Diphtheroids show following features except:
a. They possess few or no metachromatic granules
b. They are usually arranged in parallel rows
c. Most of them do not produce toxins
d. They do not ferment sucrose
7. A positive Schick test implies that the person is:
a. Immune and nonhypersensitive.
b. Susceptible and nonhypersensitive
c. Immune and hypersensitive
d. Non-immune and hypersensitive
8. Which of the following bacteria can cause infection
in immunocompetent patients?
a. Corynebacterium ulcerans
b. Corynebacterium haemolyticum
c. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
d. All of the above
Answers (MCQs)
1. a; 2. c; 3. b; 4. d; 5. a; 6. d; 7. b; 8. D
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following types of Clostridium

perfringens produces alpha toxin most abundantly?
a. Type A b. Type B
c. Type C d. Type D
2. Nagler’s reaction is useful for the identification of:
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringens.
c. Clostridium botulinum.
d. Clostridium difficile.
3. All the following species cause gas gangrene except:
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium novyi
c. Clostridium sordellii
d. Clostridium histolyticum
4. Food poisoning is caused by Clostridium perfringens:
a. Type A b. Type B
c. Type C d. Type D
5. Stormy clot reaction is useful in identification of:
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium difficile
6. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed
in:
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium histolyticum.
7. The most potent naturally occurring toxin known to human kind is:
a. Botulinum toxin b. Tetanus toxin
c. Cholera toxin d. Diphtheria toxin
8. Antibiotics-associated diarrhea is caused by:
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium difficile
9. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to:
a. Preformed toxin
b. Invasion of bacteria in the intestine
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
10. Floppy child syndrome is associated with:
a. Clostridium botulinum infection
b. Clostridium tetani infection
c. Clostridium perfringens infection
d All of the above
11. Which of the following bacteria is responsible for
pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
a. Clostridium perfringens b. C. tetani
c. C. botulinum d. C. difficile
12. Antitoxic therapy is useful in:
a. Gas gangrene b. Diphtheria.
c. Both of the above d. None of the
above
Answers (MCQs)
1. a; 2. b; 3. d; 4. a; 5. a; 6. b; 7. a; 8. d; 9. a; 10. a; 11. d; 12. c

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.The following is an example of gram-negative
anaerobic cocci
a. Veillonella
b. Peptococcus
c. Peptostreptococcus
d. Bacteroides
2. Lactobacilli constitute the normal flora of:
a. Adult vagina
b. Prepubertal vagina
c. Post-menopausal vagina
d. None of the above
3. All the following anaerobic bacteria cause head
and neckinfections except.
a. Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Porphyromonas asaccharolytica
4. Which of the following bacterial colonies fluoresce
brick-red in UV light?
a. Bacteroides fragilis
b. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
c. Bacteroides gingiva/is
d. Bacteroides levii.
Answers (MCQs)
1. (a); 2. (a); 3. (a); 4. (b)

MULTIPLE CHOICE
.Eugonic growth on Lowenstein-Jensen medium is
produced by:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. M. bovis
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
2. LJ medium consists of the following ingredients
except:
a. Egg yolk b. Agar
c. Mineral salts d. Malachite green
3. Nitrate reduction test is positive in:
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. M. jortuitum
c. M. chelonei
d. All of the above
4. All the following statements are true regarding
Mycobacterium tuberculosis except:
a. They are straight or slightly curved acid-fast bacilli
b. They produce luxuriant eugonic growth after
4–6 weeks
c. They are weakly Gram-positive
d. They are niacin test positive
5. A positive Mantoux test is indicated by an area of
induration of:
a. 10 mm or more in diameter
b. 5–9 mm in diameter
c. 3–4 mm in diameter
d. None of the above
6. Mantoux test shows false negative reaction in all
the following patients except:
a. Military tuberculosis b. Malignancies
c. Leprosy d. Malnutrition
7. Culture of tubercle bacilli maybe positive if
number of bacteria in the specimen is:
a. As few as 1–4 per mL
b. As few as 5–9 per mL
c. As few as 10–100 per mL
d. as few as 150–200 per mL
8. Mycobacterium. tuberculosis is pathogenic for:
a Rabbits
b. Guinea pigs
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
9. Multidrug resistance tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is
due to M. tuberculosis strain as one that is:
a. Resistant to rifampicin only
b. Resistant to isoniazid only
c. Resistant to at least rifampicin and isoniazid
d. None of the above
10. Extensively drug resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is
due to M. tuberculosis strains which are resistant to:
a. Any fluoroquinolone
b. Isoniazid and rifampicin
c. At least one of three injectable second line
drugs (capreomycin, kanamycin and amikacin)
d. All of the above
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. a; 2. b; 3. d; 4. d; 5. a; 6. c; 7. c; 8. b; 9. c; 10. D
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.Which of the following properties is/are shown

