MICROBIOLOGY

INDEX

MICROBIOLOGY

TOPIC NAME
MICROORGANISM, BACTERIOLOGY , MICROBIAL CULTURE & CULTURE
1. MEDIA, STAINING

2. VIROLOGY

3. STERILIZATION

4. HYPERSENSITIVITY

5. MYCOLOGY

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MICROBIOLOGY
9. Who discovered vibrio cholera?
MICROORGANISM (a) Robert Koch
(b) Ronald Ross
1. Mycology is the study of (c) A Necholaier
(a) Fungi (b) Virus (d) Alexander Fleming
(c) Bacteria (d) Nucleic acid 10. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was
5. Organism which are responsible to identified by
produce disease, are known as: (a) Van Helmholtz
(a) Pathogen (b) Robert Koch
(b) Glycogen (c) Louis Pasteur
(c) Lactogenic
(d) Van Lueowenhock
(d) Nitrogen
11. Robert Koch discovered the etiologic
3. Most microbial structures and enzymes in
agent of
human beings are composed of
(a) Typhoid
(a) Lipids
(b) Small pox
(b) Proteins
(c) Tuberculosis
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Polio
(d) Minerals
12. Who found the link between cholera and
4. The total genetic material of an organism
contaminated water?
is known as
(a) Louis Pasteur
(a) Gene
(b) Ronald Ross
(b) Genetic
(c) Edward Jenner
(c) Genotype
(d) John Snow
(d) Genome
13. Life cycle of malaria parasite was first
5. Father of genetics is:
described by:
(a) Mendel
(a) Ronald Ross
(b) Darwin
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Muller
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Bateson
(d) Banting and Best
6. The father of Microbiology is:
14. One of the following scientist
(a) Louis Pasteur
demonstrated transmission of malarial
(b) Lister
parasites by bite of Anopheles mosquito
(c) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
is:
(d) Robert Koch
(a) E. von Behring
7. Germ cell theory was proposed by
(b) Ziehl-Neelsen
(a) Robert Koch
(c) Sir, Ronald Ross
(b) Ronald Ross
(d) Elberth
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Walter Reed
ANSWER KEY
8. Which of the following pioneers of
1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a]
Microbiology is credited with the
discovery of microorganisms using high 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [b]
quality magnifying lenses (early 11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [c]
microscopes)? ❑❑❑
(a) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Robert Koch
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MICROBIOLOGY
9. All of the following occur in the stationary
BACTERIOLOGY phase of bacterial growth curve except
1. Which among following bacteria is consider (a) Cells show uniform and regular staining
as a link between bacteria and virus? (b) Cells show presence of intra-cellular storage
(a) Mycoplasma granules
(b) Spirochetes (c) Spores are seen
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Exotoxins are formed
(d) Vibrio’s
10. Genera that needs pyridoxal for growth is.
2. Which of the following organism lacks the
(a) Pedi coccus
cell wall?
(b) Aero coccus
(a) Staphylococci
(c) Granulicatella
(b) Mycoplasma
(d) Enterococcus
(c) Spirochetes
11. A rapid grower among the following is:
(d) Actinomycetes
(a) Mycobacterium abscesses
3. The following factors influence microbial
(b) Mycobacterium avium
growth except –
(c) Mycobacterium gordonae
(a) Temperature
(d) Mycobacterium bovis
(b) Moisture
12. A cluster of polar flagella is called
(c) Darkness
(a) Lophotrichous
(d) Disinfection
(b) Amphitrichous
4. Which of the following is needed by all the
(c) Monotrichous
pathogens to multiply?
(d) Peritrichous
(a) Moisture
13. Which among the following is a filamentous
(b) Light
bacteria?
(c) A Host
(a) Mycoplasma
(d) Oxygen
(b) Spirochetes
5. The optimum temperature for the growth of
(c) Actinomycetes
most pathogenic bacteria is
(d) Vibrio’s
(a) 25° C
14. The organ of adhesion is:
(b) 30°C
(a) nucleus
(c) 37°C
(b) Fimbriae
(d) 42° C
(c) Mitochondria
6. Thermophilic bacteria grow at following
(d) Flagella
minimum temperature:
15. Which of the following structures contains
(a) 20°C (b) 35°C
genes for enzymes and antibiotic
(c) 55°C (d) 85° C
resistance?
7. The correct order of the phases in the
(a) Plasmid
bacterial growth curve is:
(b) Pilus
(a) Lag → exponential decline → stationary
(c) Capsule
(b) Lag-exponential/logstationary → decline
(d) Plasma Membrane
(c) Lag → decline → exponential stationary
16. The most common method of reproduction
(d) Lag → stationary → exponential → decline
of bacteria is
8. Which phase is maximum multiplication
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding
resulting in increased population of bacteria
(c) Sexual (d) Spore formation
with reduced generation time?
17. Image obtained in a compound microscope
(a) Lag phase
is which of the following?
(b) Decline phase
(a) Real (b) Real inverted
(c) Log phase
(c) Virtual (d) Virtual inverted
(d) Stationary phase

