Lakshya JEE AIR (2025)

WEEKLY TEST – 02

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 04/02/2024 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: "Electric charges and field (Till Gauss law without dipole)"

Chemistry: Chemical Kinetics

Mathematics: Revising Basics

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt
5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 5. The inward and outward electric flux from a closed
1. A uniform electric field E = aiˆ + bjˆ, intersects a surface are respectively 8 × 103 and 4 × 103 units.
Then the net charge inside the closed surface is
surface of area A. What is the flux through this
area, the surface lies in the yz plane −4  103
(1) C
(1) aA 0
(2) 0 (2) 4  103 0 C
(3) bA
4  103
(4) A a +b
2 2 (3) C
0

2. Statement I : To find field due to charge (4) −4  103 0 C

distribution by Gauss’s law, Gaussian surface is
drawn symmetrical to the charge distribution. 6. A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in
Statement II : If Gaussian surface is symmetrical between two parallel plates by a string of length L.
to the charge distribution, then flux integral is Time period of pendulum is T0. When parallel
easier to evaluate. plates are charged, the time period changes to T.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct The ratio T/T0 is equal to (E is uniformly
and statement II is the correct explanation of distributed electric field between the plates)
statement I
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
and Statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
1/2 3/2
incorrect  qE   
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is g+ m   g 
(1)   (2)  
incorrect  g   g + qE 
   m 
3. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are  
1/2
 
5/2
placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric  g   g 
field intensity at centre O will be (3)   (4)  
 g + qE   g + qE 
 m   m 

7. q1. q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points

as shown in the figure and S is a spherical Gaussian
surface of radius R. Which of the following is true
according to the Gauss’s law
1 q S
(1)
4 0 r
1 q q1 R
(2)
4 0 r 2
q4
1 3q
(3)
4 0 r 2 q2 q3
(4) Zero

4. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed q1 + q2 + q3

at vertices of an equilateral triangle. The resulting (1)  s ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA = 20
lines of force should be sketched as in
q1 + q2 + q3
(2)  s ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA = 0
(1) (2)
( q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 )
(3)  s ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA = 0
(3) (4) (4) None of the above

[2]
8. A uniform positively charged non conducting ball 12. Which one of the followed pattern of electric line
with charge q hangs from a rigid support as shown. of force can’t be possible for the field produces by
Another charged ball with charge q0 is placed at P a static charge-
for a distance r from q.
Value of force F on charge q0 due to q is found, (1) (2)
F
then ratio is calculated.
q0
Then, true option is

(3) (4)
P
+ + +
+ + Centre
+ + + + line
q + + q0
r
13. Choose the correct statements:
Then, true option
(1) The density of electric lines of force at a point
(1) Electric field at P is equal to F/q0
is independent of the magnitude of electric
(2) Electric field at P is more than F/q0 intensity vector E at the point
(3) Electric field at P is less than F/q0 (2) The density of electric lines of force at a point
(4) Electric field at P cannot be estimated using is proportional to the magnitude of electric
such technique intensity vector E at that point
(3) Actually, the electric field lines form as closed
9. Figure shows some of the electric field lines loop.
corresponding to an electric field. The figure (4) Practically, the electric field lines exist
suggests that 14. The given figure electric lines of force due to two
charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the two
charges ?

(1) EA > EB > EC (2) EA = EB = EC

(3) EA = EC > EB (4) EA = EC < EB
(1) Both are negative
10. Three point charges Q1, Q2, Q3 in the order are (2) Both are positive
(3) q1 is positive but q2 is negative
placed equally spaced along a straight line. Q2 and
(4) q1 is negative but q2 is positive
Q3 are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. If
the net force on Q3 is zero. The value of Q1 is 15. A uniform infinite line charge produce a field of
(1) Q1 = 4 ( Q3 ) (2) Q = 2 ( Q3 ) 7.182 × 108NC–1 at a distance of 2 cm. The linear
(3) Q1 = 2 ( Q3 ) (4) Q1 = ( Q3 ) charge density is [K (Proportionality constant) = 9
× 109 Nm2/C2]
(1) 7.27 × 10–4 Cm–1
11. Consider an electric field E = E0iˆ where E0 is (2) 7.98 × 10–4 Cm–1
constant. The flux through the shaded area (as (3) 7.11 × 10–4 Cm–1
shown in the figure) due to this is (4) 7.04 × 10–4 Cm–1

16. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of

a uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius R
will be:
1 q 1 2q
(1) (2)
40 3 3R 2 40 3R 2
1 2q 1 2q
(1) 2E0a2 (2) 2E0 a 2 (3) (4)
40 3 3R 2 40 2 3R 2
E0 a 2
(3) E0α2 (4)
2
[3]
17. Under the influence of the coulomb field of fixed Integer Type Questions
charge +Q, a charge –q is moving around it in an 21. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance
elliptical orbit. Find out the correct statement. the earth’s gravitational attraction on an electron
(1) The angular momentum of the charge –q about will be −5.6 × 10−x N/C. Find the value of x (given
charge Q is constant mass and charge of an electron respectively are 9.1
(2) The linear momentum of the charge –q is × 10−31 kg and 1.6 × 10−19 C.) (g = 10 m/s2)
constant
(3) The angular velocity of the charge –q about
22. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge distribution
charge Q is constant
(4) The linear speed of the charge –q is constant  = kr a with a total charge of Q coulombs. K and
a are constants and r is distance from centre. If
18. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which R 1
electric field at r = is times of that at r = R,
makes an angle θ with a large uniformly charged 2 8
sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge then the value of a is
density σ of the sheet is proportional to
+
23. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners
+
P
of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the other
+
two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero,
+ 
then Q/q is − x 2 . Find the value of x.
+ S

+ 24. A thin wire ring of radius r has an electric charge

+ B q0. The increment of the force stretching the wire if
(1) sin  q
a point charge 0 is placed at the ring’s centre is
(2) tan  2
(3) cos  q02
. Find the value of x.
(4) cot  x 2  0 r 2

19. An oil drop of radius r and density ρ is held 25. A point charge q is located inside a cube but not at
stationary in a uniform vertically upwards electric its centre.
field 'E'. If ρ0 (<ρ) is the density of air and e is
quanta of charge, then the drop has–
4r 3 (  − 0 ) g
(1) excess electrons
3eE
4r 2 (  − 0 ) g
(2) excess electrons q / 0
eE If flux through face 1 is more than and flux
k
4r 3 (  − 0 ) g
(3) Deficiency of electrons q / 0
3eE through face 2 is less than .
k
4r 2 (  − 0 ) g Then, find the value of k.
(4) Deficiency of electrons
eE
26. Consider a uniform charge distribution with charge
20. A small ball of mass m and charge q is rotated in a density of 2 C/m3 throughout in space. If a
vertical plane by using a string of length l. An
Gaussian sphere has a variable radius which
electric field E also exits in the region which points
changes at the rate of 2m/s, then value of rate of
upwards. If ball is imparted a horizontal velocity v
change of flux is proportional to rk, (r = radius of
at top of the vertical circle, such that tension in the
string in the lower most position of ball is 15 times sphere). Then, find the value of k.
of the weight of the ball, then v is
27. The number of electrons that should be removed
l l
(1) (10mg + qE ) (2) ( 5mg + qE ) from a coin of mass 1.6 g, so that it may float in
m m
electric field intensity 109 NC−1 directed upwards
l l
(3) (10mg + 5qE ) (4) ( mg + qE ) is 9.8 × 10x. Find the value of x. [Neglect the mass
m m of electron] [g = 9.8 m/s2]

[4]
28. A uniform electric field of magnitude 5.8 × 102 30. A wheel having mass m has charges +q and −q
N/C passes through a circular disc of radius 10 cm. fixed at diametrically opposite ends. For the wheel
Ratio of electric flux through the disc when its face to be in equilibrium on a rough inclined plane in
is perpendicular to the field lines and when its face the presence of uniform vertical electric field E, the
is at 45° to the field lines, is P . Find P (nearest mg
magnitude of E is . Find the value of x.
integer) xq