by the organisms belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
a. They are catalase positive
b. They are oxidase negative
c. They ferment glucose
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following bacteria is/are known as
coliform bacilli?
a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella
c. Enterobacter d. All of the above
3. Vero cytotoxin of Escherichia coli is similar to:
a. Shiga toxin
b. Cholera toxin
c. Heat-labile enterotoxin of Escherichia coli
d. Heat-stable enterotoxin of Escherichia coli
4. Traveler’s diarrhea is caused by
a. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli:
b. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
c. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
d. Verotoxigenic Escherichia coli
5. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by:
a. Enteropathogenic E. coli
b. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
c. Enteroinvasive E. coli
d. Vero cytotoxin E. coli:
6. Sereny test is used for detection of
a. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
b. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
c. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
d. Verotoxigenic Escherichia coli
7. Prodigiosin (red pigment) is produced by members
of genus:
a. Serratia b. Enterobacter
c. Hafnia d. Citrobacter
8. Which of the following species/subspecies of
Klebsiella produces indole?
a. K. pneumoniae subspecies aerogenes
b. K. oxytoca
c. K. pneumoniae subspecies pneumoniae
d. K. pneumoniae subspecies rhinoscleromatis
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. d; 2. d; 3. a; 4. b; 5. d; 6. c; 7. a; 8. B
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.The bacterium that shows swarming on blood agar
is:
a. Proteus stuartii
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Providencia rettgeri
d. Morganella morganii
2. Phenylalanine deaminase test is positive in:
a. Proteus b. Morganella
c. Providencia d. All of the above
3. Diene’s phenomenon is used to detect identity of
strains of:
a. Klebsiella b. Salmonella
c. Shigella d. Proteus
4. Swarming of Proteus strains on solid media can be
inhibited by:
a. Increasing the concentration of agar in the medium
b. Incorporation of chloral hydrate in the medium
c. Incorporation of sodium azide in the medium
d. All of the above methods
5. Which of the following Proteus strains is/are used
in Weil-Felix reaction?
a. Proteus vulgaris OX2
b. Proteus vulgaris OX19
c. Proteus mirabilis OXK
d. All of the above
AnSwerS (MCQs)
1. b; 2. d; 3. d; 4. d; 5. D
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. All the following media are employed for isolation

of Shigella except:
a. Hektoen enteric agar
b. Salmonella-Shigella agar
c. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt agar
d. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar
2. Enrichment medium of choice for isolation of
Shigella is:
a. Alkaline peptone water
b. Selenite F broth
c. Taurocholate peptone enrichment medium
d. Tetrathionate broth
3. All Shigella species ferment mannitol except:
a. Shigella dysenteriae b. Shigella boydii
c. Shigella flexneri d. Shigella sonnei
4. Which of the following bacteria is more resistant to
adverse environmental conditions?
a. S. dysenteriae b. S. flexneri
c. S. boydii d. S. sonnei
5. Verocytoxin is produced by:
a. Shigella dysenteriae serotype 1
b. Shigella dysenteriae serotype 2
c. Shigella dysenteriae serotype 8
d. Shigella dysenteriae serotype 10
6. Shigella species most widely found in India is:
a. Shigella dysenteriae b. Shigella boydii
c. Shigella flexneri d. Shigella sonnei
7. All of the following complications can be associated
with S. dysenteriae type I infection except:
a. Arthritis
b. Toxic neuritis
c. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
d. Intestinal perforation
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. c; 2. b; 3. a; 4. d; 5. a; 6. c; 7. D