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MICROBIOLOGY
18. The principle structural component of cell 26. Which of the following microorganisms
wall in bacteria is stain well?
(a) Simple protein (a) Escherichia coli
(b) Legionella pneumophila
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Treponema
(c) Glycoprotein
(d) Chlamydia
(d) Complex polysaccharide 27. Which of the following is not a gram-
19. Rod-shaped bacteria are called: negative bug?
(a) Cocci (b) Clusters (a) Clostridium perfringens
(c) Spirochetes (d) Bacillus (b) Vibrio cholerae
20. A client is diagnosed with MRSA infection of (c) Bordetella pertussis
surgical wound, which type of isolation is (d) Escherichia coli
most appropriate for the client? 28. One of the following bacteria have
(a) Contact isolation capability to form spores is:
(b) Standard precautions (a) Diplococci (b) Neisseria
(c) Reverse isolation (c) Vibrio (d) Clostridium
(d) Respiratory isolation 29. Which among the following is a Gram
21. The term MRSA in bacteriology stands for: positive organism?
(a) Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (a) Clostridium Botulinum
(b) Methicillin Reactive Staphylococcus aureus (b) Klebsiella Pneumoniae
(c) Multidrug Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(d)Methicillin resistant Streptococcus (d) Acinetobacter baumannii
anginosus 30. Which of the following pathogens causes
22. The drug of choice for methicillin resistant gas gangrene?
staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is: (a) Mycoplasma
(a) Clindamycin (b) Clostridium perfringens
(b) Erythromycin (c) Enterovirus
(c) Gentamycin (d) Vibrio cholerae
(d) Vancomycin 31. Which is an example of gram negative
23. All green plants and bacteria which can organisms?
synthesize their food by photosynthesis (a) Staphylococcus aureus
come under the category of (b) Listeria monocytogenes
(a) Decomposers (c) Vibrio cholerae
(b) Intakers (d) Streptococcus pneumonia
(c) Producers 32. In following which is a gram positive bacilli
(d) Food givers (a) Corynebacterium (b) Proteus
24. When cold temperature prohibits the (c) Pseudomonas (d) E. coli
33. Greenish color of pus from ulcer is due to
growth and reproduction of bacteria is
infection by
known as: (a) Proteus
(a) Bacteriostatic (b) Bactericidal (b) Clostridium
(c) Aerobic (d) Anaerobic (c) Staphylococcus
25. Which of the following is non-pathogenic (d) Pseudomonas
organism? 34. Non digestible food ingredients that
(a) Mycobacterium bovis stimulate the growth and activity of certain
(b) Mycobacterium avium bacteria in the colon are called:
(c) Mycobacterium sinegmatis (a) Insoluble fiber (b) Probiotics
(d) Mycobacterium intracellular (c) Prebiotic (d) Cellulose