29. Consider a triangular area with vertices at

(2m, 0, 0) (0, 1m, 0) and (0, 0, 1m) is placed in
region of a uniform electric field of 3 × 103 iˆ N/C.
Flux passing through the area is x × 103 Nm2/C.
Find 2x.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single correct Type Questions 35. In the given reaction
31. The unit of rate constant of second order reaction PCl5(g)→ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
is initially only PCl5(g) is present at 1.5 atm. After
(1) s–1 10 minutes the pressure becomes 2.5 atm. The rate
(2) mol L–1 s–1 constant of the reaction will be (in min–1)
(3) mol–1 L s–1 5
(4) mol–2 L2 s–2 (1) 0.2303 log (2) 0.2303 log 3
3
3 5
32. For a first order reaction, which one is not correct? (3) 0.2303 log (4) 0.2303 log
5 2
(1) t3/4 = 2t1/2
(2) t7/8 = 3t1/2
36. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 →
(3) t99.9% = 10t1/2
2XY, is given below.
(4) t90% = 2.5t1/2
(i) X2 reversibly converts into X and X (Fast)
(ii) X + Y2 ⎯⎯ → XY + Y (Slow)
k
33. Consider the following reaction; A + B → C
Experiment Initial Initial Rate of (iii) X + Y → XY (Fast)
[A] [B] formation Select the correct statements among a, b, c and d.
of C (mol (a) Order w.r.t. X2 is 1
L–1 s–1) (b) Order w.r.t. Y2 is 0.5
1. 0.10 M 1.0 M 2.1 × 10–3 (c) Overall order of reaction is 1.5
2. 0.20 M 1.0 M 8.4 × 10–3 (d) Order w.r.t. X is 0.5
3. 0.20 M 2.0 M 8.4 × 10–3 (1) Only c (2) Only a and c
(3) Only b and c (4) Only c and d
The order of reaction with respect to A and B
respectively, are,
37. For a reaction, consider the plot of ln k versus 1/T
(1) 2, 0 (2) 0, 2
given in the figure. If the rate constant of this
(3) 2, 1 (4) 1, 2
reaction at 400 K is 10–5 s–1, then the rate constant
at 500 K is
34. For two reactions, activation energies are
Ea and E a and rate constants are k1 and k2 at
1 2

same temperature. If k1 > k2, then

(1) Ea  Ea
1 2

(2) Ea1  Ea 2

(3) Ea1 = Ea 2
(1) 4 × 10–4 s–1 (2) 10–6 s–1
(4) Cannot be predicted (3) 2 × 10–4 s–1 (4) 10–4 s–1
[5]
38. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as 43. For the following graphs,
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): Reaction having molecularity (a) (b)
greater than three are rarely observed.
Reason (R): The probability of more than three
molecules or ions colliding simultaneously is very
less.
In the light of above statements, choose the most (c) (d)
appropriate option.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the From the options given below, the correct one
correct explanation of A. regarding order of reaction is
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect. (1) (a) and (b) First order
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct. (c) and (d) Zero order
(2) (b) and (d) Zero order
39. Consider the following plots of log of rate (a) and (c) First order
1 (3) (a) and (b) Zero order
constant versus for four different reactions. (c) and (d) First order
T
Which of the following orders is correct for the (4) (b) and (d) First order
activation energies of these reactions? (a) and (c) Zero order

44. A chemical process occurring in two steps, is plotted

as

(1) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec (2) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb

(3) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb (4) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea
The correct statement is
(1) Endothermic,
40. Time taken to reduce the concentration of reactant
in a first order reaction to 1/4th of its initial A + B —→ X (slow), X —→ AB (fast)
concentration (t1/2 = 30 min) is (log10 2 = 0.3) (2) Exothermic,
(1) 30 minutes (2) 60 minutes A + B —→ X (slow), X —→ AB (fast)
(3) 120 minutes (4) 45 minutes (3) Exothermic,
A + B —→ X (fast), X —→ AB (slow)
41. For a reaction, activation energy (Ea) = 0 and rate (4) Endothermic,
constant, k = 1.5 × 104 s–1 at 300 K. What is the A + B —→ X (fast), X —→ AB (slow)
value of rate constant at 320 K?
(1) 3.2 × 106 s–1 (2) 3.2 × 104 s–1 45. Match the half-life in Column I with the order in
(3) 1.5 × 10 s4 –1
(4) 6.4 × 108 s–1 Column II for the reaction: A → Products.
Column-I Column-II
42. Which among the following is the most A t1/2 = Constant P First-order
appropriate statement about collision theory of B t1/2  a Q Third-order
reaction rates? C t1/2  1/a R Second-order
(1) It only states that rate depends upon the
D t1/2  1/a2 S Zero-order
frequency at which reactants collide
(2) It only explains the effect of temperature on (Here, a = Initial concentration of the reactant)
rate of reaction A B C D
(3) The collisions of the molecules having (1) P S R Q
energy equal to threshold value and proper (2) S P Q R
orientation give successful reaction (3) R Q P S
(4) It only assumes that the reactants must be in (4) Q S P R
correct orientation to react.