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. All the following enrichment media are used for

isolation of Salmonella except:
a. Alkaline peptone water
b. Selenite F broth
c. Brilliant green tetrathionate broth
d. Tetrathionate broth
2. The selective medium used for isolation of
Salmonella is:
a. Wilson and Blair’s brilliantgreen bismuth sulfite
agar
b. CaryBlair medium
c. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt agar
d. Xylose, lysine deoxycholate agar
3. All the following Salmonella serotypes are motile
except
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. Salmonella Typhimurium
c. Salmonella Choleraesuis
d. Salmonella Gallinarum
4. Hydrogen sulfide is not produced by the following
serotypes of Salmonella:
a. S. Paratyphi A
b. S. Choleraesuis
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
5. Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella is/
are anerogenic?
a. S. Typhi b. S. Paratyphi A
c. S. Enteritidis d. All of the above
6. Citrate is not used by the following Salmonella:
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. Salmonella Paratyphi A
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following Salmonella is/are primarily
human pathogens?
a. S. Typhi b. S. Paratyphi A
c. S. Paratyphi B d. All of the above
8. The most important specimen for isolation of
Salmonella Typhi culture in first week of enteric
fever?
a. Blood b. Urine
c. Feces d. CSF
9. Most important complications of enteric fever is/
are:
a. Intestinal perforation b. Hemorrhage
c. Circulatory collapse d. All of the above
10. Most important specimen for detection of carriers
in enteric fever is:
a. Feces b. Urine
c. Blood d. Sputum
11. All the following are the examples of killed vaccines
used against typhoid fever except:
a. TAB vaccine
b. Vi capsular polysaccharide antigen vaccine
c. Acetoneinactivated parenteral vaccine
d. Ty21a vaccine
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. a; 2. a; 3. d; 4. c; 5. a; 6. c; 7. d; 8. a; 9. d; 10. a; 11. D
 Medical Mycology

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. All the following fungi are mold except:
a. Aspergillus fumigates
b. Rhizopus
c. Absidia
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. All the following are examples of dimorphic fungi
except:
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Sporothrix schenkii
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
3. Which of the following methods can be used for
laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections?
a. Direct microscopy of specimens
b. Culture
c. Histology
d. All the above
4. Which of the following culture media can be used
for growing fungi?
a. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
b. Brain heart infusion agar
c. Both the above
d. None of the above
Answers (MCQs)
1. d; 2. d; 3. d; 4. c
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Black piedra is a superficial infection of the hair

caused by:
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Cladosporium werneckiib
c. Trichosporon beigelli
d. Piedraia hortae
2. All the following are anthropophilic dermatophytes
except:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Microsporum audouinii
3. Urease test is positive by:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
4. The major causative agent of mycetoma in India is:
a. Actinomadura madurae
b. Streptomyces somaliensis
c. Nocardia brasiliensis
d. Actinomyces pelletieri
5. The sclerotic bodies are useful for diagnosis of:
a. Sporotrichosis b. Mycetoma
c. Chromoblastomycosis d. Rhinosporidiosis
6. Which of the following fungi has not been cultured:
a. Sporothrix b. Rhinosporidium
c. Blastomyces d. Acremonium
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. d; 2 a; 3. c; 4. a; 5. c; 6. B