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MICROBIOLOGY
35. Products that contain live microorganisms 43. One of the following organisms causes food
in sufficient numbers to alter intestinal intoxication in milk, meat and cheese:
microflora and promote intestinal microbial (a) Streptococcus
balance are known as: (b) Salmonella
(a) Antibiotics (c) Clostridium Botulinum
(b) Fruits and vegetables (d) Staphylococcus
(c) Probiotic FES 44. Enterotoxin food poisoning mainly caused
(d) Digestive enzymes by
36. Which of the following is not true (a) Salmonella (b) Staphylococcus
concerning Staphylococcus aureus? (c) Streptococci (d) Pseudomonas
(a) S. aureus is related to inflammation. 45. Food intoxication due to canned food is
(b) S. aureus can cause pneumonia caused by:
(c) S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial (a) Staphylococcus
endocarditis (b) Clostridium Botulinum
(d) S. aureus does not make coagulase (c) Streptococcus
37. Most commonly used bacterium for genetic (d) Salmonella
engineering is 46. Common source of infection for botulism
(a) E. Coli (a) Infected egg
(b) Klebsiella (b) Contact with infectious animal
(c) Proteios (c) Contaminated water
(d) Serratia (d) Bottle packed vegetables
38. Depending upon their oxygen requirement 47. The client presents to the emergency
and metabolism Cholera species are department with acute poisoning suspected
(a) Obligate aerobes to be botulism poisoning after eating at a
(b) Facultative anaerobes fast food restaurant. Which nursing problem
(c) Microaerophilic is the highest priority for their client?
(d) Obligate anaerobes (a) Fluid volume loss
39. All of the following diseases are caused by (b) Risk for respiratory paralysis
anaerobic bacteria except (c) Abdominal pain
(a) Tetanus (d) Anxiety
(b) Gas gangrene 48. Bacillus cereus food poisoning is commonly
(c) Diphtheria associated with the consumption of:
(d) Food poisoning (a) Green beans
40. Klebs Loffler bacillus is name given to which (b) Bottled honey
bacteria (c) Fried rice
(a) Clostridium Tetany (d) Baked potato
(b) Haemophilus influenza 49. Signs of a local infection include
(c) Corynebacterium diphtheria (a) Redness, pain, swelling and decreased
(d) Lactobacillus temperature
41. Which one of the disease is not caused by an (b) Increase and decreased blood pressure
Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) (c) Redness, pain and swelling of the area
(a) Leprosy (d) Increased temperature, pain, redness and
(b) Tuberculosis decreased urine output
(C) Nocardiasis 50. Septicaemia is:
(d) Typhoid (a) Spread of organism in blood stream
42. An acid-fast bacillus which is pathogenic: (b) Invasion and multiplication of bacteria in
(a) Bacillus pertussis blood stream
(b) Coryne bacterium diphtheria (c) Spread of toxic product in blood stream
(c) Mycobacterium leprae (d) Process of pus formation
(d) Salmonella typhi
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MICROBIOLOGY
51. When should prescribed antibiotics be 58. The process of neutrophilic infiltrate in
administered to septicemic patient? tissue and necrosis formation is known as
(a) After admission (a) Septicaemia
(b) After getting blood culture result (b) Bacteraemia
(c) After blood is taken for culture (c) Cellulitis
(d) After morning hygiene (d) Abscess formation
52. Client who has highest risk of bacteraemia 59. Pseudo-hyphae are seen in:
is: (a) Penicillium
(a) Client with peripherally inserted central (b) Mucor
catheter (c) Aspergillus
(b) Client with Central Venous Catheter (d) Candida
(c) Client with Peripheral cut down 60. All are parts of light microscope EXCEPT
(d) Client with Peripherally inserted I/V line (a) Condenser
53. The following statement are TRUE in (b) Eye-piece
reference to endotoxins, EXCEPT (c) Slide with cover slip
(a) They are lipopolysaccharides in nature (d) Objective lens
(b) They are released from the bacterial surface
by natural Lysis ANSWER KEY
(c) They are heat liable proteins 1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [c]
(d) Their toxicity depends in the lipid 6. [c] 7. [b] 8. [c] 9. [b] 10. [c]
component
11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [a]
54. Endotoxins produced by gram negative
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [a]
bacteria are usually:
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [a] 25. [c]
(a) Proteins (b) Fatty acids
26. [a] 27. [a] 28. [d] 29. [a] 30. [b]
(c) Lecithin (d) Lipopolysaccharide
55. Why EDTA is not suitable for calcium
31. [c] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [c] 35. [c]
estimation? 36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [b] 39. [c] 40. [c]
(a) It will destroy calcium 41. [d] 42. [c] 43. [d] 44. [b] 45. [b]
(b) Binds the calcium which is needed for 46. [d] 47. [b] 48. [c] 49. [c] 50. [a]
coagulation 51. [a] 52. [b] 53. [c] 54. [d] 55. [b]
(c) Calcium concentration will increase 56. [b] 57. [c] 58. [d] 59. [d] 60. [c]
(d) All of these ❑❑❑
56. Allergic reactions caused by environmental
allergens is known as
(a) Anaphylactic reactions
(b) Atopic reactions
(c) Cytotoxic reactions
(d) Immune complex reactions
57. Tissue injury followed by acute
inflammation and marked neutrophil
reaction leads to
(a) Resolution (b) Fibrosis
(c) Suppuration (d) Chronic inflammation