[6]
46. A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a min. Average rate of reaction is x × 10–3 mol L–1
reaction from 20 kJ mol–1 to 10 kJ mol–1. The min–1. The value of x is_____.
temperature at which uncatalysed reaction will
have same rate as that of catalysed at 27° C is 52. For a reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), if the
(1) 327°C (2) 283°C rate of formation of NH3 was 2 × 10–2 mol/dm3/s.
(3) 445°C (4) 600°C then rate of the consumption of N2 would be x ×10–2
mol/dm³/s. The value of x is______.
47. The rate constant for decomposition of
ammonium nitrite from the following data is
53. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in
NH4NO2 ⎯→ N2 + 2H2O
90 minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be
Time 10 25  completed in approximately (in minutes) ______.
(minutes)
(Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)
Vol. of N2 (ml) 6.0 13.0 35.0 (Round off to nearest integer)
[Given that the reaction follows first order
  35   54. The reaction 2A + B2 → 2AB is an elementary
kinetics] log   = 0.081
  29   reaction. For a certain quantity of reactants if the
–1
(1) 0.0186 min (2) 1.86 min–1 volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a
–1
(3) 0.186 min (4) None of these factor of 3, then rate of the reaction increases by a
factor of _______.
48. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A catalyst provides an alternative 55. The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10–3
pathway to the reaction in which conversion of mole per litre per second. If the concentration of A
reactants into products takes place quickly. is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is
Statement II: The catalyst forms an activated 0.01 x M. The value of x is _________.
complex of lower potential energy with the
reactants by which more number of molecules are 56. Consider the decomposition of A(g) by two
able to cross the barrier per unit time. parallel reactions at 25°C.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct.
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is The maximum percentage yield of (B) obtainable
correct. at 25°C is P%. The value of P is _________ .

49. For an elementary chemical reaction, 57. At a particular concentration, the half-life of the
k1 d A reactant is 100 minutes. When the concentration
A2 2A , the expression is equal to
k −1 dt of the reactant becomes 10 times, the half-life of
(1) k1[A2] + k–1[A]2 (2) 2k1[A2] – 2k–1[A]2 the reactant becomes 60 seconds, then order of
(3) 2k1[A2] – k–1[A]2 (4) k1[A2] – k–1[A]2 reaction will be _______

50. The rate of a reaction becomes 2 times for every 58. For a reaction A → Product; the graph of half-life
10°C rise in temperature. How many times rate of versus initial concentration of reactant is given as
reaction will be increased when temperature is
increased from 30°C to 80°C?
(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 128

Integer type Question

51. In a reaction, the concentration of a reactant
changes from 0.2 mol L–1 to 0.15 mol L–1 in 10
The order or reaction is _________ .

[7]
59. nA → B is a 1st order reaction, whose 60. A sample of milk splits after 60 min at 300 K and
concentration versus time curve is given below after 40 min at 400 K when the population of
lactobacillus acidophilus in it doubles. The
activation energy (in kJ/mol) for this process is
closest to ________.
[Given, R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1, ln 1.5 = 0.4]
(Round off to nearest integer)

If the half-life for the reaction is 24 minutes, then

the value of n is _________ .

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)

Single Correct Type Questions (1− a −b )

If 60 = 3 and 60 = 5, then 12 2(1−b ) is equal to
a b
61. log y x + log x y = 2, x 2 + y = 12, then value of xy 66.
is 1
(1) (2) 2
(1) 9 (2) 12 2
(3) 15 (4) 21 1
(3) 15 (4)
15
1 1
1−log a x 1−log a y
62. If y = a and z = a , then x is equal 67. If graph of f ( x ) = x 2 + bx + c is drawn in
to adjacent diagram, where b, c  I, then number of
such quadratic equation f ( x ) = 0 is
1
1+ log a z
(1) a
1
2+ log a z
(2) a
1
1–log a z
(3) a
1
2–log a z
(4) a