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. All the following statements are true for spherule

of Coccidioides immitis except:
a. It is infective stage of the fungus
b. It reproduces byendosporulation
c. It contains endospores
d. It is not found in culture
2. Which of the following fungi infects reticuloendothelial system?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. All the above
3. The diagnostic form of Histoplasma capsulatum is:
a. Arthrospore b. Spherule
c. Macroconidia d. Microconidia
Answer (MCQs)
1. a; 2. b; 3. c
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
b. It assimilates
a. It assimilates inositol
lactose
1. Which of the following species of Candida is most
frequently responsible for human infections?
a. Candida albicans b. C. krusei
c. C. glabrata d. C. stellatoidea
2. Candida albicans can be differentiated from other
species of candida by:
a. Germ tube test
b. Chlamydospore formation on corn meal agar
c. Carbohydrate fermentation and assimilation
tests
d. All the above
3. Which of the following fungi is a capsulated?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Candida albicans
d. None of the above
4. Cryptococcus neoformans shows all the following
features except that:

a. It assimilates inositol c. it assimilates lactose

c. it produces urease d. it produces melanin

5. Which animal is used for pathogenicity test in

Cryptococcus neoformans:
a. Rabbit b. Mice

C Guinea pig d. None of the above

6. Differentiation of pathogenic Cryptococcus neoformans from nonpathogenic

Cryptococci by:
a. Growth at 37°C
b. Urea hydrolysis
c. Production of brown colonies on niger seed
agar
d. All the above
7. The diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary
aspergillosis is established by the following tests
except:
a. Demonstration of Aspergillus hyphae in the
sputum
b. Positive skin test for Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Highly increased level of serum IgE
d. Positive serology for Aspergillus precipitation or
Aspergillus specific IgG
8. Which of the following species of Aspergillus
is most often oportunistic pathogen in human
disease?
a. Aspergillus fumigates b. A. niger

c. A. flavus d. None of the above

9. Which of the following fungi is/are associated with

zygomycosis:
a. Mucor b. Rhizopus
c. Absidia d. All the above
10. The most useful test for diagnosis of zygomycosis is:
a. Serology b. Fungal culture
c. Histopathology d. Blood cultures
11. All the following statements are true for Penicillium
marneffei except:
a. It is a mold
b. It is an important opportunistic pathogen in
AIDS patients
c. It causes tuberculosis-like disease in patients
with AIDS
d. Few case reports have also been documented
from India
12. The method that is useful to demonstrate a foamyappearing eosinophilic material
surrounding
Pneumocystis for diagnosis of PCP is:
a. Methenamine silver stain
b. Gram-Weigert stain
c. Cresyl violet stain
d. Papanicolaou smear
13. Which of the following fungi can cause otomycosis?
a. Aspergillus niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. Penicillium species
d. All the above
14. Keratomycosis may be caused by:
a. A. fumigatus
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Fusarium
d. All the above
ANSWERS (MCQs)
1. a; 2. d; 3. b; 4. c; 5. b; 6. d; 7. a; 8. a; 9. d; 10. c; 11. a;
12. d; 13. d; 14. d
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which mycotoxin is produced by Aspergillus flavus:

a. Aflatoxin
b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Penicillic acid
d. Muscarine
2. Ergot alkaloids are toxins produced by:
a. Fusarium nivale
b. Aspergillus flavus
c. Claviceps purpurea
d. Penicillium rubrum
AnswErs (MCQs)
1. a; 2. C
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.Bacteria that are most commonly transmitted by

direct hand contact, causing nosocomial infection
are
a. Escherichia coli
b. Enterococcus species
c. C. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Clostridium perfringens
2. Hospital associated respiratory infections are
caused by which of the following bacteria?
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Klebsiella
c. Enterobacter d. All of the above
3. The pathogen that is transmitted by air in a hospital
is
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Legionella species
c. Shigella species
d. Human immunodeficiency virus
4. The control of hospital acquired infection is the
main responsibility of:
a. Medical superintendent of hospital
b. Head of department of medicine
c. Head of department of microbiology
d. Hospital infection control committee
AnSwERS (MCQs)
1. c; 2. d; 3. b; 4. D