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MICROBIOLOGY

MICROBIAL CULTURE & STAINING

CULTURE MEDIA
1. The bacteria that retain the stain in
1. The nurse is obtaining a sample from Gram's Method of staining is a:
wound for culture. The patient asks what (a) Gram negative bacteria.
a culture is. Which of the following is the (b) Spores of bacteria.
best response by the nurse to explain (c) Broad spectrum bacteria.
what a culture is? (d) Gram positive bacteria.
(a) A culture identifies presence of pathogens
2. Which stain used to identify acid fast
(b) It is for measuring antibiotic levels
(c) It identifies antibiotic's effect on pathogen bacilli (AFB)
(d) It determines appropriate medication (a) Leishman's
dosage (b) Ziehl-Neelsen
2. Growth and multiplication of (c) Gram's
microorganism is known as: (d) Right's
(a) Staining (b) Culture
3. Which of the following stain is used to
(c) Isolation (d) Autoclaving
detect Mycobacterium species?
3. What is the name of the medium that
changes colour when bacterium grows in (a) Gram stain
it? (b) Capsule stain
(a) Enriched medium (c) Acid fast stain
(b) Enrichment medium (d) Endospore stain
(c) Selective medium 4. Staining technique used in RNTCP:
(d) Indicator medium
(a) Ziehl Nelson Stain
4. Antibiotic sensitivity is usually done on
(b) Gram stain
(a) Mac Conkey Agar
(b) Blood agar (c) PAS
(c) Mueller- Hinton Agar (d) Ghensa stain
(d) Chocolate agar 5. Which condition is identified by Ziehl
5. The media used to grow fastidious Neelsen technique?
bacteria is (a) Typhoid
(a) Peptone water
(b) Syphilis
(b) Tetrathhionate broth
(c) Chocolate agar (c) Tuberculosis
(d) Meat extract broth (d) Malaria
6. A chemically defined determinant that
change into complete antigen on ANSWER KEY
combining with a carrier molecule is: 1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [c]
(a) Haptens ❑❑❑
(b) Complement
(c) Phagocytes
(d) Epitope
ANSWER KEY
1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [c] 6. [a]
❑❑❑

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MICROBIOLOGY

VIROLOGY STERILIZATION
1. Who discovered virus in biology?
1. Which of the following is a method of
(a) Robert Koch
killing microorganisms with their spores?
(b) Dmitri Ivanovsky
(a) Sterilization (b) Disinfection
(c) Robert Hooke
(c) Flaming (d) Incineration
(d) Edward Jenner
2. The best and safest method of sterilization
2. Viruses require ..............for growth
is:
(a) Plants
(a) Immersion in chemical germicide
(b) Bacteria
(b) Flaming
(c) Living cells
(c) Autoclaving
(d) Animals
(d) Boiling for 30 minutes
3. Growth of influenza virus is identified by
3. Autoclaving a means of sterilization will
(a) Cytopathic effects only
destroy
(b) HeLa cells only
(a) All microorganisms
(c) Both A and B
(b) Pathogenic microorganisms
(d) None of these
(c) Non-pathogenic microorganisms
4. A person shows production of interferon
(d) Just yeasts and molds
in his body. The possibility is that he has
4. Autoclave is a method of sterilization by:
got an infection of:
(a) Filtration
(a) Tetanus
(b) Moist heat
(b) Typhoid
(c) Dry heat
(c) Measles
(d) Radiation
(d) Malaria
5. Lethal effect of moist heat is due to:
5. Cytokines are chemical messengers which
(a) Denaturation of proteins
(a) Kill microorganisms
(b) Cutting off of nutrient supply
(b) Promote inflammation
(c) Toxic to mitochondria
(c) Cause severe pain
(d) Damage to DNA
(d) Produce antibodies
6. Unfolding of a protein is known as:
6. Which one is a DNA VIRUS?
(a) Degradation
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Oxidation
(b) Rhabdovirus
(c) Phosphorylation
(c) Arbovirus
(d) Denaturation
(d) None of above
7. The following are the types of autoclave,
7. Which one of the following is a DNA virus?
EXCEPT:
(a) Hepatitis A
(a) Simple iron jacketed
(b) Hepatitis B
(b) Low pressure low temperature
(c) Hepatitis C
(c) High pressure High vacuum
(d) Hepatitis D
(d) High pressure low vacuum
8. What are the values of temperature and
ANSWER KEY
time employed for autoclave in a routine
1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [b] bacteriological laboratory?
6. [a] 7. [b] (a) 132°C for 8 minutes
❑❑❑ (b) 140°C for 25 minutes
(C) 110°C for 30 minutes
(d) 121°C for 15 minutes