63. Number of positive integral values of x satisfying

(1) 1 (2) 2
the inequality (3) 3 (4) 4
( x − 4 )2017  ( x + 8)2016 ( x + 1)
 0 is
x 2016 ( x − 2 )  ( x + 3)  ( x – 6 )( x + 9 )
3 5 2018 68. Sum of all the real solutions of the inequality
(1) 0 (2) 1 ( x2 + 2) ( x2 − 16 )
 0, is
( x4 + 2)( x2 − 9)
(3) 2 (4) 3

64. The absolute value of sum of real solutions of (1) 5 (2) 4

log 2 x + 5 x + 4 = log 2 3 + log 2 x + 1 is
2 (3) 8 (4) 0

(1) 8 (2) 6 69. Suppose abc > 0 and a + b + c < 0 and

(3) 7 (4) 5
a b c
+ + = x, then the value of equals to
65. Let M be the minimum value of a b c
y = 2 x − 1 + x − 1 . Then the value of 100M is x3 − 6 x 2 + 11x − 6 equal to
(1) 0 (2) –24
(1) 50 (2) 40
(3) 12 (4) 10
(3) 20 (4) 10
[8]
70. Solution set of the inequality 12 x
75. If  1 then
log3 ( x + 2)( x + 4) + log1/3 ( x + 2)  (1 / 2)log 3
7 4 x2 + 9
is (1) x  R
(1) (–2,–1) (2) (–2, 3) (2) x  
(3) (–1, 3) (4) (3, ) (3) x {1}
(4) x  C where C is set of complex numbers
71. If x, y are integral solutions of
2 x 2 − 3xy − 2 y 2 = 7, then value of x + y is 76. If log10
1025
=  and log10 2 = , then value of
(1) 2 (2) 4 1024
(3) 2 or 4 or 6 (4) 6 log10 4100 in terms of α and β is equal to
(1) α + 9β (2) α + 12β
72. The value of a for which (3) 12α + β (4) 9α + β
1 1 1
+ + = 1, is
log 2 a log3 a log 4 a a c e a3b + 2c 2e − 3ae2 f
77. If = = , then value of 4
(1) 9 (2) 12 b d f b + 2d 2 f − 3bf 3
(3) 18 (4) 24 bdf ace
(1) (2)
ace bdf
73. The value of x for which x3 −  x  = 3, where [·] afe abd
(3) (4)
denotes the greatest integer function. cbd efc
3 3
(1) x = 22 (2) x = 42
4+3 5
2 2 78. If = a + b 5, a, b are rational numbers,
(3) x = 23 (4) x = 53 4−3 5
then (a, b) =
74. Which of the following graph is suitable for  61 −24   −61 24 
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
 1  29 29   29 29 
y =  a +  x 2 + 2x+ 1, where a >0
 a  61 24   −61 −24 
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
 29 29   29 29 

2
(1) 1 2 
79. If x = 8 − 60, then  x +  =
2 x
(1) 5 (2) 100
(3) 2 5 (4) 2 3

(2) 80. If x y = y x and x = 2y, then the value of x + y is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 0
(3)
Integer Type Questions
81. Find the number of solutions of sin x = log x .

82. If a, b, c are distinct positive real numbers

different from 1 such that ( logb a.log c a − log a a ) +
(4) ( log a b  logc b − logb b ) + ( log a c  logb c − logc c ) = 0 ,
then abc is equal to

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83. The number of real values of the parameter k for 88. Find
which ( log16 x ) − log16 x + log16 k = 0 with real  1  1  1
2
log3 1 +  + log3 1 +  + log3 1 +  ++
coefficients will have exactly one solution is  3  4  5
 1 
log3 1 + 
84.
2
If 32 x − 2  3x
2
+ x +6
+ 32( x +6) = 0 then the sum of  242 
values of x is
1
2 x+ 1
89. 3
If ( 4) 2 = , then the value of
85. Find number of solutions of 2cos x =| sin x | . 32
When x  [0, 4] . | x |2 −4 x + 4
is
86. The number of solutions for [[ x ] − x ] = sin x;

e , e −
where [·] denotes the greatest integer function, is
90. If are the roots of equation
2024
k. Then the value of
k
is 3x 2 − ( a + b ) x + 2a = 0, a, b ,   R,   0 then
find the least integral value of b
87. If f ( x ) is a polynomial of degree four with
leading coefficient one satisfying f (1) = 1,
 f (−1) + f (5) 
f (2) = 2, f (3) = 3, then find  
 f (0) + f (4) 
(where [·] represents greatest integer function).

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