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MICROBIOLOGY
9. What is the optimum temperature in an 19. The solution used to disinfect the bed
autoclave to achieve sterility? linen of HIV positive patient is:
(a) 34°C for 30 minutes (a) Dettol
(b) 60°C for 30 minutes (b) Lysol
(c) 121°C for 30 minutes (c) Savlon
(d) 27°C for 20 minutes (d) Sodium hypochlorite
10. Who among the following devised the 20. HIV contaminated waste products can be
autoclave used for sterilization? de contaminated by the following agents
(a) Charles Chamber land except:
(b) Robert Koch (a) Sodium hypochlorite
(c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (b) Formaldehyde
(d) Edward Jenner (c) Glutaraldehyde
11. Gloves are sterilized by autoclaving for: (d) Methanol
(a) 20 minutes at 250°F to 254° F 21. Which of the following is used to destroy
(b) 30 minutes at 200°F to 204° F HIV contamination caused by body fluids
(c) 20 minutes at 200° F to 204° F of HIV patient?
(d) 30 minutes at 250° F to 254° F (a) Dettol
12. For effective sterilization in the autoclave, (b) Savlon
the temperature should be how much? (c) Sodium hypochlorite
(a) 121 deg F (b) 121 deg C (d) Lysol
(c) 100 deg F (d) 100 deg C 22. To make an instrument free of HIV virus, it
13. Time required for autoclaving at 15 lbs. is kept in
per square inch pressure & 121°C (a) Spirit for 24 hours
temperature is (b) 2% Glutaraldehyde solution
(a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) Savlon solution (1:100 strength)
(c) 20 minutes (d) 25 minutes (d) Hydrogen peroxide
14. Pressure set into autoclave for 23. Recommended disinfectant used for
sterilization is handling spills is:
(a) 15 lb (b) 5 lb (a) 10% sodium hypochlorite
(c) 10 lb (d) 20 lb (b) 1% sodium Hypochlorite
15. Which of following suture materials can (c) 5% Bleach Solution
be autoclaved for sterilization? (d) 2% Bleach Solution
(a) Silk & Linen 24. Cresol, Lysol and chloroxylenol are:
(b) Catgut & Polyglactin (a) Halogens (b) Phenols
(c) PDS & Polyester (c) Acids (d) Aldehydes
(d) Polyglycolic acid & Collagen 25. Which of the following chemical is most
16. Sterilization of surgical equipment is done powerful disinfectant?
by (a) Dettol (b) Phenol
(a) Autoclave (b) Formaldehyde (c) Lysol (d) KMnO4
(c) Seitz filter (d) Radiation 26. Agent which kill pathogenic bacteria is
17. Methods of sterilization for articles used called
into dressing (a) Asepsis (b) Disinfectant
(a) Hot air oven (b) Autoclave (c) Fomite (d) Bacteriostat
(c) Filtration (d) Chemical sterilization 27. Complete destruction of all
18. Which of the following destroys HIV? microorganisms is affected by the use of
(a) Savlon (b) Sodium hypochlorite (a) Antiseptic (b) Sterilant
(c) Lysol (d) Dettol (c) Disinfectant (d) Detergent

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MICROBIOLOGY
28. An agent that kills micro-organism is 38. The best method of sterilization of syringe
(a) Antiseptic (b) Bacteriostatic is:
(c) Dettol (d) Bactericidal (a) Autoclave (b) Boiling
29. ........are agents that prevent (c) Hot air oven (d) Radiation
multiplication/ growth of bacteria. 39. The best method of sterilization of
(a) Disinfectants (b) Bacteriostat dressing powder is
(c) Antiseptics (d) Bactericides (a) Autoclaving
30. Which of these paint is applied on skin as (b) Inspissation’s
antiseptic: (c) Hot air oven
(a) Gentian violet paint (d) Chemical method
(b) Mandl's paint 40. Efficiency of dry heat is tested using:
(c) Glycerine paint (a) Clostridium tetani
(d) Burger paint (b) Corynebacterium diphtheria
31. Eusol is used for: (c) Spores of Mucor
(a) To stop cough (d) Bordetella pertussis
(b) To prevent jaundice 41. Red heat is used for sterilization of:
(c) Dressing (a) Inoculating wires and loops
(d) To dissolve medicines (b) All-glass syringes
32. Which of following is not a chemical (c) Soiled dressings
disinfectant? (d) Glass slides
(a) Glutaraldehyde (b) Lysol 42. Inoculating loop is sterilized by
(c) Isopropyl alcohol (d) Ethylene oxide (a) Hot air oven
33. Endoscopic instruments/catheters are (b) Autoclave
sterilized by: (c) Flaming
(a) Autoclaving (b) Hot air oven (d) Radiation
(c) Boiling (d) 2% Glutaraldehyde 43. The process by which, medium is placed at
34. After doing all procedures the 100°C in flowing steam for 30 minutes each
instruments are sterilized, dry on 3 successive days is:
sterilization is used for: (a) Steam under pressure
(a) Cutting instruments and glass ware (b) Autoclave
(b) Gauze and swabs (C) Tyndallization
(c) Gloves and syringes (d) Inspissation
(d) Bed sheets and linen 44. Natural agent for disinfection is:
35. Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one (a) Burning
hour is used for sterilization of: (b) Boiling
(a) All-glass syringes (c) Sunlight
(b) Oils and jellies (d) Radiation
(c) Swab sticks 45. Best method to sterilize catheters
(d) All of the above (a) Fumigation
36. Glass-wares are sterilized by hot air oven (b) Hot air sterilization
at: (c) By ultra violet rays
(a) 110 C for 1 hour (b) 120 C for 1 hour (d) Boiling
(c) 100 C for 1 hour (d) 160 C for 1 hour 46. The best method that can be used to
37. Sterilization of glass wares is done sterilize a catheter is:
through (a) Autoclave
(a) Dry heat (b) Fumigation (b) Boiling
(c) Moist heat (d) Disinfection (c) Fumigation
(d) Radiation
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MICROBIOLOGY
47. To sterilize disposable syringes, the 56. What is the minimum contact period for
method of sterilization used is: sterilization of AMBU bag with 2%
(a) Ethyloxide Autoclavation Glutaraldehyde?
(b) Infra-red radiation (a) 6 hrs.
(c) Ultraviolet radiation (b) 12 hrs.
(d) Gamma radiation (c) 24 hrs.
48. Disposable syringes are sterilized by (d) 48 hrs.
(a) Boiling 57. Boiling water helps in killing all organisms
(b) Ultraviolet radiation except one
(c) Electromagnetic radiation (a) Fungi
(d) Ethylene oxide (b) Bacteria
49. The gas used for fumigation of operation (c) Protozoa
theatres and ward is (d) Spores
(a) CO2 58. A condition of being free from pathogenic
(b) O2 organisms or infection:
(c) Formaldehyde (a) Asepsis
(d) Nitrogen (b) Antisepsis
50. Which substance is used in Fumigation? (c) Apathogenesis
(a) Potassium Permanganate (d) Disinfection
(b) Hydrogen Peroxide 59. Which of the following is a commonly used
(c) Bleaching Powder ' antiseptic?
(d) Povidone iodine (a) Savlon
51. Fumigation is sterilization by means of: (b) Cidex
(a) UV rays (b) Steam (c) Sodium chloride
(c) Dry heat (d) Gases (d) Phenol
52. Fumigation with formalin vapor is ANSWER KEY
commonly used to sterilize and disinfect 1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [a]
(a) Operation room 6. [d] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [c] 10. [a]
(b) Scrubbing room
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [a] 15. [a]
(c) Nursing room
16. [a] 17. [b] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [d]
(d) Sterilization room
53. Which method is not use in sterilization of 21. [c] 22. [b] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [b]
syringes and needles? 26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [a] 29. [b] 30. [a]
(a) Antiseptic solutions 31. [c] 32. [d] 33. [d] 34. [a] 35. [a]
(b) Autoclaving 36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [c] 39. [c] 40. [a]
(c) Boiling 41. [a] 42. [c] 43. [c] 44. [c] 45. [c]
(d) Steam sterilization 46. [d] 47. [d] 48. [a] 49. [c] 50. [a]
54. Which of the following item is NOT
51. [d] 52. [a] 53. [a] 54. [c] 55. [b]
sterilized by antiseptic solution?
56. [a] 57. [d] 58. [a] 59. [a]
(a) Suction Catheter
❑❑❑
(b) Enema tube
(C) Surgical scissor
(d) Nasogastric tube
55. Sharp instruments should not be sterilized
by
(a) Autoclaving (b) Boiling
(c) Hot air oven (d) Antiseptic solution

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MICROBIOLOGY
8. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is
HYPERSENSITIVITY an example of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
1. Which of the following is NOT a type of (a) Type I
hypersensitivity reaction? (b) Type II
(a) Type I (c) Type III
(b) Type II (d) Type IV
9. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism
(c) Type III
of Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
(d) Type IV
(a) Immune complex deposition
2. Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type I (b) Complement activation
hypersensitivity reactions? (c) Neutrophil chemotaxis
(a) IgA (d) Mast cell degranulation
(b) IgE 10. Glomerulonephritis is a complication
(c) IgG associated with which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
(d) IgM
(a) Type I
3. Histamine release is a hallmark feature of (b) Type II
which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
(c) Type III
(a) Type I
(d) Type IV
(b) Type II
11. Which of the following is a characteristic
(c) Type III
feature of Type IV hypersensitivity
(d) Type IV
reactions?
4. Which of the following is NOT a
(a) Delayed onset
characteristic feature of Type I (b) Activation of complement system
hypersensitivity reactions?
(c) IgE-mediated
(a) Immediate onset
(d) Mast cell degranulation
(b) IgG-mediated
12. Contact dermatitis is an example of which
(c) Mast cell degranulation type of hypersensitivity reaction?
(d) Allergic rhinitis (a) Type I
5. Anaphylaxis is a severe manifestation of
(b) Type II
which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
(c) Type III
(a) Type I (d) Type IV
(b) Type II
13. Which of the following is NOT typically
(c) Type III
involved in Type II hypersensitivity
(d) Type IV
6. Which of the following is a common reactions?
symptom of Type I hypersensitivity (a) Opsonization
reactions? (b) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated
(a) Hemolytic anemia cytotoxicity (ADCC)
(b) Vasculitis (c) Immune complex formation
(c) Urticaria (hives)
(d) Tissue damage by complement activation
(d) Organ rejection
14. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with
7. Which of the following cells play a key role
in Type II hypersensitivity reactions? which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
(a) T cells (a) Type I
(b) B cells (b) Type II
(c) Neutrophils (c) Type III
(d) Macrophages (d) Type IV

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MICROBIOLOGY
15. Which of the following is an example of a
Type I hypersensitivity disorder?
(a) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Mycology
(b) Multiple sclerosis (MS)
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic
(c) Allergic asthma
feature of fungi?
(d) Crohn's disease
(a) They are eukaryotic organisms
16. Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type II
(b) They have cell walls made of cellulose
hypersensitivity reactions directed against
(c) They can be unicellular or multicellular
red blood cells?
(d) They obtain nutrients through absorption
(a) IgA 2. What is the primary mode of reproduction in
(b) IgD fungi?
(c) IgG (a) Binary fission (b) Budding
(d) IgM (c) Fragmentation (d) Spore formation
17. Which of the following is NOT a 3. Which fungal structure is responsible for the
characteristic feature of Type III production and dispersal of spores?
hypersensitivity reactions? (a) Hyphae (b) Mycelium
(a) Granuloma formation (c) Conidiophore (d) Ascocarp
(b) Immune complex deposition 4. Which of the following fungal diseases is
(c) Neutrophil infiltration caused by a dermatophyte?
(d) Vasodilation (a) Candidiasis
18. 21. Which of the following is NOT a (b) Aspergillosis
characteristic feature of Type I (c) Tinea pedis
hypersensitivity reactions? (d) Histoplasmosis
(a) Immediate onset 5. What is the term for fungal infections that
primarily affect the skin, hair, or nails?
(b) Mast cell degranulation
(a) Superficial mycoses
(c) Activation of complement system
(b) Subcutaneous mycoses
(d) IgE-mediated
(c) Systemic mycoses
19. Which of the following is NOT an example of
(d) Opportunistic mycoses
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
6. Which fungal genus is responsible for causing
(a) Tuberculin reaction
athlete's foot?
(b) Contact dermatitis (a) Candida (b) Trichophyton
(c) Multiple sclerosis (c) Aspergillus (d) Cryptococcus
(d) Allergic rhinitis 7. Which of the following fungi is commonly
20. Which cells are primarily involved in Type IV associated with allergic respiratory symptoms
hypersensitivity reactions? and asthma?
(a) B cells (a) Candida albicans
(b) T cells (b) Trichophyton rubrum
(c) Mast cells (c) Aspergillus fumigatus
(d) Neutrophils (d) Cryptococcus neoformans
8. Which antifungal medication works by
ANSWER KEY inhibiting ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell
1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [a] membranes?
6. [c] 7. [b] 8. [b] 9. [d] 10. [c] (a) Fluconazole (b) Terbinafine
11. [a] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [c] (c) Amphotericin B (d) Caspofungin
9. What is the most common route of
16. [c] 17. [a] 18. [c] 19. [d] 20. [b]
transmission for systemic fungal infections?
❑❑❑
(a) Inhalation of spores
(b) Direct contact with infected individuals
(c) Ingestion of contaminated food
(d) Sexual transmission

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MICROBIOLOGY
10. Which fungal infection is associated with 18. What is the primary diagnostic method for
exposure to bird droppings, particularly in identifying fungal infections?
immunocompromised individuals? (a) Blood culture
(a) Candidiasis (b) Aspergillosis (b) Urine analysis
(c) Cryptococcosis (d) Histoplasmosis (c) Skin scraping examination
11. Which of the following is a fungal infection (d) Chest X-ray
commonly associated with the use of 19. Which of the following is a systemic fungal
antibiotics or corticosteroids? infection that primarily affects the lungs and
(a) Candidiasis can lead to disseminated disease in
(b) Aspergillosis immunocompromised individuals?
(c) Cryptococcosis (a) Candidiasis
(d) Histoplasmosis (b) Aspergillosis
12. Which fungal species is responsible for (c) Cryptococcosis
causing thrush, a common oral infection in (d) Coccidioidomycosis
infants? 20. Which fungal infection is commonly
(a) Candida albicans associated with the development of
(b) Trichophyton rubrum meningitis in immunocompromised
(c) Aspergillus fumigatus individuals?
(d) Cryptococcus neoformans (a) Candidiasis
13. What is the primary mode of transmission for (b) Aspergillosis
Candida albicans infections? (c) Cryptococcosis
(a) Inhalation of spores (d) Coccidioidomycosis
(b) Direct contact with infected individuals
(c) Ingestion of contaminated food ANSWER KEY
(d) Sexual transmission 1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [a]
14. Which of the following fungal infections is
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [c]
characterized by the formation of a "ring-
11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [c] 15. [c]
shaped" rash on the skin?
(a) Candidiasis 16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [c] 19. [b] 20.[c]
(b) Aspergillosis
(c) Tinea corporis
(d) Histoplasmosis
15. What is the name of the fungal infection
commonly known as "jock itch"?
(a) Candidiasis
(b) Aspergillosis
(c) Tinea cruris
(d) Histoplasmosis
16. Which of the following fungal infections is
caused by inhalation of spores found in soil
contaminated with bird or bat droppings?
(a) Candidiasis
(b) Aspergillosis
(c) Cryptococcosis
(d) Histoplasmosis
17. Which antifungal medication is commonly
used to treat invasive fungal infections but is
associated with significant nephrotoxicity?
(a) Fluconazole
(b) Terbinafine
(c) Amphotericin B
(d) Caspofungin

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MICROBIOLOGY

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MICROBIOLOGY

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